TJSB Question paper
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Directions for questions 1 to 5 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

I. The ratio of people doing all 3 activities to people doing atleast 2 activities is 1 : 6.

II. The ratio of people doing only one activity to people doing atleast 2 activities is 3 : 2

III. Number of people doing only CAT/MBA exceeds number of people doing GRE/MS only by 990.

IV. Number of people doing only GRE/MS exceeds number of people seeking jobs only by 360.

1. Number of people doing all 3 activities is :

1] 500

2] 1000

3] 1500

4] Cannot be determined

2. Number of people doing no more than on activity is :

1] 10,000

2] 9,760

3] 14,000

4] 12,000

3. Number of people doing exactly two activities is :

1] 6000

2] 5000

3] 9000

4] 10,000

4. The number of people not doing any activity is :

1] 760

2] 570

3] 1000

4] Data Insufficient

5. The number of people who are both seeking employment and trying for GRN/MS is :

1] 1610

2] 2430

3] 1720

4] Data Insufficient

For answers to questions 1 to 5 :

Let the different sections be represented by the variables.

Given

1. p : (x + y + z + p) = 1 : 6

2. (a + b + c) : (x + y + z + p) = 3 : 2

? (a + b + c) : p : (x + y + z + p) = 9 : 1 : 6

Since P = 1
x + y + z + p 6

Since P = 1
x + y + z 5

? (a + b + c) : (x + y + z) : p = 9 : 5 : 1 —— (I)

Again, the total of all areas is :

(a + b + c) + 2 (x + y + z) + 3p = 6810 + 7070 + 8120

(a + b + c) + 2 (x + y + z) + 3p = 22000

Using (I)

9p + 2(5p) + 3p = 22p = 22000

? p = 1000

x + y + z = 5000 } (II)

a + b + c = 9000

Again,

c – b = 990

b – a = 360

On solving

a = 2430

b = 2790

c = 3780

p = people doing all 3 activities = 1000

a + b + c = people doing exactly 1 activity = 9000

x + y + z = people doing exactly 2 activities = 5000

people not doing any activity = EU – (1000 + 9000 + 5000)

= 15760 – 15000 = 760

x, y, z cannot be determined without additional data.

Hence,

1- [2] 2-[2] 3-[2] 4-[1] 5-[4]

Directions for questions 6 to 9 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Palaash never knew he would be in such trouble. He has to sing in seven different languages. The Assamese song would be a hit if and only if it is preceded by a Telugu song. Konkani song would be a hit only if a Hindi song came before it. English has to be preceded by Hindi and Punjabi is the last song he sings. There is one song between English and Punjabi and of the three only two were hit. Konkani song is a failure. Tamil is the seventh language. If the Assamese song is a hit and his first song was Telugu then:

6. Which song did he sing after English?

1] Telugu

2] Konkani

3] Tamil

4] Assamese

7. Which song did he sing after Konkani?

1] Tamil

2] Punjabi

3] Hindi

4] English

8. If each hit had two points in the Grammy awards, then how many points did Palaash get?

1] 4

2] 6

3] 8

4] Can’t say

9. What were the total number of assured hit songs as per the question?

1] 3

2] 4

3] 5

4] 6

For answers to questions 6 to 9 :

From the clues we can see Telugu is the first song, while Punjabi is the last song. Assamese would be second followed by Konkani, Hindi and English. Thus Tamil, the seventh language would be the sixth song. In terms of points there is no information regarding whether Telugu and Hindi songs were a hit or not. Thus we can’t say. But regarding the number of assured hits as per the question it would be Assamese, and two songs out of English, Tamil and Punjabi. Thus the answers are

6- [3] 7-[3] 8-[4] 9-[1]

Directions for questions 10 to 14 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

A six digit (with no digit repeated) number is such that every alternate digit is a prime number. The difference between the digit on the tens place and the digit on the thousands place is the digit on the lakh place. The units digit is the product of the digit on the lakh place and the digit on the ten-thousands place, which is also a prime number. Also tens place digit is greater than the thousandth place digit.

10. The digit on the lakh place is :

1] 1

2] 2

3] 3

4] 4

11. The digit on the units place is :

1] 2

2] 4

3] 6

4] 8

12. The positive difference of the the digit on the ten-thousandth place and the the ten’s place is :

1] 3

2] 4

3] 6

4] 7

13. The digit on the hundred’s place is :

1] 3

2] 4

3] 8

4] Can’t say

14. The number is divisible by :

1] 2

2] 3

3] 4

4] Both [1] and [3]

For answers to questions 10 to 14 :

As the unit digit is not a prime number, thus the lakh digit, the thousands digit and the ten’s digit will be a prime number.

As the lakh digit is the difference of two prime numbers and still is a prime number, it is 2. Also the digits on the thousandth and the ten’s place can be either 3 and 5 or 5 and 7. As the unit digit is the product of the digit on the lakh place and the digit on the ten-thousandth 7 (as 5 x 2 = 10, 7 x 2 = 14). Thus it has to be 3. Therefore we see that the digit on the thousandth place is 5 and that on the ten’s place is 7. We don’t know anything about the digit on the hundredth place. Therefore the number is 235 x 76

10- [2] 11-[3] 12-[2] 13-[4] 14-[4]

Directions for questions 15 to 19 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

In a gathering of 8 people, A, B, C and D are Software professionals and P, Q, R and S are Hardware professionals. Each person shows atleast one of the following features viz. HK, JM, GS and CP.

HW : Hardware professional SW : Software Professional

HK : Has Kids JM : Just Married

GS : Has grand sons CP : One of the Couples

A ‘CP’ may be JM (and vice versa) but definitely not HK or GS.

A GS can not be JM.

Neither JM nor CP can be HK or GS.

GS implies HK but the reverse need not be true.

P, Q, R, D and S hav only one feature where as others show atleast 1.

A is JM, where as one of C and D is both CP and JM.

B is GS but D and A are not HK.

D and Q always show the same feature.

R is JM and S is HK.

The 4 features are shown by atleast one of the SW or HW.

15. How many professionals are definitely not HK?

1] 2

2] 3

3] 5

4] 5 or 6

16. A does not show all of the features except :

1] JM

2] GS

3] Data insufficient

4] None of these

17. If A does not show CP then Q does show :

1] HK

2] JM

3] GS

4] Data insufficient

18. P can show all of the following except :

1] JM

2] GS

3] CP

4] None of these

19. If P is the only HW who is a CP then which of the following is definitely true?

I. A does not show CP

II. B may show CP

III. D show JM

1] I only

2] II only

3] III only

4] None of these

For answers to questions 15 to 19 :

The following matr can be formed based on the given information

SW HW A B C D P Q R S HK × ü × × × ü JM ü × ü ü × GS × ü × × × × × × CP × ü × ×
15. Five professionals are definitely not HK, P may or may not be HK. Hence, [3].

16. Now A may or may not be CP. Hence [3].

17. We don’t know whether Q is JM or CP. Hence, [4].

18. P cannot show GS. Hence, [2].

19. I : A may or may not show CP. Hence, I may be false.

II : B cannot show more than 2 features. Hence, II is false.

III : D should show JM as Q will show JM. Hence, III is true. Hence, [3].

Directions for questions 20 to 23 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

I have got two uncles, Joe and John and two aunts, Jane and Jill. While uncle Jose is not married, uncle John is married and has two sons as well. Aunt Jane is a widow and has only one daughter. My mother is the only one in the family who has a real sister while she has no brothers. My father works in the diamond factory while my paternal grandparents live with us. We are a joint family. Then :

20. How many members are there in our family?

1] 10

2] 11

3] 12

4] 13

21. How many cousin sisters do I have?

1] None

2] One

3] Two

4] Three

22. Who is married to Uncle John?

1] Jane

2] Jill

3] None of these

4] Can’t Say

23. How many children do my paternal grandparents have?

1] Two

2] Three

3] Four

4] Five

For answers to questions 20 to 23 :

The family heirarchy will be like this :

20. 12 members in the family. Hence, [3].

21. Only one cousin sister. Hence, [2].

22. Aunt Jill is married to Uncle John. Hence, [2].

23. 3 sons, my father, Uncle Joe and Uncle John. Hence, [2].

24. The total number of female members in the family is 5. Hence, [4].

25. The years can be calculated as:

1980 – 15 + 1 + 10 + 2 + 6 = 1984. Hence, [3]

Directions for questions 24 to 25 : Choose the correct alternative.

24. Mr. Gupta is Rita and Sita’s father-in-law. Amit is married to Sita and has got two daughters. Rita has only one son. If Mr. Gupta has only two sons and Mrs. Gupta is alive then how many female members are there in the Gupta faimly?

1] 2

2] 3

3] 4

4] 5

25. I build a time machine in 1980. The peculiar ;thing about the time machine was that it had a range of twenty years into the future and 30 years into the past. I used the machine and went back 15 years. After spending a year in the past, I gain used it and went 10 years into the future. There I spend around two years and finally went to the future by 6 years. In which year did I land up?

1] 1980

2] 1983

3] 1984

4] None of these

Directions for questions 23 to 30 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Cars and motorcycles continued to surge ahead even as “Made in India” automobiles like commercial vehicles, multi-utility vehicles, scooters, mopeds and three-wheelers failed to attract overseas buyers this fiscal. Car exports shot up by a huge 105% at 42,444 units during 2001-02 on the back of a superb performance by Ford India, which accounted for more than half of the total exports. Ford shipped 27,572 units of its mid-size car “Ikon” to countries like South Africa and Mexico. Car market leader Maruti Udyog, however, posted a 35.7% dip at 8,559 units during 2001-02. South Korea’s Hyundai also witnessed a 14.5% decline in exports at 4,494 units (5250 cars last year). Car exports of Telco surged ahead by 261.6% at 1,689 cars (467 cars last year) while that of General Motors slipped to 40 cars year-on-year from 69 units. In sharp contrast to passenger car segment, commercial vehicle exports slumped by 19.9% at 9,683 units. While medium and heavy (M&H) vehicles exports went down by 18.2% to 3,891 units, that of light commercial vehicles (LCVs) declined by 22.3% at 5,792 units. Telco’s M&H exports fell by 24.4% to 2,118 units while LCVs dipped by 36.2% to 4,036 vehicles during 2001-02. Ashok Leyland, India’s second largest commercial vehicle marker, reported a 6.7% land 4.8% drop in M&H and LCV exports at 1,725 units and 98 units respectively. However, exports of LCV markers like Eicher, Swaraj Mazda and Mahindra & Mahindra rose by 61.6%, 56.5% and 68.2% at 1,062, 321 and 274 units respectively. Two-wheeler exports went down by 9.2% to 91,731 units as scooter and moped exports declined by 15.7% and 41.7% at 19,369 units and 22,801 unit5s respectively. Howeer, exports of motorcycles recorded a 13% rise at 17,490 units while tha tof Bajaj Auto rose by 158% to 15,951 units. Hero Honda posted a 29.4% rise at 11,833 units. Exports of TVS Motors dipped by 13.7% to 2,273 units while Royal Enfield saw a rise of 63.6% to 1,357 units. Scooter markers like Bajaj and TVS posted a 31.5% and 137% jump in exports at 7,996 and 897 units respectively while LML and Kinetic exports dipped by 27.8% and 57.5% to 6,709 and 3,702 units.

26. If only 5 companies, Ford, Maruti Udyog, Hyundai, Telco and General Motors exported cars in 2000-01, how many cars did Ford export in 2000-01?

1] 1645

2] 1607

3] 1700

4] 1555

27. By how much were the total vehicle exports by Telco in 2001-02, higher or lower than those in 2000-01? (Telco manufactures only cars and commercial vehicles)

1] 18.3% lower

2] 15% lower

3] 12% higher

4] almost same

28. What were the total vehicle exports in 2000-01?

1] 133940

2] 135000

3] 132750

4] 131680

29. If the average export realization of motorcycles has reduced from Rs.45,000 per unit in 2000-01 to Rs.40,000 per unit in 2001-02, what is the change in export volumes?

1] Rs.218 million increase

2] Rs.218 crore increase

3] Rs.2.18 billion increase

4] Rs.2180 million increase

30. If the average export realization per car for Maruti Udyog has increased by 40%, then what is the percentage change in car exports for Maruti in value terms?

1] 10% increase

2] 10% decrease

3] 5% decrease

4] 5% Increase

For answers to questions 20 to 23 :

Car 2001-02 20000-01 M&H 2001-02 20000-01 Ford 27572 1607 Telco 2118 2802 Maruti 8559 13311 Ashok Ley. 1725 1849 Hyundai 4494 5250 Telco 1689 467 3891 4757 GM 40 69 90 42444 20704

LCV 2001-02 20000-01 Motorcycles 2001-02 20000-01
Scooters

2001-02 20000-01 Telco 4036 63265 Yamaha 17490 Bajaj 7996 Ashok Ley. 98 103 TVS 15951 TVS 897 Eicher 1062 657 Royal Enfield 11833 LML 6709 Swaraj 321 205 Kinetic 3702 M&M 274 163 49561 39200 19369 22976 5792 7454 Mopeds 22801 39110

42444
26. Total car exports in 2000-01 = (1 + 1.05) = 20704

Car exports by Maruti in 2000-01 = 8559 = 8559/0.643 = 13311
(1 – 0.357)

Car exports by Hyundai in 2000-01 = 5250

Car exports by Telco in 2000-01 = 467

Car exports by General Motors in 2000-01 = 69

Therefore, car exports by Ford in 2000-01 = 20704 – 13311 – 5250 – 467 – 69 = 1607 units. Hence, [2].

27. Number of vehicles exported by Telco in 2001-02 = 1689 + 2118 + 4036 = 7843

Car exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 467

Multi-utility vehicles exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 2118 = approx. 2118/0.756 = 2802
(1-0.244)

LCVs exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 4036 = approximately 4036 = 6326
(1-0.362) 0.64

Total vehicle exports by Telco in 2001-01 = 467 + 2802 + 6326 = 9595

Therefore, ratio of Telco’s exports in 2001-02 to those in 2000-01 = 7843 = approximately 7845 = 0.817 = 81.7%
9595 9600

Therefore, Telco’s exports in 2001-02 were 18.3% lower. Hence, [1].

28. Car exports in 2000-01 = 20704

M&H vehicle exports in 200-01 = 3891 ˜ 3900/0.82 = 4756
(1-0.182)

LCV exports in 2000-01 = 5792 = 7454
(1-0.223)

Two-wheeler exports in 2000-01 = 91731 = 101025
(1-0.092)
Therefore, total vehicle exports in 2000-01 = 20704 + 4757 + 7454 + 101025 = 133939. Hence, [1].

29. Motorcycle export value in 2001-02 = 49561 × 4000 = 1982440000 or Rs.1982.44 million

Motorcycle exports in 2000-01 = 49561 ˜ 49000/1.25 = 39,200
1.272

Motorcycle exports value in 2000-01 = 39200 × 45000 = 1764000000 or Rs.1764 million

Therefore, motorcycle exports have increased by (1982-1764) = Rs.218 million. Hence [1].

30. Let x units be exported by Maruti Udyog for an average realization of y rupees per car in 2000-01. Therefore, exports of Maruti Udyog in 2000-01 = x × y rupees

Exports of Maruti Udyog in 2001-02 = x × (1-0.357) × y × 1.40 = 0.90 × x × y Therefore, exports of Maruti Udyog have decreased in value terms by about 10%. Hence,[2].

Directions for questions 31 to 35: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Table shows Births to date and Lifetime births expected per 1,000 women for Selected Years from 1976 to 1998 (Numbers in thousands and age of women at survey date.)

Source : U.S. Census Bureau

Internet Release date : October 18, 2001

Characteristics Total, 18 to 34 years 18 to 24 years 25 to 29 years 30 to 34 years Births to date

TJSB Question paper
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Bank based general awareness, Banking terms

1. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposits from public
(2) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public
(3) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public
(4) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public -Answer
(5) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government
2. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(1) State Bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(2) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(3) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(4) RBl is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India-Answer
(5) None of the above

3. Interest payable on savings bank accounts is
(1) not regulated by RBI
(2) regulated by Sate Governments
(3) regulated by Central Government
(4) regulated by RBI -Answer(5) regulated by Finance Minister

4. The usual deposit accounts of banks are
(1) current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
(2) current accounts post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(3) loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(4) current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts-Answer
(5) current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

5. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are
(1) repayable after an agreed period-Answer
(2) repayable on demand
(3) not repayable
(4) repayable after death of depositors
(5) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank’s choice

6. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of
(1) both savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
(2) savings bank accounts and current accounts-Answer
(3) both savings bank accounts and loan accounts
(4) both savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
(5) both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

7. Which of the following is correct statement?
(1) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts-Answer
(2) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
(3) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
(4) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
(5) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits

8. Mortgage is a
(1) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank
(2) security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank-Answer
(3) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(4) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(5) security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank

9. Which of the following is known as cross selling by banks?
(A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder.
(B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor.
(C) Insurance of cash against cheque presented by a third party.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C) (4) Both (A) and (C) (5) All (A), (B) and (C)-Answer
10. Financial inclusion means provision of
(1) financial services namely, payments, remittances, savings, loans and insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same-Answer
(2) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(3) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(4) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(5) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same

11. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid, it is called
(1) payment of the cheque
(2) drawing of the cheque
(3) canceling of the cheque
(5) taking of the cheque

12. NEFT means
(1) National Electronic Funds Transfer system-Answer
(2) Negotiated Efficient Fund Transfer system
(3) National Efficient Fund Transfer solution
(4) Non Effective Fund Transfer system
(5) Negotiated Electronic Foreign Transfer system

13. Upper limit prescribed for RTGS transaction is
(1) Rs. 1 lac (2) Rs. 2 lacs (3) Rs. 5 lacs (4) Rs. 50 lacs (5) No upper limit is prescribed-Answer

14. Distribution of insurance products and insurance policies by banks as corporate agents is known as
(1) General Insurance (2) Non-life Insurance (3) Bancassurance-Answer (4) Insurance Banking (5) Deposit Insurance

15. In order to attract more foreign exchange the Government of India decided to allow foreign investment in LLP firms. What is full form of ‘LLP’ as used in this reference?
(1) Local Labour Promotion
(2) Low Labour Projects
(3) Limited Loan Partnership
(4) Longer Liability Partnership

16. Interest on Saving bank account is now calculated by banks on
(1) minimum balance during the month
(2) minimum balance from 7th to last day of the month
(3) minimum balance from 10th to last day of the month
(4) maximum balance during the month

17. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalized bank is
(1) RBI (2) NABARD (3) LICI (4) Government of India -Answer(5) IBA

18. When the rate of inflation increases
(1) purchasing power of money increases
(3) value of money increases
(4) purchasing power of money remains unaffected
(5) amount of money in circulation decreases

19. A centralized databases with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is own as
(1) Investment Banking (2) core Banking-Answer
(3) Mobile Banking (4) National Banking
(5) Specialized Banking

20. The Unit Trust of India came into existence in
(1) 1960 (2) 1962 (3) 1964-Answer (4) 1966 (5) 1968

21. Which of the following is example of financial assets?
(1) National Saving Certificates
(2) Infrastructure Bonds (3) Indira Vikas Patra
(4) Krishi Vikas Patra (5) All of the above-Answer

22. Capital market is a market which deals in
(1) short-term funds (2) long-term funds-Answer (3) gilt-edge securities (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

23. Regional Rural Banks fall within supervisory purview of
(1) SBI (2) RBI -Answer(3) SEBI 4) IRDA (5) None of these

24. IRDA with its headquarters at ……… is the regulatory authority for all insurance companies in India including the Life Insurance Corporation of India.
25. Mutual Funds fall within 7 supervisory purview of
(1) SBI (2) RBI (3) SEBI -Answer(4) IRDA (5) None of these

26. Which of the following does not come under the category of Development Banks?
(1) Industrial Development Bank of India
(2) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(3) Industrial Investment Bank of India
(4) State Finance Corporation

27. Main financial instruments of corporate sector are
(1) Shares (ii) Debentures (iii) Public Deposits
(iv) Loan from Institutions
Select the correct answer by using of the following codes
(1) i and ii (2) ii and iii (3) iii and iv (4)1, ii and iv (5) All I, ii, iii and iv-Answer

28. Financial institutions
(1) promote savings (2) mobilise savings (3) allocate savings among different users
(4) All of the above -Answer(5) None of the above

29. Which of the following is not an / example of primary securities?
(1) Bills (2) Bonds (3) Shares (4) Book debts (5) New currency-Answer

30. Indian Financial System / comprises of
(1) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(2) Non-banking Financial Institutions
(3) Urban Cooperative Banks
(4) All of the above

31. The Bombay Stock Exchange was 7 made functional as early as
(1) 1870 -Answer(2) 1901 (3) 1935 (4) 1951 (5) 1949

32. The Unit Trust of India come into existence in
(1) 1964-Answer (2) 1970 (3) 1975 (4) 1980 (5) 1982

33. 19 July 1969, how commercial Banks were nationalised?
(1) 13 (2) 14 -Answer(3) 15 (4) 16 (5) 20
34. New Private Banks are being given licenses since
(1) 1991 (2) 1992 (3) 1993-Answer (4) 1995 (5) 2001

35. The gilt-edged market refers to the market for
(i) Government securities
(ii) Semi-government securities
(iii) Corporate securities
(1) only i (2) i and ii -Answer(3) ii and iii (4) i, ii and iii (5) only iii

36. First share market in India established in
(1) Delhi (2) Mumbai-Answer (3) Kolkata (4) Chennai (5) None of these

37. Consider the following statements:
(i) Securities that have an original maturity that is greater than one year are traded in capital markets.
(ii) The best known capital market securities are stocks and bonds.
(1) (i) is true and (ii) is false (2) (i) is false and (ii) is true (3) Both are true-Answer (4) Both are false (5) None of the above

38. Consider the following statements:
(i) Securities that have an original maturity that is greater than one year are traded in money markets.
(ii) The best known money market securities are stocks and bonds.
(1) (i) is true and (ii) is false (2) (i) is false and (ii) is true (3) Both are true (4) Both are false-Answer (5) None of the above

39. The primary issuers of capital market securities include
(1) the Central Government (2) the local Government (3) corporations 4) the Central and Local Governments and corporations-Answer (5) Local Government and corporations

40. Which of the following is a / characteristic of a capital market instrument?
(a) Liquidity (b) Marketability (3) Long maturity (4) Liquidity premium 5) All of the above-Answer

41. Which one of the following is a money market instruments?
(1) A Treasury bill
(2) A negotiable certificate of deposit was
(3) Commercial paper
(4) All of the above -Answer
(5) None of the above

42. T-bills are financial instruments initially sold by ________ to raise funds.
(1) Commercial Banks
(3) corporations
(4) agencies of the State Government
(5) None of the above

43. Commercial paper is a short-term security issued by ________ to raise funds.
(1) the Reserve Bank of India
(2) Commercial Banks
(4) National Stock Exchange
(5) State and Local Governments

44. Which of the following statements is true regarding a corporate bond?
(1) A corporate callable bond gives the holder the right to exchange it for a specified number of the company’s common shares
(2) A corporate debenture is a secured /‘ bond
(3) A corporate indenture is a secured bond
(4) A corporate convertible bond gives the holder the right to exchange thebond for a specified number of the company’s common shares -Answer
(5) Holders of corporate bonds have voting rights in the company

45. Which one of the following is not a money market instrument?
(1) A Treasury bill (2) A negotiable certificate of deposit (3) Commercial paper (4) Treasury bond-Answer (5) Repo

46. Money lend for 15 days or more in Inter-bank market is called
(1) call money (2) notice mone (3) term money-Answer (4) All of these (5) None of these

47. Money lent for one day is called
(1) call money -Answer(2) notice money (3) term money (4) All of these (5) None of these

48. Specified interest rate on a fixed maturity security fixed at the time of issue is called
(1) market rate of interest (2) call rate (3) repo rate (4) coupon rate -Answer5) discount rate

49. Lending of scheduled Commercial Banks, on a fortnightly average basis, should not exceed — of their capital fund.
(1) 25 per cent -Answer(2) 35 per cent (3) 15 per cent (4) 50 per cent (5) None of these
50. A short-term credit investment created by a non-financial firm and guaranteed by a bank to make payment is called
(1) bankers acceptance market-Answer (2) collateral loan market (3) treasury bill market (4) call money market (5) repo market

51.From the given options A to E , please find out the one which is not an objective of a central Bank of a country?
(A)The central Bank of a country aims at profit-Answer
(B)The central bank is given powers to control and regulate the working of the commercial banks
(C)Central Bank generally is a organ of the government and run by government officials
(D)Central Bank generally controls the credit
(E)Central bank is generally banker of the government

52.From the given options, bring out the one which is not a function / power of Reserve Bank of India:
(A)To assume the responsibility of meeting directly or indirectly all reasonable demands for accommodation
(B)To hold cash reserves of the commercial banks and make available financial accommodation to them
(C)To enjoy monopoly of the note issue
(D)To assume responsibility of all banking operations of the government
(E)To assume the responsibility of statistical analysis of data related to macro economy of India-Answer

53.Many a times we read in the newspapers about margin requirements. From the given options, find out the one which correctly indicates margin requirements:
(A)Margin requirements aim at the regulation of the volume of credit as well as flow of the credit
(B)Margin requirements imply that every bank has to keep certain minimum cash reserves with the reserve bank of India
(C)Margin requirements imply that every bank has to keep certain proportion of its total deposits in the form of cash with it self
(D)Margin requirements imply that RBI has certain rate at which it discounts the bills of exchange of the commercial bank
(E)Margin requirements imply to a cushion against the decline in the value of the security-Answer

54.What will be the impact on the cash reserves of commercial banks if RBI conducts a sale of securities ?
(A)Increase
(C)Remain constant
(D)Increase or decrease
(E)Increase if the securities are sold in open market operations

55.Which among the following is a major qualitative control measure in India ?
(A)Bank Rate Policy
(B)Open market Operations
(D)Reserve Ratio Requirements

56.Many a times we read in the financial newspapers that Reserve bank of India is “Lender of Last Resort (LOLR) ” In India. Which among the following statement gives the most correct definition of “Lender of Last Resort”?
(A)If a person or firm which is eligible to get a loan, does not get it from any commercial bank, may approach to Reserve Bank of India for loan.
(B)If the state governments are in crisis and need money for short term , they can approach RBI for this purpose
(C)If a commercial bank is in crisis, it may place its reasonable demand for accommodation to Reserve Bank of India-Answer
(D)A scheduled commercial bank meets all of its demands in all weathers from Reserve bank of India
(E)Whenever the government declares a debt relief, the RBI will have to bear the brunt of it.

57.(The figures in this questions are imaginary). We suppose that Cash Reserve Ratio in country’s economy is 10%. The banking system wish a cash deposits of Rs. 1000 Crore, creates total deposits of Rs. 10,000 Crores. The reserve Bank wishes that bank should create more deposits. Which
among the following step will be taken by the Reserve Bank?
(A)It will lower the Cash Reserve Ratio-Answer
(B)It will raise the Cash Reserve Ratio
(C)It will increase the margin Requirements
(D)It will start selling Government securities
(E)It will start rationing of credit

58.Many a times we read in the newspapers that RBI takes certain steps to curb the menace of Inflation. In this context, which among the following will not help RBI in controlling the inflation in the country?
(A)An increase in the Bank Rate
(B)An increase in the Reserve Ratio Requirements
(C)A purchase of securities in the open market-Answer

(D)Rationing of the credit
(E)Increasing the Repo Rate

59.We suppose that Reserve Bank of India would like to increase the cash Reserves of the commercial Banks. Which among the following would be most appropriate action of the RBI to achieve this aim?
(A)RBI would release gold from its reserves
(B)RBI would raise the reserve ratio
(D)RBI will stop the transactions which involve the bills of exchange
(E)RBI will put more reserves in the International Monetary Fund

60.Which among the following is a incorrect statement:
(A)The Reserve Bank of India has the special powers to control and regulate the commercial banking system
(B)A rise in the bank rate is a strong anti-deflationary monetary tool-Answer
(C)Minimum Reserve Requirements are fixed to ensure the liquidity and solvency of individual commercial banks
(D)Reserve Ratio Requirement is a quicker method than bank rate and OMO (Open Market Operations) in general credit regulations
(E)Rationing of credit is a powerful qualitative monetary tool

61.Since which year, Reserve bank of India is using the Selective Credit Control measures to control the amount of bank advances against the commodities having limited supply ?
(A)1949
(C)1969
(D)1973
(E)1982

62.The “Service area Approach” was an strategy launched to improve which of the following?
(A)Micro, Small and medium Enterprising
(B)Unorganized Sector
(D)Urban Industrial Lending
(E)A & B

63.Which among the following bank / banks in India have set up the Financial Literacy & Credit Counseling centers ?
(A)RBI
(C)Foreign Banks working in India
(D)Regional Rural Banks
(E)All of above

64.Which of the following imaginary circumstances, the Reserve bank of India will opt to sell Government securities in the open market?
(A)When the Foreign funds inflow is meek
(B)When there is enormous Foreign Funds Inflow in the Indian Economy-Answer
(C)When banks have low liquidity and need liquidity
(D)When Government of India asks the RBI to sell securities
(E)None of the above

65.Which among the following is correct full form of CAS in context with banking markets in India ?
(A)Cash Authorization Scheme
(C)Credit Access System
(D)Credit Arrangement System
(E)Cash Accreditation Scheme

Qn.1
SECTION-I-REASONING
In a code,if ‘-‘means ‘x’,’x’ means ‘+’,’+’means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘-‘ then find the value of the expression [9÷18×15+3-6×12] which is sritten in the code.

24
30
33
42
48
Explanation:By converting the symbols according to the given definitions we get 9-18 ÷3×6+12 solving this by BODMAS rule we get the value as 33

Qn.2
In a certain code language,if the value of KNOWLEDGE=81 and INNOVATION=100 Then what is the value of INTERNATIONAL?
144
196
225
169
256
Explanation:KNOWLEDGE=81(9*9=81) INNOVATION=100(10*10=100) INTERNATIONAL=169(13*13=169)

Qn.3
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Green
Yellow
Grey
Red
Blue
Explanation:Ans: c) GreyExpl:Except grey all other are different colours of a rainbow
.

Qn.4
My school is to the East of my bouse. My father’s office is to the South-West of my school. A park is to the South of my school. Towards which direction is my house located with respect to the park?
East
North-West
South-East
South
North-East
Explanation:As per the given data,we get Picture same as
MY house is towrds the North -West of the park

Qn.5
Which of the following has the same relation with “Circle’ as “Diagonal’with the ‘Square’?
Chord
Diameter
Tangent
Arch

Qn.6
Directions for questions 6 to 10 : These questions are based on following information. A group of digits,symbols and their respective letter codes are given below.

Conditions (i) If the second and the last elements of the group are digit and symbol respectively then code both of them as ‘j’
(ii) If both the first and the last elements of the group are symbols then code both of them as ‘D’
(iii) If third and fourth elements of the group are digit and symbol respectively then interchange thhhheir respective codes.
(iv) If both the last two elements are symbols then code both of them as ‘Z’
Find the codes for the groups of elements given below using digit/symbol and their respective codes according to the above conditions.
3 4 © 9 8 €
gjjdzn
gtdjzz
gjdjzj
dtdjzd
gtdjzn
Explanation:The given group of elements of 3 4 © 9 8 € This group follows condition(i) Hence the code is g j d z j

TJSB Question paper
style1 { font-size: small; font-family: “Arial Narrow”; }

Bank based general awareness, Banking terms

1. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposits from public
(2) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public
(3) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public
(4) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public -Answer
(5) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government
2. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(1) State Bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(2) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(3) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(4) RBl is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India-Answer
(5) None of the above

3. Interest payable on savings bank accounts is
(1) not regulated by RBI
(2) regulated by Sate Governments
(3) regulated by Central Government
(4) regulated by RBI -Answer(5) regulated by Finance Minister

4. The usual deposit accounts of banks are
(1) current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
(2) current accounts post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(3) loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(4) current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts-Answer
(5) current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

5. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are
(1) repayable after an agreed period-Answer
(2) repayable on demand
(3) not repayable
(4) repayable after death of depositors
(5) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank’s choice

6. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of
(1) both savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
(2) savings bank accounts and current accounts-Answer
(3) both savings bank accounts and loan accounts
(4) both savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
(5) both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

7. Which of the following is correct statement?
(1) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts-Answer
(2) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
(3) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
(4) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
(5) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits

8. Mortgage is a
(1) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank
(2) security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank-Answer
(3) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(4) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(5) security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank

9. Which of the following is known as cross selling by banks?
(A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder.
(B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor.
(C) Insurance of cash against cheque presented by a third party.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C) (4) Both (A) and (C) (5) All (A), (B) and (C)-Answer
10. Financial inclusion means provision of
(1) financial services namely, payments, remittances, savings, loans and insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same-Answer
(2) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(3) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(4) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(5) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same

11. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid, it is called
(1) payment of the cheque
(2) drawing of the cheque
(3) canceling of the cheque
(5) taking of the cheque

12. NEFT means
(1) National Electronic Funds Transfer system-Answer
(2) Negotiated Efficient Fund Transfer system
(3) National Efficient Fund Transfer solution
(4) Non Effective Fund Transfer system
(5) Negotiated Electronic Foreign Transfer system

13. Upper limit prescribed for RTGS transaction is
(1) Rs. 1 lac (2) Rs. 2 lacs (3) Rs. 5 lacs (4) Rs. 50 lacs (5) No upper limit is prescribed-Answer

14. Distribution of insurance products and insurance policies by banks as corporate agents is known as
(1) General Insurance (2) Non-life Insurance (3) Bancassurance-Answer (4) Insurance Banking (5) Deposit Insurance

15. In order to attract more foreign exchange the Government of India decided to allow foreign investment in LLP firms. What is full form of ‘LLP’ as used in this reference?
(1) Local Labour Promotion
(2) Low Labour Projects
(3) Limited Loan Partnership
(4) Longer Liability Partnership

16. Interest on Saving bank account is now calculated by banks on
(1) minimum balance during the month
(2) minimum balance from 7th to last day of the month
(3) minimum balance from 10th to last day of the month
(4) maximum balance during the month

17. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalized bank is
(1) RBI (2) NABARD (3) LICI (4) Government of India -Answer(5) IBA

18. When the rate of inflation increases
(1) purchasing power of money increases
(3) value of money increases
(4) purchasing power of money remains unaffected
(5) amount of money in circulation decreases

19. A centralized databases with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is own as
(1) Investment Banking (2) core Banking-Answer
(3) Mobile Banking (4) National Banking
(5) Specialized Banking

20. The Unit Trust of India came into existence in
(1) 1960 (2) 1962 (3) 1964-Answer (4) 1966 (5) 1968

21. Which of the following is example of financial assets?
(1) National Saving Certificates
(2) Infrastructure Bonds (3) Indira Vikas Patra
(4) Krishi Vikas Patra (5) All of the above-Answer

22. Capital market is a market which deals in
(1) short-term funds (2) long-term funds-Answer (3) gilt-edge securities (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

23. Regional Rural Banks fall within supervisory purview of
(1) SBI (2) RBI -Answer(3) SEBI 4) IRDA (5) None of these

24. IRDA with its headquarters at ……… is the regulatory authority for all insurance companies in India including the Life Insurance Corporation of India.
25. Mutual Funds fall within 7 supervisory purview of
(1) SBI (2) RBI (3) SEBI -Answer(4) IRDA (5) None of these

26. Which of the following does not come under the category of Development Banks?
(1) Industrial Development Bank of India
(2) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(3) Industrial Investment Bank of India
(4) State Finance Corporation

27. Main financial instruments of corporate sector are
(1) Shares (ii) Debentures (iii) Public Deposits
(iv) Loan from Institutions
Select the correct answer by using of the following codes
(1) i and ii (2) ii and iii (3) iii and iv (4)1, ii and iv (5) All I, ii, iii and iv-Answer

28. Financial institutions
(1) promote savings (2) mobilise savings (3) allocate savings among different users
(4) All of the above -Answer(5) None of the above

29. Which of the following is not an / example of primary securities?
(1) Bills (2) Bonds (3) Shares (4) Book debts (5) New currency-Answer

30. Indian Financial System / comprises of
(1) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(2) Non-banking Financial Institutions
(3) Urban Cooperative Banks
(4) All of the above

31. The Bombay Stock Exchange was 7 made functional as early as
(1) 1870 -Answer(2) 1901 (3) 1935 (4) 1951 (5) 1949

32. The Unit Trust of India come into existence in
(1) 1964-Answer (2) 1970 (3) 1975 (4) 1980 (5) 1982

33. 19 July 1969, how commercial Banks were nationalised?
(1) 13 (2) 14 -Answer(3) 15 (4) 16 (5) 20
34. New Private Banks are being given licenses since
(1) 1991 (2) 1992 (3) 1993-Answer (4) 1995 (5) 2001

35. The gilt-edged market refers to the market for
(i) Government securities
(ii) Semi-government securities
(iii) Corporate securities
(1) only i (2) i and ii -Answer(3) ii and iii (4) i, ii and iii (5) only iii

36. First share market in India established in
(1) Delhi (2) Mumbai-Answer (3) Kolkata (4) Chennai (5) None of these

37. Consider the following statements:
(i) Securities that have an original maturity that is greater than one year are traded in capital markets.
(ii) The best known capital market securities are stocks and bonds.
(1) (i) is true and (ii) is false (2) (i) is false and (ii) is true (3) Both are true-Answer (4) Both are false (5) None of the above

38. Consider the following statements:
(i) Securities that have an original maturity that is greater than one year are traded in money markets.
(ii) The best known money market securities are stocks and bonds.
(1) (i) is true and (ii) is false (2) (i) is false and (ii) is true (3) Both are true (4) Both are false-Answer (5) None of the above

39. The primary issuers of capital market securities include
(1) the Central Government (2) the local Government (3) corporations 4) the Central and Local Governments and corporations-Answer (5) Local Government and corporations

40. Which of the following is a / characteristic of a capital market instrument?
(a) Liquidity (b) Marketability (3) Long maturity (4) Liquidity premium 5) All of the above-Answer

41. Which one of the following is a money market instruments?
(1) A Treasury bill
(2) A negotiable certificate of deposit was
(3) Commercial paper
(4) All of the above -Answer
(5) None of the above

42. T-bills are financial instruments initially sold by ________ to raise funds.
(1) Commercial Banks
(3) corporations
(4) agencies of the State Government
(5) None of the above

43. Commercial paper is a short-term security issued by ________ to raise funds.
(1) the Reserve Bank of India
(2) Commercial Banks
(4) National Stock Exchange
(5) State and Local Governments

44. Which of the following statements is true regarding a corporate bond?
(1) A corporate callable bond gives the holder the right to exchange it for a specified number of the company’s common shares
(2) A corporate debenture is a secured /‘ bond
(3) A corporate indenture is a secured bond
(4) A corporate convertible bond gives the holder the right to exchange thebond for a specified number of the company’s common shares -Answer
(5) Holders of corporate bonds have voting rights in the company

45. Which one of the following is not a money market instrument?
(1) A Treasury bill (2) A negotiable certificate of deposit (3) Commercial paper (4) Treasury bond-Answer (5) Repo

46. Money lend for 15 days or more in Inter-bank market is called
(1) call money (2) notice mone (3) term money-Answer (4) All of these (5) None of these

47. Money lent for one day is called
(1) call money -Answer(2) notice money (3) term money (4) All of these (5) None of these

48. Specified interest rate on a fixed maturity security fixed at the time of issue is called
(1) market rate of interest (2) call rate (3) repo rate (4) coupon rate -Answer5) discount rate

49. Lending of scheduled Commercial Banks, on a fortnightly average basis, should not exceed — of their capital fund.
(1) 25 per cent -Answer(2) 35 per cent (3) 15 per cent (4) 50 per cent (5) None of these
50. A short-term credit investment created by a non-financial firm and guaranteed by a bank to make payment is called
(1) bankers acceptance market-Answer (2) collateral loan market (3) treasury bill market (4) call money market (5) repo market

51.From the given options A to E , please find out the one which is not an objective of a central Bank of a country?
(A)The central Bank of a country aims at profit-Answer
(B)The central bank is given powers to control and regulate the working of the commercial banks
(C)Central Bank generally is a organ of the government and run by government officials
(D)Central Bank generally controls the credit
(E)Central bank is generally banker of the government

52.From the given options, bring out the one which is not a function / power of Reserve Bank of India:
(A)To assume the responsibility of meeting directly or indirectly all reasonable demands for accommodation
(B)To hold cash reserves of the commercial banks and make available financial accommodation to them
(C)To enjoy monopoly of the note issue
(D)To assume responsibility of all banking operations of the government
(E)To assume the responsibility of statistical analysis of data related to macro economy of India-Answer

53.Many a times we read in the newspapers about margin requirements. From the given options, find out the one which correctly indicates margin requirements:
(A)Margin requirements aim at the regulation of the volume of credit as well as flow of the credit
(B)Margin requirements imply that every bank has to keep certain minimum cash reserves with the reserve bank of India
(C)Margin requirements imply that every bank has to keep certain proportion of its total deposits in the form of cash with it self
(D)Margin requirements imply that RBI has certain rate at which it discounts the bills of exchange of the commercial bank
(E)Margin requirements imply to a cushion against the decline in the value of the security-Answer

54.What will be the impact on the cash reserves of commercial banks if RBI conducts a sale of securities ?
(A)Increase
(C)Remain constant
(D)Increase or decrease
(E)Increase if the securities are sold in open market operations

55.Which among the following is a major qualitative control measure in India ?
(A)Bank Rate Policy
(B)Open market Operations
(D)Reserve Ratio Requirements

56.Many a times we read in the financial newspapers that Reserve bank of India is “Lender of Last Resort (LOLR) ” In India. Which among the following statement gives the most correct definition of “Lender of Last Resort”?
(A)If a person or firm which is eligible to get a loan, does not get it from any commercial bank, may approach to Reserve Bank of India for loan.
(B)If the state governments are in crisis and need money for short term , they can approach RBI for this purpose
(C)If a commercial bank is in crisis, it may place its reasonable demand for accommodation to Reserve Bank of India-Answer
(D)A scheduled commercial bank meets all of its demands in all weathers from Reserve bank of India
(E)Whenever the government declares a debt relief, the RBI will have to bear the brunt of it.

57.(The figures in this questions are imaginary). We suppose that Cash Reserve Ratio in country’s economy is 10%. The banking system wish a cash deposits of Rs. 1000 Crore, creates total deposits of Rs. 10,000 Crores. The reserve Bank wishes that bank should create more deposits. Which
among the following step will be taken by the Reserve Bank?
(A)It will lower the Cash Reserve Ratio-Answer
(B)It will raise the Cash Reserve Ratio
(C)It will increase the margin Requirements
(D)It will start selling Government securities
(E)It will start rationing of credit

58.Many a times we read in the newspapers that RBI takes certain steps to curb the menace of Inflation. In this context, which among the following will not help RBI in controlling the inflation in the country?
(A)An increase in the Bank Rate
(B)An increase in the Reserve Ratio Requirements
(C)A purchase of securities in the open market-Answer

(D)Rationing of the credit
(E)Increasing the Repo Rate

59.We suppose that Reserve Bank of India would like to increase the cash Reserves of the commercial Banks. Which among the following would be most appropriate action of the RBI to achieve this aim?
(A)RBI would release gold from its reserves
(B)RBI would raise the reserve ratio
(D)RBI will stop the transactions which involve the bills of exchange
(E)RBI will put more reserves in the International Monetary Fund

60.Which among the following is a incorrect statement:
(A)The Reserve Bank of India has the special powers to control and regulate the commercial banking system
(B)A rise in the bank rate is a strong anti-deflationary monetary tool-Answer
(C)Minimum Reserve Requirements are fixed to ensure the liquidity and solvency of individual commercial banks
(D)Reserve Ratio Requirement is a quicker method than bank rate and OMO (Open Market Operations) in general credit regulations
(E)Rationing of credit is a powerful qualitative monetary tool

61.Since which year, Reserve bank of India is using the Selective Credit Control measures to control the amount of bank advances against the commodities having limited supply ?
(A)1949
(C)1969
(D)1973
(E)1982

62.The “Service area Approach” was an strategy launched to improve which of the following?
(A)Micro, Small and medium Enterprising
(B)Unorganized Sector
(D)Urban Industrial Lending
(E)A & B

63.Which among the following bank / banks in India have set up the Financial Literacy & Credit Counseling centers ?
(A)RBI
(C)Foreign Banks working in India
(D)Regional Rural Banks
(E)All of above

64.Which of the following imaginary circumstances, the Reserve bank of India will opt to sell Government securities in the open market?
(A)When the Foreign funds inflow is meek
(B)When there is enormous Foreign Funds Inflow in the Indian Economy-Answer
(C)When banks have low liquidity and need liquidity
(D)When Government of India asks the RBI to sell securities
(E)None of the above

65.Which among the following is correct full form of CAS in context with banking markets in India ?
(A)Cash Authorization Scheme
(C)Credit Access System
(D)Credit Arrangement System
(E)Cash Accreditation Scheme

Qn.1
SECTION-I-REASONING
In a code,if ‘-‘means ‘x’,’x’ means ‘+’,’+’means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘-‘ then find the value of the expression [9÷18×15+3-6×12] which is sritten in the code.

24
30
33
42
48
Explanation:By converting the symbols according to the given definitions we get 9-18 ÷3×6+12 solving this by BODMAS rule we get the value as 33

Qn.2
In a certain code language,if the value of KNOWLEDGE=81 and INNOVATION=100 Then what is the value of INTERNATIONAL?
144
196
225
169
256
Explanation:KNOWLEDGE=81(9*9=81) INNOVATION=100(10*10=100) INTERNATIONAL=169(13*13=169)

Qn.3
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Green
Yellow
Grey
Red
Blue
Explanation:Ans: c) GreyExpl:Except grey all other are different colours of a rainbow
.

Qn.4
My school is to the East of my bouse. My father’s office is to the South-West of my school. A park is to the South of my school. Towards which direction is my house located with respect to the park?
East
North-West
South-East
South
North-East
Explanation:As per the given data,we get Picture same as
MY house is towrds the North -West of the park

Qn.5
Which of the following has the same relation with “Circle’ as “Diagonal’with the ‘Square’?
Chord
Diameter
Tangent
Arch

Qn.6
Directions for questions 6 to 10 : These questions are based on following information. A group of digits,symbols and their respective letter codes are given below.

Conditions (i) If the second and the last elements of the group are digit and symbol respectively then code both of them as ‘j’
(ii) If both the first and the last elements of the group are symbols then code both of them as ‘D’
(iii) If third and fourth elements of the group are digit and symbol respectively then interchange thhhheir respective codes.
(iv) If both the last two elements are symbols then code both of them as ‘Z’
Find the codes for the groups of elements given below using digit/symbol and their respective codes according to the above conditions.
3 4 © 9 8 €
gjjdzn
gtdjzz
gjdjzj
dtdjzd
gtdjzn