UIIC Previous Year Question Paper

UIIC – English Language Model Question Paper

DIRECTIONS (41-55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Compulsory sport in schools has often provoked bitter controversy and both parents and their children have expressed themselves forcefully on the subject. Their chief arguments have been based on the accepted fact that both mentally and physically youngsters are widely different. A child through disinclination or through inability to play any game well prefers not to join in school games, should be allowed to follow his own particular bent, preferably by doing extra work on a subject within the school curriculum, or taking part in the activities of one of the school societies. Those who are unsuited to any particular game or physical efforts because of a frail physique or bodily defect should be given more sympathetic consideration.

While those pleas from the parents deserve a kindly hearing, the good of the children as a whole must be kept in mind. If we are not careful, the logical conclusion will be reached where only those who excel in athletics will take part in school games, and nobody would accept that as sensible. This must also be borne in mind that both parents and children are apt to exaggerate conditions and the former only too often become overconcerned for the safety and well-being of their offspring. Too many times have those ?excused games? been found involved in adventures requiring far more physical effort and danger than the games from which they have been excused. Experts have declared that in games and athletics with the possible exception of the ?tug-of-war?, the body will stop functioning long before any physical harm can be caused.
QUESTIONS:

(41)Compulsory sport in schools has been a subject of controversy by?-
1) The parents 2) The children 3) The parents, children and teachers 4) (a) and (b) above 5) (a), (b) and (c) above

(42)According to certain people including parents and children, a child not inclined to participate in games?-
1) Must be exempted from games
2) Should not be considered for exemption from games
3) Should be allowed to follow any extra-curricular activity in lieu of games
4) Should be fined and then exempted from games
5) Should be asked to take an indoor games of his choice.

(43)The main point of controversy is?
1) Mental and physical differences among the youngsters
2) Financial inability of the parents
3) Disturbances in the education
4) Feeling of indiscipline
5) Lack of respect for elders

(44)A sympathetic consideration is needed for those?
1) Who have no inclination towards games
2) Who are unable to participate in games because of poor health and some bodily defect
3) Who cannot spare any time for games due to their being particular about studies.
4) Who are not allowed by their parents to take part in games
5) Who are found less fit for games

(45)Conditions put forth by children and parents for avoiding games are?
1) Genuine 2) False 3) Exaggerated 4)Imaginary 5) Worth consideration

(46)Only those who are proficient in games should take part in them . This argument?
1) Is not acceptable almost to anyone
2) Is acceptable almost to all
3) Does not hold good in the eyes of those who are very particular about studies of their children
4) Is not acceptable to sports loving persons
5) Is not acceptable by anybody as sensible

(47)Parents exaggerate the condition because?
1) They are particular about the studies of their children
2) They become over-concerned for the well being of their children
3) They are much particular for the well being of their children
4) For (b) and (c) above
5) None of the above

(48)The phrase ?excused games? means?
1) Games played by those who are exempted from compulsory school games
2) Game from which players generally avail exemption
3) Games for which players often seek excuses
4) Games for which no excuse is permissible
5) Games which are open to children

(49)A suitable heading to the above may be?
1) Games in schools
2) Children and games
3) Compulsory sports in schools
4) Importance of games in schools
5) Controversy over school games

DIRECTIONS (Q Nos. 50-52)- Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.

(50)Provoked:
1. Invoked 2. Evoked 3. Incited 4. Instigated 5. Excited.

(51)Frail:
1. Feeble 2. Tough 3. Turgid 4.Cold 5. Contumacious.

(53)Exaggerate:
1. Vociferate 2. Vibrate 3. Adumbrate 4. Expatiate 5. Stretch beyond the truth.

DIRECTIONS (Q Nos. 53-55)- Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.

(54)Accepted:
1. Rational 2. Granted 3. Rejected 4. Prevaricated 5. Vindicated.

(55)Allowed:
1. Permitted 2. Insinuated. 3. Ignored 4. Rejected 5. Hindered.

(56)Bitter:
1. Turgid 2. Melodious 3. Sweet 4. Acrimonious 5. Defamed.

DIRECTIONS (Q Nos. 56-60)- Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ( 5 ) i.e., ?No Error? ( Ignore the errors of punctuation if any)

(56)The manager(1)/ whom I know(2)/ has equipped me with(3)/ all the requisite to obtain a loan(4)/No Error(5).

(57)We must sharpen(1) / our tools as and when needed (2)/ in order to keep our self(3)/ prepared for the competition.(4)/ No Error(5).

(58)How many(1)/applications(2)/ you have received(3) /so far?(4) / No Error(5).

(59)If he has(1) /studied harder(2)/ he would have had(3) /a better job today(4) /No Error(5).

(60)She said that(1)/ her brother who lived in(2)/ the United States(3)/ is getting married(4)/No Error(5).

DIRECTIONS (Q Nos. 61-65)- Which of the phrases / phrasal verb (1) ( 2) ( 3) and ( 4) given below should replace the phrase / phrasal verb given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentences grammatically meaningful and correct if the sentences are correct as there are and NO correction is required, mark 5 as the answer.

(61)My grandparents prefer train than bus to travel.
1. Prefer from 2. Prefer to 3. Prefer for 4.Prefering to

(62)The children are playing the games in the ground from the morning.
1. are, since 2. have been, for 3.has been, since 4.have been, since

(63)The doctor had visited the patient last evening and informed him that, he must undergo the Surgery at the earliest possible.
1.Call on 2.Calling on 3. Called on 4. Called off.

(64)Sam burnt his fingers trying a business in which he had little experience.
1. Lost something 2. Gained profits 3. Fingers injured in fire accident. 4. Got a breakeven point.

(65)My brother hardly worked during his final examination.
1.Worked hard 2.Working hard 3.not at all Worked 4.some what worked

DIRECTIONS (Q Nos. 66-70)- Re arrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)& (F) and the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer the questions given below hem
A) They look charming especially at the time of sunrise and sun set.
B) Water adds uncommonly to the beauty of the country side.
C) Particularly, these tanks are large, though shallow and silt ? laden.
D) But watery landscape looks dark on a cloudy day or after sun -set.
E) The streams, the ponds and the tanks in south India present the beauty of water.

(66)Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence?
1) A 2) E 3) C 4) D 5 ) B

(67)Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence ?
1) B 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) E

(68)Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence ?
1) C 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) E

(69)Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence ?
1) B 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) D

(70)Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence ?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

Directions (71-80): In the?following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Above all, be of single aim, have a ???. (71)???And useful purpose, and devote yourself??(72)?..to it. Let nothing draw you aside; remember that ?The double minded man is???(73)???in all his ways?. Be eager to learn but slow?.(74)?.have a thorough understanding of your work and let it be your own; and as you proceed, ever following the
inward guide, the???..(75)??.voice, you will pass on from victory to victory, and will rise step by step to higher resting places, and your ever broadening outlook will gradually??.(76)??to you the essential beauty and purpose of life. Self -purified, health will be your; faith- protected, successes will be your; self – governed , power will be your and all that you do will?..(77)??.for seasing to be a disjointed unit, self-enslaved, you will be in harmony with the Great Law, working no longer against, but with, the universal life, the Eternal God. And what health you gain it will remain with you; what success you achieve will be ??(78)??..all human computation, and will never pass away; and what influence and power you??.(79)??.will continue to increase through the ages, for it will
be a part of that?(80)??principle which supports the universe.

(71)1) Legal 2) Legitimate 3) Genuine 4) True 5) Beneficial

(72)1) Decidedly 2) Practically 3) Profoundly 4) Unreservedly 5) Seriously

(73)1) Volatile 2) Floating 3) Unstable 4) Instable 5) Vacillating

(74)1) To beg 2) To forget 3) To ignore 4) To neglect 5) To be careless

(75)1) Dauntless 2) Infallible 3) Unshakable 4) Incorruptible 5) Unfailing

(76)1) Demonstrate 2) Disclose 3) Resurrect 4) Revamp 5) Reveal.

(77)1) Prosper 2) Flourish 3) Burgeon 4) Promote 5) Stabilize eveal.

(78)1) Bewilderning to 2) Outside 3) Beyond 4) Limited by 5) Unrestricted by.

(79)1) Command 2) Exercise 3) Practise 4) Carry 5) Wield

(80)1) Unchangeable 2) Inexorable 3) Irrefutable 4) Inscrutable 5) Irredeemable
UIIC Aptitude-General
UIIC Sample Paper

UIIC – General Awareness Previous Year Question Paper

1. Debt market
(1) covers issue as well as trading of debt instruments (e.g., bonds, debentures etc)
(2) is a place where only treasury bills are traded
(3) deals in only government debts
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

2. The term ?moral suasion? refers to
(1) The moral duty of a borrower to deal with only one bank
(2) The banker?s duty of secrecy as regards the affairs and accounts of his customers
(3) The advice given by Reserve Bank to banks/financial institutions in the matter of their lending and other operations with the objective that they might implement or follow it
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

3. The term ?BSR? refers to
(1) Bank?s Selling Rate
(2) Basic Statistical Returns
(3) Annual returns submitted by banks to RBI in respect of priority sector advances
(4) Quarterly statement of advances to agriculture
(5) None of the above

4.The drawee of a cheque is always a
(1) company (2) firm (3) customer (4) banker (5) None of these

5. Who among the following has not been nominated as member of the Rajya Sabha ?
(1) Sachin Tendulkar (2) Rekha (3) Anu Aga(4) Kumarmangalam Birla (5) None of these

6. “What is the total Agriculture Lending Target stipulated for the Domestic Scheduled Commercial Banks for the FY 2013-14?
1) 18% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit
2) 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit
3) 25% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit
4) 28%of Adjusted Net Bank Credit
5) 12% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit

7. When a Company opts to use ‘Green Shoe’ option with regard to it’s IPO (Initial Public Of fer), it means that?
1) The Company decides to allot Share only in Electronic Format as a ‘Go Green’ initiative
2) The Company decides to allot less Shares than number of Shares proposed in the Public Issue
3) The Company decides to cancel the IPO anticipating poor response to the issue
4) The Company decides to allot more Shares than number of Shares proposed in the Public Issue
5) None of the above

8. Recent news about tapering of “Quantitative Easing(QE)” by USA Federal Reserve is causing worries for India. What is Quantitative Easing?
1) Ban on Securities trading by a Central Bank to manage Money supply in theEconomy
2) Securities selling by a Central Bank to reduce Money supply in the Economy
3) Securities buying by a Central Bank to increase Money supply in the Economy
4) Central Bank increasing Interest Rates to reduce Money supply in the Economy
5) None of the above

9. CIBIL (Credit Information Bureau of India Ltd) maintains Credit Information pertaining to?
1) An individual’s payments pertaining to loans and Credit cards
2) A Corp orate’s payments pertaining to loans and Over drafts
3) An individual’s payments pertaining to loans and Debit cards
4) An individual’s applications to Financial Institutions for loans and Credit Cards
5) None of the above

10. ‘Hindalco Industries Ltd’ which is recently in news is a subsidiary of which Industrial group?
1) Aditya Birla Group 2) Reliance Group 3) Tata’s 4) Godrej Industries 5) None of the above

11. Immediate Payment Service (IMPS)?
i. Is a service to transfer money immediately between two Accounts within the same
bank or across banks.
ii. Requires both sender <& receiver of money to be registered for mobile banking
service with their banks
iii. Requires both sender & receiver of money to have MMlD(Mobile Money Identifier)
issued by their banks
1) Only statement ‘i’ of the above is correct
2) Only statement ‘iii’ of the above is correct
3) Statements ‘i’ & ‘ii’ of the above are correct
4) Statements ‘i’, ‘ii’ & ‘iii’ of the above are correct
5) None of the statements is correct

12. Who is the pr esent CMD of Bank of Baroda?
1) S L.Bhansal 2) S.S Mundra 3) M.Narendra 4) Ajay Kumar 5) None

13. BRICS is the acronym for an association of 5 major emer ging national economies.The 5 Countries are?
1) Britain, Russia, India, China & Sweden
2) Brazil, Russia, India, Canada & Sweden
3) Brazil, Russia, India, China & South Africa
4) Bangladesh, Russia, India, China & Sweden
5) Britain, Russia, India, Canada & Sweden

14.Which of the following pairs is NOT matched?
1) General Insurance – United India Insurance Co.
2) Banking – State Bank of India
3) Credit Ratings – CRISIL
4) Life Insurance – LIC of India
5) Telecom – Larsen & Toubro

16. Br. M.S. Swaminathan is the author of?
1) The End of Poverty 2) Small is Beautiful 3) Development as Freedom 4) Towards Hunger Free India
5) Argumentative Indian

17. Name the Curr ency of Scotland?
1) US Dollar 2) Scottish Dollar 3) British Pound 4) Scottish Peso 5) None of the above

18.Ravuri Bharadwaja the 2012 Jnanpith Award winner, passed away on October 18, 2013. Which of the following books is not written by him?
1) Pakudurallu 2) Kadambari 3) Jeevana Samaram 4) Ragini 5) Viswambhara

19. The wholly-owned Government of India entity IIFCL is involved in providing long
1) Infrastructure Indian Finance Company Limited
2) International Indian Finance Company Limited
3) Integrated Infrastructure Finance Company Limited
4) India infrastructure Finance Company Limited
5) other than those given as options

20. Telecom operator Aircel has entered into a strategic partnership with a smart phone maker wherein handsets would come with bundled offer of low call rates, free internet usage and contents like video, songs, game for the first three months from Aircel. The strategic partner is_
1) Apple 2) Karbonn 3) Samsung 4)Nokia 5) Micromax

21. The prestigious annual award ?Saraswati Samman? for outstanding literary works in any Indian language for the year 2013 was conferred upon_
1) ismat Chughtai for Urdu literature
2) Ramakant Rath for his poetry Shree Radha
3) Manoj Das for his novel Amruta Phala (The Nectar Fruit)
4) sunil Gangopadhyay for his novel Pratham Alo
5) Sugathakumari for her poetry collection Manalezhuthu

22. A committee set-up by Government of India to suggest ways to improve India?s position in the World Bank?s ?Doing Business Report? was headed by_
1) Other than those given as options 2) K V. Kamath 3) M. Damodaran 4) J.H. Malegam 5)Arvind Mayaram

23. In the financial year 2013-14. the Finance Minister has announced interest subvention of 1% on housing loans up to
1) Rs.20 lakh 2) Rs. 15 lakh 3) Rs. 10 lakh 4) Rs. 25 lakh 5) Other than those given as options

24. What is the maximum number of partners required for the purpose of carrying business other than the Banking ?
1) 20 2) 7 3)25 4) 10 5) 12

25. Which of the following Banks has its Head Office at Bangalore ?
1) Corporation Bank 2) Vyaya BanK 3) Indian Overseas Bank 4) Indian Bank 5) Syndicate Bank

26. What is the maximum investment limit in Senior Citizens Savings Scheme, 2004 ?
1) Rs. 10 lakh 2) Rs. 5 lakh 3) Other than those given as options 4) RS. 20 lakh 5) Rs. 15 lakh

27. The author of the fantasy adventure novel ?Life of Pi? is
1) Yann Martel 2) William Goldings 3) Rudyard Kipling 4) Tom Alter 5) steevWaugh

28. Which film has bagged the National Film Award for best feature film?
(1) Anumati (2) Paan Singh Tomar (3) Dhag (4) Spirit (5) None

29. ?Water Conservation Day? observed on
(1) 20th November (2) 19th November (3) 24th November (4) 31st October (5) None

30. Who is the author of the book ?A Soldier?s General??
(1) General VK Singh (2) General JJ Singh (3) Admiral Nirmal Kumar Verma (4) Air Chief Marshal AK Browne (5) None

31. Which of the following countries has its currency as ?Euro??
(1) Estonia (2) Belgium (3) Germany (4) Greece (5) All of these

32. Which of the following countries is not a member of ?SAARC?
(1) Angola (2) Pakistan (3) Bangladesh (4) Bhutan (5) Nepal

33. Which of the following is an example of financial assets?
(1) National Saving Certificates (2) Infrastructure Bonds (3) Indira Vikas (4) Krishi Vikas (5) All of the above

34. Mutual Funds fall within supervisory purview of
(1) SBI (2) RBI (3) SEBI (4) IRDA (5) None

35. Indian Financial System comprises of
(1) Scheduled Commercial Banks (2) Non-Banking Financial Institutions (3) Urban Cooperative Banks (4) All of the above (5) None

36. Basel norms are important international regulatory stipulations. It is meant for which sector?
(1) Insurance (2) Banking (3) Micro finance(4) Pension funds (5) None

37. Which of the following institutions is not directly associated with the financial sector in India?
(1) Bombay Stock Exchange (2) B1FR (3) SEBI (4) Planning Commission (5) None

38. The gilt-edged market refers to the market for
(i) Government securities
(ii) Semi-government securities
(iii) Corporate securities Select the correct answer
(l)Only(i) (2) (i) and (ii) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) (5) Only (iii)

39. In the term repo, the term of the loan is greater than
(1) 30 days (2) 20 clays (3) 60 days (4) 90 days (5) None

40. NBFCs are an important part of the Indian financial system. What is the full form of this term?
(1) New Banking Financial Companies
(2) Non-Banking Financial Companies
(3) Neo Banking Financial Confederation
(4) Non-Banking Fiscal Companies
(5) All of the above

UIIC aptitude and numerical
UIIC model questions for practice, UIIC ADO practice questions, UIIC Quantitative aptitude, reasoning, general knowledge and computer knowledge questions with answers UIIC Ranking Test Objective Questions with answers and detailed explanations

1. If Atul finds that he is twelfth from the right in a queue of boys and fourth from the left, how many boys should be added to the queue so that there are 28 boys in the queue ?

(a) 12

(b) 13 (ANS)

(c) 14

(d) 20

Hints & Solutions : From formula, total number of boys in the queue = (Atul’s rank from left) + (Atul’s rank from right) – 1

= 12 + 4 – 1 = 15

? Total number of boys that should be added

= 28 – 15 = 13.

2. Manish ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty ninth from the bottom among those who passed an examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five failed in it. How many boys were there in the class ?

(a) 40

(b) 44

(c) 50

(d) 55 (ANS)

Hints & Solutions : From formula, total number of passed students = (Manisha’s rank from the top) + (Manisha’s rank from the bottom) – 1

= 16 + 29 – 1 = 4

? Total number of boys in the class

= Passed students + failed students + absent students

= 44 + 6 + 5 = 55

3. Aruna ranks twelfth in a class of forty six. What will be her rank from the last ?

(a) 33

(b) 34

(c) 35 (ANS)

(d) 37

Hints & Solutions : From formula,

Aruna’s rank from the last = (total number of girls in the class) – (Aruna’s rank from the top) + 1

= 46 – 12 + 1 = 47 – 12 = 35th

4. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is seventeenth from the last, what is Ravi’s rank from the start ?

(a) 14th

(b) 15th

(c) 16th (ANS)

(d) 17th

Hints & Solutions : Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit. That means, 6 students are there between Ravi and Sumit. Sumit’s rank is 17th from the last.

Total number of students = 39

Total number of boys before Ravi = 39 – (16 + 1 + 6 + 1)

= 39 – 24 = 15

? Ravi’s rank is 16th from the start.

5. In a class of 60 where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls a head of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank ?

(a) 3

(b) 7

(c) 12 (ANS)

(d) 23

6. In a row of ten boys, when Rohit was shifted by two places towards the left, he became seventh from the left end. What was his earlier position from the right end of the row ?

(a) First

(b) Second (ANS)

(c) Fourth

(d) Sixth

Hints & Solutions : By shifting towards left by two places, Rohit’s rank becomes seventh from the left. That means his earlier rank was ninth from the left. ie, 8 boys were before him.

? His earlier position from the right end = (total number of boys) – (his rank from the left end) + 1

= 10 – 9 + 1 = 2 = 2nd

7. In a queue, Vijay is fourteenth from the front and Jack is seventeenth from the end, while Mary is in between Vijay and Jack. If Vijay is ahead of Jack and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Vijay and Mary ?

(a) 8 (ANS)

(b) 7

(c) 6

(d) 5

8. In a row of girls, Shilpa is eight from the left and Reena is seventeenth from the right. If they interchange their positions, Shilpa becomes fourteenth from the left. How many girls are there in the row ?

(a) 25

(b) 30 (ANS)

(c) 27

(d) 28

Hints & Solutions :

? Total number of girls in the row

= 14 + 8 + 8 = 30

9. In a queue of children, Kashish is fifth from the left and Mona is sixth from the right. When they interchange their places between them, Kashish becomes thirteenth from the left. What will be Mona’s position from the right ?

(a) 4th

(b) 8th

(c) 14th (ANS)

(d) 15th

10. If Nikhil is eleventh from the left in a row of boys, Rehaman is fourteenth from the right, then how many boys are there in the row ?

(a) 25

(b) 23

(c) 36

(d) Data inadequate

Hints & Solutions :

We need more information to find out how many boys are there in the row.

UIIC aptitude and reasoning
UIIC Exam Paper

UIIC model questions for practice, UIIC ADO practice questions,UIIC Quantitative aptitude,reasoning,general knowledge and computer knowledge questions with answers UIIC Ranking Test Objective Questions with answers and detailed explnations

1. Ahmed is taller than Salim. Salim is not as tall as Ahmed but taller than Akbar. Sohan too is not as tall as Salim but taller than Akbar. Who is the tallest ?

(a) Salim

(b) Akbar

(c) Ahmed (ANS)

(d) Sohan

Hints & Solutions : At first we arrange the given information’s and arrange boys in the descending order of height :

(i) Ahmed is taller than Salim.

i.e., Ahmed > Salim ? (i)

(ii) Salim is not as tall as Ahmed but taller than Akbar.

i.e., Ahmed > Salim > Akbar ? (ii)

(iii) Sohan too is not as tall as Salim but taller than Akbar.

i.e., Ahmed > Salim > Sohan > Akbar

Hence, Ahmed is the tallest.

2. The cricket ball is heavier than the hockey ball and volleyball is lighter than the football. Hockey ball is heavier than the football and tennis ball. Which of the following is the heaviest ball ?

(a) Hockey ball

(b) Cricket ball (ANS)

(c) Volleyball

(d) Football

3. Shrikant is shorter than Nilima. Pratima is taller than Shrikant. Subhash is taller than Nilima but shorter than Heramb. Nilima is taller than Pratima. Who will be in the middle if they stand in a row according to descending order of height ?

(a) Pratima

(b) Subhash

(c) Shrikant

(d) Nilima (ANS)

Hints & Solutions : At first we arrange the row in descending order,

(i) Shrikant is shorter than Nilima.

Nilima > Shrikant ? (i)

(ii) Pratima is taller than Shrikant.

Pratima > Shrikant ? (ii)

(iii) Subhash is taller than Nilima but shorter than Heramb.

i.e., Heramb > Subhash > Nilima ? (iii)

(iv) Nilima is taller than pratima

i.e., Nilima > Pratima ? (iv)

From (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), the order is

Heramb > Subhash > Nilima > Pratima > Shrikant.

Hence, Nilima is in the middle.

4. If Anita is taller than Surjit but shorter than Kusum and Surjit is just as tall as Kalpana but taller than Vanita, then Kalpana is

(a) just as tall as Anita

(b) taller than Kusum

(c) shorter than Anita (ANS)

(d) shorter than Surjit

Hints & Solutions : At first we arrange the given information’s in the descending order.

(i) Anita is taller than Surjit but shorter than Kusum.

i.e., Kusum > Anita > Surjit ? (i)

(ii) Surjit is just as tall as kalpana but taller than Vanita.

i.e., Surjit = Kalpana > Vanita ? (ii)

From (i) and (ii) the order will be, Kusum > Anita > Surjit = Kalpana > Vanita

Hence, Kalpana is shorter than Anita.

5. Among five friends, Mohan is older than Raju but not as old as Lalit. Lalit is older than Neelesh and Kabir. Neelesh is younger than Raju but not the youngest. Who is the fourth in the descending order of age ?

(a) Mohan

(b) Raju

(c) Kabir

(d) Neelesh (ANS)

6. A, B, C, D, and E are five rivers. A is shorter than B but longer than E. C is the longest and D is little shorter than B and little longer than A. Which is the shortest river ?

(a) B

(b) C

(c) D

(d) E (ANS)

Hints & Solutions : At first we arrange the given information’s in the descending order of length.

(i) A is shorter than B but longer than E.

i.e., B > A > E ? (i)

(ii) C is the longest and D is little shorter than B and little longer than A

i.e., C > B > D > A ? (ii)

From (i) and (ii) we can write the order :

C > B > D > A > E

Hence, E is the shortest river.

7. Shyam is taller than Pradeep and Pradeep is equal to Anurag. But Anand is smaller than Suresh who is equal to Anurag. If Pradeep is taller than praveen, who is the tallest of all ?

(a) Pradeep

(b) Praveen

(c) Suresh

(d) Shyam (ANS)

Hints & Solutions : At first we arrange the given information’s in the descending order of height.

(i) Shyam is taller than Pradeep who is equal to Anurag.

i.e., Shyam > Pradeep = Anurag ? (i)

(ii) Anand is smaller than Suresh, who is equal to Anurag

i.e., Suresh = Anurag > Anand ? (ii)

(iii) Pradeep is taller than praveen

i.e., Pradeep > Praveen ? (iii)

From (i), (ii) and (iii).

Hence, Shyam is the tallest of all.

8. Sumit ranked ninth from top and thirty eighth from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class ?

(a) 47

(b) 48

(c) 45

(d) 46 (ANS)

Hints & Solutions : From formula,

Total number of students in the class = (Sumit’s rank from top) + (Sumit’s rank from the bottom) – 1

= 9 + 38 – 1 = 47 – 1 = 46

9. In a row of trees one tree is fifth from either end of the row. How many trees are there in the row ?

(a) 8

(b) 9 (ANS)

(c) 10

(d) 11

Hints & Solutions : One tree is fifth from either end of the row. That means, four trees are before and four trees are after that tree.

? Total number of trees = 4 + 1 + 4 = 9

10. In a queue, Amrita is 10th from the front while Mukul is 25th from rear and Mamta is just in the middle of the two. If there are 50 persons in the queue, what position does Mamta occupy from the front ?

(a) 20th

(b) 19th

(c) 18th (ANS)

(d) 17th
UIIC Aptitude-Reasoning
UIIC Aptitude Paper

UIIC – Reasoning Model Question Paper

1. How many such digits are there in the number 5314679 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number ?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

2. If ?+? means ?-?, ?-? means ?x?, ?x? means ? ? ? and ? ? ? means ?+? , then what is the value of 9 ? 7 + 85 x 17 ?15 ?
(1) 73 (2) 83 (3) 79 (4) 68 (5) None

3. Each vowel in the word MOUNTAIN is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth letter to the left of seventh from the left end ?
(1) T (2) V (3) N (4) P (5) None

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) 56 (2) 35 (3) 49 (4) 42 (5) 51

5. ?MP? is related to ?HK? in the same way as ?HK? is related to
(1) CE (2) CF (3) CG (4) DG (5) None

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) Jasmine (2) Rose (3) Dahlia (4) Marigold (5) Lotus

7. ?Jackal? is related to ?Carnivorous? in the same way as ?Goat? is related to
(1) Omnivorous (2) Carnivorous (3) Herbivorous (4) Multivorous (5) None

8. If ?blue? is called ?red?, ?red? is called ?green?, ?green? is called ?black? and ?black? is called ?white?, what is the colour of grass ?
(1) Red (2) Black (3) White (4) Green (5) None

9. In a certain code, RAID is written as %#*$, RIPE is written as %*@©. How is DEAR written in that code ?
(1) @©#% (2) $@#% (3) @$#% (4) $©#% (5) None

10. ?Radish? is related to ?Root? in the same way as ?Brinjal? is related to
(1) Fruit (2) Stem (3) Flower (4) Root (5) None

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give the answers
(1) if the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) if the data even in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

11. How many children are there in the group ?
I. Sangita has scored more marks than 12 children in the group.
II. Reena has scored less than Sangita.

12. What is the value of 36$4*8 ?
I. P$Q means divide P by Q.
II. A*B means multiply A by B.

13. What is Samir?s rank from the top in the class of 30 students ?
I. Sudhir, who is four ranks above Samir, is fifteenth in rank from the bottom.
II. Samir is three ranks below Neeta, who is eighteenth from the bottom.

14. Who among L, N, F, G and Q was the first to reach the college ?
I. F reached before L and G but not before Q, who was not the first to reach.
II. N reached before F and G and L reached after F.

15. In the code language, what is the code for ?fat? ?
I. In the code language, ?she is fat? is written as ?he ra ca?.
II. In the same code language, ?fat boy? is written as ?ra ka?.

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends. Each of them likes a particular fruit, viz. Apple, Banana, Pear, Guava, Orange, Mango and Watermelon and each of them has a favourite city, viz. Mumbai, Pune, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Hyderabad and Cochin. The choices of fruit and favourite city of the seven friends are not necessarily in the same order. Q likes Mango and his favourite city is Chennai. The one whose favourite city is Pune likes Watermelon. T?s favourite city is Kolkata. R likes Guava and his favourite city is not Mumbai. W?s favourite city is Cochin and he does not like either Banana or Pear. The favourite city of the one who likes Orange is Hyderabad. T does not like Pear. P?s favourite city is neither Pune nor Hyderabad. S does not like Watermelon.

16. Who likes Apple ?
(1) W (2) T (3) V (4) P (5) Data inadequate

17. Which fruit does P like ?
(1) Apple (2) Orange (3) Pear (4) Watermelon (5) None

18. Which is R?s favourite city ?
(1) Mumbai (2) Pune (3) Hyderabad (4) Delhi (5) None

19. Which of the following combinations of Person-Fruit-City is incorrect?
(1) R-Guava-Kolkata (2) V-Watermelon-Hyderabad(3) T-Banana-Cochin (4) S-Guava-Delhi (5) All are incorrect

20. Which is V?s favourite city?
(1) Hyderabad (2) Pune (3) Mumbai (4) Data inadequate (5) None

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, % and & are used with different meanings as follows
?P @ Q? means ?P is neither smaller nor equal to Q?.
?P # Q? means ?P is not greater than Q?.
?P $ Q? means ?P is not smaller than Q?.
?P % Q? means ?P is neither greater nor smaller than Q?.
?P & Q? means ?P is neither greater nor equal to Q?.

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.Give answer
(1) if only conclusion I is true
(2) if only conclusion II is true
(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(5) if both conclusions I and II are true

21. Statements : G#H, H$K, K@M
Conclusions : I. M # G II. G & M

22. Statements : F $ D, H # M, M % D
Conclusions : I. F $ H II. F @ H

23. Statements : R&M, M#L, L$Q
Conclusions : I. M % Q II. M @ Q

24. Statements : F#R, Q$R, Q&M
Conclusions : I. F # Q II. R & M

25. Statements : D&T, R#T, R$M
Conclusions : I. M & T II. M % T

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
An organization wants to recruit System Analysts. The following conditions apply The candidate must
(i) be an engineering graduate in Computer/IT with at least 60% marks.
(ii) have working experience in the field of Computer at least for 2 years after acquiring the requisite qualification.
(iii) have completed minimum 25 years and maximum 30 years of age as on 1.12.2012.
(iv) be willing to sign a bond for Rs.50000.
(v) have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test. However, if a candidate fulfills all other conditions except
(A) At (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks, the case is to be referred to the General Manager (GM)-IT.
(B) At (iv) above, but has an experience of at least 5 years as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP.
In each question below, detailed information of candidate is given. You have to carefully study the information provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2012. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows. Mark answer
(1) if the case is to be referred to VP
(2) if the case is to be referred to GM
(3) if the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision
(4) if the candidate is to be selected
(5) if the candidate is not to be selected

26. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a Software Engineer for last 3 years after completing Engineering degree and has completed 27 years of age. She is willing to sign the bond of Rs.50000.

27. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer graduate and thereafter is working as a Software Manager for past 6 years. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December 1983. He is not willing to sign the bond for Rs. 50000.

28. Ram Kumar is an Engineering graduate in Computers with 78% marks passed out in 2006 at the age of 23 years. Since then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesn?t want to sign the bond for Rs. 50000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.

29. Nishant is an Electronics Engineer passed out in June 2009 at the age of 22 years. Since then he is working as a Programmer in a software company. He has passed the selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the bond.

30. Kalyani is an Engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 years of age. She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks. She is willing to sign the bond.

Directions (Q. 31-35): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

31. Statements : All chillies are garlics. Some garlics are onions.
All onions are potatoes.
No potato is ginger.
Conclusions : I. No onion is ginger.
II. Some garlics are potatoes.
III. Some chillies are potatoes.
1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only I & II follow4) Only I & III follow 5) All follow

32. Statements : Some keys are locks.
Some locks are numbers.
All numbers are letters.
All letters are words.
Conclusions : I. Some locks are letters. II. Some words are numbers.
III. All numbers are words.
1) Only I & II follow 2)Only II & III follow 3)Only I & III follow 4)Only I & either II or III follow 5) All follow

33. Statements : Some windows are doors.
All doors are walls.
No wall is roof.
All roofs are shelters.
Conclusions : I. Some windows are walls. II. No wall is shelter.
III. No door is shelter.
1) None follows 2) Only II & III follow 3) Only I & III follow 4) Only I follows 5) None

34. Statements : All bottles are jars.
Some jars are pots.
All pots are taps. No tap is tank.
Conclusions : I. No pot is tank. II. Some jars are tanks.
III. Some bottles are pots.
1) Only I & III follow 2) Only I & II follow 3)Only II & III follow 4) All follow 5) None

35. Statements : Some fish are crocodiles.
Some crocodiles are snakes.
No snake is tortoise.
All tortoises are frogs.
Conclusions : I. No snake is frog. II. Some snakes are fish.
III. Some fish are frogs.
1) None follows 2) Only I & II follow 3) Only II & III follow 4)Only I & III follow 5)None

Directions (Q.36-40): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions: Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circle facing the center. J is not the neighbour of N, L is third to the right of K, Q is second to the left of N who is next to the right of L, O is not the neighbour of N or K and is to the immediate left of P.

36. Which of the following is the correct position of L ?
1) To the immediate right of N 2) To the immediate right of Q3) To the immediate left of J 4) To the immediate left of Q 5) None

37. Which of the following pair of persons represent O?s neighbours ?
1) L & N 2) P & K 3) M&P 4) N&P 5) None

38. Which of the following groups has the first person sitting between the other two persons ?
1) PKJ 2) JQL 3) QNL 4) LMN 5) None

39. Who is to the immediate right of K ?
1) J 2) P 3) Q 4) Cannot be determined 5) None

40. Who is to the immediate left of O ?
1) P 2) L 3) Q 4) J 5) None
UIIC Computer-Knowledge-GK

UIIC Placement Paper

United India Insurance Company Limited-Computer Knowledge Model Question Paper

1. Which of the following is an example of an optical disk?
1) Digital versatile disks
2) Magnetic disks
3) Memory disks
4) Data bus disks
5) None

2. The main job of a CPU is to_______.
1) carry out program instructions
2) store data in formation for future use
3) process data /information
4) Both (1) and (3)
5) None

3. _______are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.
1) Phishing trips
2)Computer viruses
3) Special function cards
4) Scanners
5) Keyboards

4. An example of a processing device would be_______.
1) a magnetic ink reader
2) a tablet PC
3) special function cards
4) scanners
5) keyboards

5. Which of the following Is not a type of computer software which can be bought?
1) Off-the-shelf
2) Tailor-made
3) Custom-developed
4) Off-the-shelf with alterations
5) All of these can be purchased

6. You can use_______to copy selected text and_______to paste it in a document.
1) CTRL + C, CTRL + V
2) CTRL + C, CTRL + P
3) CTRL + S, CTRL + S
4) SHIFT + C, ALT + P
5)CTRL + D, CTRL+A

7. Video processors consist of_______and_______, which store and process images.
1) CPU, VGA
2) CPU, memory
3) VGA, memory
4)VGL DVI
5)VGA,VGI

8. The main memory of a computer can also be called
1) Primary storage
2) Internal memory
3) Primary mernory
4) All of these
5) None

9. Computer software can be defined as_______
1) the computer and its associated equipment.
2) the instructions that tell the computer what to do.
3) computer components that act to accomplish a goal
4) an interface between the computer and the network
5) the interaction between the computer and its database.

10. When speaking of computer input and output, input refers to
1) any data processing that occurs from new data input into computer
2) retrieval of data or information that has been entered into the computer.
3) data or information that has been entered into the computer
4) the transmission of data that has been entered into the computet
5)Both(3)and (4)

11. A_______Is a set of rules.
1) resource locator
2) domain
3) hypertext
4) URL
5) protocol

12. The connection between your computer at home and your local ISP is called
1) the last mile
2) the home stretch
3) the home page
4) the backbone
5) the vital mile

13. All of the logic and mathematical calculations done by the computer happen in/on the_______.
1) system board
2) central control unit
3) central processing unit
4) mother board
5) memory

14.There arc several primary categories of procedures. Which of the following is not a primary category of procedures?
1) Testing
2) Backup and recovery
3) Firewall development
4) Design
5) None

15. The operating system called UNIX is typically used for
1) Desktop computers
2) Laptop computers
3) Super computers
4) Web servers
5) All of these

16. The_______file format is a method of encoding pictures on a computer.
1) HTML
2)JPEG
3) FTP
4) URL
5)DOC

17. Press_______to move the insertion point to the Address box, or to highlight the URL in the Address box
l)ALT+D
2)ALT + A
3) SHIFT+TAB
4) TAB+CTRL
5)CTRL + S

18. Computer systems are comprised of
1) hardware, programs, information, people and networks
2) hardware, software, procedures, networks, and people
3) hardware, programs, information, people and procedures
4) hardware, programs, processors, procedures, networks and people
5) hardware, programs, processors, procedures and people

19. The earliest calculating devices are:
1) Clock
2) Difference Engine
3) Abacus
4) Calculator
5) None

20. The basic operations performed by a computer are:
1) Arithmetic Operations
2) Logical Operations
3) Storage and relative
4) All of the above
5) None

21. For connection of the internet, you will need:
1) An IP address
2) A TCP/IP connection
3) An ISP
4) All of the above
5) None

22. The server on the Internet is also known as a;
1) Repeater
2) Host
3) Gateway
4) ISP
5) None

23. A user can get files from another computer on the Internet by using:
1) FTP
2) UTP
3) HTTP
4) 1 and 2 both
5) None

24. In reality, Internet protocol recognizes only:
1) A postal mail address
2) A location of the host
3) An IP address
4) Server
5) None

25. The ground station in VSAT communication is called:
1) HTTP
2) Multiplexer
3) Hub
4) Repeater
5) None

26. A small network making up the Internet and also having a small numbers of computers
with in it is called:
1) Host
2) Address
3) Sub domain
4) Domain
5) None

27. Computers on the Internet owned and operated by education institution from part of the:
1) Com domain
2) Edu domain
3) Mil domain
4) In domain
5) None

28. For a small web site, one needs 10 buy space from the:
1) Network administrator
2) Telephone exchange
3) ISP
4) Internet Society
5) None

29. A host on the Internet finds another host by its:
1) Postal address
2) Electronic address
3) IP address
4) Name
5) None

30. What do you need to put your web pages on the WWW?
1) A connection to the Internet
2) A web Browser
3) A web Server
4) All of the above
5) None

31. DOS stands for
1) Drive operating system
2) Disk operating system
3) Device operating system
4) Union
5) None

32. In keyboard. F2 key stands for
1) Run
2) Save
3) Compile
4) None
5) None

33. GUI stands for
I) General user interpretation
2) Global user interlace
3) Generalized user information
4) Graphical user interface
5) None

34. Physical components of a computer constitutes
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Firmware
4) All of these
5) None

35. On visual display unit (VDU) character s printed on each line is
1) 60
2) 69
3) 79
4) 80
5) None

36. RAM is also called
1) Static memory
2) Volatile memory
3) Both of the above
4) Phosphorus
5) None

37. A number system with base 8 is
1) Decimal number system
2) Binary number system
3) Octal number system
4) Hexadecimal number system
5) None

38. Set of rules governing the transfer of data between computer co-peripherals (or) within a computer is called as
1) Protocol
2) Program
3) Instruction
4) Compile
5) None

39. In RAM. we can perform
1) Only read operation
2) Only write operation
3) Both read and write operation
4) Neither read nor write operation
5)None

40. Bit is a
1) Binary digit
2) Octal digit
3) Decimal digit
4) Hexadecimal digit
5) None
UIIC Interview Experience
UIIC Interview Experience

Hai Friends,
I have attended UIIC interview for the post of Administrative Officer at New Delhi. I reached the venue 1/2 an hour before time … got my documents verified .. and started talking with others .. waiting for my turn .. then went to the 9th floor where interview panel was interviewing candidates. Finally my turn came.

Me: May I come in Sir?
I wished them and they asked me to sit down ..
passed them the interview sheets .. (4 members were there .. all very senior and very gentle)

Q1:So Mr. Rahul why you left ur previous job .. and why you want to change ur sector?Engineering is better no?
Answer:Replied with personal reasons and boasted about Insurance sector .. job profile of an AO and all .. he looked satisfied .. we talked about 2G scam as well(they all kept smiling throughout .. to me they looked satisfied.. they made me at ease .. I had a gr8 time there .. )

Q2:Asked about my colony .. and why was it named so ?
Answer:I said I dint knew .. then one of them explained it to me .. (later I came to know that question was asked to all the candidates who were from my colony)

Q3:What are your hobbies?
Answer:Net surfing,Singing,Playing and watching cricket.

Q4:So do u sing urself?
Answer:Yes sir I do .. I’ve sung in a lot of competitions at school and college level.

Q:5Then y don’t u try the singing career?
Answer:With a big smile I said .. sir m not that much a good singer .. more over I don’t really see fair chances there either.

Q6:What do u know about Insurance?
Answer:blah blah for 2-3 mins… then I stopped they were looking at me .. I thought I should speak more but don’t know everything washed out … and I said that’s all I know.

Q7:Ok so u are giving bank exams as well?if yes?have u qualified any yet?
Answer:Yes sir .. have qualified UCO and BOB and gave UCO intrvw yesterday only ..

Q8:So what do u think what are ur chances in those exams?
Answer:I said I don’t know .. then they laughed and said .. don’t be afraid .. tell us honestly about ur chances 😛
I said sir in UCO my written dint went that well .. but intrvw was good chances are 50-50 nd BOB written went quiet good .. over all I can say I have fair chances
(Everyone was smiling at me .. were my answers so silly)

Q9:Ok so which insurance is compulsary? and for having insurance what does insurer has to do?
Answer:Motor Vehicle Insurance sir and premium is paid for having insurance.
(then we talked about House insurance and I told them my house is not Insured)

Q10:blah blah … blah blah …. man of peace and 1 more GK question .. they gave me hint as well
Answer:I couldn’t answer a single one .. (questions were too old for me )
that’s it I was asked to go .. thanked them and left.
UIIC General knowledge and computer questions

UIIC United India Insurance 2013 Recruitment details of ADO.Practice the model questions of aptitiude,reasoning,general Knowledge,current affairs,Computer knowledge.Prepare with this previous year questions completely solved with answers andd detailed explanation.

UIIC current affairs questions with answers

Q. The Government of India and the RBI to introduce one billion pieces of Rs. 10 notes in polymer/plastic on a field trial basis. The field trial will be conducted in five cities. Which of the following is not among them?
1 Shimla
2 Jaipur
3 Nagpur
4 Bhubaneswar
Ans: 3
Q. On 12th March 2013 the President of India Mr. Pranab Mukherjee attending the celebration of 45th Anniversary of Independence of which country?
1 Maldive
2 Sri Lanka
3 Vietnaam
4 Mauritius
Ans: 4
Q. On February 14th 2013 India has conclude $6 billion Missile deal with which country?
1 Russia
2 France
3 England
4 USA
Ans: 2
Q. The first indigenously developed weaponised helicopter was handed over to Indian Army on 8th February 2013 is –
1 Rudra
2 Varun
3 Chetak
4 Indra
Ans: 1
Q. Mata Jijabai Award for 2012 was given to –
1 Smt. Omana T.K
2 Ms. Sonika Agarwal
3 Smt. Olga D?mello
4 Smt. Guramma H. Sankina
Ans: 2
Q. Devi Ahilyabai Holkar award, 2012 confer to –
1 Smt. Pranita Talukdar
2 Smt. Omana T.K
3 Smt. Olga D?mello
4 Smt. Guramma H. Sankina
Ans: 3
Q. The Uttar Pradesh government on 4 December, 2012 decided to issue Cards to industrialists and industrial associations for easy access to its offices. What is the name of that card?
1 Platinum Cards
2 Silver cards
3 Golden Cards
4 Industrial cards
Ans: 3
Q. Union Government of India on 5 December, 2012 cleared the decks for transferring the prime 12.5 acre United Mill land in Mumbai to the Maharashtra government for building a state-of-the-art memorial for an Indian revolutionary and political leader. Name the political leader ___
1 Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
2 B. R. Ambedkar
3 Ramabai Ambedkar
4 Balasaheb Thackrey
Ans: 2
Q. The Cauvery Monitoring Committee (CMC) on December 7, 2012 asked Karnataka to provide Tamil Nadu with how many TMC (thousand million cubic) feet of Cauvery water during December 2012 ____
1 12 TMC feet
2 10 TMC feet
3 8 TMC feet
4 6 TMC feet
Ans: 1

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