# IBPS clerical Numerical ability questions

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IBPS bank po clerical and specialists officers Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos.1 to 5) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. 348 ÷ 29 x 15 + 156 = (?)3 + 120

(1) 12

(2) 6 (Ans)

(3) 36

(4) 9

(5) None of these

Ans : 348 ÷ 29 x 15 + 156 = (?)3 + 120

? 12 x 15 + 156 = (?)3 + 120

? 180 + 156 – 120 = (?)3

? 216 = (?)3

? (6)3 = (?)3

? ? = 6

2. (4 x 4)3 ÷ (512 ÷ 8)4 x (32 x 8)4 = (2 x 2)? + 4

(1) 8

(2) 12

(3) 6 (Ans)

(4) 14

(5) None of these

Ans : (4 x 4)3 ÷ (512 ÷ 8)4 x (32 x 8)4 = (2 x 2)? + 4

? (16)3 ÷ (64)4 x (256)4 = (4)? + 4

? (4)2×3 ÷ (4)3×4 x (4)4×4 = (4)? + 4

? (4)6 ÷ (4)12 x (4)16 = (4)? + 4

? (4)6-2+16 = (4)? + 4

? (4)10 = (4)? + 4

? 10 = ? + 4

? ? = 6

3. (2v392 – 21) + (v8 – 7)2 = (?)2

(1) 4

(2) -4

(3) 12

(4) 2

(5) 6 (Ans)

Ans : (2v392 – 21) + (v8 – 7)2 = (?)2

? (2 x 14v2 – 21) + (v8 – 7)2 = (?)2

? 28v2 – 21 + (v8)2 – 2 x v8 x 7 + (7)2 = (?)2

? 28v2 – 21 + 8 – 28v2 + 49 = (?)2

? – 21 + 8 + 49 = (?)2

? 36 = (?)2

? ? = 6

4. 1 1/4 + 1 1/6 – 1 1/8 = ? + 1 1/12

(1) 5/24 (Ans)

(2) 7/24

(3) 5/12

(4) 7/12

(5) None of these

Ans : 1 1/4 + 1 1/6 – 1 1/8 = ? + 1 1/12

? 1 1/4 + 1 1/6 – 1 1/8 – 1 1/12 = ?

? (1 + 1 – 1 – 1) + (1/4 + 1/6 – 1/8 – 1/12) = ?

? 0 + (6 + 4 – 3 – 2/24) = ? ? 0 + 5/24 = ?

? ? = 5/24

5. 76% of 1285 = 35% of 1256 + ?

(1) 543

(2) 537 (Ans)

(3) 547

(4) 533

(5) None of these

Ans : 76% of 1285 = 35% of 1256 + ?

? 976.6 = 439.6 + ?

? 976.6 – 439.6 = ?

? ? = 537

Directions (Q. Nos. 6 to 10) What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

Solutions (106 to 110)

You can take approximate value of any number

6. 499.99 + 1999 ÷ 39.99 x 50.01 = ?

(1) 3200

(2) 2700

(3) 3000 (Ans)

(4) 2500

(5) 2400

Ans : 499.99 + 1999 ÷ 39.99 x 50.01 = ?

500 + 2000 ÷ 40 x 50 = ?

500 + 50 x 50 = ?

500 + 2500 = ?

3000 = ?

7. [(7.99)2 – (13.001)2 + ‘(4.01)3]2 = ?

(1) -1800

(2) 1450

(3) -1660

(4) 1660 (Ans)

(5) -1450

Ans : [(7.99)2 – (13.001)2 + ‘(4.01)3]2 = ?

? [(8)2 – (13)2 + (4)3]2 = ?

? [64 – 169 + 64]2 = ?

? (-41)2 = ?

? ? = 1681 (?- x – ? +)

˜ 1660

8. 601/49 x 399/81 ÷ 29/201 = ?

(1) 520

(2) 360

(3) 460

(4) 500

(5) 420 (Ans)

Ans : 601/49 x 399/81 ÷ 29/201 = ?

? 601/49 x 399/81 x 201/29 = ?

? 600/50 x 400/80 x 200/30 = ?

? 400 = ?

420 ˜ ?

9. 441.01 – 232.99 + 1649.99 = ? + 1225.92

(1) 600

(2) 630 (Ans)

(3) 660

(4) 690

(5) 720

Ans : 441.01 – 232.99 + 1649.99 = ? + 1225.92

? 441 – 233 + 1650 – 1226 = ?

? 2091 – 1459 = ?

? ? = 623 ˜ 630

10. (21.5% of 999)1/3 + (43% of 601)1/2 = ?

(1) 18

(2) 22 (Ans)

(3) 26

(4) 30

(5) 33

Ans : (21.5% of 999)1/3 + (43% of 601)1/2 = ?

(1000 X 21.5%)1/3 + (600 X 43%)1/2 = ?

(215)1/3 + (258)1/2 = ?

(216)1/3 + (256)1/2 = ?

(6)3X1/3 + (16)2X1/2 = ?

6 + 16 = ?

22 = ?

Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 15) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

11. 15 21 39 77 143 (?)

(1) 243

(2) 240

(3) 253

(4) 245

(5) None of these (Ans)

Ans : – Solutions – Qn Ans -111

12. 33 39 57 87 129 (?)8

(1) 183 (Ans)

(2) 177

(3) 189

(4) 199

(5)

Ans : Solutions – Qn Ans -112

13. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)

(1) 731 (Ans)

(2) 693

(3) 712

(4) 683

(5) None of these

Ans : Solutions – Qn Ans -113

14. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)

(1) 246

(2) 238

(3) 236 (Ans)

(4) 256

(5) None of these

Ans : Solutions – Qn Ans -114

15. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)

(1) 62

(2) 98

(3) 109

(4) 63

(5) None of these (Ans)

Ans : Solutions – Qn Ans -115

Directions (Q. Nos. 16 to 20) In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer

(1) if x > y

(2) if x = y

(3) if x < y

(4) if x = y

(5) if x = y or the relationship cannot be established

Ans :

16. I. x2 – 11x + 24 = 0

II. 2y2 – 9y + 9 = 0

Ans : 2 I. x2 – 11x + 24 = 0

x2 – 8x – 3x + 24 = 0

x (x – 8) – 3 (x – 8) = 0

(x – 8)(x – 3) = 0

? x = 8 or 3

II. 2y2 – 9y + 9 = 0

2y2 – 6y – 3y + 9 = 0

2y(y – 3) – 3 (y – 3) = 0

(2y – 3) (y – 3) = 0

? y = 3/2 or 3

So, x = y

17. I. x3 * 13 = x2 * 247

II. y1/3 * 14 = 294 ÷ y2/3

Ans : 3 I. x3 * 13 = x2 * 247

or x3 / x2 = 247/13

x = 19

II. y1/3 * 14 = 294 ÷ y2/3

or, (y)1/3 * (y)2/3 = 294/14

or, (y)1/3+2/3 = 21

? y = 21

So, y > x

18. I. 12 * 4 / x4/7 – 3 * 4 / x4/7 = x10/7

II. y3 + 783 = 999

Ans : 4 I. 12 * 4 / x4/7 – 3 * 4 / x4/7 = x10/7

or, 48 – 12 = (x)10/7 * (x)4/7

or, 36 = (x)7 = (x)2

? x = ±6

II. y3 + 783 = 999

y3 = 999 – 783

y3 = 216
Placement Paper

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Directions (1-5) What approximate value should come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions ?(You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

1. (56)2 x 2.5385 = ?
(1) 4740
(2) 5570
(3) 6600
(4) 7960 – Ans
(5) 8880

2. (775% of 523) ÷ 777 = ?
(1) 5 – Ans
(2) 12
(3) 19
(4) 26
(5) 29

3. 783.559 + 49.0937 x 31.679 – 58.591 = ?
(1) 26600
(2) 5000
(3) 12800
(4) 2550
(5) 2280 – Ans

4. (4438 – 2874 – 559) ÷ (269 – 106 -83)
(1) 55
(2) 13 – Ans
(3) 47
(4) 29
(5) 31

5. (12.51)4 = ?
(1) 22300
(2) 23400
(3) 24500 – Ans
(4) 25600
(5) 26700

Directions (Q. 6-10) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?
6. 2187 729 243 81 27 9 ?
(1) 36
(2) 3 – Ans
(3) 18
(4) 6
(5) 12

7. 522 1235 2661 4800 7652 11217 ?
(1) 15495 – Ans
(2) 16208
(3) 14782
(4) 16921
(5) 14069

8. 51975 9450 2100 600 240 160 ?
(1) 80
(2) 120
(3) 320 – Ans
(4) 240
(5) 300

9. 4 18 48 100 294 ?
(1) 416
(2) 480
(3) 512
(4) 384
(5) 448 – Ans

10. 6 26 134 666 3334 16666 ?
(1) 84344
(2) 83443
(3) 84434
(4) 83334 – Ans
(5) 83344

Directions 11-20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
11. 4895 + 364 x 0.75 – 49 = ?
(1) 5119 – Ans
(2) 3895
(3) 3907
(4) 5210
(5) None of these

12. 5 and 1/4 +6 and 2/3+ 7 and 1/6 = ?
(1) 19.5
(2) 19 and 11/12
(3) 19 and 1/12 – Ans
(4) 19
(5) None of these

13. [(144)2 ÷ 48 x 18] ÷ 36 = v ?
(1) 23328
(2) 36
(3) 216
(4) 46656 – Ans
(5) None of these

14. (27)18 ÷ (27)3 = ?
(1) (27) 54
(2) (27) 21
(3) (27) 15 – Ans
(4) (27) 6
(5) None of these
Expl : (3)? = (27)18 ÷ (27)3
= (27)18-3 (:. am ÷ an = am-n)
= (27)15

15. 156 + 16 x 1.5 – 21 = ?
(1) 126
(2) 258
(3) 237
(4) 159 – Ans
(5) None of these

16. 434.43 + 43.34 + 3.44 + 4 + 0.33 = ?
(1) 421.45
(2) 455.54
(3) 485.54 – Ans
(4) 447.45
(5) None of these

17. 24336 ÷ ? = 78 x 24
(1) 6
(2) 13 – Ans
(3) 11
(4) 17
(5) None of these

18. (98)45 x (98)-35 = ?
(1) 98
(2) (98)2
(3) (98) -5
(4) (98)10 – Ans
(5) None of these

19. (78.95) – (43.35) = ?
(1) 4353.88 – Ans
(2) 4305
(3) 4235.78
(4)4148
(5) None of these

20. (23.6 % of 1254) – (16.6 % of 834) = ?
(1) 159.5
(2) 157.5 – Ans
(3) 155.5
(4) 153.5
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 21-25) In each of these questions, two equations I and II with variables a and b are given. You have to solve both the equations to find the values of a and b.
(1) a<b
(2) a<b
(3) relationship between a and b cannot be established
(4) a>b
(5) a>b

21. I. 16a2 = 1
II. 3b2 +7b +2 = 0
Ans : 4
From statement I, 16a2 = 1
==> a = + 1/4
From Statement II
3b2 +7b +2 = 0
3b2 +6b +b+2 = 0
3b(b+2) +1(b+2) = 0
==> (3b+1) (b+2) = 0
==> b = -2 or -1/3
:. a>b

22. I. a2 + 5a + 6= 0
II. b2 +7b +12 = 0
Ans : 5
From statement I, a2 + 5a + 6= 0
==> a2 + 2a + 3a+6= 0
==> a(a+2) (a+3)= 0
==> (a+2) (a+3)= 0
a=-2, -3

From statement II, b2 +7b +12 = 0
==> b2 +4b +3b+12 = 0
==> b(b+4) +3(b+4)= 0
==> (b+3) (b+4) = 0
b= -3, -4
:. a>b

23. I. a2 +2a +1 = 0
II. b2 = + 4
Ans : 3

24. I. a2 -5a + 6=0
II. 2b2 – 13b +21 = 0
Ans : 2

25. I. 2a2 + a-1 =0
II. 12b2 – 17b +6 =0
Ans :1

26. A 200m long train crosses a platform of double its length in 36s. What is the speed of the train in km/h. ?
(1) 60 – Ans
(2) 48
(3) 64
(4) 66
(5) None of these

27. Work done by A in one day is half of the work done by B in one day. Work done by B is half of the work done by C in one day. If C along can complete the work in 7 days, in how many days can A, B and C together complete the work ?
(1) 28
(2) 14
(3) 4 – Ans
(4) 21
(5) None of these

28. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DAILY be arranged ?
(1) 60
(2) 48
(3) 160
(4) 120 – Ans
(5) None of these

29. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two digit number is less than the original number by 63. If the sum of the digits of the number is 11, what is the orginal number ?
(1) 29
(2) 92 – Ans
(3) 74
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

30. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction is 15/16. What was the original fraction ?
(1) 8/11
(2) 10/11
(3) 9/13
(4) 10/13 – Ans
(5) None of these

31. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.996 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for Rs.894. What is the cost price of the article ?
(1) Rs.935
(2) Rs.905
(3) Rs.945 – Ans
(4) Rs.975
(5) None of these
32. The ages of Nishi and Vinnee are in the ratio of 6:5 respectively. After 9 yr the ratio of their ages will be 9:8. what is the difference in their ages ?
(1) 9 yr
(2) 7 Yr
(3) 5 Yr
(4) 3 Yr – Ans
(5) None of these

33. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.84000 at the end of 3 yr is Rs.30240. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period ?
(1) Rs.30013.95
(2) Rs. 31013.95
(3) Rs.32013.95
(4) Rs.33013.95
(5) Rs.34013.95 – Ans

34. The total of the ages of a class of 75 girsl is 1050, the average age of 25 of them is 12 yr and that of another 25 is 16 yr. find the average age of the remaining girls.
(1) 12 yr
(2) 13 yr
(3) 14 yr – Ans
(4) 15 yr
(5) None of these

35. One-fifth of the number is 81. What will 68% of that number be ?
(1) 195.2
(2) 275.4 – Ans
(3) 225.6
(4) 165.8
(5) None of these

36. In a class of 40 students and 8 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20 % of the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 25% of the total number of students. How many sweets were there?
(1) 420
(2) 400 – Ans
(3) 320
(4) 360
(5) None of these

37. What is 35% of 45% of 7/9th of 3600?
(1) 441 – Ans
(2) 414
(3) 444
(4) 411
(5) None of these

38. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that the committee has at least one woman ?
(1) 1/10
(2) 9/20
(3) 9/10 – Ans
(4) 1/20
(5) None of these

39. By how much is 5/12th of 516 lesser than 4/5th of 495 ?
(1) 22
(2) 15
(3) 12
(4) 27
(5) None of these – Ans

40. Ms. Deepthi jain invests 11% of her monthly salary, ie, Rs.5236 in Fixed Deposits. Later, she invests 19% of her monthly salary on Life Insurance Policies; also she invests another 7% of her monthly salary on Mutual Funds. what is the total annual amount invested by Ms. Deepti Jain ?
(1) Rs.211344 – Ans
(2) Rs.17612
(3) Rs.105672
(4) Rs.35224
(5) Non of the above
Placement Paper

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Directions-(Q.1 – 5) In each of these questions a group of numbers are given which are to be coded as per the scheme given below. You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B). (C) or (D) has the correct coded form of the given numbers and indicate it on your answer sheet. If none of the coded forms are correct mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Numbers : 6 8 3 4 0 1 2 5 7 9
Codes : S L V K M R Y D B Z
(Letters)
1. 824301
(A) YLKVMR
(B) LVKYMR
(D) L YKVRM
(E) None of these

2. 734025
(A) VBKMYD
(C) BVMKYD
(D) BVKMDY
(E) None of these

3. 432908
(B) KYVZML
(C) VKYZML
(D) KVYZLM
(E) None of these

4. 578914
(B) BDLZRK
(C) DBLRZK
(D) DBLZKR
(E) None of these

5. 215963
(A) YRDSZV
(B) RYDZSV
(C) YRDZVS
(E) None of these

Directions-(Q.6 – 10) In each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third place if arranged alphabetically?
6.
(A) Jovial
(B) Journey
(C) Jumble
(D) Juggle
7.
(A) Magus
(B) Magneto
(D) Magnum
(E) Magnify
8.
(B) Concourse
(C) Concierge
(D) Condense
(E) Concise
9.
(A) Thistle
(B) Thorough
(C) Thirsty
(E) Thorium
10.
(A) Resemble
(B) Rescind
(C) Reside
(D) Residue

Directions-(Q.11 – 15) The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas-
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
The letter of the area (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) or (E), as the case may be is your answer.

11. Famous actress offered a three film deal by a leading production house.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics

12. Scientists discover 4 new Alzheimer genes.
(A) Sports
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment

13. 1500 students were vaccinated against Hepatitis B last week .
(A) Sports
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment

14. Only 1164 tigers left in India.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment

15. Majority Asian stocks hit a 3 year high this week.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(E) Entertainment

Directions-(Q.16 – 20) In each of these questions a group of numbers are given which are to be coded as per the scheme given below. You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B), (C) or (D) has the correct coded form of the given numbers and indicate it on your answer sheet. If none of the coded forms are correct mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Numbers : 3 4 5 2 1 8 9 7 6 0
Codes : U H L D J Y R M S A
(Letters)
16. 786301
(A) MYSAUJ
(B) YMSUAJ
(D) MYSUJA
(E) None of these

17. 596142
(A) LRSJOH
(B) RLSJHO
(D) LRJSHO
(E) None of these

18. 057218
(A) LAMOJY
(B) ALDMJY
(C) ALMOY J
(E) None of these

19. 634159
(B) SUJHLR
(C) SUHJRL
(D) USHJLR
(E) None of these

20. 841035
(A) HY JAUL
(C) YHAJUL
(D) YHJALU
(E) None of these

Directions-(Q.21 – 25) In each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third place if arranged alphabetically?
21.
(A) Nitrate
(B) Nimbus
(D) Nirvana
(E) Nineteen
22.
(B) Gauze
(C) Gazette
(D) Gavotte
(E) Gazump

23.
(A) Coffee
(C) Cogent
(D) Coeval
(E) Cogitate
24.
(A) Alliance
(B) Alley
(C) Allotrope
(D) Allowance
25.
(A) Dimple
(B) Dinar
(C) Dinner
(E) Dingle

Directions-(Q.26 – 30) The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas-
(A) Sports
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment
The letter of the area (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) or (E), as the case may be is your answer.

26. Vitamin consumption was found to be lower in the girls from the rural areas as compared to the males.
(A) Sports
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment

27. Four new talent shows to be launched on television in the coming weeks.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics

28. 7% hike in stock prices of a leading car manufacturing company.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(E) Entertainment

29. Team’s victory in the world championship series has done the nation proud.
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment
30. Famous choreographer has turned director for a leading production company
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics

Directions-(Q.31 – 35) The letter group in each question below is to be codified in the following number codes

Letters : M T V B S A Z R P C
Number 7 4 1 9 6 8 2 5 0 3
Codes : You have to find out which of the answers (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) has the correct coded form of the given letters and indicate it on the answersheet. If none of the coded form is correct mark (E) as the answer.
31. TACZMBP
(B) 4328790
(C) 4823970
(D) 4823790
(E) None of these

32. SRMVPBA
(A) 6751098
(B) 6571089
(D) 6750198
(E) None of these

33. VZBMPRC
(A) 1927053
(B) 1279503
(C) 1297503
(E) None of these

34. ZTCAVSP
(A) 2483160
(C) 2348160
(D) 2431860
(E) None of these

35. SMAVPTC
(A) 6871043
(B) 6780134
(C) 6781034
(D) 6870143

Directions-(Q.36 – 40) Below in each of the question, five words are given. Which of them will come at the third position if all of them are arranged alphabetically as in the dictionary.
36.
(A) Lamp
(B) Little
(C) Low
(E) Late

37.
(A) Sack
(B) Shame
(C) Sick
(D) Shy

38.
(A) Dog
(B) Dig
(C) Dress
(D) Dull

39.
(B) Book
(C) Bake
(D) Bind
(E) Bank

40.
(A) Negotiate
(B) Natural
(C) Neglect
(E) Note
Directions-(Q.41 – 45) The news items in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas-
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues
(C) Science and Health
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous

41. Meditation is the best cure for Stress Disorders.
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous

42. Fashion Designer seen as a Fashion Disaster in a party.
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues
(C) Science and Health
(D) Sports

43. Pregnancy amongst the teenagers is on a rise.
(A) Politics
(C) Science and Health
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous

44. Car Racing is the latest fad amongst the youngsters.
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues
(C) Science and Health
(E) Miscellaneous

45. With election campaign at its peak, the politicians come up with new promises.
(B) Social Issues
(C) Science and Health
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous

Directions-(Q.46 – 50) The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas-
(B) Politics
(C) Sports
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment
The letter of the area (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) or (E) as the case may be is the answer.

46. Scientists have discovered a new gene responsible for causing diabetes.
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Politics
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment

47. Indian duo beat their Russian counterparts to reach the semi finals of the Australian open.
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Politics
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment

48. An NGO has been making best efforts to provide shelter to the thousands of homeless people in the country.
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Politics
(C) Sports
(E) Environment

49. In the recent assembly elections, less than 50% citizens cast their vote.
(A) Science and Technology
(C) Sports
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment

50. An alarming rise in the cases of Asthma was reported in the city due to increased levels of pollutants from the nearby factories.
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Politics
(C) Sports
(D) Social issues

Take IBPS – Clerical free online test “Evaluate yourself before attempting the real bank test”
Directions-(Q.51 – 55) Following table shows the number of students from colleges A, B, C, D, E, F and G participating in an annual inter-college festival having the events as mentioned in the table.
Study the following table carefully and answer the questions which follow
Fields A B C D E F G
Elocution 14 7 10 5 8 11 9
Quiz 19 15 14 20 11 15 19
Dancing 12 20 15 18 21 16 19
Painting 23 16 17 10 15 9 17
Sports 32 29 41 30 19 26 21
Singing 26 17 14 14 21 24 19
Extempore 8 12 3 9 10 6 11

51. In College D, maximum number of participants is from which of the following fields?
(A) Quiz
(C) Elocution
(D) Painting
(E) None of these
52. Which college has the highest number of participants in Dancing?
(A) B
(B) D
(D) G
(E) None of these

53. Which two colleges have the same number of participants in Dancing?
(B) A and D
(C) C and G
(D) B and E
(E) C and F

54. Which is true in the following about the college F?
(A) Minimum participants in the Painting
(B) The number of participants of Quiz are more in the college F with the comparison of college B
(C) The number of participants in Elocution and Dancing are same
(D) Maximum students participating in the Sports -answer
(E) None of these

55. Which college has maximum students participate in the Extempore competition?
(A) E
(B) G
(C) C
(D) A
Directions-(Q. 56 – 60) The letter group in each question below is to be codified in the following number codesLetters # D J M E N H L B K G
Codes # 3 9 5 0 7 1 6 4 2 8

56. KJBGLM
(A) 298465
(C) 294685
(D) 249865
(E) None of these

57. HLBJND
(A) 169473
(B) 164793
(C) 146973
(E) None of these

58. MGJHBL
(B) 581946
(C) 598146
(D) 589416
(E) None of these

59. NJBMEG
(A) 794580
(B) 749508
(C) 794058
(D) 754908

60. NBDKHE
(A) 723410
(B) 742310
(D) 743120
(E) None of these

Directions-(Q.61 – 65) In each of these questions a group of numbers and symbols are given which are to be coded as per the scheme given below. You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B), (C) or (D) has the correct coded form of the given numbers and symbols and indicate it on your answer sheet. If none of the coded forms are correct mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Numbers and Symbols : 4 & 6 \$ ? 3 + @ 9 2 # 7 5 8
Codes (Letters) : A T Y O L R K Z X E W J B H

61. 753+\$?:
(A) JBRKLO
(B) BJRKOL
(C) JBKROL
(E) None of these

62. #73&+4:
(A) WJTRKA
(B) WJRTAK
(C) JWRTKA
(E) None of these

63. 65&?+4:
(B) YBLTKA
(C) BYTLKA
(D) YBTLAK
(E) None of these

64. 9263?+:
(A) XERYLK
(B) EXYRLK
(D) XEYRKL
(E) None of these

65. @?7943:
(A) LZJXAR
(C) ZLXJAR
(D) ZLJXRA
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q.66 – 70) In each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third place if rranged alphabetically?
66.
(B) Hospital
(C) Hospice
(D) Hostile
(E) Hostel
67.
(A) Psalm
(B) Psychic
(C) Psephology
(D) Psyche
68.
(A) Ligament
(B) Ligneous
(C) Lignite
(D) Ligature
69.
(A) Requisite
(C) Requiem
(D) Reputable
(E) Repulsion
70.
(A) Glycerin
(C) Glucose
(D) Glycogen
(E) Glowing
Question 1
Bala buys an equal number of pens, pencils, sketch pens of Rs.2.50, Rs.3, Rs.5 respectively. How many of each did he buy if he spends Rs.168 ?
a)12 b)16 c)18 d)20

Solution:
Let us assume that he buy X number of pens, pencils and sketch pens.
Then 2.50 x X + 3 x X + 5 x X = 168
10.50X = 168
X = 168 / 10.5 = 16
Hence he buys 16 numbers of pencils, pens, sketch pens respectively.

Question 2
Prabha and Aarthi paid a total of Rs.600 for some good. If Prabha paid 120 more than that of Aarthi, then how much is already paid?
a)Rs.250 b)Rs.150 c)RS.550 d)Rs.240

Solution :
Let the amount paid by Aarthi be Rs.X
Then, the amount paid by Prabha = Rs. X + 120
The total amount paid = Rs.600 = X + X + 120 = 2X + 120 = X = 240
Thus the amount paid by Aarthi is Rs.240

Question 3
A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 30% apples at the rate of Rs.30 per apple and the remaining 315 apples at the rate of Rs.20 per apple. The total selling price is :
a)Rs.15900 b)Rs.10350 c)RS.11550 d)Rs.12420

Solution :
Let the total number of apples be X.
Then X = 30X / 100 + 315
70X / 100 = 315
X=3150 / 7 = 450
Now 30% of X = 30 x 450 / 100 = 135
He sells 135 apples at the rate of Rs.30 per apple and 315 at the rate of Rs.20 per apple
Then the total selling price = 135 x 30 + 315 x 20 = 4050 + 6300 =Rs.10350

Question 4

Devi buys some material worth Rs.X.She gets a deduction of Rs.650 on it. After getting deduction she pays tax of Rs.169. Then find X the value if she pays Rs.6000 for that material.
a)Rs.6481 b)Rs.5689 c)RS.6819 d)Rs.5181

Solution :
Let the total amount be Rs.X
After getting deduction the amount will be X – 650
And after paying the tax Rs.169,
Rs.6000 = X – 650 + 169 = X – 481.
X =6481
Hence she buys material worth Rs.6481
Question 1
The percentage of numbers from 11 to 75 which are divided by 5 or 7 is:
a)31 b)35 c)36 d)41

Solution:
Clearly, the numbers which divided by 5 or 7 from 11 to 75 are 14, 15, 20, 21, 25, 28, 30, 35, 40, 42, 45, 49, 50, 55, 56, 60, 63, 65, 70, 75.
The number of such numbers = 20
Total numbers from 11 to 75 = 65
Then the required percentage = (20/65) x 100 = 30.76% = 31 %

Question 2
If P is X% of Y and Q is Y% of X then the relationship between P and Q is :
a)P < Q b)P > Q c)cannot be determined d)none of these

Solution:
P = X% of Y = (X/100)xY
= (XY/100)
= (Y/100)xX
= Y% of X = Q
i.e., P = Q
Thus the relationship between P and Q is P = Q.

Question 3

If A has weight 9kg more than B and his weight is 56% of the sum of their weights then their weights are :
a)31,40 b)33,42 c)36,45 d)41,50

Solution:
Let B’s weight be X then A’s weight is X+9.
And,
X+9 = 56% of X+X+9
= 56/100 (2X+9)
25(X+9)= 14(2X+9)
3X = 99 => X=33 and X+9 = 42
So, their weights are 33kg,42kg

Question4
What will be the Y% of 25 when 24% of X = Y
a)16% of X b)26% of X c)36% of X d)6% of X

Solution:
Given that,
24% of X = Y i.e, 24X/100 = Y
and, Y% of 25 = 25Y/100
= (25Y/100) x (24X/100)
= (1/4) x (24X/100)
= (6/100)x X
= 6% of X
Hence the answer is 6% of X.

Question 5
What will come in the place of ? in the following question?

(88.128 / ? ) / {(2.4 x 0.3)/(0.2 x 1.5)} = 18

a)1.04 b)2.04 c)3.04 d)4.04

Solution:
Given that (88.128 / ? ) / {(2.4 x 0.3)/(0.2 x 1.5)} = 18

Let us take ? as X.

Then, (88.128/X)/{(0.72) / (0.3)} = 18

(88.128/X)/2.4 = 18

88.128/X = 18 x 2.4

88.128/X = 43.2

43.2 x X = 88.128

X = 88.128 / 43.2

X = 2.04

Hence the answer will be 2.04

Question 6

One-fifth of sqrt(X) x 3 = 37.2 – sqrt(12.96)

a)2601 b)2916 c)3136 d)2704

Solution:

Given that one-fifth of sqrt(X) x 3 = 37.2 – sqrt(12.96)

i.e., 1/5 x sqrt(X) x 3 = 37.2 – 3.6

3/5 x sqrt(X) = 33. 6

sqrt(X) = 33.6 x 5/3

sqrt(X) = 11.2 x 5 = 56

X = 562 = 3136.

Question 7

What will come in the place of X in the following question:

3.5 – { 2.5 – [6.5 – (1.4/X)]} x 8.24 /(0.2)2 = 813.08

a)20 b)25 c)40 d)5.5

Solution:

3.5-{2.5-(6.5-(1.4/X))}x(8.24/0.04) = 813.08

3.5-{2.5-{(6.5X-1.4)/X)}x(824/4) = 813.08

3.5-{(2.5X-6.5X+1.4)/X} x 206 = 813.08

3.5-{(-4X+1.4)/X} x 206 = 813.08

3.5-{(-824X-288.4)/X} = 813.08

(3.5X+824X-288.4)/X = 813.08

827.5X-288.4 / X = 813.08

827.5X-288.4 = 813.08X

827.5X-813.08X = 288.4

14.42X = 288.4

X = 288.4 / 14.42

X = 20
Free online mock test for IBPS-CWE Clerical 2012 Exam (Just same as IBPS Pattern – Fully solved Questions with answer and Explanation)
Placement Paper
IBPS clerical aptitude questions answers All banks free solved question papers,IBPS PO,clerical SBT SBI,RRB,RBI,PSU companies model practice questions with answers and detailed explanations,

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?

(b) 25 minutes

(c) 28 minutes

(d) 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?

(a) 4096

(c) 512

(d) 1024

3. Find the number missing at question mark:

10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149

(b) 103

(c) 78

(d) 128

4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?

(a) 34 minutes
(c) 38 minutes
(d) 40 minutes

5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?

(a) 12
(b) 9
(d) 6

6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?

(a) 4
(c) 9
(d) 18

7. One fourth percent of 180 is:

(a) 4.5
(b) 0.45
(d) 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?

(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 180

9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135

(a) 16
(b) 15
(d) 14

10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?

(a) 16.67
(c) 23
(d) 17

11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is .

(a) 1:40
(c) 9:10
(d) 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?

(b) 250
(c) 240
(d) 210

13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?

(a) 25
(b) 00
(c) 75

14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?

(a) 30 seconds
(b) 36 seconds
(c) 20 seconds

15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be .

(b) 70 seconds
(c) 60 seconds
(d) 100 seconds

16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?

(a) Rs. 30
(b) Rs. 24
(d) Rs. 40

17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?

(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10

18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers

(b) 5005
(c) 9900
(d) 9050

19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:

(a) 12m
(b) 5m
(d) 11m

(a) 4
(c) 16
(d) 2

21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ..

(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3
(b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3-Answer
(d) No solution

22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?

(a) 2/3
(c) 1/3 (
d) 1/2

23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?

(b) 7.5%
(c) 16%
(d) 15%

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number

(a) 10
(b) 11
(d) 5

25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM

(a) 900
(c) 1500
(d) 2400

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in

(b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds
(d) 10 minutes

27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes
(c) 100 minutes
(d) 10000 minutes

28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:

(a) 250
(b) 750
(c) 400

29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?

(a) 6 days
(b) 7 days
(d) 8 days

30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?

(a) 25
(c) 26
(d) 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?

(a) 33 1/8 %
(b) 66 2/3 %
(c) 25 %

32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:

(a) 7,200m2
(b) 15,000m2
(c) 54,000m2

33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?

(a) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.0

34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?

(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 475

35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the

(a) Interior of the triangle

(b) Midpoint of the diameter

(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle

36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?

(a) 360
(b) 90
(c) 270

37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?

(a) Circumcentre
(c) Orthocenter
(d) Incentre

38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?

(a) 3r
(b) 4r
(d) ?3r

39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?

(a) 4:9
(b) 2:3
(d) 4:6

40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3?2, 6, 6?2 ?

(a) 3
(b) 2
(d) ?3

41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?

(b) 30
(c) 50
(d) 45

42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?

(b) 4 km/hr
(c) 4.5 km/hr
(d) 5 km/hr

43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?

(a) 20
(c) 30
(d) 32

44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.

(a) 48 sq.cm
(b) 34 sq.cm
(d) 42 sq.cm

45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54,

(b) 69
(c) 63
(d) 57

46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:

(a) 20
(b) 22
(d) 30

47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =

(a) 5 (
(c) 6
(d) 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30

(a) 800
(b) 600
(c) 1050

49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?

(a) 306
(c) 700
(d) 510

50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:

(a) 36
(c) 38
(d) 31

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IBPS clerical cadre Quantitative Aptitude Model Paper Questions Test – 1 model questions for practice
1. By what number less than 1000 must 43259 be multiplied So that the last three figures to the right of the product may be 437?
(a) 743 (b) 658 (c) 701 (d) None of these

2. By what least number must 217800 be multiplied in order to make it a perfect square?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these

3. Find the least number by which 19404 must be multiplied or divided so as to make it a perfect square.
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) None of these

4. Find the smallest number which is a perfect square and contains 1400 as a factor.
(a) 8670 (b) 9600 (c) 9000 (d) None of these

5. Find in the blank indicated by a star in the number 456 so as to make it divisible by 33
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) None of these

6. By what least number must 6796 by multiplied or divided in order that the resulting number may be a perfect square?
(a) 17 (b) 39 (c) 43 (d) None of these

7. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238 and 1400 leaving remainders 41,31 and 51 respectively.
(a) 71 (b) 64 (c) 67 (d) None of these

8. Find the greatest number that will divide 19409 and 43037 leaving remainders 17 and 29 respectively.
(a) 178 (b) 192 (c) 194 (d) None of these
9. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238, 1400 leaving remainders 41, 31 and 51 respectively.
(a) 64 (b) 71 (c) 69 (d) None of these
10. Find the greatest number which will divide 12288, 28200, and 44333 so as to leave the same remainder in each case.
(a) 221 (b) 120 (c) 272 (d) None of these

Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

3. Who is at the extreme right?
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)

7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)

12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)

14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)

15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)

16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question

22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
Directions (questions 26 to30 ):Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

26. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

27. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

28. Who is at the extreme right?
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

29. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

30. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

31 Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)

32 . In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit â€˜4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4â€™s and 6â€™s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

33. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

Directions (Q.34 & 35): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.

34 . How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

35 . How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

36 . If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)

37 . How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

38 . Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)

39 . Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)

40 . Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)

41 . If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

42 . If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

43. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

44. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

45 . Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 46 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.

46 ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet â€˜Sâ€™ in the question

47. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

48. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

49. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

50 ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper

IBPS Bank PO CWE QUANTITATIVE APTITUTE Questions
Directions (Qs. 1-20 ) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. (-251 X 21 X -21) ÷? = 158.13

A. 250 B. 400 C.300 D.150

2. 25.6 % of 250 + v? = 119

A. 4225 B. 3025 C.2025 D. 5625 E. None of these

3. 36865 + 12473 + 21045 – 44102 = ?

A. 114485 B. 28081 C. 26281 D.114845 E. None of these

4. (15.20)2 – 103.04 ) ÷ ? = 8

A. 12 B. 6.5 C.8.2 D.16 E. None of these

5. 0.4 X 1.5 / ? 0.2

A. 2 B. 3 C. 1.2 D. 0.3 E. None of these

6. 7428 X 3/4 X 2/9 X ? = 619

A. 0.5 B. 1.5 C. 0.2 D. 2.4 E. None of these

7. (560 ) ÷ 32 ) X (720 ÷ 48) = ?

A. 262.5 B. 255 C. 263.5 D. 271.25 E.None of these

8. 748 X ? X 9 = 861696

A. 122 B. 132 C. 128 D. 124 E. None of these

9. 3.2 % of 500 X 2.4 % of ? = 288

A. 650 B. 700 C. 600 D.750 E. None of these

10. 333 X 33 X 3 = ?

A. 32697 B. 36297 C. 32679 D. 39267 E. None of these

11. (36) 2 + (47) 2 ÷ ? = 28.04

A. 55 B. 75 C.105 D. 125 E. None of these

12. 3v? = (28 X 24 ) ÷ 14

A. 85184 B. 140608 C.97336 D. 117649 E. None of these

13. 14785 – 358 – 4158 – 9514 = ?

A.755 B. 825 C.721 D. 785 E. None of these

14. 156 + 328 X 0.8 = ?

A. 287.2 B. 352.8 C. 418.4 D. 451.2 E. None of these

15. 1148 ÷ 28 X 1408 ÷ 32 = ?
A. 1800 B. 1804 C. 1814 D. 1822 E. None of these

16. 3v148877 = ?

A. 51 B. 59 C.53 D. 49 E. None of these

17. 1425 + 8560 + 1680 ÷ 200 = ?

A. 58.325 B. 9973.4 C. 56.425 D. 9939.4 E. None of these

18. [(12) 2 X (14) 2 } (16) = ?

A. A.282.24 B.1764 C.126 D. 104.25 E. None of these
19. 2 & 4/25 + 3 & 1/5 = ?

A. 1 &7/15 B. 6 & 4/15 C. 5 & 4/15 D. 5 & 9/25 E. None of these

20. v? X v3025 = 2695

A. 2401 B. 2209 C. 2601 D. 2304 E. None of these

Directions (21-25) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?

21. 7413 7422 7440 ? 7503 7548

A. 7464 B. 7456 C. 7466 D.7466 E. None of these

22. 4 16 36 64 100 ?

A. 120 B. 180 C. 136 D. 144 E. None of these

23. 12 33 96 ? 852 2553

A.285 B. 288 C.250 D.540 E. None of these

24. 70000 14000 28000 ? 112 22.4

A. 640 B. 420 C.560 D. 540 E. None of these

25. 102 99 104 97 106 ?

A. 96 B. 95 C. 100 D.94 E. None of these

26. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator of the fraction is increased by 120% , the resultant fraction is 4/11. What is the original fraction ?

A. 4/15 B. 3/11 C.5/12 D. 6/11 E. None of these

27. Mr. Rao invests a sum of Rs.41.250 at the rate of 6+ p.c.p.a. What approximate amount of compound interest will he obatain at the end of 3 years ?

A. Rs.8,100 B. Rs. 7,425 C. Rs. 8,210 D. Rs.7,879 E. Rs. 7,295

28. The profit after selling a pair of trousers for Rs.863 is the same as the loss incurred after selling the same pair of trousers for Rs.631. What is the cost price of the pair of trousers ?

A. Rs. 750 B. Rs.800 C. Rs. 763 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

29. The ration of the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot is 6:5 respectively ; if the breadth of the plot is 34 metres less than the length, what is the perimeter of the rectangular plot ?

A. 374 metres B. 408 metres C. 814 metres D.748 metres E. None of these

30. Ninad, Vikas and Manav enter into a partnership. Ninad invests some amount at the beginning. Vikas invests double the amount after 6 months and Manav invests thrice the amount invested by Ninad after 8 months. They earn a Profit of Rs.45,000 at the end of the year. What is Manav’s share in the profit ?

A. Rs.25,000 B. Rs.15,000 C. Rs.12,000 D. Rs.9,000 E. None of these

31. The cost of 7 tables and 12 chairs is Rs. 48,250. What is the cost of 21 tables and 36 chairs?

A. Rs. 96,500 B. Rs.1,25,500 C. Rs. 1,44,750 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
32. ‘A’ can complete a piece of work in 12 days. ‘A’ and ‘B’ together can complete the same piece of work in 8 days. In how many days can ‘B’ alone complete the same piece of work ?

A. 15 days B. 18 days C. 24 days D. 28 days E. None of these

33. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question ?
6523 ÷ 544 X 1.2 = ?

A. 21 B. 33 C.14 D. 8 E.28

34. Raman drove from home to a neighbouring town the speed of 50 kms/hr and on his returning journey, he drove at the speed of 45 kms/hr. and also took an hour longer to reach home. What distance did he cover each way ?

A. 450 kms. B. 225 kms. C. 900kms. D. 500kms. E. None of these

35. 3/4th of 2/9th of 1/5th of a number is 249.6 What is 50 % of that number ?

A. 3794 B. 3749 C. 3734 D. 3739 E. None of these

36. The average weight of a group of 75 girls was calculated as 47 kgs. It was later discovered hat the weight of one of the girls was read as 45 kgs., Whereas her actual weight was 25 klgs. What is the actual average weight of the group of 75 girls ? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)

A. 46.73 kgs. B. 46.6 kgs. C. 45.96 kgs. D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

37. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘MIRACLE’be arranged?

A. 720 B. 5040 C. 2520 D.40320 E. None of these

38. The sum of the two digits of two digit number is 12 and the difference between the two digits of the two digit number I s6. What is the two-digit number ?
A. 39 B. 84 C.93 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
39. If an amount of Rs.74, 336 is equally divided amongst 150 people, how much approximate amount would each person get ?

A. Rs. 522 B. Rs.485 C. Rs.496 D. Rs.488 E. Rs.510

40. What is 170 % of 1140 ?

A. 1938 B. 1824 C. 1995 D.1881 E. None of these

41. Mr. Sarang invests 6 % of his monthly salary i.e. Rs. 2,100 on insurance policies . Also he invests 8% of his monthly salary on family medi claim policies and another 9 % of his salary on NSCs. What is the total annual amount invested by Mr. Sarang ?
A. Rs.11,400 B. Rs. 96,600 C. Rs.8,050 D. Rs.9,500 E. None of these

42. A trader sells 145 metres of cloth for Rs.12,325 at the profit of Rs.10 per metre of cloth. What is the cost price of one metre of cloth ?

Rs., Rs.65 B. Rs.75 C. Rs.95 D. Rs.85 E. None of these

43. There are 7 dozaen candles kept in a box. If there are 14 such boxes, how many candles are there in all the boxes together ?

A. 1176 B. 98q C.1216 D. 168 E. None of these

44. Which of the following smallest number should be added to 6659 to make it a perfect square ?

A. 230 B. 65 C.98 D.56 E. None of these

45. What is the greater of two number whose product is 1092 and the sum of the two numbers exceeds their difference by 42 ?

A. 48 B. 44 C. 52 D. 54 E. None of these

46. Veena obtained an amount of Rs.8,376 as simple interest on a certain amount at 8 p.c.p.a after 6 years. What is the a mount invested by Veena ?

A. Rs. 17,180 B. Rs.18,110 C. Rs.16,660 D. Rs.17,450 E. None of these

47. Two numbers are such that the sum of twice the first number and thrice the second number is 36 and the sum of thrice the first number and twice the second number is 39. Which is the smaller number ?

A.9 B. 5 C. 7 D.3 E. None of these

48. The difference between the present ages of Arun and Deepak is 14 years . Seven years ago the ratio of their ages was 5 :” 7 respectively. What is Deepak’s present age ?

A. 49 years B. 42 Years C. 63 years D. 35 years E. None of these

49. A, b,c,d and e are 5 consecutive even numbers. If the sum of ‘a’ and ‘d’ is 162, what is the sum of all the numbers ?

A. 400 B. 380 C. 420 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

50. What is 348 times of 265 ?

A. 88740 B. 89750 C. 95700 D. 92220 E. None of these

IBPS PO CWE Clerical free solved sample placement papers,IBPS PO CWE aptitude,reasoning english and general awareness based on bank questions with answers and detailed soultions

Directions (1-5) What approximate value should come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions ?(You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

1. (56)2 x 2.5385 = ?
(1) 4740
(2) 5570
(3) 6600
(4) 7960 – Ans
(5) 8880

2. (775% of 523) ÷ 777 = ?
(1) 5 – Ans
(2) 12
(3) 19
(4) 26
(5) 29

3. 783.559 + 49.0937 x 31.679 – 58.591 = ?
(1) 26600
(2) 5000
(3) 12800
(4) 2550
(5) 2280 – Ans

4. (4438 – 2874 – 559) ÷ (269 – 106 -83)
(1) 55
(2) 13 – Ans
(3) 47
(4) 29
(5) 31

5. (12.51)4 = ?
(1) 22300
(2) 23400
(3) 24500 – Ans
(4) 25600
(5) 26700

Directions (Q. 6-10) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?
6. 2187 729 243 81 27 9 ?
(1) 36
(2) 3 – Ans
(3) 18
(4) 6
(5) 12

7. 522 1235 2661 4800 7652 11217 ?
(1) 15495 – Ans
(2) 16208
(3) 14782
(4) 16921
(5) 14069

8. 51975 9450 2100 600 240 160 ?
(1) 80
(2) 120
(3) 320 – Ans
(4) 240
(5) 300

9. 4 18 48 100 294 ?
(1) 416
(2) 480
(3) 512
(4) 384
(5) 448 – Ans

10. 6 26 134 666 3334 16666 ?
(1) 84344
(2) 83443
(3) 84434
(4) 83334 – Ans
(5) 83344

Directions 11-20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
11. 4895 + 364 x 0.75 – 49 = ?
(1) 5119 – Ans
(2) 3895
(3) 3907
(4) 5210
(5) None of these

12. 5 and 1/4 +6 and 2/3+ 7 and 1/6 = ?
(1) 19.5
(2) 19 and 11/12
(3) 19 and 1/12 – Ans
(4) 19
(5) None of these

13. [(144)2 ÷ 48 x 18] ÷ 36 = v ?
(1) 23328
(2) 36
(3) 216
(4) 46656 – Ans
(5) None of these

14. (27)18 ÷ (27)3 = ?
(1) (27) 54
(2) (27) 21
(3) (27) 15 – Ans
(4) (27) 6
(5) None of these
Expl : (3)? = (27)18 ÷ (27)3
= (27)18-3 (:. am ÷ an = am-n)
= (27)15

15. 156 + 16 x 1.5 – 21 = ?
(1) 126
(2) 258
(3) 237
(4) 159 – Ans
(5) None of these

16. 434.43 + 43.34 + 3.44 + 4 + 0.33 = ?
(1) 421.45
(2) 455.54
(3) 485.54 – Ans
(4) 447.45
(5) None of these

17. 24336 ÷ ? = 78 x 24
(1) 6
(2) 13 – Ans
(3) 11
(4) 17
(5) None of these

18. (98)45 x (98)-35 = ?
(1) 98
(2) (98)2
(3) (98) -5
(4) (98)10 – Ans
(5) None of these

19. (78.95) – (43.35) = ?
(1) 4353.88 – Ans
(2) 4305
(3) 4235.78
(4)4148
(5) None of these

20. (23.6 % of 1254) – (16.6 % of 834) = ?
(1) 159.5
(2) 157.5 – Ans
(3) 155.5
(4) 153.5
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 21-25) In each of these questions, two equations I and II with variables a and b are given. You have to solve both the equations to find the values of a and b.
(1) a<b
(2) a<b
(3) relationship between a and b cannot be established
(4) a>b
(5) a>b

21. I. 16a2 = 1
II. 3b2 +7b +2 = 0
Ans : 4
From statement I, 16a2 = 1
==> a = + 1/4
From Statement II
3b2 +7b +2 = 0
3b2 +6b +b+2 = 0
3b(b+2) +1(b+2) = 0
==> (3b+1) (b+2) = 0
==> b = -2 or -1/3
:. a>b

22. I. a2 + 5a + 6= 0
II. b2 +7b +12 = 0
Ans : 5
From statement I, a2 + 5a + 6= 0
==> a2 + 2a + 3a+6= 0
==> a(a+2) (a+3)= 0
==> (a+2) (a+3)= 0
a=-2, -3

From statement II, b2 +7b +12 = 0
==> b2 +4b +3b+12 = 0
==> b(b+4) +3(b+4)= 0
==> (b+3) (b+4) = 0
b= -3, -4
:. a>b

23. I. a2 +2a +1 = 0
II. b2 = + 4
Ans : 3

24. I. a2 -5a + 6=0
II. 2b2 – 13b +21 = 0
Ans : 2

25. I. 2a2 + a-1 =0
II. 12b2 – 17b +6 =0
Ans :1

26. A 200m long train crosses a platform of double its length in 36s. What is the speed of the train in km/h. ?
(1) 60 – Ans
(2) 48
(3) 64
(4) 66
(5) None of these

27. Work done by A in one day is half of the work done by B in one day. Work done by B is half of the work done by C in one day. If C along can complete the work in 7 days, in how many days can A, B and C together complete the work ?
(1) 28
(2) 14
(3) 4 – Ans
(4) 21
(5) None of these

28. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DAILY be arranged ?
(1) 60
(2) 48
(3) 160
(4) 120 – Ans
(5) None of these

29. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two digit number is less than the original number by 63. If the sum of the digits of the number is 11, what is the orginal number ?
(1) 29
(2) 92 – Ans
(3) 74
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

30. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction is 15/16. What was the original fraction ?
(1) 8/11
(2) 10/11
(3) 9/13
(4) 10/13 – Ans
(5) None of these

31. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.996 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for Rs.894. What is the cost price of the article ?
(1) Rs.935
(2) Rs.905
(3) Rs.945 – Ans
(4) Rs.975
(5) None of these
32. The ages of Nishi and Vinnee are in the ratio of 6:5 respectively. After 9 yr the ratio of their ages will be 9:8. what is the difference in their ages ?
(1) 9 yr
(2) 7 Yr
(3) 5 Yr
(4) 3 Yr – Ans
(5) None of these

33. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.84000 at the end of 3 yr is Rs.30240. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period ?
(1) Rs.30013.95
(2) Rs. 31013.95
(3) Rs.32013.95
(4) Rs.33013.95
(5) Rs.34013.95 – Ans

34. The total of the ages of a class of 75 girsl is 1050, the average age of 25 of them is 12 yr and that of another 25 is 16 yr. find the average age of the remaining girls.
(1) 12 yr
(2) 13 yr
(3) 14 yr – Ans
(4) 15 yr
(5) None of these

35. One-fifth of the number is 81. What will 68% of that number be ?
(1) 195.2
(2) 275.4 – Ans
(3) 225.6
(4) 165.8
(5) None of these

36. In a class of 40 students and 8 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20 % of the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 25% of the total number of students. How many sweets were there?
(1) 420
(2) 400 – Ans
(3) 320
(4) 360
(5) None of these

37. What is 35% of 45% of 7/9th of 3600?
(1) 441 – Ans
(2) 414
(3) 444
(4) 411
(5) None of these

38. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that the committee has at least one woman ?
(1) 1/10
(2) 9/20
(3) 9/10 – Ans
(4) 1/20
(5) None of these

39. By how much is 5/12th of 516 lesser than 4/5th of 495 ?
(1) 22
(2) 15
(3) 12
(4) 27
(5) None of these – Ans

40. Ms. Deepthi jain invests 11% of her monthly salary, ie, Rs.5236 in Fixed Deposits. Later, she invests 19% of her monthly salary on Life Insurance Policies; also she invests another 7% of her monthly salary on Mutual Funds. what is the total annual amount invested by Ms. Deepti Jain ?
(1) Rs.211344 – Ans
(2) Rs.17612
(3) Rs.105672
(4) Rs.35224
(5) Non of the above

Placement Paper

IBPS Banking Question papers based on Test of Reasoning-Made Simple -Easy methods to crack verbal reasoning questions in Bank Test, Verbal Classification Notes,types of verbal classification Choose the odd word out,Choose the odd pair out ,Choose the odd number out ,Choose the odd numeral-pair group and Analogy – Tips and tricks to crack bank test,IBPS CWE analogy questions ‘Analogy’ means ‘correspondence’. Verbal analogical tests use words,Alphabet Analogy,Number Analogy, Completing the analogous pair

IBPS and Bank PO Clerical -Verbal Classification Questions and Tips :-

‘Classification’ means to assort the items of a given group on the basis of a certain common quality they possess and then spot the odd one out. Different types of questions that can be asked are as follows :-

(1) Choose the odd word out : In these questions, you are given a group of certain items out of which all except one are similar to one another in some manner. You have to identify the item which does not fit into the given group.

(2) Choose the odd pair out : In these type of questions, you are given certain pairs of words out of which the words in all the pairs except one bear a certain common relationship. You have to decipher the relationship and choose the pair in which the words are differently related than the remaining pairs.

(3) Choose the odd number out : In these type of questions certain numbers are given, out of which all except one are alike in some manner while one is different and this number is to be chosen as the answer.

(4) Choose the odd numeral-pair group : In these type of questions, certain pairs or groups of numbers are given out of which all except one are similar in some manner while one is different. The numbers in these similar pairs may have the same property or may be related to each other according to the same rule. You have to choose the odd pair/group.

IBPS and Bank PO Clerical ANALOGY Questions and Tips

‘Analogy’ means ‘correspondence’. Verbal analogical tests use words, letters and digits and require logical common sense reasoning to solve questions based on these. In these questions, a particular relationship is given and another similar relationship has to be identified from the alternatives provided. These analogical questions test the candidate’s overall knowledge and ability to think concisely and accurately.

Different types of questions that can be asked on Analogy are as follows :-

(1) Completing the analogous pair : In this, two words which are related to each other are given along with a third word. You have to find the relationship between the first two words and choose the word from the given options that bears the same relationship with the third word as the first two words.

(2) Choose the analogous pair : In these type of questions, a pair of words is given, followed by four pairs of words as options. You have to choose the pair in which the words have the same relationship to each other as the words in the given pair.

(3) Three word Analogy : In these types of questions, a group of three inter-related words is given. You have to trace the relationship among these three words and choose another group with similar analogy from the alternatives that are provided.

(1) Number Analogy : Two types of questions are asked on this.

(i) Choosing a similarly related pair as the given number pair on the basis of the relation between the numbers in each pair.

(ii) Choosing a number similar to a group of numbers on the basis of certain common properties they possess.

(5) Alphabet Analogy : In these type of questions, two groups of alphabets related to each other in some way are given. You have to find out his relationship and choose a group of alphabets that is related in the same way to the third group in the question.

Illustrative Questions

Directions (Q.Nos. 1-5) : – Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

1.

(1) Pear

(2) Mango

(3) Orange

(4) Apple

2.

(1) Sun

(2) Moon

(3) Star

(4) Mars

(5) Universe

Ans : Universe – All except Universe form part of the Universe.

3.

(1) Tailor

(2) Barber

(3) Engineer

(4) Carpenter

(5) Blacksmith

Ans : Barber – All except barber require raw material to work.

4.

(1) X-ray

(3) Telephone

(4) Computer

(5) Television

Ans : X-ray – All except X-ray are media instruments.

5.

(1) Arc

(2) Diagonal

(3) Tangent

(5) Diameter

Ans : Diagonal – All except diagonal are terms associated with circle.

Directions (Q.Nos. 1-11) : – Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

1.

(1) IJK

(2) ABC

(3) OPQ

(4) EFG

(5) VWX

Ans : VWX – In all the other groups, the first letters is the odd-numbered letter in the English alphabet.

9 10 11 1 2 3 15 16 17 5 6 7
I J K A B C O P Q E F G

But

22 23 24
V W X

2.

(1) Tiger

(2) Cow

(3) Bitch

(4) Mare

(5) Lioness

Ans : Tiger – Except tiger, all others are of feminine gender.

3.

(1) 13

(2) 17

(3) 19

(4) 27

(5) 23

Ans : 27 – Except 27, all others are prime numbers.
4.

(1) Pound

(2) Yen

(3) Ounce

(4) Franc

(5) Dollar

Ans : Ounce – All except ounce are names of currencies of different countries, while ounce is a unit of weight.

5

(1) Lemon

(2) Orange

(3) Malta

(4) Banana

(5) Pineapple

Ans : Banana – All except banana are juicy fruits.

6.

(1) Lake

(2) Tank

(3) River

(4) Pool

(5) Pond

Ans : River – All except river contain stagnant water.

7.

(1) Carrot

(2) Guava

(3) Tomato

(4) Pear

(5) Brinjal

Ans : Brinjal – All except brinjal can be eaten raw.

8.

(1) Sit

(2) Hit

(3) Kit

(4) Fit

(5) Knit

Ans : Kit – Except kit, the rest all are verbs. Kit is a noun.

9.

(1) Tab

(2) Pot

(3) Reed

(4) Level

(5) Hold

Ans : Hold – Other words when read backwards give meaningful words.

10.

(1) CFI

(2) UXA

(3) RUX

(4) SVZ

(5) LOR

Ans : SVZ

+3 +3
C ? F ? I

+3 +3
U ? X ? A

+3 +3
R ? U ? X

+3 +3
L ? O ? R

But,

+3 +4
S ? V ? Z

Therefore, ‘SVZ’ does not belong to the group.

11.

(1) 117

(2) 74

(3) 153

(4) 108

(5) 99

Ans : 74 – Except 74, all other numbers are completely divisible by 3.

Directions (Q.Nos. 12-16) : – The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship with each other, followed by five pairs of words. Select the pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

12. Escape : Abscond

(1) Endless : Eternal

(2) Flee : Surrender

(3) Exult : Jubilate

(4) Escalate : Weaken

(5) Confront : Submit

Ans : Endless : Eternal – Escape and abscond are nearly similar in meaning like endless and eternal.

13. Host : Hospitable

(1) Artist : Imitative

(2) Guest : Rude

(3) Humanitarian : Altruistic

(4) Idealist : Cynical

(5) Pollyanna : Pessimistic

Ans : Humanitarian : Altruistic – As a host is supposed to be hospitable, in the same way, a humanitarian is expected to be altruistic.

14. Editor : Magazine

(1) Director : Film

(2) Novel : Writer

(3) Psychiatrist : Neurotic

(4) Librarian : Library

(5) Poem : Poet

Ans : Director : Film – Like all actions of a magazine are interpreted by the editor, in the same way, all the actions of a film are interpreted by the director.

15. Pain : Misery

(1) Disease : poverty

(2) Despair : loneliness

(3) Ignorance : confusion

(4) Superstition : peasants

(5) Ignore : greet

Ans : Ignorance : Confusion – Pain causes misery and ignorance causes confusion.

16. ABD : EJL

(1) GFH : IPR

(2) IPR : URT

(3) IPR : OTY

(4) IPR : ORT

(5) GHI : PRT

Ans : IPR : ORT – This is a vowel-consonant based relationship. In the question pair, the first letters of each term are ‘A’ and ‘E’ which are first two vowels (AEIOU). In the same manner, the first term of the answer pair will begin with ‘I’ and the second term of the answer pair will begin with ‘O’. In the question pair, we have ABD i.e. the third letter in first term is obtained by skipping ‘C’. In the second term, ‘EJL’, ‘L’ is obtained by skipping ‘K’. So, the answer is (4) IPR : ORT.

Placement Paper
IBPS clerical cadre written test examination questions with answers and explanations, IBPS aptitude, Reasoning Arithmetic, logical Reasoning questions with answer

1. Ram went 15km to the west from his house, then he turned left and walked 20 km. He then turned east and walked 25 km and finally turning left covered 20 kms.How far was he from his house

5 kms
40 kms
80 kms
2. Vishnu ranks 16th from the top and 49th from the bottom in a class . How many students are there in the class

66
64
63
3. Mahesh is older than Samir and Jayanth.Navin is older than Samir but younger than Jacob.Jayanth is older than Jacob.Who among them is the oldest

Jayanth
Jacob
Navin
4. Choose the option related to the given numbers
21, 37, 53

19, 36, 55
35, 62, 79
47, 64, 80
5. Find out the next term in the given series
34, 18, 10, 6, 4, ….

2
1
0
6. DWH : WDS :: FUL : ………

ELV
OFU
FOU
7. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s son.Whose photograph was it

His own
His father’s
His nephew’s
8. In an examination 36 % is the pass mark.If an examinee gets 17 marks and fails by 10 marks, what was the maximum mark

70
65
55
9. If 76 is divided into four parts proportional to 7: 5: 3: 4 the smallest part is

15
16
19
10. A train 280 m long, running with a speed of 63 km/hr.will pass an electric pole in ………seconds

20 sec
15 sec
18 sec
11. Articles which are bought for Rs 400 are sold for Rs 560.Find the profit percent

45
60
40
65
12. If the total rainfall in a month is 75cm, then the average daily rainfall is

3.5 cm
1.5 cm
4 cm
13. A man sells an article for Rs 330, at a gain of 10 %.What did it cost him

340
330
360
14. 2.65 – 0.5 = ……….

2.60
3.70
3.15
15. If 27 x 29 = 783, then 0.27 x 290 = ………

7830
783
7.83
16. Which of the following names will be second in an alphabetical list ?

17 Haryana1. Which of the following names will be second in an alphabetical list ?

Kerala
18 . Which of the following names would be fourth in the telephone directory ?

Seeta Ram Agrawal
Seta Ram Agarwal
Seeta Ram Agarawal
19 . Ina military mode, TARGET is written as RATTEG. Using the same code BRIDGE should be written as

IRBDGE
BRIEGD
IRBEGD
20 . If x means ÷, – means x , ÷ means +, and + means -, then the value of the expression
(3- 15 ÷ 11) x 8 + 6 will be

0
8
4
21. A number exceeds its one fifth by 20, what is the number
22. Pointing to Veena in the photograph, Vishnu said, She is the daughter of my Grandfather’s only son.How is Veena related to Vishnu
23. If 27 x 29 = 783, then 0.27 x 290 = ………
24. A man sells an article for Rs 330, at a gain of 10 %.What did it cost him
25. If the total rainfall in a month is 75cm, then the average daily rainfall is
26. Which number should come in the blank space to complete the series
2, 6, 12, 36, 72, ……..
27. Find the value of 7° + 8° = ………..
28. If the radius of a circle is increased by 6 % , then its area is increased by ……….%
29. Which is the number that comes next in the following series.
4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, ……..
30. The downstream speed of a boat is 15 kmph. and the speed of the stream is 2 kmph.Then the upstream speed of the boat is …
31. When a number x is divided by 4 we get the cube of another number y.Find x if y3<10.
32. The smallest number which if divided by 9, 12, and 16 each time 5 remains. The number is ……….
33. Some boys are standing in a queue. If the 10th boy from behind is 5 behind the 12th boy from the front. how many boys are there in the queue
34. A cube is to be painted. No two adjacent faces can be coloured the same. What is the least number of colours needed
35. There are four roads. I have come from the south and want to go to the temple. The road to the right leads me away from the coffee house, straight ahead it leads only to a college. In which direction is the temple
36. A , B, C are intelligent.A, D, E are laborious. D, C, E are honest. A, B, E are ambitious. Which of the following are not honest
37. The average age of a husband and wife was 22 years when they were married five years back. What is the present average age of the family if they have a three year old child
38. A father tells his son, I was your present age when you were born. If father is 36 now, how old was the son five years back
39. If 3 + 3 = 27: 4 +7 = 84 and 5 +7 = 105, then 6 + 7= ………
40. Find out the number that comes in the missing position of the following number series:
0, 7, 26, 63, 124,…..
41. What will be the next number if the series of numbers is as follows 3, 11, 27, 59,……….
42. What will be the next number in the following series of numbers 2,4,16,……
43. Bangladesh : Dhaka ; Austria : ………..
44. Pareekkutty: Madhu; Chemban Kunju : ………..
45. Pather Panjali: Sathyajith Ray ;Athithi : ……………..
Answer : K . P. Kumaran

Free online mock test for IBPS-CWE Clerical 2012 Exam (Just same as IBPS Pattern – Fully solved Questions with answer and Explanation) Try It Now
1 Two students fought a college election. The winning student got 60 % of the total votes and won the election by 144 votes only. What was the total number of votes polled
2. 200 ÷ 20 ÷ 100 = ……..
3. If 75% of a number is added to 75 the result is the number itself, then the number is
4. 375÷ 25 – 19 = ……….
5. 2.65 – 0.5 = ……….
6. Articles which are bought for Rs 400 are sold for Rs 560.Find the profit percent
7. A train 280 m long, running with a speed of 63 km/hr.will pass an electric pole in ………seconds
8. If 76 is divided into four parts proportional to 7: 5: 3: 4 the smallest part is
9. In an examination 36 % is the pass mark.If an examinee gets 17 marks and fails by 10 marks, what was the maximum mark
10. The smallest prime number is
11. What is the largest number that divides 10 and 15 without a remainder
12. The ratio between two numbers is 2: 3. Their LCM is 36. What is the smaller number.
13. The marks obtained by a student in five subjects are 68, 73, 62, 85 and 79. Find the average score.
14. 21 ÷ 3 ( 10 – 3 ) – 20 + 1 =
15. 0.0076 ÷ 1.9 = …………
16. Which term of the progression 4, 7, 10, ………is 76
17. When 8 % of 630 is added to 12 % of 315, the sum is
18. One half of the students at an Indian University study German and 1/3 of others study French.The remaining 600 do not study any foreign language. How many students are there in the university.
19. A 300 m long train passes a pole in 12 secs. What is its speed in km/hr
20. A train runs for 2 hrs at the speed of 35 km/hr. It runs for 3 1/2 hrs at the speed of 60 km/hr and then runs for 2 1/2 hrs at the speed of 70 km/hr. Find the average speed of the train
21. In an examination 40 % students fail in maths, 30 % in English and 15 % in both.Find the pass percentage
22. A class has R rows of desks with D desks in each row. On a particular day when all the pupils were present, three seats were found vacant. The number of pupils in the class is
23. Nalini purchases a cycle for Rs. 660 including sales tax.If the rate of sales tax is 10 % find out the sale price of the cycle
24. Which one of the following is having greater value
25. What must be added to the numbers 6, 10, 14 and 22 so that they became successive proportional
Placement Paper
IBPS clerical cadre solved question papers,IBPS aptitude reasoning computer knowledge bank based general knowledge professional knowledge questions with answers,IBPS previous years solved question papers

IBPS REASONING ABILITY
1. Four teams, Team A, B, C and D participated in a tournament. Team C scored the least. Team B scored more than team D but not as much as Team A. Who amongst the four teams scored third highest ?
1. Team A
2. Team B
3. Team C
5. Cannot be determined

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JOURNEY each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order ?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
5. More than three

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
1. Jute
2. Cotton
3. Wool
4. Silk

Directions (Q. 4 and 5) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is to the South of B’.
If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is to the North of B’
If ‘A % B’ means ‘A is to the East of B’
If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is to the West of B’.

4. Which of the following means ‘P is to the East of Q’ ?
1. H % P – S + Q
2. Q + R × S – P
3. P % A – Q + B -Answer
4. Q – Z % S × P
5. None of these

5. In the equation F % Q + R – S, S is in which direction with respect to Q ?
1. East
2. South
3. West
4. South-West

Directions (Q. 6 – 8) The following questions are based on the five four digit numbers given below –
3475 2791 6458 1826 7534
6. What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is subtracted from the third digit of the second lowest number ?
1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 6

7. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right within the number, whichof the following will be the sum of all the four digits of the number which is third highest in the new arrangement?
1. 19

2. 18

3. 22

5. 23

8. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second lowest number ?
1. 3475

2. 2791

3. 6458

4. 1826

Directions – (Q. 9 – 13) In each question/set of questions below are statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give Answers –
1. If only conclusion I follows
2. If only conclusion II follows
3. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
4. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
5. If both conclusions I and II follow
9. Statements :
All gems are precious
Some gems are stones.
All stones are diamonds
Conclusions :
I. At least some stones are precious
II. All diamonds are precious.

10. Statements :
All dreams are fantasies.
Some fantasies are pleasant
All pleasant are everlasting
Some everlasting are memories
Conclusions :
I. Some dreams are memories
II. Some fantasies are everlasting
11. Statements :
All black are blue.
All blue are green
All green are emerald
Conclusions :
I. Some emeralds are green
II. All black and blue are green
Directions – (Q. 12 and 13)
Statements :
No design is fashion
All fashions are temporary
Some temporary are permanent

12. Conclusions :
I. Some designs are permanent
II. No fashion is permanent
13. Conclusions :
I. At least some temporary are fashions.
II. At least some temporary are not designs.
Directions – (Q.14 – 17) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions -Seven trees namely mango, lemon, apple, ashoka, banana, guava and papaya are planted in a straight row, not necessarily in the same order. (Assume as if the trees are facing North)
a. The papaya tree is planted fourth to the right of the lemon tree
b. The Ashoka tree is planted at the extreme right end of the row
c. The mango and guava trees are immediate neighbours of the lemon tree
d. The banana tree is planted immediately next to the mango tree

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so forma group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
1. lemon, mango
2. banana, apple
3. mango, banana
4. guava, lemon
15. Which trees are planted at the extreme ends of the row ?
1. guava, apple
2. lemon, ashoka
4. lemon, papaya
5. guava, papaya

16. Which of the following tree is planted exactly in the middle of the row ?
1. papaya
2. mango
4. lemon
5. apple

17. What is the position of the apple tree with respect to the guava tree ?
1. Second to the right
2. Fourth to the right -Answer
3. Immediate left
4. Third to the right
5. Third to the left3

Directions – ( 18 – 21 ) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions –
A, B, C, D, F, G, H and J are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
a. D sits exactly between J and F.
b. J sits second to the left of F and second to the right of B.
c. H sits third to the left of G.
d. A is not an immediate neighbour of B.-Answer

18. How many people sit between G and H when counted in an anti-clockwise direction from G ?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
5. Five

19. If H : F then J : ?
2. F
3. H
4. G
5. None of these

20. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in anticlock-wise direction, starting from A, the positions of how many (excluding A) will remain nchanged as compared to their original seating positions ?
1. None
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four

21. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting to the immediate left of the first person ?
1. GJ
2. FA
4. AH
5. DF

Directions (Q. 22 – 26) Study the following arrangement of digits and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below –
3 4 2 6 8 7 © 5 4 £ 3 2 9 \$ 1 6 5 3 7 # 9 8 6 @ 2 1 4 3 ? 9 8 7 2 ? 4 3
22. How many 2’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square ?
(1 is also a perfect square)
1. None
2. One
4. Three
5. Four

23. Which of the following is fifth to the right of the eighteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
1. \$

2. 9

3. 2 4. @

24. How many symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded as well as followed by an even number in the above arrangement ?
1. One
3. Three
4 Four
5. Five

25. If all the digits that are perfect squares are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the thirteenth (digit/symbol) from the left end of the above arrangement ?(1 is also a perfect square)
1. \$ 2. 6 3. # 4. 7 5. 5-Answer

26. How many pairs of digits are there in the number highlighted in bold in the above arrangement each of which has as many digits between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the numerical series ?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
5. Five

Directions – (Q. 27 – 30) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by five combinations of number / symbol codes lettered 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the letter of that combination as your answer –
Letter P I R S E J L O D N X A B C K
Number Symbol code:/ : ? 5 4 # 3 8 @ 7 2 1 \$ 6 ? 9 ?
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the fifth elements are vowels, the codes for both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the group of letters contains no vowel, the codes for the first and the last elements are to be interchanged
(iii) If the third element is a vowel and the fourth a consonant, the fourth element is to be coded as the code for the second element.
27. JDRALS
2. 8246#@
3. 8264@#
4. 8@426#
5. 2846@#

28. ORNKEL
1. 314?7@
2. 374?1@
3. 741?3@
5. 714?3@

29. EPBCOK
2. 3??97?
3. 3?9?7?
4. ?3? 79?
5. 3??97?

30. RXISCN
1. \$45\$91
2. 4\$9\$51
4. 4\$\$951
5. 4\$\$519

IBPS clerical QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (Q. 1 – 10) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
1. (124)2+ 0.4624 = ?
1. 1.7024
3. 2 4. 1.542
5. None of these

2.
v256/ 337 *1011/ 1024 = ?
1. 4/3
3. 1/2
4. 2/3
5. None of these

3.961/1681 =?
1. 29/39
2. 31/49
4. 21/39
5. None of these

4. 2/7(54*2-6)*?=1/4 of 3024
1. 24
2. 756
3. 92.41
4. 29.41

5. 0.006 × 0.2 × 0.35 = ?
1. 0.000042
3. 0.0042
4. 0.000004
2 5. None of these
6.v 7 of 64 +(7 +9)?
1. 28
3. 17
4. 73
5. None of these

7.80/0.4 +0.8/8 = ?

1. 1125
3. 200
4. 20
5. None of these

8.vof 0.9 =?
1. 0.3
2. 0.0
4. 0.992
5. 0.45

9. Ifv 16/49=?/ 49
1. 4
2. 7
3. 16
5. 29

10. 9 + 99 + 999 + 9999 = ?
1. 111006
2. 11007
3. 12006
5. None of these

Directions (Q. 11 – 15) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in following equations.
11. 35% of 121 + 85% of 230.25 = ?
1. 225
2. 230
4. 245
5. 228

12. 3.2 × 8.1 + 3185 / 4.95 = ?
1. 670
3. 645
4. 690
5. 685

13. 2508 / 15.02 + ? × 11 = 200
1. 13
2. 8
4. 4
5. 6

14. 42.07 × 7.998 + (?)2 = 202
1. 6
2. 12
3. 32
4. 64

15. 2375.85 / 18.01 – 4.525 × 8.05 = ?
1. 105
2. 96
3. 88
5. 112

Directions (Q.16 – 20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series.
16. 21, 24, 33, 48, 69, 96, ?
2. 126
3. 132
4. 135
5. None of these

17. 540, 316, 204, 148, 120, 106 ?
1. 92
2. 89
3. 98
5. None of these

18. 135, 124, 111, 96, 79, 60 ?
1. 37
2. 41
3. 43
4. 35

19. 23, 32, 50, 77, 113, 158 ?
1. 213
3. 203
4. 221
5. None of these

20. 37, 101, 150, 186, 211, 227, ?
1. 235
2. 231
3. 238
5. None of these

21. A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to make water 20% in the new mixture ?
1. 9 ltrs
2. 7 ltrs
4. 10 ltrs
5. None of these

22. What would be the cost of building a fence around a square plot with area equal to 361 sq.ft. If the price per foot of building the fence is Rs. 62?
1. Rs.4026
3. Rs. 3948
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these

23. When the price of an item was reduced by 15%, the sale of the item increased by 20%. What was the effect on the sales
2. 2% decrease
3. 1% increase
4. 1% decrease
5. None of these

24. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘TRUST’ be arranged ?
1. 240
2. 120
3. 80
4. 25

25. Manish travels at the speed of 40 km/hr for 3 hours and the speed of 60 km/hr for 4.5 hours. In this way he covers three fifths of the total distance. At what average speed should he travel to cover the remaining distance in 4 hours ?
1. 60 km/hr
2. 70 km/hr
3. 62 km/hr
5. None of these

26. An empty pipe can empty 1/4 of a cistern in 15 minutes. In 5 minutes, what part of the cistern will be emptied?.
1.3/4

2. 1/3
3. 1/2
5. None of these

27. Alok, a marine student, has to secure 60% to get first division. He gets 450 marks and misses the first class by 30 marks. Find the maximum marks
1. 600
2. 650
3. 700
4. 750

28. The difference between simple and compound interests on a certain sum for 3 years at 5% is Rs.61/- Find the sum
1. Rs.9000
2. Rs.9261
3. Rs. 9200
5. None of these

29. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is 9. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 15, then what is the original number?
1. 89
2. 67
3. 87
4. 96

30. A man has Rs. 480 in the denomination of one-rupee notes, five rupee notes and ten – rupee notes. The number of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes ?
2. 75
3. 60
4. 45
5. 30
Directions (Q. 111 – 115) : In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. Youhave to solve both the equations and – Give Answer if
1. x < y
2. x < y
3. x > y
4. x > y
5. x = y or the relationship can not be established

Directions (Q. 31 – 35) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Number of Females and Males working in five different organisations

31. What is the ratio of the number of females to the number of males from organisation A ?
1. 11 : 8
2. 7 : 6
3. 8 : 11
5. None of these

32 The number of males in the Organisation D forms what percent of the total number of employees from that organisation ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
2. 62.64
3. 52.25
4. 61.47
5. None of these

33. What is the total number of employees working in Organisation C and B together ?
1. 8950
2. 9520
3. 8250
4. 9500

34. The number of females from Organisation E forms approximately what percent of the total number of employees from that Organisation ?
1. 58
2. 60
4. 62
5. 55

35. What is the total number of females from all the Organisations together ?
1. 11540
3. 12440
4. 10250
5. None of these

36. The number of females from Organisation E forms approximately what percent of the total number of employees from that Organisation ?
1. 58
2. 60
4. 62
5. 55

37 . What is the total number of females from all the Organisations together ?
1. 11540
3. 12440
4. 10250
5. None of these

IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Quantitative and Reasoning Questions with answers

Question papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination Pattern and Latest Question Papers\
IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Common Written Examination (CWE) for PO,Clerical and Gramin Banks Officer scale jobs
IBPS PO (CWE) Gramin Banks Latest Selection Procedures2012|Aptitude Reasoning, Data Interpretation computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions
IBPS Previous Years question papers with answers Detailed Test Analysis|IBPS

IBPS Quantitiative and Reasoning Questions with answers

1. Four bells will ring at intervals of 18, 24, 32 and 40 seconds. If they begin by ringing together what time will elapse before they ring together again?
a. 1000 min
b. 2000 min
c. 1440 min
d. 1560 min
2.At what rate will the interest on Rs. 1125/- be Rs. 225 for 4 years?
a. 6%
b. 5%
c. 8%
d. 4%

3,By selling 32 books for Rs. 100/- a man loses 40%. How many books shall he sell for Rs. 100/- to gain 20%?
a. 18
b. 16
c. 10
d. 8

4.A person spends Rs. 501 in buying tables and chairs. If the cost of each chair is Rs. 15 and table costs 40% more than the chair and total number of articles he bought was 27, how many of each kind did he buy?
a. 16, 11
b. 15, 12
c. 13, 14
d. 10, 17

5.Milk is available in two vessels. The ratio of milk to water in each of the vessels is 9 : 7 and 11 : 8 respectively. Which vessel contains more water?
a) 2nd Vessel
b) 3rd Vessel
c) 1st Vessel
d) None

6.If 6 horses eat 108 kg of grass in 4 days, how much grass will be eaten by 20 horses in 3 days?
a) 440
b) 270
c) 430
d) None

7.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.5 lakhs and Rs.6 lakhs respectively. After 6 months A invested Rs.1 lakh and after one more year B withdrew 2 lakhs. Find the share of A in the profit of Rs.26 lakhs at the end of the third year.
a) 2 lakhs
b) 4 lakhs
c) 7 lakhs
d) 14 lakhs

8.P and Q entered into a partnership with Rs.75000 and Rs.1,25,000 respectively. Q was the sleeping partner. At the end of the year they shared the profit of Rs.2,40,000 in the ratio of 5 : 3. Find the salary drawn by P.
a) Rs.48000
b) Rs.96000
c) Rs.25000
d) None

9.A sum of Rs5500 is lent out in 3 parts in such a way that the interest on first part at 5% for 2 years and the interest on the second part at 6% for 5 years and that of 4% for 5 years on the third part are equal. The ratio in which the sum is divided into three parts is ….
a) 6 : 2 : 3
b) 3 : 6 : 2
c) 3 : 2 : 6
d) 6 : 3 : 2

10.Two taps A & B can fill a cistern in 12 and 16 minutes respectively. Both fill taps are opened together, but 4 minutes before cistern is full, one tap A is closed. How much time will the cistern take to fill?
a) 9 1/7 min.
b) 3 1/7 min.
c) 11 1/7 min.
d) None

1.C, 2.B, 3.B, 4.A, 5.C, 6.B, 7.D, 8.B, 9.A, 10.A
IBPS Qunatitaitive aptitude Questions

1.A sum of money amounts to Rs.6050 in 2 years and to Rs.6655 in 3 years at C.I. being compounded annually. Find the sum and the rate?
a) Rs.5000, 10%
b) Rs.6000, 20%
c) Rs.8000, 10%
d) None of these

2.A manufacturer sells an article to a wholesale dealer at a profit of 20% and the wholesale dealer sells it to a retail merchant at a loss of 5%. Find the resultant profit or loss%
a) 14% loss
b) 14% gain
c) 12% gain
d) None

3.A man can row 6 km/hr in still water. If the speed of stream is 2km/hr, it takes him 3 hours to row to a place and back. How far is the place?
a) 16 km
b) 10 km
c) 12 km
d) 8 km

4.A boat traveled from A to B and back to A from B in 5 hours. If the speed of boat in still water and the speed of stream be 7.5 kmph and 1.5 kmph, then what is the distance between A and B?
a) 80 km
b) 45 km
c) 18 km
d) 19 km

5.A mixture of 66 litres of milk and water are in the ratio of 5 : 1, water is added to make the ratio 3 : 5. find the quantity of water added.
a) 20 litres
b) 18 litres
c) 22 litres
d) 24 litres

6.40 litres of mixture of milk and water contains 10% of water. The water to be added to make water content 20% in the new mixture is ….
a) 6 litres
b) 6.5 litres
c) 5.5 litres
d) 5 litres

7.A clock which loses 50 seconds every two minutes is set at 6.00 P.M. on a certain day. What is the time shown by this watch if the current time is 3.00 P.M.?
a) 4 P.M.
b) 9 P.M.
c) 5 P.M.
d) 6 P.M.

8.Today is Tuesday. What day of the week it was 124 days before?
a) Wednesday
b) Thursday
c) Tuesday
d) Wednesday

9.In a km race, P beats Q by 25 m or 5 sec then find the time taken by P to complete the race.
a) 3 min 15 sec
b) 4 min 20 sec
c) 2 min 30 sec
d) 5 min 10 sec

10.9876543210 is divisible by
a) 5, 9 & 11
b) 5, 9 but not by 11
c) 9 & 11 but not by 5
d) 11 & 5 but not by 9

1.A, 2.B, 3.D, 4.C, 5.C, 6.D, 7.B, 8.B, 9.A, 10.B

11Find the last digit of the product 8743 x 7156 x 7567 x 8452
a) 3
b) 6
c) 4
d) 2

12.Two numbers in binary system are 110010011 and 101010101. Find their difference in decimal system.
a) 66
b) 56
c) 65
d) 62

3.The side of a square is decreased by 10%. What is the percent of change in area?
a) 20% decrease
b) 100% decrease
c) 19% decrease
d) 21% decrease

14.In an examination, 22% students failed. If the number of passed candidates was 420 more than number of failed candidates, then the total number of candidates appeared the examination is?

a) 300
b) 324
c) 750
d) 960

15.The average age of a family of 6 members is 22 years. If the age of the youngest member be 7 years, the average age of the family at the birth of the youngest member is ……
a) 15 years
b) 17 years
c) 17.5 years
d) 18 years

16.Find the average of squares of first consecutive even numbers from 1 to 26.
a) 243
b) 236
c) 252
d) 235

17.A’s money : B’s money = 4 : 5 and B’s money : C’s money = 2 : 3. If A has Rs.800, then what amount of money C has?
a) 1600
b) 2700
c) 1500
d) None

18.The income of A, B and C are in the ratio 7 : 9 : 12 and their spending are in the ratio 8 : 9 : 15. If A saves 1/4th of the income then what is the ratio of the savings of A, B and C?
a) 56 : 69: 99
b) 56 : 99 : 69
c) 69 : 56 : 99
d) None

19.A, B and C started a business. The capital of A is three fourth of as much as the capitals of B and C together and the capital of B is two third of as much as the capitals of C and A together. Find the share of C in the annual profit of Rs.1,75,000.

a) Rs.15000
b) Rs.30000
c) Rs.8000
d) None

20.If the S.I. for 3 years at 5% is Rs.1200 then find the C.I.
a) Rs.1206
b) Rs.1241
c) Rs.1251
d) Rs.1261

1.D, 2.D, 3.C, 4.C, 5.D, 6.C, 7.C, 8.B, 9.D, 10.D

IBPS Reasoning Number series Questions

1. 9, 25, ?, 81, 121
a) 64
b) 36
c) 49
d) 91

2.5, 8, 13, 20, 29, ?
a) 30
b) 38
c) 32
d) 33

3.10, 13, 19, 22, 28, 31, ?
a) 37
b) 39
c) 34
d) 38

4.6, 12, 21, ?, 48
a) 33
b) 38
c) 40
d) 45

5.2, 5, 9, 14, ?, 27
a) 21
b) 20
c) 25
d) 22

6.6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?
a) 42
b) 51
c) 91
d) 81

7.10, 18, 28, 40, 54, 70, ?
a) 88
b) 87
c) 85
d) 86

8.120, 99, ?, 63, 48, 35
a) 82
b) 80
c) 70
d) 63

9.1, 6, 15, ?, 45, 66, 91
a) 25
b) 26
c) 27
d) 28

10.2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
a) 73
b) 75
c) 76
d) 78

1.C, 2.B, 3.A, 4.A, 5.B, 6.D, 7.A, 8.B, 9.D, 10.B
IBPS Reasoning Questions -Calendars
1. Find the number of odd days in 200 days.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

2.Find the number of odd days in 425 days.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

3.Find the number of odd days in 49 years.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

4.What day of the week on 26th Jan 1950?
a) Monday
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Thursday

5.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October, 1869. What day was it of the week?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Saturday
d) Sunday

6.What day of the week on 2nd June, 1988?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday

7.What day of the week on 15th August, 1947?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday

8.What day of the week on 31st October, 1984?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday

9.What day of the week on 14th March, 1993?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday

10. What day of the week on 14th November, 1889?
a) Monday
b) Wednesday
c) Thursday
d) Saturday
1.B, 2.A, 3.C, 4.D, 5.C, 6.A, 7.B, 8.D, 9.D, 10.C

IBPS Bank PO CWE Percentage Topic Questions

1. A reduction of 10% in price of sugar enables a housewife to buy 5 kg more for Rs. 300/-. Find the reduced price per kg of sugar
a. 5/-
b. 4.5/-
c. 6/-
d. None

2. From a 20lt solution of alt and water with 20% salt, 2lt of water is evaporated. Find the new % concentration of salt
a. 20%
b. 23%
c. 25%
d. None

3. In a list of weights of candidates appearing for police selections, the weight of A is marked as 58 kg instead of 46.4 kg. Find the percentage of correction required
a. 30
b. 20
c. 24
d. None

4. A person spends 20% of his income on rent, 20% of the rest on food, 10% of the remaining on clothes and 10% on groceries. If he is left with Rs. 9520/- find his income
a. 10000/-
b. 15000/-
c. 20000/-
d. None

5. A shopkeeper offers three successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 30% to a customer. If the actual price of the item is Rs. 10000, find the price the customer has to pay to the shopkeeper.
a. 5040/-
b. 4000/-
c. 6000/-
d. None

6. If 10lt solution of water and alcohol containing 10% alcohol is to be made 20% alcohol solution, find the volume of alcohol to be added
a. 1 lt
b. 1.25 lt
c. 1.5 lt
d. 2 lt

7. A is twice B and B is 200% more than C. By what percent is A more than C?
a. 400
b. 600
c. 500
d. 200

8. In an examination, a student secures 40% and fails by 10 marks. If he scored 50%, he would pass by 15 marks. Find the minimum marks required to pass the exam
a. 250
b. 100
c. 110
d. 125

9. If A is 20% taller than B, by what percent is B shorter than A?
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 16.66%
d. None

10. The population of a town increases at a rate of 10% for every year. If the present population is 12100, find the population two years ago
a. 11000
b. 9800
c. 10000
d. 10120

IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude Questions
1. Mohan started a business with a capital of Rs.16000. After 2 months Venu joined him with a capital of Rs.20000. At the end of the year they got Rs.4900 as a profit. Find the share of Mohan in this profit.
a) Rs.20000
2) Rs.24000
c) Rs.18000
d) None

2.Kiran started a business with Rs.25000. After certain months Madhav joined with Rs.40000. At the end of the year they shared the profits in the ratio of 3 : 4. After how many months Madhav joined?
a) 1 month
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 4 months

3.Vimala and Kamala entered into a partnership with Rs.15000 and Rs.25000 respectively. After 4 months Vimala put in Rs.5000 more. Find the share of Kamala in the annual profit of Rs.26000.
a) Rs.15000
b) Rs.12000
c) Rs.18000
d) Rs.9000

4.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.50000 and Rs.60000 respectively. After 4 months A invested Rs.25000 more while B withdrew Rs.20000. Find the share of B in the profit of Rs.1,70,000.
a) Rs.5000
b) Rs.10000
c) Rs.8000
d) None

5.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.45000 and Rs.36000 respectively. After 4 months they invested Rs.10000 each. Find the difference between their shares in the annual profit of Rs.2,58,000.
a) Rs.27000
b) Rs.58000
c) Rs.54000
d) Rs.48000

6.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.5 lakhs and Rs.6 lakhs respectively. After 6 months A invested Rs.1 lakh and after one more year B withdrew 2 lakhs. Find the share of A in the profit of Rs.26 lakhs at the end of the third year.
a) 2 lakhs
b) 4 lakhs
c) 7 lakhs
d) 14 lakhs

7.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.24000 and Rs.35000 respectively. B was a sleeping partner. At the end of the year they received Rs.18200 each. Find the salary of A.
a) Rs.5720
b) Rs.2750
c) Rs.4720
d) None

8.P and Q entered into a partnership with Rs.75000 and Rs.1,25,000 respectively. Q was the sleeping partner. At the end of the year they shared the profit of Rs.2,40,000 in the ratio of 5 : 3. Find the salary drawn by P.
a) Rs.48000
b) Rs.96000
c) Rs.25000
d) None

9.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.48000 and Rs.60000 respectively. B was the sleeping partner. A had to take 25% of total profit and the rest to be divided between them in proportion of their capitals. If A got Rs.21000 at the end of the year then find the total profit.
a) Rs.18000
b) Rs.9000
c) Rs.36000
d) None

10.A, B and C started a business. The capital of A is three fourth of as much as the capitals of B and C together and the capital of B is two third of as much as the capitals of C and A together. Find the share of C in the annual profit of Rs.1,75,000.
a) Rs.15000
b) Rs.30000
c) Rs.8000
d) None

1.B, 2.B, 3.A, 4.B, 5.C, 6.D, 7.A, 8.B, 9.C, 10.D

1. Raju buys a watch for Rs.350 and sells it for Rs.392. Find his profit percentage.
a) 9%
b) 12%
c) 14%
d) None

2.Kumar purchased an article for Rs.5200 and spent Rs.800 on its repair. He had to sell it for Rs.5500. Find his profit or loss percentage.
a) 8 1/3 % loss
b) 7 1/2 % profit
c) 9% loss
d) None

3.A tooth paste marked Rs.80 is sold for Rs.68. Find the rate of discount.
a) 12%
b) 14%
c) 15%
d) None

4.Mr.Sharma bought 200 dozen mangoes at Rs.10 per dozen. He spent Rs.500 on transportation. He sold them at Rs.1 each. Find the profit or loss%.
a) 4%
b) 6%
c) 5%
d) None

5.Mr.Shekar sold his bike for Rs.10500 at a profit of 5%. Find the C.P. of the bike.
a) Rs.10300
b) Rs.10700
c) Rs.10000
d) None

6.Sujan buys a binocular for Rs.1800 and sells it at 10% loss. Find its S.P.
a) Rs.1620
b) Rs.1730
c) Rs.1650
d) None

7.Ravi purchased 120 rims of paper at Rs.80 per rim. He spent Rs.280 on transportation, paid tax at the rate of 40 paise per rim and also paid Rs.72 to the workers. He wants to gain 8% then find the S.P. per rim.
a) Rs.89
b) Rs.90
c) Rs.95
d) None

8.A shopkeeper loses 7% by selling an item for Rs.31. For how much should he sell the ball so as to gain 5%?
a) Rs.50
b) Rs.65
c) Rs.35
d) None

9.A shopkeeper sold some articles at Rs.35 per article and gained 40% on it. What would be the S.P. of each article if he wants to gain 60% profit?
a) Rs.40
b) Rs.45
c) Rs.50
d) None

10.A man bought oranges at the rate of 6 for Rs.20 and sold them at 4 for Rs.16. Find his estimated profit%.
a) 23%
b) 18%
c) 20%
d) None

1.B, 2.A, 3.C, 4.B, 5.C, 6.A, 7.B, 8.C, 9.A, 10.C

Complete preparation kit for Bank PO Common Written Examination
IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Reasoning Question Paper
IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions

REASONING

IBPS Bank PO CWE Coding and Decoding Questions

1. In a certain code language ‘how many goals scored’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7’ : ‘many more matches’ is written as ‘9 8 2’ and ‘he scored five’ is written as ‘1 6 3’. How is ‘goals’ written in that code language ?

A. 5 B. 7 C.5 or 7 D. Data Inadequate E. None of these

2. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONDENSER written in that code ?

A. RMNBSFEJ B. BNMRSFEJ C.RMNBJEFS D. TOPDQDCH C. RMNBJEFS D.TOPDQDCH E. None of these

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter only once in each word ?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

4. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest ?

A. B B. E C. C D. Data Inadequate E. None of these

5. Each odd digit in the number 6263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the third digit from the left and after the rearrangement ?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. None of these

6. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before twenty third April but after Nineteenth April, whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is not on or after twenty second April. On which day in April is definitely their mother’s birthday ?

A. Twentieth B. Twenty –first C. Twentieth or Twenty –first D. Cannot be determined E. None of

these

7. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 meters he took a right turn and walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and walked 100 meters. He again took a right turn and walked 30 meters and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the starting point ?

A. 50 meters South B. 150 meters North C. 180 meters East D. 50 meters North E. None of these
8. If ‘÷’ means ‘+’ ; ‘-‘ means ‘x’ ; ‘x’ means ‘÷’ and ‘+’ means ‘-‘; then ________ 15-8 x 6 ÷12+ 4 = ?

A. 20 B. 28 C. 8 4/7 D.2 2/3 E. None of these

9. Town D is toward East of town F. Town B is towards North of town D. Town H is towards South of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F ?

A. East B. South-East C. North-East D. Data inadequate E. None of these

10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

IBPS Bank PO CWE Logical Deductions Questions

Directions (Qs. 11-15) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Your have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11.Statements :
All cups are bottles
Some bottles are jugs
No jug is plate
Some Plates are tables

Conclusions :
I. Some tables are bottles.
II. Some plates are cups.
III. No table is bottle.
IV. Some jugs are cups.

A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Only IV follows
E. Only either I or III follows

12. Statements :
Some Chairs are handles.
All Handles are pots
All pots are mats.
Some mats are buses.

Conclusions :
I. Some buses are handles.
II. Some mats are chairs.
III. No bus is Handle.
IV. Some mats are handles

A. Only I, II and IV follow
B. Only II, III and IV follow
C. Only either I or III and II follow
D. Only either I or III and IV follow
E. Only either I or III and II and IV follow

13. Statements:
All birds are horses.
All horses are tigers.
Some tigers are lions.
Some lions are monkeys.

Conclusions :
I. Some tigers are horses.
II. Some monkeys are birds.
III. Some tigers are birds.
IV. Some monkeys are horses.
A. Only I and III follow
B. Only I, II and IV follow
C. Only II, III and IV follow
D. All I, II, III and IV follow
E. None of these

14. Statements :
Some benches are walls.
All walls are houses.
Some houses are jungles.

Conclusions :
II. Some jungles are walls.
III. Some houses are benches.

A. Only I and II follow
B. Only I and III follow
C. Only III and IV follow
D. Only II, III and IV follow
E. None of these

15. Statements :
Some sticks are lamps.
Some flowers are lamps.
Some lamps are dresses.
All dresses are shirts.

Conclusions :
I. Some shirts are sticks
II. Some shirts are flowers
III. Some flowers are sticks
IV. Some dresses are sticks.

A. None of follows
B. Only I follows
C. Only II follows
D. Only III follows
E. Only IV follows

Directions (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below;

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization working in three departments viz, personnel, Administration and Marketing with not more than three of them in any department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from football, cricket, volleyball, badminton, lawn tennis, basketball, hockey and table tennis None of these necessarily in the same order.

D works in Administration and does not like either football or cricket. F works in Personnel with only A who likes table tennis. E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes hockey and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in Administration and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who work in Administration likes football. The one who likes volleyball works in Personnel. None of those who work in Administration likes either badminton or lawn tennis. H does not like cricket.

16. Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department?

A. EGH B. AF C. BCD D. BGD E. Data inadequate

17. In which department does E work ?
A. Personnel
B. Marketing
E. None of these

18. Which of the following combinations of employee –department-favourite sport is correct ?

B. F-Personnel-Lawn Tennis
C. H-Marketing-Lawn Tennis
E. None of these

19. What is E’s favourite sport ?
A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Basketball D. Lawn Tennis E. None of these

20. What is G’s favourite sport ?
A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Basketball D. Lawn Tennis E. None of these

IBPS Bank PO CWE Symbols and Notations Blood Relationship Questions

Directions (Qs. 21-25) : In the following questions, the symbols @, \$, *, # and & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below;

‘P \$ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P& Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P 8 Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

21. Statements : H @T, T#F, F&E, E*V

Conclusions : I. V \$F
II. E @ T
III . H @ V
IV. T # V

A. Only I, II and III are true
B. Only I, II and IV are true
C. Only II, III and IV are true
D. Only I, III and IV are true
E. All I, II, III and IV are true.

22. Statements : D # R, R * K, K @ F, F \$ J
Conclusions : I. J # R
II. J # K
III. R # F
IV. K @ D

A. Only I, II and III are true
B. Only II, III and IV are true.
C. Only I, III and IV are true.
D. All I, II, III and IV are true.
E. None of these.

23. Statements : N & B, B \$ W, W # H, H * M

Conclusions : I. M @ W
II. H @ N
III. W & N
IV. W # N

A. Only I is true
B. Only III is true.
C. Only IV is true.
D. Only either III or IV true.
E. Only either III or IV and I are true.

24. Statements : R * D , D \$ J, J #M, M @ K
Conclusions : I. K # J
II. D @ M
III. R # M
IV. D @ K

A. None is true
B. Only I is true
C. Only II is true
D. Only III is true
E. Only IV is true.

25.Statements : M \$ K, K @ N, N * R, R #W
Conclusion : I. W @ K
II. M \$ R
III. K @ W
IV. M @ N

A. Only I and II are true.
B. Only I, II and III are true.
C. Only III and IV are true.
D. Only II, III and IV are true.
E. None of these.

Directions (Qs. 26-30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-Credit in a bank.
The candidate must ————–
(i) be a graduate in any discipline with atleast 60 per cent marks.
(ii) Have post qualification work experience of at least ten years in the Advances Section of a bank.
(iii) Be at least 30 years and not more than 40 years as on 01.04.2010.
(iv) Have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the group of discussion.
(v) Have secured at least 50 per cent marks in interview.

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT________
I. at (i) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in graduation and at least 60 percent marks in post graduation in any discipline the case is to be referred to the General Manger-Advance.

II. at (ii) above but has total post qualification work experience of at least seven years out of which at least three years as Manager-Credit in a bank, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

In each question below details of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.04.2010.

Give answer (A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

Give answer (B) if the case is to be referred to General Manager-Advances.

Give answer (C) if the data are in adequate to take a decision.

Give answer (D) if the candidate is not to be selected.

Give answer (E) if the candidate is to be selected.

26. Shobaha Gupta has secured 50 per cent marks in the Interview and 40 per cent marks in the Group Discussion. She has been working for the past eight years out of which four years as Manager-Credit in a bank after completing her B.A degree with 60 per cent marks. She was born on 12th September 1978.

27. Rohan Maskare was born on 8th March 1974. He has been working in a bank for the past twelve years after completing his B.Com. degree with 70 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in both the Group Discussion and the Interview.

28. Prakash Gokhale was born on 4th August 1977. He has secured 65 per cent marks in post graduation and 58 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working for the past ten years in the Advances Department of a Bank after completion his post graduation. He has secured 45 per cent marks in the Group Discussion and 50 per cent marks in the Interview.

29. Sudha Mehrotra has been working in the Advance department of a bank for the past twelve years after completing her B. Com. Degree with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 50 per cent marks in the Group Discussion and 40 per cent marks in the Interview. She was born on 15th February, 1972.

30. Amit Narayan was born on 28th May 1974. He has been working in the Advances department of a bank for the past eleven years after completing his B.Sc degree with 65 per cent marks. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the Group discussion and 50 per cent marks in the interview.

Directions (Qs 31-35) : In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (1), (2) and (3). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

31. Statement :

A heavy unseasonal downpour during the last two days has paralysed the normal life in the state in which five person were killed but this has provided a huge relief to the problem of acute water crisis in the state.

Courses of Action :
(1) The state government should set up a committee to review the alarming situation.

(2) The state government should immediately remove all the restrictions on use of potable water in all the major cities in the state.

(3) The state government should send relief supplies to all the affected areas in the state.

A. None
B. Only (1)
C. Only (2) and (3)
D. Only (3)
E. All (1), (2), (3)
32. Statement :

A large private bank has decided to retrench one-third of its employee in view of the huge losses incurred by it during the past three quarters.

Course of Action :

a. The Govt. should issue a notification to general public to immediately stop all trancsactions with the bank.

b. The Govt. should direct the bank to refrain from retrenching its employees.

c. The Govt. should ask the central bank of the country to initiate an enquiry into the bank’s activities and submit its report.

A. None
B. Only (1)
C. Only (2)
D. Only (3)
E. Only (1) and (3)

33. Statement :

Many political activists have decided to stage demonstrations and block traffic movement in the city during peak hours to protest against the steep rise in prices of essential commodities.

Course of Action :

(1) The Govt. should immediately ban all forms of agitations in the country.

(2) The police authority of the city should deploy additional forces all over the city to help traffic movement in the city.

(3) The State administration should carry out preventive arrests of the known criminals staying in the city.

A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (1) and (2)
E. None of these.
34. Statement :

The school dropout rate in many districts in the state has increased sharply during the last few years as the parents of these children make them work in the field owned by others to earn enough for them to get at least one meal a day.

Course of Action :

(1) The Govt. should put up a mechanism to provide food grains to the poor people in these districts through public distribution system to encourage the parents to send their wards to school.

(2) The Govt. should close down some of these schools in the district and deploy the teachers of these schools to nearby schools and also ask remaining students to join these schools.

(3) Govt. should issue arrest warrants for all the parents who force their children to work in fields instead of attending classes.

A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (1) and (2)
E. None of these

35. Statement :

One aspirant was killed due to stampede while participating in a recruitment drive of police constables.

Course of Action :

(1) Official incharge of the recruitment process should immediately be suspended.

(2) A team of officials should be asked to find out the circumstances which led to the death of the aspirant and submit its report within a week.

(3) The Govt. should ask the home department to stagger the number of aspirants over more number of days to avoid such incidents in future.

A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (2) and (3)
E. None of these

36. Effect : Majority of the employees of the ailing organization opted for voluntary retirement scheme and left the organization with all their retirement benefits within a fortnight of launching the scheme.

Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect ?

A. The company has been making huge losses for the past five years and is unable to pay salary to its employees in time.

B. The management of the company made huge personal gains through unlawful activities.

C. One of the competitors of the company went bankrupt last year.

D. The Company owns large tracts of land in the state which will fetch huge sum to its owners.

E. None of these.

37. Statement : Most of the companies in IT and ITES sectors in India have started hiring from engineering college campuses this year and are likely to recruit much more than yearly recruitment of the earlier years.

Which of the following substantiates the facts stated in the above statement ?

A. IT and ITES are the only sectors in India which are hiring from engineering college campuses.
B. Govt. has stepped up recruitment activities after a gap of five years.
C. The IT and ITES companies have now decided to visit the engineering college campuses for tier –II cities in India as well.
D. Availability of qualified engineers will substantially increase in the near future.
E. None of these

38. Cause : The Govt. has recently increased its taxes on petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent.

Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause ?

A. The Petroleum companies will reduce the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent.

B. The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent .

C. The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about 5 per cent.

D. The petroleum pumps will stop selling petrol and diesel till the taxes are rolled back by the govt.

E. None of these.

39. Statement : The Govt. has decided to instruct the banks to open new branches in such a way that there is one branch of any of the banks in every village of population 1000 and above or a cluster of villages with population less than 1000 to provide banking services to all the citizens.

Which of the following will weaken the step taken by the Govt. ?

A. The Private sector banks in India have stepped up their branch expansion activities in rural India.

B. Many Govt. owned banks have surplus manpower in it urban brances.

C. All the banks including those in private sector will follow the govt. directive.

D. Large number of branches of many Govt. owned banks in the rural areas are making huge losses every year due to lack of adequate business activities.

E. None of these.

Directions (Qs. 40-42) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below;

The center reportedly wants to continue providing subsidy to consumers for cooking gas and kerosene for five more years. This is not good news from the point of view of reining in the fiscal deficit. Mounting subventions for subsidies means diversion of savings by the government from investment to consumption, raising the cost of capital in the process. The government must cut expenditure on subsidies to create more fiscal space for investments in both physical and social infrastructure. It should outline a plan for comprehensive reform in major subsidies including petroleum, food and fertilizers and set goal posts.
40. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph?

A. Subsidy provided by the government under various heads to the citizen increases the cost of capital.

B. Govt. is unable to withdraw subsidies provided to various items.

C. Govt. subsidy on kerosene is purely a political decision.

D. Govt. does not have enough resources to continue providing subsidy on petroleum products.

E. None of these.

41. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

A. India’s fiscal deficit is negligible in comparison to other emerging economies in the world.

B. Subsidy on food and fertilizers are essential for growth of Indian economy.

C. Reform in financial sector will weaken India’s position in the international arena.

D. Gradual withdrawal of subsidy is essential for effectively managing fiscal deficit in India.

E. None of these.

42. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

A. People in India may not be able to pay more for petroleum products.
B. Many people in India are rich enough to buy petroleum products at market cost.
C. Govt. may not be able to create more infrastructural facilities if the present level of subsidy continues for a longer time.
D. Govt. of India has sought assistance from International financial organizations for its infrastructural projects.
E. None of these.

Directions (Qs. 43-45) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below;

Poverty measurement in an unsettled issue, both conceptually and methodologically. Since poverty is a process as well as an outcome; many come out of it while others may be falling into it. The net effect of these two parallel processes is a proportion commonly identified as the ‘head count ratio’, but these ratios hide the fundamental dynamism that characterizes poverty in practice. The most recent poverty reestimates by an expert group has also missed that crucial dynamism. In a study conducted on 13,000 house holds which represented the entire country in 1993-94 and again on 2004-05, it was found that in the ten-year period 18.2% rural population moved out of poverty whereas another 22.1 % fell into it over this period. This net increase of about four percentage point was seen to have a considerable variation across states and regions.

43. Which of the following is conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

A. Accurate estimates of number of people living below poverty line in India is possible to be made.
B. Many expert groups in India are not interested to measure poverty objectively.
C. Process of poverty measurement needs to take into account various factors to tackle its dynamic nature.
D. People living below poverty line remain in that position for a very long time.
E. None of these.

44. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the stated in the above paragraph ?

A. It may not be possible to have an accurate poverty measurement in India.
B. Level of poverty in India is static over the years.
C. Researchers avoid making conclusions on poverty measurement data in India.
D. Govt. of India has a mechanism to measure level of poverty effectively and accurately.
E. None of these.

45. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above Paragraph ?

A. Poverty measurement tools in India are outdated.
B. Increase in number of person falling into poverty varies considerably across the country over a period of time.
C. Govt. of India has stopped measuring poverty related studies.
D. People living in rural areas are more susceptible to fall into poverty over the time.
E. None of these.

IBPS Bank PO CWE Non Verbal Reasoning Questions
Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Ans –C In each step, element at the upper-right position gets enlarged, inverts vertically and reaches the lower-left corner; the existing element at the lower-left position, is lost and a new small element appears at the upper-right position.
One, two, three, one, two, three…..arcs get inverted sequentially. This inversion takes place in an ACW direction.
IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Reasoning Questions with answers
Question papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination Pattern and Latest Question Papers\
IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Common Written Examination (CWE) for PO,Clerical and Gramin Banks Officer scale jobs
IBPS PO (CWE) Gramin Banks Latest Selection Procedures2012|Aptitude Reasoning, Data Interpretation computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions
IBPS Previous Years question papers with answers Detailed Test Analysis|IBPS

Hi

These are the some model reasoning questions with answers previoulsy asked in different bank tests.

IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions

IBPS Bank PO CWE Coding and decoding,blood relation,datasufficiency questions……..

1. BE’ is related to ‘GJ’ in the same way as ‘PS’ is related to
1) UY
2) UX
3) UZ
4) VY
5) None of these Ans. 1 (2)

2. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest?
1) P
2) T
3) R
5) None of these Ans. 2 (3)

3. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, ‘She is the daughter of my grandmother’s only child.’ How is the girl related to Nidhi?
1) Sister
2) Self
3) Cousin sister
5) None of these Ans.3 (4)

4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3\$ and NEWS is written as \$1@8. How is SOME written in that code?
1) 8%o51
2) 85%8
3) 8@51
4) 8%31
5) None of these Ans.4 (1)

5. In a certain code language ‘how many books’ is written as ‘sa da na’ and ‘many more days’ is written as ‘ka pa da’. How is ‘books’ written in that code language?
1) sa
2) na
3) sa or na
5) None of these Ans 5)(3)

6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as ‘PKBNXSHQ’. How is SANCTION written in that code?
1) TBODMNHS
2) DOBTMNHS
3) TBODSHNM
4) DOBTOPJU
5) None of these Ans.6 (2)
7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
1) 1
2) 5
3) 7
4) 9
5) None of these Ans.7 (1)

8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OROANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans. 8 (3)

9. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans. 9 (2)

10. The position of how many digits in the number 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans.10 (3)

11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R, who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W’s position from the right end of the row?
1) Eleventh
2) Tenth
3) Twelfth
5) None of these Ans 1)

Directions (Q. 12-14): Study the following, information carefully and answer the questions, which follow:
Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organized in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organised on one of these days. Play D was organised before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organised on Saturday. Play C was not organised on the first day. Play B was organized on the next day on which play C was organised. Play A was organised on Tuesday.
12. On which day was play B organised?
1) Thursday
2) Friday
3) Wednesday
5) None of these Ans.12 (2)
13. On which day was no play organised?
1) Monday
2) Wednesday
3) Thursday
5) None of these
Ans.13 (1)

14. Which play was organised on Wednesday?
1) A
2) C
3) D
5) None of these
Ans.14 (3)
15. If ‘÷’ means ‘+’; ‘x’ means ‘-‘,; ‘+’ means ‘x’ and ‘-‘ means ‘÷’, then 24 -4÷6 x3+4 =?
1) 36
2) 24
3) 8
4) 4
5) None of these
Ans.15 (5)
16. What should come next in the following number series? 98761234598712345987123498
1) 7
2) 1
3) 2
4) 5
5) None of these
Ans.16 (2)
17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?
1) Q
2) K
3) P
4) B
5) None of these
Ans.17 (3)
18. Meena correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after eighteenth May but before twentysecond May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s
Birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after Twentieth May. On which date in May was definitely their father’s birthday?
1) Twentieth
2) Nineteenth
3) Eighteenth
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
Ans.18 (5)
Directions (Q. 19-20): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
(i) ‘P÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
(ii) ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
(iii) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(iv) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
19. Which of the following means ‘M is maternal uncle of T?
1) M÷K+T
2) M x K+T
3) M x K-T
4) M ÷ K – T
5) None of these
Ans.19 (4)

20. Which of the following means ‘H is paternal grandfather of T?
1) H +J+T
2) T x K + H
3) H +J x T
4) H – J + T
5) None of these
Ans.20 (1)
Directions (Q. 21-25): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:
832 965 748 259 614
21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?
1) 2
2) 5
3) 8
4) 9
5) 4
Ans. 21 (5)
22. Which .of the following is the sum of the first’ and the second digits of the highest number?
1) 11
2) 15
3) 10
4) 7
5) None of these
Ans.22 (2)

23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?
1) 5
2) 1
3) 6
4) 4
5) 3
Ans.23 (1)
24. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number?
1) 8
2) 6
3) 7
4) 5
5) None of these
Ans.24 (5)
25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third highest number?
1) 6
2) 4
3) 1
4) 7
5) None of these
Ans.25 (3)

Directions (Q. 26-31): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and m. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

26. Statements:All stones are poles.
All poles are desks.
Some desks are nets.
All nets are days.
Conclusions: I. Some nets are stones.
II.Some desks are stones.
III.Some days are desks.

1) Only I and II follow
2) Only I and III follow
3) Only II and III follow
4) All I, II and III follow
5) None of these

Ans.26 (3)

27. Statements: Some months are weeks.
Some weeks are years.
All years are buses.
All buses are trains.
Conclusions: I. Some trains are weeks.
II. Some buses are weeks.
III.Some trains are months.
1) Only I and II follow
2) Only II and III follow
3) Only I and III follow
4) All, I, II and III follow
5) None of these
Ans.27 (1)
28. Statements: Some stations are rails.
All rails are rivers.
All rivers are papers.
Some papers are cards.
Conclusions: I. Some cards are stations.
II.Some rivers are stations.
III. Some cards are rivers.
1) Norte follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows
5) Only II and III follow
Ans.28 (3)
29. Statements: All windows are roofs.
All roofs are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Some plates are carpets.
Conclusions: I. Some plates are windows.
II. Some glasses are windows.
III. Some carpets are roofs.
1) None follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows
5) Only I and II follow
Ans.29 (3)
30. Statements: All trees are jungles.
All jungles are houses.
All houses are buildings.
All buildings are villages.
Conclusions: I. Some villages are houses.
II. Some buildings are jungles.
III. Some houses are trees.
1) Only I and II follow
2) Only II and III follow
3) Only I and III follow
4) All I, II and III follow
5) None of these
Ans.30 (4)
31. Statements: Some books are calendars.
No calendar is a paper.
All papers are pencils.
Some pencils are chairs.
Conclusions: I. Some chairs are books.
II. No chair is a book.
III. Some pencils are calendars.
1) None follows
2) Only either I or II follows
3) Only either I or II and III follow
4) Only III follows
5) Only n follows
Ans.31 (2)
Directions (Q. 32-37): Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below:
32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the right end of the above arrangement?
1) N
2) \$
3)4
4) W
5) None of these
Ans.32 (1)
33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement?
1) U
2) D
3) E
5) None of these Ans.33 (5)

34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans.34 (3)
35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans.35 (3)
36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) P5A
2) 4AE
3) QIK
4) F8@
5) VN*
Ans.36 (5)

37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end?
1) E
2) K
3) Z
4) D
5) None of these
Ans.37 (5)
Directions (Q. 38-43): In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (5), ie ‘None of these’ , as your answer. Digit/Symbol : 5 @ 3 © 9 8 % 8 1 4 2 \$ # 7 6 * Letter Code : P I MAE G F J H B D. N R Q T U .
Conditions: (i) If the first unit is a symbol and the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded as the code for the even digit.
(ii) If the first unit is all even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both at e 1:0 be coded as the code for the symbol.
(iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.
38. 9@374%
1) EIMQBF
2) FBQMIE
3) ZIMQBZ
4) FIMQBF
5) None of these
Ans.38 (4)

1) HEANRD
2) DEANRH
3) DEANRD
4) HEANRH
5) None of these Ans.39 (1)
1) UBQEIA
2) ZBQEIA
3) ZBQEIZ
4) ABQEIU
5) None of these Ans.40 (3)
41. % 286\$3
1) FDGTNF
2) FDGTNM
3) FGDTNM
4) WGTNZ
5) None of these Ans.41 (2)
42. 54#*@6
1) PBURIT
2) PBRUIP
3) TBRUIP
4) TBRUIT
5) None of these Ans.42 (5)

1) NTMAEN
2) BTMAEB
3) ZTMAEB
4) NTMAEB
5) None of these Ans.43 (2)
Directions (Q. 44-48): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is second to the right of A and third to the left of C. B is second to the left of C and fourth to the right of H. D is second to the right of G
44. Who is to the immediate left of D?
1) H
2) C
3) G
5) None of these Ans.44 (2)
45. Who is second to the right of E?
1) B
2) G
3) H
5) None of these Ans.45 (1)
46. Who is third to the left of B?
1) E
2) H
3) F
5) None of these Ans.46 (5)
47. What is the position of G with respect to A?
1) Third to the left
2) Third to the right
3) Fifth to the left
4) Fourth to the right
5) Fifth to the right Ans.47 (4)
48. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
1) BGC
2) EFB
3) DAH
4) AEF
5) GCD Ans.48 (3)
Directions (Q. 49-54): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, \$, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P \$ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P # Q’ means’ P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greeter than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

49. Statements: D # K K @ T, T \$ M,. M ‘% .T
Conclusions: I. J @ T
II. J%T
III. D@T
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only either I or II is true
4) Only IV is true
5) Only either I or II and III are true Ans.49 (5)
Conclusions: I. R @ J
II. J@N
III. B@D
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only I and III are true Ans.50 (3)

51. Statements: W © B, B % V, V \$ R, R@K
II. R#B
III.V@W
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) AII I, II and III are true
5) None of these Ans.51 (3)

52. Statements: H \$ M, M # T, T @ D, D © R
II. R@M
III. H\$T
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only I and II are true Ans.52 (2)

53. Statements: B % J, J @ K, K © T, T \$ F
Conclusions: I. F @ K
II. B@K
III.B@F
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these Ans.53 (1)

54. Statements: F # B, B \$ M, M @ K, J< e N
Conclusions: I. N @ M
II. F\$M
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only III is true
4) Only II and III are true
5) None is true Ans.54 (5)

Directions (55-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an. input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement.
Input : sale data 1823 for 95 then 38
Step I : data sale 1823 for 95 then 38
Step II : data 95 sale 18 23 for then 38
Step III : data 95 for sale 18 23 then 38
Step IV : data 95 for 38 sale 18 23 then
Step V : data 95 for 38 sale 23 18 then
Step VI : data 95 for 38 sale 23 then 18
and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

55. Input: year 39 stake47 house full 94 55 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
1) Five
2) Six
3) Four
4) Seven
5) None of these Ans.55 (2)
56. Step II of an input is: car 83 lost ever 324674 now How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
1) Three
2) Four
3) Five
4) Six
5) None of these Ans.56 (2)
57. Step III of an input is : and 79 code 27 18 new goal 34 Which of the following will definitely be the input?
1) code and 79 27 18 new goal 34
2) code 27 18 new goal 34 and 79
3) code 27 and 1879 new goal 34
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these Ans.57 (4)

58. Input: water full never 35 78 16 height 28 Which of the following steps will be the last?
1) VI
2) VII
3) VIII
4) IX
5) None of these

Ans.58 (1)

59. Step II of an input is: high 69 store pay 36 43 15 there Which of the following will be step VI?
1) high 69 pay 43 store 36 there 15
2) high 69 pay 43 store 36 15 there
3) high 69 pay 36 43 store 15 there
4) There will be no such step
5) None of these Ans.59 (4)

60. Input: train more 2953 fast gear 3784 Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
1) IX
2) VIII
3) VII
4) VI
5) None of these

Ans.60 (5)

Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Assistant General Manager-HR in an organisation.
The candidate must
(i) be at least 40 years and not more than 50 years old as on 01-05-2010.
Management /HR with at least 60 per cent marks.
(iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least fifteen years out of which at least five years as Senior Manager-HR in an organization.
(iv) have successfully implemented HR-System in his/ her organisation sometime during the past three years.
(v) have secured at least 45 per cent marks in the selection process.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT at
(A) (ii) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in postgraduation and at least 65 per cent marks in the selection process, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
(B) (iii) above but has at least twelve years’ post qualification work experience out of which at least eight years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation, the case is to be referred to Chairman.
In each question below details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-0572010.
Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer 3) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
Mark answer 5) if the case is to be referred to Chairman.

61. Pranab Ghosh was born on 8th March 1968. He has been working for the past eighteen years in an organisation out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He had successfully implemented HR-System last year in his organisation. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the selection process.

62. Sheetal Jha has been working in an organisation for the past twenty years out of which ten years as Senior Manager-HR after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 70 per cent marks. She was born on 2nd December 1965. She has secured 45 percent marks in the selection process.

63. Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May 1963. He has secured 65 percent marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past fifteen years in an organisation, out of which twelve years as Senior Manager HR, after completing his post graduation in HR with 55 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the last two years.

64. Shailesh Kumar has been working in an organisation for the past thirteen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He was born on 15th September 1968. He has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization two years back.

65. Navin Chopra was born on 12th June 1967. He has been working for the past sixteen years, out of which seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in Personnel Management with 75 per cent marks. He has secured 44 per cent marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation last year.

66. Meera Kulkarni has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which eight years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 66 per cent marks. She has successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation during the last two years. She has secured 49 per cent marks in the selection process. She was born on 14th December 1971.

67. Akash Shastri was born on 12th April 1967. He has been. working for the past sixteen years, out of which six years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 58 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization last year. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.

68. Shekhar Jena has been working for the past fifteen years, out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th.

69. Sunetra Govil was born on 5th April 1964. She has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation. She has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection process. She has also secured 69 per cent marks in her post- graduation in Personnel Management. She successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation last year.

70. Mohit Saxena was born on 27th July 1963. He has been working for the past thirteen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing his post- graduation in HR with 67 per cent marks. He has secured 49 per cent marks in the Selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the past three years.
Q.No. Person (i) (ii)/(A) (iii)/(B) (iv) (V) Ans
61. Pranab v v v v v 1
62. Sheetal v v v ? v 3
63. Prabir v (v) v v v 4
64. Shailesh v v (v) v v 5
65. Navin v v v v × 2
66. Meera × v v v v 2
67. Akash v (v) v v v 4
68. Shekhar v v v v v 1
69. Sunetra v v ? v v 3
70. Mohit v v (v) v v 5

Directions (Q. 71-75): Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer 1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
Mark answer 2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
Mark answer 3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
Mark answer 4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
Mark answer 5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

71. (A) The Govt has marginally increased the procurement price of wheat for the current crop.
(B) The current wheat crop is expected to be twenty per cent more than the previous wheat crop.
Ans.71 (1)
72. (A) The municipal authority demolished the tea stall located on the footpath on the busy road.
(B) A large number of people have been taking their evening tea at the tea stall located on the footpath on the main road, blocking pedestrian movement.
Ans.72 (2)
73. (A) Majority of the students left the local school as the school building was in a dilapidated condition.
(B) The school authority decided to close down the school immediately and shift the remaining students to a make-shift school.
Ans.73 (1)
74. (A) The braking system of the tourist bus carrying 40 passengers failed while negotiating a stiff climb on a hilly road.
(B) The tourist bus fell into the gorge killing at least ten passengers and seriously injuring all the remaining.
Ans.74 (1)

75. (A) The state govt has decided to boost English language education in all the schools from the next academic year.
(B) The level of English language of the school students of the State is comparatively lower than that of the neighbouring states.
Ans.75 (2)
IBPS Reasoning and aptitude Paper
IBPS previous question papers
APTITUDE SECTION
1.Find the average of 38,64,27,76 & 40
a) 54 b)49 c) 78 d)45
ans: b
2.Find the average of 8,16,9,24,36,7,71 &37
a)62 b)46 c)36 d)52
ans: c
3.Find the average of 1 ½,2 ¾, &3 2/5
a)147/30 b)119/30 c)151/60 d)51/20
ans: d
4.find the average of 2/3,2 ½.,3 & 4 ¾.
a)2 25/48 b)4 3/16 c)2 17/24 d)2 35/48
ans: d
5.Average of quantities is 22 and average of 36 quantities is 25. What is the average of all the 50 quantities?
a)28.32 b)23.16 c)24.16 d)22.08
ans:c
6.The average of 42 observations is 36 and average of 18 observations is 24. What is the a average of all the 60 observations?
a)28.5 b)37.6 c)32.4 d)21.52
ans: c
7.Average marks of a candidate in 6 subjects are 52.His marks in 5 subjects are 6o,48,36,55 and 51.Find his marks in the 6th subject.
ans:c
8)The average marks of five friends in English are 61.Four of them got 48,72,59 &38.Find the marks of the fifth friend ?
a)18 b)88 c)84 d)66
ans:b
9. The average marks obtained by Raghu in Hindi & science were 30 less than his marks in Hindi .he got 62 marks in science .Find his marks in Hindi?
a)122 b)120 c)124 d)102
ans:a
10.The average marks obtained by Ramesh in hindi ,English science were 15 more than his marks in English .he got a total of 102 marks in hindi &science .How many marks did he get in English?
a)26.5 b)29 c)30.5 d)28.5
ans:d
11.what percent of 72 is 6?
a)8 1/3 b)3 1/3 c)6 1/3 d)9 1/3
ans:a
12.What percent of 40 minutes is 24 seconds ?
a)1 b)10 c)100 d)0.1
ans:a
13.what percent of 20 quintals is 100 kgs?
a)2 b)0.5 c)20 d)5
ans:d
14.What percent is 45 praise of rs.90?
a)0.5 b)2 c)10 d)20
15.What percent is 40 kgs of 2 tones?
a)2 b)20 c)10 d)25
ans:a
16.A’s salary is 50% more than B’s ,How much percent is B’s salary less thanA’s?
a)33 ¼% b)33 1/3% c)33 ½% d)33%
ans:b
17.If the are of a son is 25% less than the age of his father ,how much percent is the age of father more than that of his son?
a)25% b)50% c)33 1/3% d)50%
ans:c
18.The salary of A is 10% more than the salary of B .By what percent is the salary of B lessthan that of A?
a)10% b)1% c)11 1/9% d)9 1/11%
ans:d
19.If A’s income is 40% less than that of B,how much percent B’s income is more than that of A?
A)60% B)40% C)66.66% D)33.33%
Ans:c
20.The price of an article is increased by 20% & afterwards it is decreased by 20% find the overll% change .a)40% b)no change c)4%dec d)4% inc
ans:c
21.Find the simple interest on Rs.7,500 in 4 years at 15% per annum?
a)Rs.2,750 b)Rs.2,500 c)Rs.4,500 d)Rs. 5,000
ans:c
22.Find the s.i on Rs.8,000 in 3 ½ years 12% per annum?
a)Rs.2,760 b)Rs3,760 c)Rs.4,250 d)Rs.3,360
ans:d
23.On what sum of money will be the S.I be Rs.2,000 in 5 years at 8% per annum?
a)Rs.4,500 b)Rs.5,000 c)Rs.5,200 d)Rs.5,300
ans:b
24. On what sum if money will the S.I be Rs.2,400 in 2 ½ year at 12% per annum?
a)Rs.8,000 b)Rs.6,000 c)Rs.7,500 d)Rs.8,500
ans:a
25.The S.I on Rs.6,000 in 3 years and 4 months is Rs.3,00 Find the r% per annum?
a)10 b)12 c)15 d)18
ans:c
Reasoning
1.If TAP is coded as SZO ,then how is FREEZE coded?
a)EQDFYG b)ESDFYF c)GQFDYF d)EQDDYD
ans:d
2.In a certain code. SIKKIM is written as THLJJL .How is TRAINING written in that code?
a)SQBHOHOH b)UQBHOHOF c)UQBJOHHO d)UQBJOHOH
ans:b
3.In a certain code, MENTION is written as LNEITNO. How is PATTERN written in that code?
a)APTTREM b)PTAETNR c)OTAETNR d)OTAETRN
ans:c
4.In a certain code, FORGE is written as FPTJI .How is CULPRIT written in that code?
a)CSJNPGR b)CVMQSTU c)CVNSVNZ d)CXOSULW
ans:c
5.If in a code , ALTERED is written as ZOGNINW, then in the same code , RELATED would be written ?
a)IVOZGVW b)IVOZGWV c)IVOGZVW d)VIOZGVW
ans:a
If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 and NAKED is coded as 84123 , how are the following words coded ?
6.DISTANT
a)3765485 b)4798165 c)3697185 d)4768296
7.NEMISES
a)7598656 b)8597656 c)8297626 d)7689565
8.ASSIST
a)166762 b)466765 c)488976 d)435985
9.INTIMATE
a)89786145 b)79438163 c)78579452 d)78698365
10.STAIN
a)98175 b)89483 c)68194 d)65478
6.ans:a 7. ans:c 8.ans:b 9. ans:c 10. ans:d
LETTER ANALOGY
11.AB:ZY:CD:?
a)XY b)EF c)XW d)AB
ans:c
12.AEGK:MQ:?
a)ST b)SW c)UV d)WS
ans:b
13.BC:GH:ST:?
a)YZ b)UV c)XY d)WX
ans:c
14.PS:DG:QT:?
a)EH b)GH c)FF d)EG
ans:a
15.V:X:G?
a)Y b)T c)I d)J
ans:c
16.GT:HS:KP:?
a)PQ b)RS c)LO d)LM
ans:c
17.CDF:GHJ:KLN:?
a)ORP b)PQR c)OPR d)RSU
ans:c
18.ABC:CBA:DEF:?
a)FED b)EFD c)DEF d)GHI
ans:a
19.ZWT:SM:LIF:?
a)EBY b)EAZ c)EBX d)EAX
ans:a
20.ABZ:CDY:EFW:?
a)FGU b)VHG c)GHK d)GHV
ans:d
LETTER SERIES
21.U,O,I,?,A
a)E b)C c)S d)G
ans:a
22.A,B,D,G,?
a)M b)L c)k d)h
ans:c
23:Z,U,Q,?,L
a)I b)K c)M d)N
ans:c
24.A,C,F,H,?,M
a)L b)K c)J d)I
ans:b
25.Z,L,X,J,V,H,T,F,?,?
a)R,D b)R,E c)S,E d)Q,D
ans:a
26.Z,S,W,O,T,K,Q,G,?
a)N,C b)N,D c)O,C d)O,D
ans:a
27.W,V,T,S,Q,P,N,M,?,?
a)I,J b)J,I c)J,K d)K,J
ans:d
REPEATED LETTER SERIES
1_ _aba_ _ ba_ab
a)abbba b)bbab c)baabb d)bbaba
ans:b
2.ab _ _ _ b _bbaa
a)abaab b)abbab c)baaab d)babba
ans:c
3._baa _aab _a _a
a)aabb b)aaba c)abab d)baab
ans:c
4_ _ babbba _a_ _
a)ababb b)baaab c)bbaba d)babbb
ans:d
5.aa_ ab_ aaa _a
a)aaab b)aabb c)abab d)baaa
ans:a
6.a _bbc _aab _cca _bbcc_
a)bacb b)acba c)abba d)caba
ans:b
7ab _aa _bbb _aaa _bbba _
a)abba b)baab c)aaab d)abab
ans:b
8.bc _b _c _b _ ccb_
a)cbcb b)bbcb c)cbbc d)bcbc
ans:a
9.abb _baa _a _bab _aba
a)abba b)abab c)ccac d)aabb
ans:a
10.abca _bcaab _ca _bbc _ a
a)ccaa b)bbaa c)abac d)abba
ans:c

IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Reasoning Paper
Reasoning
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these
5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK
(E) None of these
6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you
may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code language
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9
12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(E) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.
21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T I 6 * W 3 P # K 7 \$ Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) \$
(D) J
(E) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbolsfollowed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer.If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4 % 3 9 \$ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d
Letter Code :
P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these
32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these
33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these
34. 7#\$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these
36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
P a g e | 8
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, \$ and d are used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P \$ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find outwhich of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R d K
Conclusions : I. K d J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N \$ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V \$ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D \$ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F d T, T \$ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R \$ F
42. Statements : H \$ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H
P a g e | 9
43. Statements : V % B, B \$ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E d B
II. D @ V
Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions givenbelow—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to theleft of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.
44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(E) None of these
45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(E) None of these
46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the
P a g e | 10
third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers aregiven. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on thefollowing rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtractedfrom the first number.
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these
51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these
52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these
53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these
54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these
55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. Thesestatements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or acommon cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Readboth the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts therelationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than theprevious year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.
58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.
60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food habits.
Directions—(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the fiveanswer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if thesequence were continued ?
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 \$
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B # A R E % M F J U @ H © T I * W P # K \$ Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)
P a g e | 14
56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)

IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Latest sample Question Papers
Reasoning
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these
5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK
(E) None of these
6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you
may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code language
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9
12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(E) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.
21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T I 6 * W 3 P # K 7 \$ Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) \$
(D) J
(E) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbolsfollowed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer.If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4 % 3 9 \$ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d
Letter Code :
P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these
32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these
33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these
34. 7#\$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these
36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
P a g e | 8
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, \$ and d are used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P \$ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find outwhich of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R d K
Conclusions : I. K d J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N \$ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V \$ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D \$ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F d T, T \$ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R \$ F
42. Statements : H \$ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H
P a g e | 9
43. Statements : V % B, B \$ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E d B
II. D @ V
Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions givenbelow—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to theleft of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.
44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(E) None of these
45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(E) None of these
46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the
P a g e | 10
third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers aregiven. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on thefollowing rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtractedfrom the first number.
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these
51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these
52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these
53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these
54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these
55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. Thesestatements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or acommon cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Readboth the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts therelationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than theprevious year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.
58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.
60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food habits.
Directions—(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the fiveanswer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if thesequence were continued ?
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 \$
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B # A R E % M F J U @ H © T I * W P # K \$ Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)
56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)
Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
3. Who is at the extreme right?
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)
16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park
17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question
22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
Directions (questions 1 to 5):Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
3. Who is at the extreme right?
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit â€˜4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4â€™s and 6â€™s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)
16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park
17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet â€˜Sâ€™ in the question
22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
At the start of game, A and B between them had four times as much money as C while B & C together had three times as much as A. At the end, A & B between them had three times as much as C, while B & C together had twice as much as A. B finished Rs. 200 poorer at the end. A, B, C are the only players.
1. What fraction of the total money did C have at the beginning of the game ?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/8
(c) 2/9
(d) 1/5
2. What fraction of the total money did A win (or lose)?
(a) won 1/12
(b) lost 1/6
(c) lost 1/3
(d) won 1/5
(a) Rs. 575
(b) Rs. 375
(c) Rs. 825
(d) Rs. 275
4. What amount did C win (lose)?
(a) lost Rs. 50
(b) won Rs. 75
(c) lost Rs. 125
(d) won Rs. 175
5. How much money did A have at the end of the game?
(a) Rs. 375
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 325
(d) Rs. 1100
Quantitative Aptitude Model Paper Questions Test – 1
1. By what number less than 1000 must 43259 be multiplied So that the last three figures to the right of the product may be 437?
(a) 743 (b) 658 (c) 701 (d) None of these
2. By what least number must 217800 be multiplied in order to make it a perfect square?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these
3. Find the least number by which 19404 must be multiplied or divided so as to make it a perfect square.
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) None of these
4. Find the smallest number which is a perfect square and contains 1400 as a factor.
(a) 8670 (b) 9600 (c) 9000 (d) None of these
5. Find in the blank indicated by a star in the number 456 so as to make it divisible by 33
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) None of these
6. By what least number must 6796 by multiplied or divided in order that the resulting number may be a perfect square?
(a) 17 (b) 39 (c) 43 (d) None of these
7. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238 and 1400 leaving remainders 41,31 and 51 respectively.
(a) 71 (b) 64 (c) 67 (d) None of these
8. Find the greatest number that will divide 19409 and 43037 leaving remainders 17 and 29 respectively.
(a) 178 (b) 192 (c) 194 (d) None of these
9. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238, 1400 leaving remainders 41, 31 and 51 respectively.
(a) 64 (b) 71 (c) 69 (d) None of these
10. Find the greatest number which will divide 12288, 28200, and 44333 so as to leave the same remainder in each case.
(a) 221 (b) 120 (c) 272 (d) None of these
01.(a) 06.(b)
02.(a) 07.(a)
03.(c) 08.(b)
04.(b) 09.(b)
05.(a) 10.(a)

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IBPS Aptitude Reasoning Data Intrepretation questions with answers

1. If Atul finds that he is twelfth from the right in a queue of boys and fourth from the left, how many boys should be added to the queue so that there are 28 boys in the queue ?

(a) 12

(b) 13 (ANS)

(c) 14

(d) 20

Hints & Solutions : From formula, total number of boys in the queue = (Atul’s rank from left) + (Atul’s rank from right) – 1

= 12 + 4 – 1 = 15

? Total number of boys that should be added

= 28 – 15 = 13.

2. Manish ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty ninth from the bottom among those who passed an examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five failed in it. How many boys were there in the class ?

(a) 40

(b) 44

(c) 50

(d) 55 (ANS)

Hints & Solutions : From formula, total number of passed students = (Manisha’s rank from the top) + (Manisha’s rank from the bottom) – 1

= 16 + 29 – 1 = 4

? Total number of boys in the class

= Passed students + failed students + absent students

= 44 + 6 + 5 = 55

3. Aruna ranks twelfth in a class of forty six. What will be her rank from the last ?

(a) 33

(b) 34

(c) 35 (ANS)

(d) 37

Hints & Solutions : From formula,

Aruna’s rank from the last = (total number of girls in the class) – (Aruna’s rank from the top) + 1

= 46 – 12 + 1 = 47 – 12 = 35th

4. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is seventeenth from the last, what is Ravi’s rank from the start ?

(a) 14th

(b) 15th

(c) 16th (ANS)

(d) 17th

Hints & Solutions : Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit. That means, 6 students are there between Ravi and Sumit. Sumit’s rank is 17th from the last.

Total number of students = 39

Total number of boys before Ravi = 39 – (16 + 1 + 6 + 1)

= 39 – 24 = 15

? Ravi’s rank is 16th from the start.

5. In a class of 60 where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls a head of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank ?

(a) 3

(b) 7

(c) 12 (ANS)

(d) 23

Directions (Qns. 6 to 11) : In each question below are given three statements followed by four conclusions-I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow (s) from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

6. Statements :

Some books are pens.

All pens are chairs.

Some chairs are tables.

Conclusions :

I. Some books are chairs.

II. All chairs are books.

III. All tables are chairs.

IV. Some tables are chairs

A) All follow

B) Only I, II and III follow

C) Only I, II and IV follow (Ans)

D) Only II, III and IV follow

E) None of these

Explanatory Ans : – First and third premises are Particular Affirmative, i.e. I-type. Second premise is Universal Affirmative (A-type).

We know that,

I + A ? 1 – type conclusion Therefore, our derived conclusion would be :

“Some books are chairs” This is the conclusion I.

Conclusion II is the conversion of our derived conclusion.

Two out of three premises are Particular and hence, Universal conclusion is invalid. This is conclusion III does not follow. Conclusion IV is the conversion of the third premise.

Therefore, only conclusions I, II and IV follow.

7. Statements :

All cars are jeeps.

All Jeeps are buses.

All buses are trucks.

Conclusions :

I. All trucks are buses.

II. All buses are jeeps.

III. All jeeps are cars.

IV. All cars are trucks

A) None follows

B) All follow

C) Only III and IV follow

D) Only IV follows (Ans)

E) None of these

Explanatory Ans : – All the three premises are Universal Affirmative (A-type).

We know that,

A + A ? A-type conclusion

Therefore, our required conclusion would be:

“All cars are buses”.

There is no such conclusion.

Now,

All buses are trucks.

A + A ? A – type conclusion

Thus, our derived conclusion would be :

“All cars are trucks”.

This is the conclusion IV.

Again

We know that,

A + A ? A – type conclusion

Thus, our derived conclusion would be :

“All jeeps are trucks” Therefore, only conclusion IV follows. Thus, our required answer is option (D).

VENN – DIAGRAM

8 Statements :

Some trees are flowers.

Some flowers are pencils.

Some pencils are tables.

Conclusions :

I. Some tables are flowers.

II. Some pencils are trees.

III. Some tables are trees.

IV. Some trees are pencils.

A) All follow

B) None follows (Ans)

C) Only I and III follow

D) Only II and IV follow

E) None of these

Explanatory Ans : – All the three premises are Particular Affirmative (I-type). Therefore, no conclusion can be derived from these premises. Now look for any conversion and/or implication :

There is no such conclusion.

9. Statements :

All rods are bricks

Some bricks are ropes

All ropes are doors

Conclusions :

I. Some rods are doors.

II. Some doors are bricks.

III. Some rods are not doors.

IV. All doors are ropes.

A) Only I and II follow

B) Only I, II and III follow

C) Only either I or III and II follow (Ans)

D) Only either I or III and IV follow

E) None of these

Explanatory Ans : – First premise is Universal Affirmative (A-type).

Second premise is Particular Affirmative (I-type).

Third premise is Universal Affirmative (A-type).

We know that,

I + A ? I – type conclusion

Conclusions : Some bricks are doors.

It is conversion of conclusion II. Conclusions I and III form complementary pair. Therefore either conclusion I or III follows. Therefore, our required answer is option (C).

10. Statements :

Some books are pens.

Some pens are watches.

Conclusions :

III. Some watches are books

IV. Some books are watches

A) All follow

B) Only I and III follow

C) Only II and IV follow

D) Only I and IV follow

E) None of these (Ans)

Explanatory Ans : – First and second premises are Particular Affirmative, i.e. I-type. Third premise is Universal Affirmative (A-type). Conclusion I is the conversion of the third premise.

Second and third premises are relevant for the conclusion II.

Thus,

We know that,

I + A ? I – type conclusion

Conclusions : Some pens are radios.

Conclusion II is the conversion of this conclusion.

Therefore, only conclusions I and II follow.

11. Statements :

All towns are villages.

No village is forest.

Some forests are rivers.

Conclusions :

I. Some forests are villages.

II. Some forests are not villages.

III. Some rivers are not villages.

IV. All villages are towns.

A) All follow

B) Only either I or II follows

C) Only either I or II and III follow

D) None follows

E) None of these (Ans)

Explanatory Ans : – First premise ? Universal Affirmative (A-type).

Second premise ? Universal Negative (E-type).

Third premise ? Particular Affirmative (I-type).

Now,

We know that,

A + E ? E – type conclusion

Conclusions :

No town is forest.

There is no such conclusion.

We know that,

E + I ? O1 – type conclusion

Thus, our derived conclusion would be :

“Some rivers are not villages”

This is the conclusion III.

Again,

We now that,

E + I ? O1 – type conclusion

Conclusions :

Some rivers are not towns,

There is no such conclusion.

Conclusion II is the conversion of the second premise.

Therefore, Conclusions II and III follow.

12 In a row of boys facing north, Sudhanshu is twelfth from his left. When shifted to his right by four places, he becomes eighteenth from the right end of the row. How many boys are there in the row ?

A) 32

B) 33 (Ans)

C) 34

E) None of these None of these

After shifting his place

Total number of boys in the row = (16 + 18) – 1 = 33

13. In a certain code language PROBLEM is written as MPERLOB. How will NUMBERS be written in that code ?

A) SNUREMB

B) SNRUBME

C) SNRUEMB (Ans)

D) SNRUMEB

E) None of these

Explanatory Ans : –

1 2 3 4 5 6 7
P R O B L E M

It has been coded as

7 1 6 2 5 3 4
M P E R L O B

Similarly,

1 2 3 4 5 6 7
N U M B E R S

Its code would be :

7 1 6 2 5 3 4
N R U E M B S

Directions (Qns. 14 to 40) : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give answer (A) if only assumption I is implicit.

Give answer (B) if only assumption II is implicit.

Give answer (C) if either I or II is implicit.

Give answer (D) if neither I nor II is implicit.

Give answer (E) if both I and II are implicit.

14. Statement : The government has recently hiked the prices of diesel and petrol to reduce the oil poor deficit.

Assumptions :

I. The amount earned by this increase may be substantial enough to reduce the deficit.

II. There may be wide spread protests against the price hike.

Explanatory Ans : – (Ans : E) Both the assumption are implicit in the statement.

It is clearly mentioned in the statement that the Government has hiked the prices of diesel and petrol to reduce the oil pool deficit.

Whenever the prices of commodities are hiked, generally people raised the voice against such measure.

15. Statement : The X passenger car manufacturing company announced a sharp reduction in the prices of their luxury cars.

Assumptions :

I. There may be an increase in the sale of their luxury cars.

II. The other such care manufacturers may also reduce their prices.

Explanatory Ans : – (Ans : E) The price of any product is lowered assuming that its lowered assuming that its demand will increase. Therefore assumption I is implicit in the statement.

16. Statement : A foreign film producer rendered his apology before Indian society for misinterpreting a part of Indian epic.

Assumptions :

I. Indians are very sensitive to the misinterpretation of their epic.

II. It is possible to derive wrong meaning from the epic.

Explanatory Ans : – (Ans : E) From the content of the statement it is clear that both the assumptions re implicit in the statement.

17. Statement : Aswin’s mother instructed him to return home by train if it rains heavily.

Assumptions :

I. Aswin may not be able to decide himself if it rains heavily.

II. The trains may ply event if it rains heavily.

Explanatory Ans : – (Ans : B) Only assumption II is implicit in the statement. If Aswin’s mother asked his son to return home by train if it rains heavily, it implies that the trains would ply even if it rains heavily.

18. Statement : The Government of India has decided to start a track II dialogue with its neighbor to reduce tension in the area.

Assumptions :

I. The neighboring country may agree to participate in the track II dialogue.

II. The people involved in track II dialogue may be able to persuade their respective Governments.

Explanatory Ans : – (Ans : E) Both the assumptions are implicit in the statement.

19 Statement : The host in one of the popular T.V programmer announced that the channel will contact the viewers between 9.00 a.m. to 6.00 p.m. on weekdays and the lucky ones will be given fabulous prizes.

Assumptions :

I. The people may remain indoors to receive the phone call.

II. More people may start watching the Programme.

Explanatory Ans : – (Ans : E) Both the assumptions are implicit in the statement.

IBPS Question Papers
IBPS Banking Question papers based on Test of Reasoning-Made Simple -Easy methods to crack verbal reasoning questions in Bank Test, Verbal Classification Notes,types of verbal classification Choose the odd word out,Choose the odd pair out ,Choose the odd number out ,Choose the odd numeral-pair group and Analogy – Tips and tricks to crack bank test,IBPS CWE analogy questions ‘Analogy’ means ‘correspondence’. Verbal analogical tests use words,Alphabet Analogy,Number Analogy, Completing the analogous pair

IBPS and Bank PO Clerical -Verbal Classification Questions and Tips :-

‘Classification’ means to assort the items of a given group on the basis of a certain common quality they possess and then spot the odd one out. Different types of questions that can be asked are as follows :-

(1) Choose the odd word out : In these questions, you are given a group of certain items out of which all except one are similar to one another in some manner. You have to identify the item which does not fit into the given group.

(2) Choose the odd pair out : In these type of questions, you are given certain pairs of words out of which the words in all the pairs except one bear a certain common relationship. You have to decipher the relationship and choose the pair in which the words are differently related than the remaining pairs.

(3) Choose the odd number out : In these type of questions certain numbers are given, out of which all except one are alike in some manner while one is different and this number is to be chosen as the answer.

(4) Choose the odd numeral-pair group : In these type of questions, certain pairs or groups of numbers are given out of which all except one are similar in some manner while one is different. The numbers in these similar pairs may have the same property or may be related to each other according to the same rule. You have to choose the odd pair/group.

IBPS and Bank PO Clerical ANALOGY Questions and Tips

‘Analogy’ means ‘correspondence’. Verbal analogical tests use words, letters and digits and require logical common sense reasoning to solve questions based on these. In these questions, a particular relationship is given and another similar relationship has to be identified from the alternatives provided. These analogical questions test the candidate’s overall knowledge and ability to think concisely and accurately.

Different types of questions that can be asked on Analogy are as follows :-

(1) Completing the analogous pair : In this, two words which are related to each other are given along with a third word. You have to find the relationship between the first two words and choose the word from the given options that bears the same relationship with the third word as the first two words.

(2) Choose the analogous pair : In these type of questions, a pair of words is given, followed by four pairs of words as options. You have to choose the pair in which the words have the same relationship to each other as the words in the given pair.

(3) Three word Analogy : In these types of questions, a group of three inter-related words is given. You have to trace the relationship among these three words and choose another group with similar analogy from the alternatives that are provided.

(1) Number Analogy : Two types of questions are asked on this.

(i) Choosing a similarly related pair as the given number pair on the basis of the relation between the numbers in each pair.

(ii) Choosing a number similar to a group of numbers on the basis of certain common properties they possess.

(5) Alphabet Analogy : In these type of questions, two groups of alphabets related to each other in some way are given. You have to find out his relationship and choose a group of alphabets that is related in the same way to the third group in the question.

Illustrative Questions

Directions (Q.Nos. 1-5) : – Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

1.

(1) Pear

(2) Mango

(3) Orange

(4) Apple

2.

(1) Sun

(2) Moon

(3) Star

(4) Mars

(5) Universe

Ans : Universe – All except Universe form part of the Universe.

3.

(1) Tailor

(2) Barber

(3) Engineer

(4) Carpenter

(5) Blacksmith

Ans : Barber – All except barber require raw material to work.

4.

(1) X-ray

(3) Telephone

(4) Computer

(5) Television

Ans : X-ray – All except X-ray are media instruments.

5.

(1) Arc

(2) Diagonal

(3) Tangent

(5) Diameter

Ans : Diagonal – All except diagonal are terms associated with circle.

Directions (Q.Nos. 1-11) : – Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

1.

(1) IJK

(2) ABC

(3) OPQ

(4) EFG

(5) VWX

Ans : VWX – In all the other groups, the first letters is the odd-numbered letter in the English alphabet.

9 10 11 1 2 3 15 16 17 5 6 7
I J K A B C O P Q E F G

But

22 23 24
V W X

2.

(1) Tiger

(2) Cow

(3) Bitch

(4) Mare

(5) Lioness

Ans : Tiger – Except tiger, all others are of feminine gender.

3.

(1) 13

(2) 17

(3) 19

(4) 27

(5) 23

Ans : 27 – Except 27, all others are prime numbers.
4.

(1) Pound

(2) Yen

(3) Ounce

(4) Franc

(5) Dollar

Ans : Ounce – All except ounce are names of currencies of different countries, while ounce is a unit of weight.

5

(1) Lemon

(2) Orange

(3) Malta

(4) Banana

(5) Pineapple

Ans : Banana – All except banana are juicy fruits.

6.

(1) Lake

(2) Tank

(3) River

(4) Pool

(5) Pond

Ans : River – All except river contain stagnant water.

7.

(1) Carrot

(2) Guava

(3) Tomato

(4) Pear

(5) Brinjal

Ans : Brinjal – All except brinjal can be eaten raw.

8.

(1) Sit

(2) Hit

(3) Kit

(4) Fit

(5) Knit

Ans : Kit – Except kit, the rest all are verbs. Kit is a noun.

9.

(1) Tab

(2) Pot

(3) Reed

(4) Level

(5) Hold

Ans : Hold – Other words when read backwards give meaningful words.

10.

(1) CFI

(2) UXA

(3) RUX

(4) SVZ

(5) LOR

Ans : SVZ

+3 +3
C ? F ? I

+3 +3
U ? X ? A

+3 +3
R ? U ? X

+3 +3
L ? O ? R

But,

+3 +4
S ? V ? Z

Therefore, ‘SVZ’ does not belong to the group.

11.

(1) 117

(2) 74

(3) 153

(4) 108

(5) 99

Ans : 74 – Except 74, all other numbers are completely divisible by 3.

Directions (Q.Nos. 12-16) : – The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship with each other, followed by five pairs of words. Select the pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

12. Escape : Abscond

(1) Endless : Eternal

(2) Flee : Surrender

(3) Exult : Jubilate

(4) Escalate : Weaken

(5) Confront : Submit

Ans : Endless : Eternal – Escape and abscond are nearly similar in meaning like endless and eternal.

13. Host : Hospitable

(1) Artist : Imitative

(2) Guest : Rude

(3) Humanitarian : Altruistic

(4) Idealist : Cynical

(5) Pollyanna : Pessimistic

Ans : Humanitarian : Altruistic – As a host is supposed to be hospitable, in the same way, a humanitarian is expected to be altruistic.

14. Editor : Magazine

(1) Director : Film

(2) Novel : Writer

(3) Psychiatrist : Neurotic

(4) Librarian : Library

(5) Poem : Poet

Ans : Director : Film – Like all actions of a magazine are interpreted by the editor, in the same way, all the actions of a film are interpreted by the director.

15. Pain : Misery

(1) Disease : poverty

(2) Despair : loneliness

(3) Ignorance : confusion

(4) Superstition : peasants

(5) Ignore : greet

Ans : Ignorance : Confusion – Pain causes misery and ignorance causes confusion.

16. ABD : EJL

(1) GFH : IPR

(2) IPR : URT

(3) IPR : OTY

(4) IPR : ORT

(5) GHI : PRT

Ans : IPR : ORT – This is a vowel-consonant based relationship. In the question pair, the first letters of each term are ‘A’ and ‘E’ which are first two vowels (AEIOU). In the same manner, the first term of the answer pair will begin with ‘I’ and the second term of the answer pair will begin with ‘O’. In the question pair, we have ABD i.e. the third letter in first term is obtained by skipping ‘C’. In the second term, ‘EJL’, ‘L’ is obtained by skipping ‘K’. So, the answer is (4) IPR : ORT.
Placement Paper
IBPS clerical CWE PO free solved question paper s with detailed explanations All IT and Non IT (PSU) companies IBPS,Banks CAT,GATE,UPSC IES previous years solved question papers IBPS aptitude questions for practice
1 The closest meaning of the word EXHORT is
Urge
restrain
condemn
scold

Qn.2 PREAMBLE: CONSTITUTION

Amendment: Law
Prologue: Play
Episode: Serial
plot: story

Prologue: Play
Explanation:
Preamble is the introductory statement of the constitution and Prologue is the introductory part of a play, therefore B is the right answer option.

Qn.3 Fill in the blanks
The committee wrote a ……………report extolling only the strength of the proposal

reasonable
supportive
biased
fragmented

biased
Explanation:
In the statement it is given “extolling only the strength of the proposal” which means “praising only the strength of the proposal”. Since the word ‘only’ is used, we can conclude that the report was biased and hence option C is the answer

Qn.4 If the country has to achieve real prosperity, it is …………. that the fruits of progress reach all in equal measures.

Inevitable
Contingent
Oblivious
Imperative

Imperative
Explanation:
In the first part of the statement, “If the country has to achieve real prosperity”, note the word ‘If’, which implies that the blank after ‘it is’ has to be filled with a word meaning ‘required’ or ‘necessary’ and the only word among the options with a similar meaning is ‘Imperative

Qn.5 A bank pays interest @ 8 percent p.a. on a deposit for half a quarter as well as on a deposit for one quarter. A makes a deposit of Rs.25 lakhs for a quarter. B makes a deposit of Rs.25 lakhs for half a quarter, and after maturity reinvests the entire amount for half a quarter. What is B’s gain over A?

Rs.200
Rs.225
Rs.250
Rs.275

Rs.250
Explanation:
A’s interest =25 lakhs*2/100 = 50,000
B’s interest = 25 lakhs * (101/100) * (101/100) – 25 lakhs = 50,250
:. B’s gain over A = 250.
Qn.6 “The ban on smoking in designated public places can save a large number of well known effects of environmental tobacco smoke, and the passive smokers are the worst affected from it”. Which of the following sentences sums up the meaning of the above passage.
Effects of tobacco are well known
The ban of smoking in public places protects the non smokers
The ban of smoking in public places excludes passive smokers.

The ban of smoking in public places protects the non smokers
Explanation:
In the paragraph, the author speaks about the effects of environmental tobacco some including the effect on passive smokers and mentions that the ban can reduce these effects. The options A, B and C can be concluded from the paragraph but only option B sums up the meaning of the entire paragraph.
Qn.7 Consider the set of integers (1,2,3…………..,5000) the number of integers that is divisible by neither 3 nor 4 is :

1668
2084
2500
2916

2500
Explanation:
The integers that are divisible by 3 are 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18…… 4998 i.e. a total of 1666 numbers The integers that are divisible by 4 are 4, 8, 12, 16, 20,…………….., 5000 i.e. a total of 1250 numbers The integers that are divisible by 3 and 4 are 12, 24, 36,…………….., 4992 i.e. a total of 416 numbers The number of integers that are divisible by either 3 or 4 =1666+1250-416 = 2500 The number of integers that are divisible by neither 3 nor 4 = 5000-2500=2500

Qn.8 Given the sequence A, BB, CCC, DDDD………..and so on , the 240th letter in the sequence will be:
V
U
T
W

Qn.9 A positive integer m in base 10 when represented in base 2 has the representation p and the base 3 has the representation q , We get p-q= 990, where the subtraction is done in base 10 , Which of the following is necessarily true:
m >= 14
9<m<13
6<m<8
m<6

9<m<13
Explanation:
Let us plug-in the options to answer this question. Now we know that in binary system the digits are 0 and 1. If we convert the numbers less than 8 into binary system we obtain only three digits i.e. we get the numbers in 100’s.So the subtraction cannot be 990.Hence we can eliminate the Options C and D. Now, 12 will satisfy the conditions given in the problem.

Qn.10 (165)2 – (164)2 =
1
100
229
329

329
Explanation:
(165+164) (165-164) = 329*1 = 329

Qn.11 If 1/x = 3.5. then 1/(x+2) =
7/9
16/7
7/16
9/7

Qn.12 A store owner is packing small radios into larger boxes that measure 25 in. by 42 in. by 60 in. If the measurement of each radio is 7 in. by 6 in. by 5 in., then how many radios can be placed in the box?

300
325
400
420
300
Explanation:
(25*42*60)/2*6*5 = 300
Qn.13 Frank is 15 years younger than John. In 5 years John will be twice as old as Frank. How old will Frank be in four years?

8
10
12
14
14
Explanation:
Frank is 15 years younger then John –> F+15=J;
In 5 years John will be twice as old as Frank (in 5 year John will be J+5 years old and Frank will be F+5 years old) –> J+5=2*(F+5) –> (F+15)+5=2*(F+5) –> F=10;
In 4 years Frank will be 10+4=14 years old.

Qn.14 A store owner decided to raise the price of a particular item by exactly 10%. Of the following which is NOT the new price?

\$1.10

\$8.80

\$11.00

\$57.30
Qn.15 The price of a candy bar is \$1.00. The price of a ten pack of the same candy bar is \$7.40. The ten pack of candy bars is what percentage cheaper then purchasing ten candy bars individually?

18%

26%

32%

48%
Qn.16 In a certain department store, which has four sizes of a specific shirt, there are 1/3 as many small shirts as medium shirts, and 1/2 as many large shirts as small shirts. If there are as many x-large shirts as large shirts, what percent of the shirts in the store are medium?

25%

33%

50%

60%

60%
Explanation:
total shirts are 1 part
1/3M+m+1/6m+1/6m=1
5/3m=1
m=3/5*100
so m=60%

Qn.17 A new apartment complex purchased 60 toilets and 20 shower heads. If the price of a toilet is three times the price of a shower head, what percent of the total cost was the cost of all the shower heads?

9%
10%
11%
13%
10%
Explanation:
Let is take the price of a shower head = Rs.10.
Then, the price of the toilet = Rs.30 (3 X 10).
Items purchased = 60 toilets and 20 shower heads
Total cost = (60 toilets * Rs.30) + (20 shower heads * Rs.10) = Rs.1800 + Rs.200 ==> Rs.2000
Total Cost = Rs.2000
Cost of Shower heads = Rs. 200
% = 10%

Qn.18 A car averages 55 mph for the first 4 hours of a trip and averages 70 mph for each additional hour. The average speed for the entire trip was 60 mph. How many hours long is the trip?

6
8
11
12
6
Explanation:
(55(4) + 70x) / 4+x = 60
= (220 + 70x) / 4+x = 60
Multiply both sides by 4+x
220 + 70x = 240 + 60x
Which gives you
10x = 20, so x = 2.
Add this to the 4 hours and you have 6.

Qn.19 The owner of a hobby store needed to calculate the percentage of customers who purchase wood glue. Upon completing his survey, he noticed that 60% of the people that entered his store purchased an item. Of those customers, 15 percent purchased wood glue. What percent of the people that entered the store purchased wood glue?

7%
9%
12%
15%
9%
Explanation:
For every 100 people entering the store, 60 purchase.
For every 60 purchasing, (15% of 60) purchase wood glue =15/100 x 60 = 9 people purchase glue.
Hence ..for every 100 entering the store ..9 purchase glue.
hence 9 %.
Qn.20 From 7:00 AM to 11:00 AM it rained 2.25 inches. At 11:00 AM the rain increased to fall at a rate of 1.25 in. every two hours. How many inches of rain landed on the ground by 5:00 PM?
7
9.75
6
3.25

6
Explanation:
2.25 + (3 x 1.25) = 6

Qn.21 If x and y are the two digits of the number 653xy such that this number is divisible by 80, then x+y is equal to:

2

3

4

6
Qn.22 A man can row 5 kmph in still water. If the river is running at 1kmph, it takes him 75 minutes to row to a place and back. How far is the place?

3km
3km
2.5 km
4 km
5 km
Explanation:
Speed downstream = (5+1)km/hr = 6 km/hr Speed upstream = (5-1)km/hr = 4 km/hr
Let the required distance be x km x/6 + x/4 = 75/60 2x+3x = 15 x = 3km
Qn.23 If log 0.317=0.3332 and log 0.318=0.3364 then find log 0.319 ?

0.3396

0.3369

0.3368

0.3338

0.3396
0.317=0.3332

0.318=0.3364

Then for 0.319 = 0.3396

Qn.24 A box of 150 packets consists of 1kg packets and 2kg packets. Total weight of box is 264kg. How many 2kg packets are there ?

36

114

120

50

114
Explanation:
Let the number of 1 kg packets be x.
then the number of 2 kg packets is (150-x)
now x * 1 + (150-x) 2 = 264
=> x + 300 -2x=264
=> -x=264-300= -36
=> x=36(no. of 1 kg packets)
no. of 2 kg packets = 150 -36= 114
Qn.25 A hat vendor bought hats at Rs 5 per 3 hats. He sold them at Rs 10 per 4 hats. What was his profit percentage?

25

50

30

45

Qn.26 Find by how much percentage the average of first 10 odd numbers (starting from 1) is greater than the last term.

900/19 %
800/66 %
700/124 %
Cannot be determined

Qn.27 In a classroom the average height of all the boys was 170 cm. Rahim recently join the class which originally had 20 boys increased the average to 171cm. Then find the height of Rahim.

167

176

186

191
191
Explanation:
Before Rahim joined the total height of all the boys = 170 X 20 = 3400.
New average = (Total height of all students + height of rahim)/21 = 180
Therefore (3400 + height of rahim)/21 = 171
Therefore height of Rahim = 3780 – 3400 = 191 cms.

Qn.28 Find the sum of all terms in the series 1, 1/2, 1/4 …..

1/6

2/7

1/18

2

Qn.29 X alone can do a piece of work in 15 days and Y alone can do it in 10 days. X and Y undertook to do it for Rs. 720. With the help of Z they finished it in 5 days. How much is paid to Z?

90

70

120
Cannot be determined

120
Explanation:
In one day X can finish 1/15th of the work.
In one day Y can finish 1/10th of the work.
Let us say that in one day Z can finish 1/Zth of the work.
When all the three work together in one day they can finish 1/15 + 1/10 + 1/Z = 1/5th of the work.
Therefore, 1/Z = 1/30.
Ratio of their efficiencies = 1/15: 1/10: 1/30 = 2: 3: 1.
Therefore Z receives 1/6th of the total money.
Hence, the share of Z = Rs. 120.

Qn.30 A plane moves from 9°N40°E to 9°N40°W. If the plane starts at 10 am and takes 8 hours to reach the destination, find the local arrival time ?
11:00

11:30

12:30
12:30
Explanation:
Since it is moving from east to west longitide we need to add both
ie,40+40=80
multiply the ans by 4
=>80*4=320min
convert this min to hours ie, 5hrs 33min
It takes 8hrs totally . So 8-5hr 30 min=2hr 30min
So the ans is 10am+2hr 30 min
=>ans is 1
Six boys are standing in such a manner that they form a circle facing the centre. Anand is to the left of Ravi shakar is in between Ajay and Vivek Iswar is between Anada and Ajay who is to the left of vivek?
b.Iswar
c.Ajay
d.Shankar
31 In the following series how many R are preceded by P and followed by D?
MPDRNOPRDUXRDPRDMNDRD
a.4
b.3
c.2
d.1

32 If EARN is written as GCTP,how NEAR can be written in that code?

a.CTGP
b.GPTC
d.PCGT

33 If 5 X 4 =15,7×8 =49 and 6×5=24,what will 8×4 be?
a.64
b.36
c.28
d.24

34 The given three equations follow some common property. Select the right option.
98-64=14,86-23=27,40-11=?
a.6
b.7
c.8
d.9

35 IF AMPLIFY is written as YFILPMA in a certain, how would NATIONAL be written in that code?
a.LANONATI
c.LANTANIO
d.LANTION

36 The population of a developing country is increasing year by year. find out the current year population from the following information

a.390
b.450
d.510

37 Gokul traveled 16kms west ward, then he turned and traveled 10kms Then he turned left and traveled 16 kms How far was Gokul from the starting point ?
16kms
b.26kms
d.6kms

Directions : In Question Nos .38 to 40,some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval [] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A,B,C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D)

37 While we love nature in its peaceful and pleasant moments(A) /we find it hardly(B)-Answer/to love its furies and wildness(C)/No error(D)

38 Umbrella is(A)/ of no avail(B) -Answer against a thunderstorm (C)/No error(D)

39 I shall return the book(A)/when you will arrive(B)/here(C)-Answer/No error(D)

40 The old man saw (A)/that the bird (B)/is circling again (C)/No error(D)-Answer
IBPS CWE PO Celrical question papers of aptitude reasoning solved questions with detailed explnations IBPS PO clerical practice and model questions for referring these largest collection of previous years bank ibps solved question papers of quantitiative aptitude,reasoning ability,english language computer and current affairs questions with answers

IBPS CWE Clerical -REASONING ABILITY Questions with answers -Model papers
1. ‘Players’ are related to ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Books’ are related to
1. Exams
2. Library -Ans
4. Writer
5. Chapter

2. Shreya started from Point P and walked 2 m towards West. She then took a right turn and walked 3m before taking a left turn and walking 5m. She finally took a left turn, walked 3m and stopped a Point Q. How far is point
Q from point P?
1. 2m
2. 6m
3. 7m -Ans
4. 8m
5. 12m

3. In a certain code ‘where have you been’ is written as ‘been 4 have 3 where 2 you 1’ and ‘visiting London this summer’ is written as ‘London 4 summer 3 this 2 visiting 1’. How will ‘repair may computer yesterday’ be
written in the same code?
1. computer 4 repair 3 may 2 yesterday 1
2. yesterday 4 repair 3 may 2 computer 1
3. computer 1 may 2 repair 3 yesterday 4
4. yesterday 4 may 3 repair 2 computer 1
5. computer 4 may 3 repair 2 yesterday 1-Ans

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series and so form a group.Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. MLJ
2. WVT
3. OMK -Ans
4. JIG
5. TSQ

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belongto that group?
1. Diameter
2. Circumference
3. Centre
4. Circle -Ans

Direction (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
a. G sits third to the right of F. b. G sits second to the left of H.
c. H is not an immediate neighbour of E and C. d. F and A are immediate neighbours of each other.
e. Only one person sits between F and B. f. E and G sit opposite each other.
6. Four of the following five are similar in a certain way based on their position in the seating arrangement. Whichof the following does not belong to that group?
1. EH
2. CF
3. AG -Ans
4. BD
5. HG

7. Who amongst the following represent immediate neighbours of D?
1. E, H
2. C, G
3. F, B
4. H, G -Ans
5. C, B

8. What is the position of A with respect to G in the above arrangement?
1. Third to the right
2. Second to the left -Ans
3. Fifth to the right
4. Immediate right
5. Third to the left

9. What will come in place of the question mark (?) according to the above seating arrangement? EF CG HB FA ?
1. GD -Ans
2. CG
3. GH
4. BH
5. CD

Directions(10-13): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
6 4 2 5 2 8 5 2 6 4 1 3 9 1 8 1 2 5 8 6 3 5 1 4 9 4 7 3 2 7 2 5 9
10. How many 4s, are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value of more than four?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three-Ans
5. More than three

11. Which of the following is seventh to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement?
1. 3
2. 9 -Ans
3. 2
4. 7
5. 1

12. If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be tenth from the right end of the arrangement?
1. 9
2. 5 -Ans
3. 1
4. 3
5. 7
13. How many such 5s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and immediately followed by an even digit?
1. None -Ans
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three
Directions (14-16): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code ‘ring a bell’ is written as ‘5 8 2’, ‘did not ring’ is written as ‘3 5 9’ and ‘not a reason’ is written as ‘7 2 9’.

14. Which of the following represents ‘did not’?
1. 2 3
2. 2 9
3. 3 5
4. 5 2
5. 9 3-Ans

15. What is the code for ‘bell’?
1. 5
2. 8 -Ans
3. 2
4. 7
5. Cannot be determined

16. What does ‘2’ stand for?
1. ring
2. a -Ans
3. bell
4. reason
5. not

Directions (17-20): Following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:
219 742 936 587 853

17. If all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, which of the following will be the product of the first and the second digits of the number which is exactly in the middle of the new arrangement?
1. 18
2. 28 -Ans
3. 54
4. 21
5. 45

18. One is subtracted from the first digit and two is subtracted from third the digit of each of the numbers. What will be the difference between the first digit of the highest number and the third digit of the lowest number?
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 2
5. 1-Ans

19. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is divided by the first digit of the lowest number?
1. 3 -Ans
2. 4
3. 5
4. 2
5. 1

20. If the positions of the first and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, what will be sum of all the digits of the second highest number thus formed?
1. 20 -Ans
2. 16
3. 18
4. 13
5. 12

Directions (21-23): Read the information given in each question carefully and answer the questions.
21. Which of the following expressions will not be true if the expression ‘A ? C ? B ? D’ is definitely true?
1. B > A -Ans
2. D < C
3. A >- B
4. D < -A
5. All are true

22. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘L > M’ be definitely true?
1. M >- N > P > L
2. L > N <M > P
3. M<- N = P L
4. L > N >M < P -Ans
5. None of these

23. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression ‘Z < Y ? W = V’ is definitely true?
1. V > Y
2. Z < W
3. V >-Z
4. W <-Z
5. None is true-Ans

Directions (24-25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the son of B’.
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

24. How is C related to F if ‘C + D – E × F’?
1. Daughter – in – law
2. Father – in – law
3. Grand daughter -Ans
4. Grandson
5. Mother

25. Which of the following means ‘P is the father of K’?
1. K × L ÷ P – R
2. K ÷ L + R – P -Ans
3. K + R – L × P
4. R – P ÷ L + K
5. None of these

Directions (26-30): In the following questions, the symbol ?, \$, ??? © and % are used with the following
meanings as illustrated below:
‘P &Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller nor greater than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P \$ Q’ means ‘P is greter than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either greater or equal to Q’

Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is / are definitely true. Give answer.
1. if only conclusion I is true.
2. if only conclusion II is true.
3. if either conclusion I or II is true.
4. if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5. if both conclusions I and II are true.

26. Statements : H * K, K & N, N \$ W
Conclusions :
I. N \$ H
II. W & H
1-Ans
27. Statements : H © K, K % R, R & N
Conclusions :
II. R % H
4-Ans
28. Statements : R \$ T, T © M, M % J
Conclusions :
I. J % T
II. J & T

3–Ans
29. Statements : B % A, A * M, W © M
Conclusions :
I. W \$ B
II. A * W

5-Ans
30. Statements : B % T, T © M, M *D
Conclusions :
II. M * B

2-Ans

IBPS Specialists officers IT -Computer based questions, IBPS Specialists officers Professional Knowledge questions with answers

1. This machine can replace the mainframes very soon
a) Application servers (Ans)
b) Workstations
c) Pentium
d) Power PC
e) All of the above

2. What is the architecture that is used in PS/2 range of IBM computers ?
a) ISA
b) EISA
c) MCA (Ans)
d) Local Bus

3. MCA means
a) Main Computer Architecture
b) Micro Channel Architecture (Ans)
c) Micro Chip Architecture
d) Micro Computer Architecture

4. Compared to CISC processors, RISC processors contain
a) more registers and smaller instruction set (Ans)
b) larger instruction set and less registers
c) less registers and smaller instruction set
d) more transistor elements

5. What is an application server ?
a) Network node that stores applications
b) Software that allows interchange application
d) Network server currently available for use with large client-server systems. (Ans)

6. Choose the one which is coprocessor :
a) 80287 (Ans)
b) Graphic Accelerator
c) Video Graphics Array

7. Choose the one which is not necessary for a multimedia PC :
a) Video Card
b) Scanner
c) CD-ROM
d) Sound card
e) All the above (Ans)

8. 80386 SX processor from Intel has
a) 16 bit address bus and 32 bit data bus (Ans)
b) 16 bit address bus and 16 bit data bus
c) 16 bit address bus and 64 bit data bus
d) 8 bit data bus and 16 bit address bus

9. DIP switches are used to store system setup information in
a) PC/AT 286 (Ans)
b) PC/XT
c) PC/AT 386
d) Pentium
e) Power PC

10. Power PC is the latest in the PC market. it is
a) a less power consumption PC
b) a microprocessor with Intel and Motorola compatible (Ans)
c) the latest model microprocessor from Intel
d) a PC which can work both on Intel based (DOS and Unix) and Apple operating systems.
11. What is data highway ?
b) A network of on-line database
c) A network into which subscriber machines can plug-in and communicate between one another
d) An integrated network of communica-tion supporting data transfer, TV, cable, Telephone, Video Conferencing, Video on Demand and other communication services in one. (Ans)

12. Choose the company that does not use Motorola chips in their computers :
a) APPLE
b) HEWLETT-PACKED
c) ATARI
d) COMPAQ (Ans)

13. Till recently all processors produced were complex instruction set computing (CISC) processors. The important reason for this was :
a) memory was costly and access times were large (Ans)
b) all problems required complex instructions
c) software technology was not advances to do without complex instructions
d) RISC processor technology was not available

14. When RISC processors are used, this is true :
a) compilers are complex (Ans)
b) large number of processor instructions are used
c) programs are more complicated than in CISC processors
d) RISC cannot be used in high performance machines like graphic workstations and network servers.

15. Choose the one which is not a property of RISC processor
a) implements only instructions most used by programmers
b) timing constraints are eased since circuitry is simplified
c) complex operations are implemented by software
d) provides more registers for use by programs
e) All of the above are properties (Ans)

16. Choose the company which manufactures the multimedia accessory cards for :
a) IBM
b) Creative labs (Ans)
c) Combaq
d) Dell

17. Frame Grabber cards are basically used for :
a) capturing single frames from a video output (Ans)
b) showing video in a window inside Windows
c) used to download a single screen//frame from computer to a video
d) capturing single screens in the computer while any display is on the screen.

18. Video capture can be done presently with a Video card, using the following program :
a) Video for Windows (Ans)
b) Windows Media Player
c) CI Manager

19. The following programs in Windows is used for recording sound using a sound card :
a) Media Player
b) Sounder (Ans)
c) Multimedia Extensions
d) Recorder

20. In any windows program, the video clips recorded as AVI files can be directly played using the following features :
a) GUI functions
b) Kernel functions
c) MCI functions (Ans)
d) Video functions

21. The register which keeps track of the execution of a program and which contains the memory address of the instruction currently being executed is known as
a) Index register
c) Program counter (Ans)
d) Instruction register

22. The register which holds the address of the location to or from which data are to be transferred is known as
a) index register
b) instruction register
d) memory data register

23. If some device requires urgent service, normal execution or programs may sometimes by preempted using.
a) an interrupt signal (Ans)
b) a request to memory modules
c) DMA
d) All of the above

24. The register which contains the data to be written into or readout of the addressed location is known as
a) index register (Ans)
c) memory data register
d) program counter

25. A single bus structure is primarily found in
a) Main frames
b) Super computers
c) High performance machines (Ans)
d) Mini and micro computers

26. In which of the following terminals the screen is regarded as an array of pixels, where each pixel is either on or off.
a) Character map terminal
b) bit map terminal (Ans)
c) RS-232 terminal
d) All of the above

27. On of the main feature that distinguish microprocessors from micro-computers is
a) Words are usually larger in micro-processor
b) Words are shorter in micro-processors
c) Microprocessors does not contain I/O devices (Ans)
d) Computer are not fully integrated

28. Microprocessor can be used to make
a) Computers
b) Digital Systems
c) Calculators
d) All the above (Ans)

29. In a generic microprocessor, instruction cycle time is
a) shorter than machine cycle time
b) larger than machine cycle time (Ans)
c) exactly double the machine cycle time
d) exactly the same as the machine cycle time.

30. What tape of control pins are needed in a microprocessor to regulate traffic on the bus, in order to prevent two devices from trying to use it at the same time.
a) Bus control
b) Interrupts
c) Bus arbitration (Ans)
d) Status
Placement Paper
IBPS specialists officers computer questions for practice, IBPS cwe po clerical ribs Gramin banks and specialists officers aptitude reasoning general awareness,english and professional knowledge questions with answers, common synonyms and antonyms, paragrpah questions etc..,IBPS bank IT and Non IT PSU companies sample and model questions and answers
1. Buffer is device/storage area–
1. Where data are temporarily stored-Answer
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above
5. None of these

2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–
1. Car Topology
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

3. An error in a computer program is referred as–
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

4. Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–
1. Car
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

6. Cache memory is a–
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–
1. Number system
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

8. Cache memory is–
1. Smaller and faster than main storage-Answer
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

9. Cache memory–
1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both 1. and 2. are true .-Answer
4. Both 1. and 2. are false
5. None of these

10. Following is false for BASIC–
1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language-Answer
5. None of these

11. A unit for measuring data transmission speed that describes the capacity of a carrier is referred as–
2. Bit
3. Bond
4. All of the above
5. Batch

12. A process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally manufactured/developed–
1. Alpha test
3. Gamma test
4. All of the above
5. None of these

13. A selection, choice, or condition involving two possibilities is referred as–
1. Unary
3. Octal
4. All of the above
5. None of these

14. Base band System is–
1. A networking system
2. Where the channel support a single digital signal
3. Both 1. and 2. are true-Answer
4. All of the above
5. None is true

15. One of the early coding systems, based on the idea of converting each digit of a decimal number into its binary equivalent rather than converting the entire decimal value into a pure binary form is–
1. ASCII code
3. ASCII-8
4. All of the above
5. None of these

16. In Batch processing–
1. Several computer programs runs one after another without human interaction to run each program individually-Answer
2. Several computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
3. Selected computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
4. All of the above
5. None is true

17. BISYNC is–
1. Binary synchronous
2. A process of transmitting data
3. A half-duplex, character oriented, synchronous data communication transmission method
4. All of the above

18. A device that is used to transmit data from one location to another is referred as–
1. Storage
2. Memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

19. Programs developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine readable form is known as–
2. Beta program
3. Alpha program
4. All of the above
5. None of these

20. A binary numbers are represented by–
2. Digits 0, 1, …, 8
3. Digits AB, C,…
4. All of the above
5. None of these

21. BIOS is responsible for
1. Handling the particulars of input/output operations-Answer
2. Output operations
3. Input operations
4. All of the above
5. None of these

22. BIOS is an abbreviation for–
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above
5. None of these

23. BISYNC is an abbreviation for–
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above
5. None of these

24. The overall design, construction, organiz-ation and interconnecting of the various components of a computer system is referred as–
2. Computer Flowchart
3. Computer Algorithm
4. All of the above
5. None of these

25. A number system with a base of two is referred as–
1. Unary number system
3. Octal number system
4. All of the above
5. None of these

IBPS clerical cadre solved question papers,IBPS aptitude reasoning computer knowledge bank based general knowledge professional knowledge questions with answers,IBPS previous years solved question papers

English Language
Directions—(Q. 1–5) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

There was a famous temple on a high hill in Assam. The priest of this temple was widely respected and was known to be a great scholar. When he grew old, he started searching for a younger priest who could take charge of the temple after his death. But, much to his dismay, he could not find any suitable person. As the priest lay on his deathbed, he called the trustee of the temple and told him, “After my death, make sure that only a ‘human being’ replaces me as the priest of this temple”. As soon as he said these words, he died. Information travelled far and wide that the head priest of the famous temple had died and now there was an urgent need for a replacement. A day was set for the selection of the successor. That day, starting at dawn, aspirants started trekking the steep and torturous climb to the temple. The route to the temple was indeed difficult; it was full of thorns, and stones. By the time most people managed to reach the temple, they had received minor cuts and bruises on their feet and hands.

1. What happened immediately after the old priest died ?
1. The trustee shut the temple and started mourning for the old priest
2. The trustee took the old priest’s position and appointed a younger trustee
3. Word spread that there was an urgent need for the old priest’s successor-Answer
4. Everyone started searching for younger priests
5. Everyone refused to become the old priest’s successor

2. Why was the old priest looking for a younger priest ?
1. So that the younger priest became his successor 2. So that the old priest had a student
3. So that the younger priest searched for a successor
4. Because in those days younger priests were more educated than older priests
5. Because the trustee wanted a younger priest to take care of the temple-Answer

3. Why was the young man late for the competition ?
1. He had forgotten his way and thus had taken a longer route to the temple
2. He was removing all the stones and thorns from the path which led to the temple-Answer
3. He was giving water to the other participants when they were on their way to the temple
4. He had some household chores to complete

4. What was the trustee’s decision when the young man gave his explanation for being late ?
1. He immediately selected the young man as the successor to the old priest-Answer
2. He scolded him and said that he should have been careful
3. He asked the young man to go and get his wounds treated
4. He asked the other participants to leave the temple premises
5. He gave a huge sum of money to the young man

5. What was the old priest’s definition of a ‘human being’ ?
1. Those who succeed in life and earn a lot of money are human beings
2. Those who watch for other people’s interests and well being are human beings-Answer
3. Those who put stones and thorns in other people’s path are human beings
4. Those who know how to make other people laugh are human beings
5. Those who know how to recite shlokas are human beings

6. How did the other participants react to the trustee’s decision ?
1. They took it sportingly and learnt a lesson from the incident
2. They congratulated the trustee for being so wise and fair
3. They got angry and objected to the trustee’s decision-Answer
4. They decided to get even with the trustee and the young man
5. They cursed the trustee and stomped out of the temple premises

7. What did the trustee ask during the selection process ?
1. He asked the aspirants to recite shlokas and verses from sacred texts
2. He asked the aspirants to explain the various procedures of priesthood
3. He asked the aspirants to give an introduction of themselves
4. He asked the aspirants to tell him the qualities of an ideal priest

8. What would be an appropriate title for this passage ?
1. The famous temple
2. The old priest
3. The torturous path
5. The unjust trustee

9. Why did the young man say that he didn’t wish to participate in the competition ?
1. He was scared of losing the competition
2. He was not sure about the duties of priesthood
3. His parents forbade him from becoming a priest
4. He wanted to become the priest of some other temple
5. He was late and did not want to be unfair to others-Answer

10. When did the aspirants get cuts and bruises on their hands and feet ?
1. While they were reciting difficult shlokas and verses
2. While they were going through the selection process
3. While they were talking about the old priest
4. While they were climbing the torturous path that led to the temple-Answer
5. While the trustee was torturing them during the selection process

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word / group of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. Qualifies
1. Is trained in 2. Meets the criteria-Answer 3. Excels in 4. Is impressive 5. Is dynamic

12. Noticed
1. Recognised 2. Liked 3. Saw -Answer 4. Informed 5. Accepted

13. Demanded
1. Claimed 2. Questioned-Answer 3. Stated 4. Requested 5. Inquired

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word / group of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. Minor
1. Chief 2. Main 3. Complete 4. Distinct 5. Severe-Answer

15. Torturous
1. Trouble-free-Answer 2. Liberating 3. Exciting 4. Demanding 5. Boring

Directions (Q. 16–20)—Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. If there is no error the answer is 5.. (Ignore errors of punctuation if any.)

16. They did not follow the 1. / directions properly so 2. / they had difficult 3. -Answer/ in reaching my house. 4. No Error 5.

7. The group members 1. / had to suffer a 2. / lot of problems as 3. / their leader were biased. 4.-Answer No Error 5.

18. He was supposed 1. / to pick them 2. / up from the airport 3. / but he reaches late. 4-Answer. No Error 5.

19. He gained admission 1. / to one of the 2-Answer. / best commerce colleges 3. / in the city. 4. No Error 5.

20. His friends tried 1. / to convince him to 2. / participate in the competition 3. / but he refused. 4. No Error 5.-Answer

21. The judges were so 1. / impressed by her perform 2.-Answer / that they gave her3. / a standing ovation. 4. No Error 5.

22. They win the 1-Answer . / match but they 2. / did not play 3. / a fair game. 4. No Error 5.

23. The servant not only 1. / robbed them house 2-Answer . / but also betrayed 3. / their trust. 4. No Error 5.

24. He have to 1.-Answer / leave on a very 2. / short notice as 3. / it was an emergency. 4. No Error 5.

25. No one is allowed to go 1. / out of the hostel after 9 p.m. 2. / but still some students 3. / sneaks out last night. 4.-Answer No Error 5.

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below, four words print in bold type are given. These are lettered 1., 2., 3. and 4.. One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark 5. i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

26. All the officers 1. were asked 2. to report to duty 3. at sharp 4. 7 a.m. All Correct 5.-Answer

27. She fell ill due 1. to anxiety just 2. one week 3. before the ecsam. 4-Answer . All Correct 5.

28. They requested 1. everyone to take their 2. seats-Answer 3. and maintain silence.4. All Correct 5.

29. They spoke 1. in such a laud 2. -Answer voice that even their neighbours 3. could hear them. 4. All Correct 5.

30. Manish accused 1. his rival 2. of steeling 3-Answer . his designs. 4. All Correct 5.

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following 6 sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.
1. “I can’t bear it !” he screamed, “I’II pay the fine.”

2. After he had received a few strokes he began to turn and twist to avoid the whip.

3. So he paid the fine and was let off, but he became the laughing-stock of the city for having taken three punishments for one crime.

4. A man was caught stealing a bag of onions and was taken to the court where the judge gave him a choice of three punishments : eat the stolen onions in one sitting; submit to a hundred lashes of the whip or pay a fine.

5. “I can’t eat the onions so give me the lashes instead,” he said.

6. The man said he would eat the onions and began confidently, but after eating a few, his eyes began to burn, his nose started running and his mouth felt as if it was on fire.

31. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence in the rearrangement ?
1. 4 2. 2 3. 1 -Answer 4. 6 5. 5

32. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence in the rearrangement ?
1. 4-Answer 2. 2 3. 3 4. 1 5. 6

33. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence in the rearrangement?
1. 2 2. 5 3. 4 4. 1 5.3-Answer

34. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence in the rearrangement?
1. 1 2. 3-Answer 3. 2 4. 6 5. 4

35. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence in the rearrangement?
1. 2 2. 6-Answer 3. 4 4. 5 5. 1

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Each sentence below has a blank/s, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word/s that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. have, to-Answer 2. has, is 3. are, in 4. is, to 5. can, are

37. Rohan……asleep while watching the film.
1. is 2. found 3. fall 4. fell -Answer 5. find

38. Priti passed her exams with ………colours.
1. falling 2. seeing 3. different 4. flying-Answer 5. single

39. She translated an English ……… passage to Hindi without using a………

40. Tina finds it difficult to talk to people as she…………introvert.
1. was a 2. can the 3. is an -Answer 4. being a 5. thought an

Placement Paper

IBPS Englush language free solved question papers,Ibps PO CWE clerical Specialists officers free solved sample placement papers,Bank previous yeras solved question papers

English Language

Directions (1-10) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain word have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
During the reign of King Veer, there lived a wise magistrate. Haripant’s verdict were always just and people from all over vast kingdom came to him in order to settle their disputes. In the city where Haripant lived, there was a greedy ghee merchant named Niranjan. He always kept twenty barrels of ghee. Of these, fifteen would contain good quality ghee and the remaining would be adulterated. He would mix the two and sell it. This went on for a long time, till finally the people fed up of being cheated, complained to Haripant.

Haripant had the ghee examined and found to it be adulterated. He gave Niranjan a choice of punishment-drink the five barrels of adulterated ghee from his shop, or receive a hundred lashings, or pay a thousand gold coins to the treasury. Niranjan thought for a while. Losing a thousand gold coins was too much and hundred lashings too painful. So he decided to drink the five barrels of ghee. Though Niranjan sold adulterated goods in his shop, he made sure his own food was of the best quality. So after drinking one barrel of ghee he began to feel sick. By the second barrel, he was vomiting. At this point he decided to opt for the lashings instead. But he was pampered and his body was unused to any harsh treatment. After ten lashes, he started trembling and by twenty he was giddy. ‘Stop! he screamed. ‘I will pay the thousand gold coins !’ And he handed them over.

So he ended up suffering all three punishments, something he did not forget in a hurry and the people of the city got to use only the best quality ghee in their food from then on
1. Why did Niranjan Keep five barrels of adulterated ghee ?
a) To sell to customers who could not afford high quality ghee
b) To make a profit by cheating people
c) Being a miser he kept the low quality ghee for his family
d) Demand for this ghee was low so he kept only a small quantity
e) None of these
Ans : (b)

2. Why did the people decide to go to Haripant with their complaint ?
a) He was close to the King and would get justice for them.
b) They knew Niranjan who punished people severely
c) They were confident that he would listen to their complaint and give a fair judgement
d) He was the only magistrate in the entire kingdom
e) None of these
Ans : (c)

3. Why did Haripant allow Niranjan to choose his own punishment ?
a) He felt sorry for Niranjan
b) Niranjan’s offence was minor
c) He did not want Niranjan to appeal to the King for leniency .
d) He did not want to give the wrong punishment
e) None of these
Ans : (e)

4. Which of the following can be said about Niranjan ?
i) He took a lot of time to make any decision
ii) He only cheated those who would not dare complain against him
iii) He was allergic to ghee and fell sick whenever he consumed it.
a) None
b) Only A
c) Both A and B
d) All A, B and C
e) None of these
Ans : (e)

5. Why did Niranjan decide to drink adulterated ghee for his punishment ?
a) Since the barrels were from his shop he thought he could substitute the adulterated ghee with good ghee
b) He wanted to prove that the quality of ghee he sold was good
c) He was greedy and had a big appetite so he thought he would easily drink the ghee
d) He considered it the easiest of the punishments as he did not realise what effect the ghee would have on him
e) None of these
Ans : (d)

6. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ?
i) Niranjan’s customers were so angry that they beat him mercilessly
ii) King Veer’s kingdom was large
iii) Niranjan had a very good memory
a) Only (i)
b) Only (ii)
c) Both (i) and (iii)
d) All(i), (ii) and (iii)
e) None of these
Ans : (c)

Directions (7-8) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage
7. SETTLE
a) Resolve
b) Occupy
c) Compromise
d) Arrange
e) Quiet
Ans : (a)

8. CHEATED
a) Unfaithful
b) Blamed
c) Exploited
d) Prevented
e) Dodged
Ans : (e)

Directions (9-10) : Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. BEST
a) Damaged
b) Inferior
c) Spoiled
d) Defective
e) Cheap
Ans : (b)

10. UNUSED
a) Accustomed
b) Routine
c) Often
d) Normal
e) Repeated
Ans : (a)

Directions (11-15) : Which of the phrase (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.

11. Since books are quite expensive that many children do not have access to them.
a) more expensive than
b) so expensive that
c) very expensive
d) too expensive for
e) No correction required
Ans : (b)

12. At the meeting they told us what kind of difficulties we may likely to face while establishing a rural branch.
a) may like to face
b) were being faced
c) could be likely face
d) would be likely to face
e) No correction required
Ans : (d)

13. What response you get to the proposal that you circulated among our investors ?
a) response have you
b) response did you
d) did you respond
e) No correction required
Ans : (b)

14. One of our representatives will meet you at the airport and accompanies you to our office
a) and accompany you
b) to accompany
c) accompanying by you
d) will be accompanies by you
e) No correction required
Ans : (a)

15. I knew that because I refused to accept the old man’s gift I would hurt his feelings.
a) not to refuse
b) by refusal
c) if I refused
d) should I refused
e) No correction required
Ans : (c)

Direction (16 – 20) : In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, If any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

16. It is better to seek (1)/advice (2)/ from a financial consultant (3)/on how to safe (4)/ your business. All correct (5)
Ans : (4)

17. This is the list (1)/ of people who should be insisted (2)/ to participate (3)/ in the conference (4)/ All correct (5)
Ans : (2)

18. The impact (1)/ of those schemes (2)/ was visible (3)/ after a decade (4)/ All correct (5)
Ans : (5)

19. Since this offer is available (1)/ for a limited (2) / period alone (3)/you should register (4)/immediately. All correct (5)
Ans : (3)

20. I patently(1)/ explained (2)/to the customer that it was not possible (3)/ to fulfill his request (4). All correct (5)
Ans : (1)

Directions (21-25) : Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer the questions given below them.
a) Thus they teach us that no matter how insignificant you think you are, you can accomplish extraordinary things
b) During the course of its life it was struck by lightning fourteen times.
c) But one day it was attacked by an army of beetles
d) The tree stood at the foot of the Himalayas for over four hundred years.
e) The tiny insects ate their way through the tree and destroyed it.
f) If even survived innumerable storms and avalanches

21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Ans : (d)

22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
Ans : (b)

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
Ans : (e)

24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Ans : (e)

25. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Ans : (a)

Directions (26-30) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error it it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’/ (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
26. My cousin’s wedding provided (1)/ me with the chance (2)/ to meet which relatives I (3)/had not met for a long time. (4)/No error(5).
Ans : (3)

27. There are floods in this (1)/ region last year but (2)/ many of the victims have (3)/ not yet been compensated. (4) / No error (5)
Ans : (1)

28. We must ensure that (1)/ all our records (2)/ are computerised (3)/ for next year. (4)/ No error (5)
Ans : (4)

29. In order to impart (1) / training to bank employees (2)/ we are setting up (3)/ centres at various location . (4) / No error (5).
Ans : (4)

30. When Rahul reached (1)/the office there was (2)/ nobody there so (3)/ he sat down to wait (4)/No error (5)
Ans : (5)

Directions (31-40) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A Professor was (31) the Indian Independence Movement and the idea of non-violence (32) by Mahatma Gandhi. “Although others like Nelson Mandela followed this idea and (33) the Nobel prize for peace Mahatma Gandhi did not.” she said. one student spoke up, “It is good that he didn’t (34) it was an award started by Alfred Nobel who invented dynamic, which causes (35). The professor (36) ” In fact the world should be (37) to Nobel because he invented dynamite. It was very useful to build tunnels (38) mountains for trains to pass. If we choose to use it for war it is not his fault. Furthermore he (39) all his wealth into instituting prizes for literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, peace, etc. His (40) was that anything which would benefit the human race deserved recognition so that the person who had started it would have no financial difficulties in achieving his goal”.

31. a) lecturing
b) talking
c) discussing
d) speaking
e) arguing
Ans : (c)

32. a) originate
b) specialised
c) start
d) conceived
e) thought
Ans : (d)

33. a) awarded
b) given
c) presented
d) win
Ans : (e)

34. a) that
b) get
c) accept
d) though
e) since
Ans : (e)

35. a) blast
b) ruins
c) destruction
d) bombs
e) damages
Ans : (c)

36. a) disagreed
c) shouted
d) upset
e) agreed
Ans : (a)

37. a) dedicated
b) grateful
c) appreciated
d) thanking
e) cursing
Ans : (b)
38. a) from
b) through
c) over
d) under
e) within
Ans : (d)

39. a) put
b) left
c) gave
d) donated
e) contributed
Ans : (d)

40. a) decision
b) logic
c) cause
d) excuse
e) discovery
Ans : (b)

IBPS Probationary officers English Language questions with answers,IBPS previous years solved placement papers

IBPS Test of English language

Directions for questions 1 to 30 : An expression followed by four words is given in each of the following questions. The expression carries the meaning of one of the words. Identify the word and mark its number as your answer.

1. People or animals of a place that have been the earliest there from known times
a) ancestors
b) immigrants
c) aboriginals (Ans)
d) natives

2. A person who is very good at something
b) popular
c) talented
d) virtuoso (Ans)

3. An anxious and eager concern for someone
a) solicitude (Ans)
b) worry
c) elation
d) good will

4. A cowardly and unfaithful person
a) miscreant
b) mendicant
c) pervert
d) recreant (Ans)

5. A fixed plan of food, sleep, etc. in order to improve one’s health
a) custom
b) regimen (Ans)
c) resolution
d) encompassment

6. An introduction that comes before something we say/write
a) prologue (Ans)
b) prediction
c) review
d) premonition

7. A steep or almost upright side of a high rock mountain or cliff
b) zenith
c) precipice (Ans)
d) abyss

8. Characteristic of children or young people
a) Juvenile (Ans)
b) mature
c) puerile
d) experienced

9. Causing damage to both parties involved
a) mutual
b) internecine (Ans)
c) interdict
d) interstitial

10. a large and impressive building
a) mansion
b) colossal
d) edifice (Ans)

11. Next to each other
a) simultaneous
b) vicinity
c) succession
d) contiguous (Ans)

12. A place of scene of great disorder
a) chaotic (Ans)
b) repulsive
c) shamble
d) unpleasant

13. Connected with or relevant to something
a) perspective
b) invalid
c) significant
d) pertinent (Ans)

14. To hold the attention and interest completely
a) enthral (Ans)
b) yield
c) entice
d) charm

15. Showing great knowledge or insight
a) profane
b) fantastic
c) nostalgic
d) profound (Ans)

16. A long meaningless set of actions
a) modicum
b) vicissitudes
c) tidings
d) rigmarole (Ans)

17. To defeat completely in a battle or competition
a) vanquish (Ans)
b) imbroglio
c) forfeit
d) tryst

18. Most typical example of something
a) idol
b) epitome (Ans)
c) moron
d) penchant

19. Ability to speak well and easily
a) loquaciousness
b) temerity
c) eloquence (Ans)
d) glibness

20. One who is famous or an expert
a) chartlatan
b) paragon
d) luminary (Ans)

21. A speech or piece of writing praising somebody or something
a) paean
b) transcription
c) panegyric (Ans)
d) verbatim

22. A place where everything is perfect
a) Utpia (Ans)
b) Cosmos
c) heaven
d) artifice

23. Voluntary relinquishing of something valued
a) nihilism
b) scrimmage
c) sabotage
d) sacrifice (Ans)

24. Asking everyone for an opinion
b) encomium
c) referendum (Ans)
d) similitude

25. A sign of shame
a) Snide
b) probity
c) pride
d) stigma (Ans)

26. Great disaster such as flood
a) cataclysm (Ans)
b) genocide
c) conflagration
d) waterloo

27. Extreme greed for money and possessions
a) chicanery
b) avarice (Ans)
c) rectitude
d) clemency

28. Firm and lasting courage in bearing trouble
a) strength
b) fortitude (Ans)
c) prayer
d) endurance

29. an object that is neat/pretty/small delicate
a) dainty (Ans)
b) artistic
c) categorical
d) brail

30. an attitude/habit/behaviour not genuine or natural
a) deception
b) imitation
c) protection
d) affectation (Ans)

Direction : Questions 31-60 : Each question has a word followed by four choices. From among the choices, identify the word which is opposite in meaning (antonym) to the main word and mark its number as your answer.
31. VIVIDLY
a) unimpressively (Ans)
b) plain
c) amalgamated
d) distinct

32. CHURLISH
a) agitated
b) cultured (Ans)
c) young
d) unique

a) criticise
c) praise (Ans)
d) altercate

34. PLUMMET
a) pester
b) copy
c) praise
d) soar (Ans)

35. NIGGARDLY
a) softly
b) generously
c) plesantly
d) miserly

36. JUBILANT
a) lethargic
b) inebriated (Ans)
c) refreshed
d) morose

37. ENSUE
a) follow
b) instigate
c) precede (Ans)
d) cease

38. BILIOUS
a) pleasant (Ans)
b) malevolent
c) succulent
d) impure

39. GARRULOUS
a) laconic (Ans)
b) boastful
c) bashful
d) resonant

40. SCOFF
a) entertain
b) belittle
c) applaud (Ans)
d) castigate

41. TEMPORAL
a) devious
b) immaculate
c) didactic
d) celestial (Ans)

42. TRUNCATE
a) lengthen (Ans)
b) split
c) digress
d) enervate

43. WASPISH
a) berserk
b) imperious
c) amiable (Ans)
d) ingeuous

44. LIBERTINE
a) perfect
b) chaste (Ans)
c) ignominious
d) dubious

45. IMPUGN
a) invoke
c) defend (Ans)
d) pacify

46. INDELIBLE
a) temporary (Ans)
b) decorous
c) surprising
d) concerted

47. EXPEDIENT
a) beneficial
b) necessary
c) harmful (Ans)
d) relevant

48. DUCTILE
a) opaque
b) brittle (Ans)
c) coarse
d) soft

a) skilled
b) inept (Ans)
c) ugly
d) serene

50. CATALYST
a) promoter
b) obstacle
c) destroyer
d) deterrent (Ans)

51. BOLSTER
a) undermine (Ans)
b) interdict
c) support

52. FORLORN
a) sorrowful
b) encouraging
c) cheerful (Ans)
d) careless

53. OSTENSIBLE
a) external
b) real (Ans)
c) internal
d) unreal

54. RAZE
a) raise
b) disperse
c) split
d) foster (Ans)

55. NONCHALANCE
a) Pollution
b) Confusion
c) Suppression
d) tension (Ans)

56. APOCRYPHAL
a) reliable
b) authentic (Ans)
c) incredible
d) unreal

57. DECREPIT
a) Sturdy (Ans)
b) feeble
c) attractive
d) repulsive

58. SKIMPY
a) glaring
b) generous (Ans)
c) affluent
d) miserly

59. PREPOSTEROUS
a) unpleasant
b) pertinent
c) reasonable (Ans)
d) interesting

60. GORGE
a) starve (Ans)
b) crave
c) relish
d) dislike

Directions for questions 61 to 80 : In each question, four words identified as a, b, c and d are given. Two of them are opposite in meaning to each other. Identify this pair and marks as your answer the combination from the choices that matches your selection.

61. (i) Fume, (ii) Aroma, (iii) stench, (iv) Filth
a) (ii) – (iii) (Ans)
b) (i)- (iv)
c) (i)-(ii)
d) (iv)-(ii)

62. (i) Shallow, (ii) Vital, (iii) Ostensible, (iv) Profound
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (i) – (iv) (Ans)
c) (i)-(iii)
d) (ii)-(iii)

63. (ii) Deteriorate, (ii) Wane, (iii) Zoom, (iv) Flourish
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (ii) – (iii)
c) (ii)-(iv) (Ans)
d) (iii)-(iv)

64. (i) Emphasise, (ii) Delay, (iii) Help, (iv) Hamper
a) (i)-(iii)
b) (i)-(ii)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (iii)-(iv) (Ans)

65. (i) Timid, (ii) Audacious, (iii) Powerful, (iv) Violent
a) (i)-(ii) (Ans)
b) (ii)-(iii)
c) (i)-(iv)
d) (iii)-(iv)

66. (i) Repent, (ii) Flaunt, (iii) Hide, (iv) Fulfil
a) (i)-(iii)
b) (ii)-(iii) (Ans)
c) (iii)-(iv)
d) (i)- (iv)

67. (i) Sleep, (ii) Toil, (iii) Repose, (iv) Labour
a) (iii)-(iv) (Ans)
b) (i)-(iv)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (ii)-(iii)

68. (i) Mundane, (ii) Unique, (iii) Exciting, (iv) Emotional o
a) (i)-(iv)
b) (i)-(iii) (Ans)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (ii)-(iii)

69. (i) Serene, (ii) Moody, (iii) Blithe, (iv) Emotional
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (ii)-(iv)
c) (ii)-(iii)
d) (i)-(iv) (Ans)

70. (i) Eclipse, (ii) Discreet, (iii) Increase, (iv) Reveal
a) (i)-(iv) (Ans)
b) (ii)-(iv)
c) (iii)-iv)
d) (i)-(ii)

71. (i) More, (ii) Bit, (iii) Superfluous, (iv) Lot
a) (i)-(ii)
b) ((ii)-(iii)
c) (ii-(iv) (Ans)
d) (i)-(iv)

72. (i) Lewd, (ii) Dignified, (iii) Decent, (iv) Ribald
a) (iii)-(iv) (Ans)
b) (i)-(ii)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (ii)-(iii)

73. (i) Aver, (ii) Contradict, (iii) Deny, (iv) Repeat
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (i)-(iii) (Ans)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (iii)-(iv)

74. (i) Oppose, (ii) Incite, (iii) Defer, (iv) Quell
a) (i)-(iv)
b) (iii)-(iv)
c) (ii)-(iii)
d) (ii)-(iv) (Ans)

75. (i) Amiable, (ii) Angry, (iii) Active, (iv) Curt
a) (i) – (ii)
b) (ii)-(iv)
c) (i)-(iv) (Ans)
d) (ii)-(iii)

76. (i) Stubborn, (ii) Amorous, (iii) Frigid, (iv) Chaste
a) (ii)-(iii) (Ans)
b) (i)-(ii)
c) (iii)-(iv)
d) (i)- (iv)

77. (i) Clear, (ii) Suppressed, (iii) Notorious, (iv) Famous
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (iii)-(iv) (Ans)
c) (i)-(iii)
d) (ii)- (iii)

78. (i) Actual, (ii) Alleged, (iii) Obvious, (iv) Blamed
a) (i)-(iv)
b) (i)-(iii)
c) (i)-(ii) (Ans)
d) (ii)-(iii)

79. (i) Renege, (ii) Break, (iii) Fulfil, (iv) Complete
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (i)-(iv)
c) (ii)-(iii)
d) (i)-(iii) (Ans)

80. (i) Terse, (ii) Verbose, (iii) Short, (iv) Detailed
a) (i)-(iii)
b) (ii)-(iii)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (i)-(iv) (Ans)

Directions for questions 81-100: An idiom and four possible meanings are given. Identity the meaning of the idiom from among the answer choices and mark its number as your answer.
81. Child’s play
a) to handle a situation calmly
b) to dispute over petty points
d) to treat lightly

82. On thin Ice
a) on the verge of ruins
b) unbounded
c) to undergo risks
d) in a precarious situation (Ans)

83. Bury the hatchet
a) decide to end hostility (Ans)
b) to keep under control
c) to retire from active life
d) to turn pale

84. Cut no ice
a) unable to perform
b) make no impression (Ans)
c) come to nothing
d) to fail

85. It makes no odds
a) come to a compromise
b) quite certain
c) to cause no interest
d) it is not important (Ans)

86. Sign on the dotted line
a) agree to do something unconditionally (Ans)
b) take the blame or punishment
c) without any delay
d) left with no choice

87. The bottom line
a) the trick
b) the most important factor (Ans)
c) the secret
d) ignorance

a) have a reason to suspect
b) consulted one another
c) have insight into a situation (Ans)
d) under consideration

89. Turn down
a) to reject or refuse (Ans)
b) to dominate
c) to run away
d) to disappoint

90. Lie low
a) to cease fighting
b) destructively active
c) hide and wait (Ans)
d) lethargic

91. On cloud nine
a) beyond control
b) in excellent spirits (Ans)
c) fortune in favour
d) at a distance

92. See eye to eye
a) well thought of
b) continuously
c) to fix the limit
d) have same opinion (Ans)

93. Count one’s chickens
a) be overoptimistic (Ans)
b) to make money rapidly
c) with all one’s power
d) wholly or entirely

94. A bird’s eye view
a) without care
b) within the walls
c) an overall survey (Ans)
d) out of place

95. Be in two minds
a) be burdened
b) be indifferent
c) be mischievous
d) be undecided (Ans)

96. A shot in the arm
a) to have his revenge
b) to stimulate a situation/person (Ans)
c) to show strength
d) to behave in an agitated manner

97. Make no bones
a) without offence
b) to be frank (Ans)
c) undaunted by anything
d) practically

98. Turn one’s back
a) object to
b) retain aversion
c) refuse help (Ans)
d) run off

99. Be hand in glove
a) remain faithful
c) in ignorance
d) in close association (Ans)

a) thoroughly (Ans)
b) continuously
c) nothing
d) completely

IBPS CWE General Awareness Question Papers

Reserve Bank of India- Monetary and Credit Policies (1999-2012)

Dr. D. Subbarao, RBI Governor announces the First Quarter Review of Monetary Policy for the year 2011-12 …
Bank Rate & CRR retained at 6.0%.However policy repo rate increased by 50 basis points
RBI increase the repo rate under LAF by 25 basis points to 7.5 per cent in Mid-Quarter Monetary Policy Review: June 2011 .
RBI announces Annual Monetary Policy Statement for the Year 2011-12

Policy repo rates hiked 50 bps, Bank Rate & CRR retained at 6%, Savings Bank Interest increased to 4%

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Extends Liquidity Management Measures up to May 6, 2011The Reserve Bank of India releases Mid-Quarter Monetary Policy Review: March 2011RBI increases the repo & reverse repo rates by 25 basis points

Repo & Reverse Repo rates hiked by 25bp but CRR & bank rate retained at 6%

Bank Rate & CRR retained at 6.0%.However, repo & reverse repo rate increased by 25 basis points

General Awareness Questions

1 RBI, in its annual policy for 2011-12, has estimated the wholesale price inflation at about which among the following fractions by March 2012?

(A)5%

(B)6%

(C)8%

(D)9%
Ans(B)6%

2 Who amongst the following was India’s official candidate for the post of UNO’s Secretary Gene- ral ?
(A) Mr. Shyam Saran
(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(C) Mr. Shashi Tharoor
(D) Mr. Vijay Nambiar
(E) None of these
Ans (C) Mr. Shashi Tharoor

3 In India Census is done after a gap of every____________
(A) Five years
(B) Seven years
(C) Eight years
(D) Ten years
(E) Fifteen years
Ans (D) Ten years
4 Which of the following pheno-menon is considered responsible for ‘Global Warming’?
(A) Greenhouse Gas Effect
(B) Fox Fire
(C) Dry Farming
(E) None of these
Ans (A) Greenhouse Gas Effect
5 Which of the following Satellites recentlydedicatedtonation helps Direct to Home Television Ser-vice in India ?
(A) Matsat
(B) Edusat
(C) Insat–4b
(D) Insat–IB
(E) None of these
Ans (C) Insat–4b

6 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently raised the interest rate on savings bank deposits and the repo rate by 50 basis points (bps). In this context, consider the following:

1. CASA Ratio

2. Net Interest Margin

Which among the above of the commercial banks would be affected by the above

step taken by the Reserve Bank of India ?

(A)Only 1

(B)Only 2

(C)Both 1 & 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2
Ans C Both1 & 2

7 The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called?

[A]FDI

[B]Portfolio Investment

[C]NRI Investment

[D]Foreign Indirect Investment
Ans [D]Foreign Indirect Investment

8 In which year, the World Bank revised the common international poverty line to \$1.25 at the 2005 purchasing power parity?

[A]2006

[B]2007

[C]2008

[D]2009

9 As per the recent estimates, India’s overall foodgrain production is expected to be 241.56 million tonnes, which is highest ever. Which among the following shares the maximum quantity in this ?

[A]Rice

[B]Wheat

[C]Coarse cereals

[D]Maize
Ans[A]Rice

10. Recently RBI governor D Subbarao has pointed out that “recent global macro economic developments pose some risks to domestic growth.” What does he refer to by using the term “domestic growth”?

(A)Per Capita Income

(B)Gross Domestic Product

(C)Net National product

(D)Net National Product per capita
Ans (B)Gross Domestic Product

11 Lending rates are expected to rise further in the coming months because the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to ………………….. Which among the following would fill the space correctly?

(A)Increase policy rates

(B)Decrease Policy Rates

(C)Conduct Open Market Operations

(D)Conduct Repo Auctions
Ans (A)Increase policy rates

12 . Recently we read in the newspapers that in the country , there are undoubtedly, negative risks to the fiscal deficit target of 4.6 per cent for 2011-12. Which among the following does not poses such risk to the fiscal deficit targets?

(A)The higher Fuels, Food and Fertilizers prices

(B)Burden of Subsidy

(C)Low collection of Tax Revenue

(D)Lower external commercial borrowings
Ans (D)Lower external commercial borrowings

13 What was the initial growth target of the Eleventh Plan (2007-08 to 2011-12) on an average a year?

(A)7%

(B)8%

(C)9%

(D)10%
Ans (C)9%

14 In the first four years of the Eleventh Plan, Indian economy expanded by which among the following fractions?

(A)8.15%

(B)8.30%

(C)8.45%

(D)8.65%
Ans (A)8.15%

15 OPEC is a group of countries which are_______
(A) exporting oil
(B) producting cotton
(C) rich and developed
(D) developing and poor
(E) nuclear powers

16 Recently we read in the newspapers that World Bank has now endorsed a longstanding proposal that governments should impose a carbon levy. What is Carbon Levy?

(A)It’s a tax levied on jet and shipping fuel to finance climate change mitigation

(B)It’s a tax levied on carbon fuel

(C)It’s a tax levied on production of fossil fuel and coal

(D)It’s a tax levied on production of coal only
Ans (B)It’s a tax levied on carbon fuel

17 Sandhyarani Devi Wangkhem, was a winner of a Silver Medal in the 2010 Asian Games in Guangzhou , China . In which sports she won this medal?

(A)Shooting

(B)Taekwando

(C)Squash

(D)Wushu
Ans (D)Wushu

18: Who is the VC and CEO of HDFC bank?
Keki Mistry

19 Which bank has entered into pact with SBI Mutual Fund?
Indian Bank

20 ASBA (application Supported by Blocked Amounts) is a term used in which of the following sectors?
(a) Aviation
(b) Real Estate
(d) Capital Markets
Ans (d) Capital Markets

21 Which of the following started production at India’s largest naphtha cracker project recently?
(a) ONGC
(b) Essar Oil
(d) Reliance Industries Ltd
Ans Indian Oil

22 Which of the following is/are correctly matched after RBI’s ‘Third Quarter Review of Monetary Policy 2010-11’ on January 26, 2011?
I. Repo rate – 6.5%
II. Reserve Repo rate – 5.5%
III. Cash Reserve Ratio – 6%
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Ans (d) I, II and III
(d) Rs 902000 crore

23 The union finance Ministry raised the tax collection target for 2010-11 to _________ recently.
(a) Rs 782000 crore
(b) Rs 834000 crore
(d) Rs 902000 crore
Ans(a) Rs 782000 crore

24 Which of the following became the first oil & Gas Company to find shale gas deposits in India recently?

(a) Reliance Industries Ltd.

(b) Carin India

(d) ONGC
Ans (d) ONGC

25 . Who among the following has been recently appointed as chairman of Central Board of Direct Taxes?

(A)Prakash Chandra

(B)Sudhir Chandra

(C)Satyanand Mishra

(D)Sri Kumar
Ans (A)Prakash Chandra
26 According to the state-wise cotton crop data released by the Agriculture Ministry for 2010-11 on 25 July 2011 which variety of cotton emerged as the largest cotton crop in all the major cotton producing states?
a. V-797
b. RS2013
c. Digvijay
d. Bt cotton
Ans: (d) Bt cotton

27 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?
a. 7%
b. 7.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.5%
28 The Union government on 26 July 2011 announced restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme for export of cotton. Which of the following is/are not true with regard to the following?
1. Restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme was announced for export of cotton with retrospective effect from 1 April 2011 and on cotton yarn from 1 October 2010.
2. Cotton yarn had been placed under Open General Licence for exports from 1 October 2011.
3. Exports of cotton were dis-incentivised by virtue of export tax, following a sharp rise in prices in January 2011.
4. Restrictions continue to remain on export of cotton, that is, 65 lakh bales this year.
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. Only 4
Ans: (b) Only 2

29 Who among the following had written the books “Reintegrating India with the World Economy’ and ‘Understanding Reforms’.?

(A)C Rangrajan

(B)Amartya Sen

(C)Suresh Tendulkar

Ans (C)Suresh Tendulkar

30. As per the recent Data released by the Central Statistical Organization, what is India ’s Percapita income in 2010-11?

(A)Rs. 54835

(B)Rs. 52165

(C)Rs. 56115

(D)Rs. 50143

Ans (A)Rs. 54835

The RBI decreased the RR (Repo Rate) and the RRR (Reverse Repo Rate) by 50 basis points on April 17, 2012. The Reserve Bank of India cut the repurchase rate to 8.00%.

Repo Rate, or repurchase rate, is the rate at which RBI lends to banks for short periods. This is done by RBI buying government bonds from banks with an agreement to sell them back at a fixed rate. If the RBI wants to make it more expensive for banks to borrow money, it increases the repo rate. Similarly, if it wants to make it cheaper for banks to borrow money, it reduces the repo rate.
Please note that Bank Rate and Repo Rate seem to be similar terms because in both of them RBI lends to the banks. However, Repo Rate is a short-term measure and it refers to short-term loans and used for controlling the amount of money in the market, Bank Rate is a long-term measure and is governed by the long-term monetary policies of the RBI. In broader term, bank rate is the rate of interest which a central bank charges on the loans and advances that it extends to commercial banks and other financial intermediaries. RBI uses this tool to control the money supply.
How Repo Rate Works?
When RBI reduces the Repo Rate, the banks can borrow more at a lower cost. This contributes to lowering of the rates. The effects can be seen on the markets in short term.

GENERAL AWARENESS (WITH SPECIAL REFERENCE TO BANKING INDUSTRY)IBPS Marekting aptitude general awareness and aptitude questions with answers,IBPS free solved sample placement papers

1. Government of India has signed an agreement with which of the following bank for the loan to support the provision of reliable, 24-hour electricity to rural households in Madhya Pradesh?
1. World Bank
2. International Development Association
4. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
5. International Finance Corporation

2. Which state-run company has won a Rs. 774-crore contract for supplying onshore drilling rigs to upstream oil company ONGC?
1. SAIL
3. HAL
4. Jindal
5. NTPC

3. According to the World Bank report, the number of poor in the developing world declined to how much during 2005-08?
1. 3.50 billion
2. 1.00 billion
3. 4.90 billion
4. 3.00 billion

4. Which company has become the first Indian firm to be certified as “Responsible Care Company”under the American Chemistry Council?
1. Britannia Industries Ltd
3. Apeejay Tea Ltd
4. Lotus Chocolate Company Ltd
5. Hindustan Unilever Ltd

5. RCom, in a consortium led by which IT firm, have bagged the Rs. 300 crore network and subscribercontract for government’s national identity card programme, Aadhaar?
1. Aplab Ltd
2. Patni Computers Systems Ltd
3. Tata Consultancy Services
4. TECH Mahindra

6. The theme of which of the following summit in 2012 was “The Great Transformation’ shaping New Models ?
1. BRICS
2. G8
3. G20
5. ASEAN

7. Which company has signed a five-year outsourcing agreement for IT infrastructure services with Helsinki-based UPM?
1. TVS Electronics Ltd
3. Sony Electricals Ltd
4. Dell India
5. Acer Aspire India

8. Who among the following is the new CEO and MD of L & T?
1. Natarajan Chandashekaran
2. S. Gopalakrishnan
4. Malvinder M Singh
5. None of these

10. The market size of Indian Media and Entertainment (M & E) industry is expected to touch Rs. 1,457 billion by which year?
1. 2012
2. 2013
3. 2014
4. 2015

11. RBI will bring out Rs. 5 coin to commemorate which of the following freedom fighter and martyr?
1. Mahatma Gandhi

12. Which of the following has announced the formation of a joint venture with the US-based Iconix Brand to hawk the latter’s brands?
2. Apgenco
3. Apple India
4. Sony India
5. Toshiba

13. The average annual compensation for a CEO in which of the following country stands at over Rs.two crore as per a new study?
1. Libya
3. United Arab Emirates
4. China 5. Russia

14. CCI has approved the merger of which of the following company with its parent firm ReliancePower?
1. GE Power Money
2. Digital Power Infrastructure
4. Reliance Energy
5. Reliance Fresh

15. The Indian Army successfully test fired which of the following 290 km range supersonic cruise missile at the Pokharan range?
1. C-803
2. P-270 Poskit
4. P-500 Bazait
5. KD 88

16. Which state Government signed a Memorandum of Understanding with NABARD Consultancy Services Pvt Ltd?
3. Assam 4. Manipur
5. None of these

17. Which bank appointed Madhukant Girdharlal Sanghvi as its new Chairman ?
2. Bank of Maharashtra
3. Bank of India
4. Central Bank of India
5. None of these

18. The Indian Railways proposes to target carrying —– Million Tonnes of revenue earning traffic during 2012-13.
2. 2025
3. 3025
4. 4025
5. 5025

19. India and Indonesia are set to reach their target of trade worth US \$ 25 billion by —-.
2. 2020
3. 2025
4. 2030
5. 2035

20. Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) during the Month of February, 2012 was ——- lakh.
1. 2.77
2. 3.77
3. 4.77
4. 5.77

21. Which country has clinched the first women’s Kabaddi World Cup championship title?
1. Iran
4. Germany
5. None of these

22. Which State Government introduced the Mamoni scheme in the state under the National Rural Health Mission?
1. West Bengal
2. Bihar
5. None of these

23. Who has been elected a judge in the US state of Louisiana?
1. Dr. Terence D’Souza
3. Howard Stern
4. Shirley Chisholm
5. None of these

24. The World Environment Day was observed across the globe on 5 June 2012. Theme for the World Environment Day 2012 was
1. Green Economy: Does it include you -Answer
3. Water- all we need
4. Both 2 & 3
5. None of these

25. Who took over as 28th chief secretary of Madhya Pradesh succeeding Avani Vaish?
2. D. S. Poonia
3. S. S. Kapur
4. Sanjay Kumar Srivastava

26. Which state’s Chief Minister has demanded law to deal with cases of discrimination against northeastern students?
2. Nagaland
3. Gujarat
4. Uttarakhand
5. Assam

27 The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has provided assistance of how many USD aid to India?
1. \$8.25 billion
2. \$5.25 billion
3. \$3.25 billion
5. \$7.25 billion

28. Who is the EU Ambassador to India visited Nagaland to interact with chamber of commerce and industry recently?
2. Ettore Sequi
3. Franz Jessen
4. Richard Jones
5. Aivo Orav

29. What value of overseas inflow was injected into Indian markets in January 2012?
1. Rs.20,000 crore
3. Rs.32,000 crore
4. Rs.25,000 crore
5. Rs.30,000 crore

30. Who is the Chief of Lashkar e-Taiba, a reward money of \$10 million has been announced on him by America?
2. Abdullah Azzam
3. Yusuf Muzammil
4. Nasr Javed
5. None of these

31. India’s which board was admitted as the 11th member of Multinational Design Evaluation Programme recently?
1. Nuclear Energy Agency
3. Permanent Court of Arbitration
4. East Asia Regulatory Summit
5. None of these

32. Commemorative Postage Stamp of which president was released to mark the birth centenary recently?
1. Giani Zail Singh
2. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
3. K.R.Narayanan
5. None of these

33. According to the World Economic Outlook report what is the lowered economic growth of India in 2012?
1.5.25%
3. 7.6%
4. 5.8%
5. 7.0%

34. Who had been appointed as UNHCR special envoy recently?
1. Kofi Annan
2. Sophia Loren
4. Richard Burton
5. Muazzez Ersoy

35. Who had been appointed as the President of World Heart Federation ?
2. Sidney C Smith
3. Deborah Chen
4. Roberto Ferrari
5. None of these

36 Nomura, the global financial services firm, on 26 June 2012 slashed the country’s growth forecast for the fiscal year 2012-13 to what per cent?
2. 5%
3. 4.6%
4. 3%
5. None of these

37 Indu Chaudhary and Sakshi Malik won gold Medals in Asian Junior Wrestling Championship 2012.Asian Junior Wrestling Championship 2012 was organised in which of the following country?
1. Iran
2. China
4. South Korea
5. None of these

38. Which one of the following cities has been slated to host the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012?
2. Buenos Aires
3. Hawana
4. Toronto
5. None of these
39 The World Bank on 12 June 2012 released its report on Global Economic Prospect, which of the following given statements are not true according to the World Bank report?
A. Indian economy will grow by 6.9 per cent in the financial year 2012-13
B. The World Bank predicted India’s growth 7.2 per cent and 7.4 per cent in fiscal years 2012-13
C. The World Bank report estimated the global economy to expand 2.5% in the fiscal year 2012-13
D. The World Bank report predicted western economy to grow significantly in the fiscal year 2012-13
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Only C
5. None of these

40. India’s gross direct tax collections grew by what per cent in April-May 2012?
2. 3 per cent
3. 2.62 per cent
4. 4.62 per cent
5. None of these
41. The Commerce Ministry of India on 14 June 2012 released the export-import data for the month of May 2012. Which of the following given statement are not true according to the data?
A. India’s export dropped by 4.16 per cent at 25.68 billion dollar in May 2012
B. India’s imports also registered a decline of 7.36 per cent at 41.9 billion dollar in May 2012
C. The trade deficit figure also shrank to 16.3 billion dollar during the May 2012, from 18.5 billion dollar in May 2011
D. Import of crude oil witnessed a decline
1. Only A
2. Both C & D
4. All the statements are true
5. None of these

To view online demo of CWE Clerical 2012 Exam (Just same as IBPS Pattern-Fully solved Questions with answer and Explanation) Try It free
MARKETING & COMPUTER
1. Which concept of marketing is based on ‘customer satisfaction’ key point ?
2. Old concept of marketing
3. Modern concept of marketing -Answer
4. Determination of the marketing objects
5. None of these

2. Marketing is a —
1. quantitative process
2. logical process
3. mathematical process
5. qualitative process

3. What is Product Line ?
1. Group of different products -Answer
2. More than one product
3. Group of different brands
4. Group of markets
5. All of these

4. Marketing Aggregation is ––––
1. Just like segmentation
3. Target market
4. All of these
5. None of these

5. Marketing is related with ––––
1. exchange
2. transferring
4. distribution
5. sending

6. The element of marketing mix is –––
1. selling
2. costing
3. creating

7. What is Marketing Information System ?
1. Gathering information from the market -Answer
2. Gathering information related with sale
3. Gathering information related with purchase
4. All of these
5. None of these

8. Which of the following is a survey technique?
1. Personal interview
2. Questionnaire
3. Telephonic interview
5. None of these

9. Capital goods market deals with –––
1. non durable goods
2. consumable goods
5. All of these

10. Marketing audit helps a business in ––––
2. marketing research
3. marketing planning
4. audit planning
5. All of these

11. Advertising is a part of ––––
2. distribution
3. brand image
4. brand equity
5. All of these

12. What is Strategy ?
1. Setting a goal
2. Creating a vision
4. All of these
5. None of these

13. Marketing environment consists of
1. a set of interacting forces -Answer
2. external forces
3. internal forces
5. None of these

14. Product label is concerned with –––
1. monogram
5. None of these

15. What is Standardisation ?
1. standard of living
3. pricing of product
4. brand image of product
5. All of these

16. Product life cycle’s third stage is related with ––
2. decline
3. introduction
4. growth
5. None of these

17. Marketing techniques include
1. good arguing skill
2. observation skill
4. watching skill
5. listening skill

18. A prospect means
1. newly designed product
4. ATM usage
5. internet transaction

19. Savings Account can be opened by ––––
1. all individuals fulfilling KYC norms -Answer
2. all individuals earning more than Rs.1,00,000 per annum
3. all individuals above the age of 18
4. all salaried persons
5. all students below the age of 18

20. Marketing is –––––
1. a skilled persons job -Answer
2. a oneday function
3. a one – time act
4. required only when a new product is launched
5. None of these

21. Which of the following is the India’s fastest Super Computer ?
1. K – Computer
2. PARAM
4. Stuxnet
5. None of these

22. Which technology is used to remote login into a computer system ?
2. Intranet
3. Extranet
4. Internet
5. Ethernet

23. Hard disk drives are considered as –––––– storage.
2. flash
3. temporary
4. permanent
5. None of these

24. Speed of super computers can be measured in the unit is known as –––––
2. MHZ
3. MB
4. HZ
5. None of these

25. The extension name for powerpoint document is
1. .pwrpt
2. .pt
4. .ppoint
5. .pxpt

26. Printed copy is often called
2. soft copy
3. true copy
4. printed copy
5. None of these

27. The operations like AND, NOT, OR which can be used while searching for information using any search engine is ––––––
1. boolean operator
2.operators
4. relational operators
5. none of these

28. The unauthorised use of computer and network resources is called –––––
1. netiquette
3. pass code
4. phishing
5. none of these

29. Commercially produced first computer
1. IBM
2. EDSAC
4. MIPS
5. ENIAC1

30. Which of the following can be used to browse the internet ?
1. Amiga OS
2. Perl
3. Foxpro
5. None of these

31. Which menu is selected to cut, copy and paste ?
1. File
2. Tools
4. Help
5. Format

32. The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called
2. interfacing
3. maximum speed
4. response time
5. None of these

33. MS Excel is a
2. Windows based accounting package
4. Dos based accounting package
5. None of these

34. A magnetic disc is coated by
1. phosphorus penta oride
3. magnesium oxide
4. sodium peroxide
5. None of these

35. Punched card system were first introduced by
1. Blaise Pascal
2. James Gosling
3. John Vonn Newmann
5. None of these

36. Ellipse motion is a/an
1. colour scheme
2. layout collection
3. design template
4. sound format

37. –––––– cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells
1. Splitting
2. Formatting
4. Compressing
5. None of these

38. Which of the following is not a special program in MS Office ?
1. Clip art
2. Word art
4. All of these
5. None of these

39. Which part of system performs the ‘housekeeping’ chores ?
2. Interpreter
3. Translator
4. Compiler
5. Converter

40. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?
1. Giga byte
2. Mega byte
3. Terra byte
4. Kilo byte

Placement Paper
IBPS general awareness question for learn and practice,IBPS aptitude, reasoning,bank based general awareness questions with answers

1- Glencore, world’s largest diversified trading house and……..signed an MoU for \$ 41 billion in a deal to create a powerhouse spanning mining, agriculture and trading.
1. MC Ewen Mining Inc
3. Kariganur Minerals Mining Industry
4. Bombay Mineral
5. None of these

2- With which of the following Indian companies did US based mattress company Restonic Corporation sign a 25-year agreement?
1. HPCL
3. Lakshmi Mills
4. Fab India

3- Adani Enterprises Ltd. in January 2012 announced the commissioning of India’s largest solar power plant in…..
1. Karnataka
3. Maharashtra

4- What is the name of the Ultra High Temperature (UHT) treated milk launched by Cavinkare Pvt. Ltd which keeps milk afresh without refrigeration?
2. Pure 100
3. Super Pure
4. None of the above

5- Who among the following Rajat Jain replaced as new Managing Director of Xerox India?
2. Sandeep Jain
3. Herve Tessler
4. Mr. Thomas

6- “Spark the rise” is a branding initiative by which company?
2. TCS
3. Ford India Ltd.
4. Bharti Enterprises

7- Which of the following banks was appointed as the lead bank for the government of India’s Financial Inclusion (FT) Plan in Mewat?
1. State bank of India
3. Dena Bank
4. HDFC Bank

8- Which of the following banks organized ‘Mass CASA Account Campaign’ all over India recently?
2. HDFC Bank
3. Syndicate Bank
4. Axis Bank

9- Which of the following companies recently received the award ‘for contribution to supply chain, and logistics of the year’ at the Indian Supply Chain and Logistics Summit 2012?
2. Bajaj Electrical
3. Havells India
4. Andhra Electronics

10- Which company owns the cult brand- Maggi?
2. Dabur
4. Britannia

Current affairs Questions -August -2012

1. Who is appointed as Chief economic advisor in the finance ministry department of India?

Raghuram Rajan

2. Who replaces Keshub Mahindra as Chairman of Mahindra and Mahindra?
Anand Mahindra

3. Which Indian state will set up Common Bio-Medical Waste Treatment Disposal Facility to manage and handle bio medical waste of government and private hospitals in all of its districts?
Haryana

4. Who will be appointed as chairman of Barclays from 1st November 2012 succeeding Marcus Aguis?
David Walker

5. Name the provision introduced by government through Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2011 to take over unclaimed amount of inoperative fixed deposit accounts of over 10 years ?
Depositor Education and Awareness Fund

6. What is the current rank of Saina Nehwal globally after winning bronze medal at Olympics 2012?
4th rank

7. Name the public sector undertaking oil company which posted a quarterly loss of Rs.22,451 crore for April-June 2012 quarter.
Indian Oil Corporation (IOC)

8. Where was the 15th Confederation of Indian industry insurance summit held?
Mumbai

9. Name the former Maharashtra Health Minister who died recently.
Digvijay Khanvilkar

10. How is Dubbed Gauss known in technology world?
A virus capable of spying on financial transactions, email and social networking activities

11. Who is appointed as Prime Minister of Syria?
Wael al-Halki

12. Name the institute which will be setup to manage land records in India ?
National Institute of Land Management

13. Where was the 4th North East Cultural Festival held in India?
Naharlagun near Itanagar

14. Where was the World Tribal Day observed in India?
Ranchi, Jharkhand

15. Name the Gujarati Sahitya Akademi award winner of 2005 who died recently.

Suresh Dalal

16. Which weather pattern can cause widespread drought in Australia, parts of Africa, Southeast Asia and India?
El Nino

17. Who is appointed as Chief Finance Officer of Cairn India?
Sudhir Mathur

18. Expand ETA. (Hint: Transactions)
Electronic Transactions Association

19. Which Indian state could lead to zero-population growth rate in 25 to 30 years according to its State Urbanisation Report?
Kerala

20. Who is elected as interim president of Libya?
Mohammed el-Megarif

21. Which drink in India is suggested by Parliament panel to be declared as National drink?
Tea

22. Name the Indian bronze medalist who won the 60kg wrestling competition at the London Olympics 2012?
Yogeshwar Dutt

23. What is the newly set radius of distance from the existing ones between mobile towers as per DoT norms?
1km

24. Name the team who won their 2nd consecutive Olympic hockey gold?
Netherlands

25. Name the Libyan army general who was shot dead recently.

26. What is the total amount finalised for Delhi’s Annual Plan 2012-13?
Rs.15,862 crores

27. Who won silver medal for India in the final of the Men’s 66kg Freestyle wrestling at the Olympics 2012?

Sushil Kumar

28. Name the German bank which is in its final stage to launch trading hub in Tokyo.
Bundesbank

29. Who is appointed as Prime Minister David Cameron’s Olympic legacy ambassador?
Seb Coe

30. How many stocks in BSE will be shifted to (trade-to-trade)T segment with effect from August 21st 2012?
19

31. Which Indian state has been selected as a pilot state for launching e-Biz (Government to Business) project?
Odisha

32. SEBI recently allowed which instrument as valid address proof investors?

33. Expand NGN. (Hint: Network)
Next Generation Network

34. Name the Ex-Maharashtra Chief minister who died recently.
Vilasrao Deshmukh

35. Who is appointed as Managing Director of Tata Motors?
Karl Slym (To lead operations from 1st October 2012)

36. Who is appointed as Prime Minister of Mongolia?
Norov Althanhuyag

37. Who displayed Indian tri-color flag on the occasion of Independence Day and wished the country on board from International Space Station?
Sunita Williams

38. Who became India’s 3rd Prime Minister to hoist National flag at Red Fort for the 9th time?
Dr. Manmohan Singh

39. Which stock exchange opened its day with the colours of the Indian flag as Consul General Prabhu Dayal rang the opening bell celebrating India’s 66th Independence Day?
NASDAQ

40. Who is named as president and CEO of New York Times?
Mark Thompson (Ex-Director General BBC)

41. Expand CCP. (Hint: collection)
Cheque Collection Policies

42. Expand IFFCO. (Hint: farmers)
Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited

43. Expand MMR. (Hint: Mortality)
Maternal Mortality Rate

44. Which country will host 2016 Olympic Games?
Rio de Janerio, Brazil

45. Name the director of the movie ‘Bandit Queen’ who passed away.

Ashok Mehta

46. What is Geophagy?
Geophagy is a practice of eating earthy or soil like substances such as clay and chalk.

47. What is a water clock?
Clocks which don’t rely upon sunlight to show time, they operate by dripping water from containers at measured intervals.

48. What is an atomic clock?
An atomic clock uses measurements of energy released from atoms to preciselymeasure time.

49. Which Indian state received Rs.1355 crore from NABARD for construction of roads in rural areas recently?
Rajasthan

50. Which scheme is Government of India planning to launch by August 15th 2012 aiming to boost retail investments in the capital market?
Rajiv Gandhi equity scheme

51. TCS recently topped which company to become India’s most valued company with its market capitalisation of over Rs.2.38 lakh crore?
ONGC

52. Which sporting event’s opening ceremony was held in London recently?
30th Olympics (Summer Olympics 2012)

53. Recently World Bank granted what worth of loan to Himachal Pradesh for green development?
\$200 million (Rs.1,000 crore)

54. Which 3 Indian states could be in trouble as the water level at Bhakra reservoir drops and also impact next Rabi crop, wheat?
Haryana, Punjab and Rajasthan

55. Who is set to head as 14th Finance Commission personnel in India?
Yaga Venugopal Reddy

56. Name the deadly virus which has killed 13 people in Uganda recently.
Ebola

57. Which airways will fly daily flight from Mumbai to Johannesburg route from October 2012?
South African Airways

58. Which airport is planned in Meham of Haryana state?
Cargo airport

59. Which finance company is hit by RBI’s gold loan cap?
Muthoot Finance

60. Expand LTV. (Hint: loan)
Loan-to-value

61. Which country won rights to mine under Indian Ocean recently?
South Korea

62. Who is elected as the President for Andhra Pradesh Film Chamber of Commerce for the year 2012-13?

63. Which Indian state bagged best heritage tourism award at the 3-day India Tourism Mart held at Bangalore recently?
Bihar

64. Who won the first medal (Bronze) for India at the London Olympics 2012?

Gagan Narang

65. Which country will host the 10th International Junior Science Olympiads?
Mumbai, India

66. Which Indian state will provide Rs.140 crore package to tackle drought situation?
Jharkhand

67. Name the Padma Bhushan, Kalidas Puraskar and Kalaimamani award recipient, Kuchipudi dancer who passed away recently?
Vempati Chinna Satyam

68. Who is appointed as India Chief Executive by Deutsche bank?
Ravneet Gill

69. Expand ESI. (Hint: Sentiment)
Economic Sentiment Indicator

70. What is the extended date for e-filling of tax returns in India?
August 31st 2012

71. Which company will sponsor all Indian medal winners of 2012 London Olympics for the 2016 Rio De Janerio Olympics?
Steel Authority of India
1. Name the Indian High jumper who won a silver medal in (F42 single leg, amputations minimal disability category) at London Paralympics Games.
(a) Girisha Hosanagara Nagarajegowda
(b) Vijay Singh Chauhan
(c) Suresh Babu
(d) Hari Shankar Roy

2. The legendary tennis player from US who announced his retirement during the US open on 6 September 2012 after facing a defeat from John Martin del Potro.
(a) Roger Federer
(c) Novak Djokovic
(d) Andy Roddick

3. Which Indian female wrestler won Bronze in the World Junior Championship at Pattava on 6 September 2012?
(a) Indu Choudhary
(b) Geeta Phogat
(c) Sonika Kaliraman
(d) Alka tomar

4. Name the Formula one driver who became the winner of Italian Grand Prix 2012
(a) Fernando Alonso
(b) Lewis Hamilton
(c) Sebastian Vettel
(d) Michael Schumacher

5. Name the tennis player who became the first British man to capture US Open Grand Slam Singles Championship after 76 years by defeating Novak Djokovic on 11 September 2012.
(a) Andy Murray
(b) Max Woonsam
(c) Jamie Murray
(d) Bunny Austin

6. Name the New Zealand’s fast bowler who retired from both International and Domestic Cricket
(a) Shane Bond
(b) Daryl Tuffey
(c) Ian Butler
(d) Chris Martin

7. The boxing Champion, Muhammad Ali who retired from the game in the year 1981 was honoured with Medal in Philadelphia on 13 September 2012. What was the name of that medal?
(a) Liberty medal
(b) Medal of Excellence
(c) Indecorum medal
(d) None of these

8. Which Indian player became ICC ODI cricketer of the year?
(a) Virendra Sehwag
(b) MS Dhoni
(c) Suresh Raina
(d) Virat Kohli

9. Which character is declared to be the official mascot for the 2014 FIFA World Cup in Brazil on 12 September 2012.
(a) Laughing Buddha
(c) Shera
(d) A Running Pichachhoo

10. Women SAF football championship 2012 was won by which country?
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) China
(d) India

11. Name the two players on whom AITA (All India Tennis Association) extended ban till June 2014
(a) Mahesh Bhupati and Rohan Bopanna
(b) Sania Mirza and Rohan Bopanna
(c) Leander Paes and Sania Mirza
(d) Leander Paes and Mahesh Bhupati
Answer: (a) Mahesh Bhupati and Rohan Bopanna

12. Name the owner of Delhi franchise of hockey India
(a) Tata Group
(b) Wave Group
(c) Bharti Group
(d) Aircel and Reliance

13. Name the person who has been appointed as full time president of Hockey India.
(a) Gayatri Shetty
(b) Mariamma koshy
(c) Bachendri Pal
(d) Dilip Tirki

14. Name the the Australian Cricketer who on 20 September 2012 announced his retirement from all formats of Cricket.
(a) Matthew Hayden
(b) Ricky Pointing
(c) Michael Clarke
(d) Bret Lee

15. Name the BJP MLA who was elected as the President of Indian Boxing Federation on 23 September 2012.
(a) Abhishek Matoria
(b) Ashok Gehlot
(c) Mahesh Joshi
(d) Sachin Pilot
16. Name the England football player, the captain of Chelsea in the premier league who announced his retirement from International Football on 24 September 2012.
(a) John Terry
(b) Stevan Gerrard
(c) David Beckham
(d) Ashley Cole

17. Name the Indian boxer and London Olympic bronze medalist who on 24 September 2012 named as the brand ambassador of super fight league.
(a) Vijendra Singh
(b) M C Mary Kom
(c) Manoj Kumar
(d) Vikas Krishan
Answer: (b) M C Mary Kom

18. Name the Former Cricketer and all-rounder, who was appointed as the Chairman of the five member senior selection committee of BCCI on 27 September 2012.
(a) Saba Karim
(b) Vikram Rathour
(c) Sandeep Patil
(d) Rajinder Singh Hans.

19. Deepika Kumari the Sports Person from India, won Silver at Recurve World Cup on 23 September 2012 in Tokyo. Recurve world Cup is related to which Sports Event?
(a) Archery
(b) Shooting
(c) Disc Throwing
(d) Volley ball

20. Which Indian golfer wrapped up a four-shot victory at the Yeangder tournament players Championship in Chinese Taipei on 17 September 2012?
(a) Gaganjeet Bhullar
(b) Jeev Mikha Singh
(c) Shiv Kapur
(d) Jyoti Randhawa

21. The Supreme Court of India on 4 September 2012 directed the Union Government of India to re-fix the pay scale of army officers affected by the which Pay Commission?
(a) Fourth pay Commission
(b) Sixth pay Commission
(c) Fifth Pay Commission
(d) None of these

22. At what interest rate percent per annum, The Union Cabinet gave its approval to continue interest subsidy to Public Sector Banks (PSBs), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Cooperatives Banks and NABARD enabling them to provide short-term crop loans of up to Rs 3 lakhs to farmers during the year 2012-13?
(a) 7% Per annum
(b) 8.5 % Per annum
(c) 6 % Per annum
(d) 5 % per annum
Answer: (a) 7 % per annum

23. To what percent Government of India on 11 September 2012 reduced interest rates on rescheduled crop loans from 12 percent in the drought-affected areas for the fiscal year 2012-13
(a) 8 percent
(b) 5 percent
(c) 7 percent
(d) 6 percent

24. The State Health Ministry of Arunachal Pradesh launched a scheme in Itanagar on 14 September 2012 for providing financial assistance upto 1.5 lakh rupees to BPL patients suffering from life threatening diseases in the form of a onetime grant. What was the name of that scheme?
(a) Rashtriya Aarogya Nidhi
(b) Rashtriya Janseva Nidhi
(c) Rashtriya Sarvoklayan Prayojna
(d) None of these

25. Name the Person of India who was appointed as Chief Economist of World Bank.
(a) Kaushik basu
(b) Jaideep Sarkar
(c) Narayan Murthy
(d) Nandan Nilkeni

26. Name the person who on 13 September 2012 was appointed as the 39th chief justice of India
(a) Justice Altamas Kabir
(b) Justice A.K. Sikri
(c) Rajeev Gupta
(d) Justice Mohit Shantilal Shah

27. Which person was appointed as the president of, The Indian Newspaper Society for the year 2012-2013 on 13 September 2012 during the 73rd annual meet of the Newspaper Society?
(a) K.N. Tilak Kumar
(b) Ravindra Kumar
(c) Ashish Bagga

28. On which date Vayalar Ravi, Minister of Overseas Indian Affairs inaugurated the 7th Heads of Indian Missions (HoMs) conference and announced revised Indian Community Welfare Fund (ICWF) scheme.
(a) 15 September 2012
(b) 16 September 2012
(c) 17 September 2012
(d) 20 September 2012

29. The Supreme Court of India on 14 September 2012 lifted the gag order on media reporting of troop movement that was ordered by one of the High Court. HC order was in violation of the fundamental right under Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution, granted to the media and every citizen of the country. The order came from which of the high court?
(b) Calcutta high court
(c) Karnataka high court

30. The Union government hiked Dearness Allowance (DA) by what percent benefiting its 80 lakh employees and pensioners and costing the exchequer an additional Rs7,408 crore annually?
(a) 4 percent
(b) 8 percent
(c) 7 percent
(d) 6 percent

331. On which date, the Union Cabinet of India, under the Chairmanship of Prime Minister Manmohan Singh approved the long awaited demand for One Rank One Pension (OROP) and other benefits of ex-servicemen.
(a) 21 September 2012
(b) 24 September 2012
(c) 19 September 2012
(d) 17 September 2012

32. Name the Union Minister who on 24 September 2012 took an additional charge of the Railway Ministry after the exit of Mukul Roy.
(a) C.P. Joshi
(b) Nitish kumar
(c) Mamta Banerjee
(d) None of these

33. Which Indian Bollywood actress was appointed as International Goodwill Ambassador for the United Nations Programme on HIV/AIDS (UNAIDS) ?
(a) Katrina Kaif
(b) Aishwarya Rai
(c) Kareena kapoor

34. The Election commission of India on 27 September 2012 directed the Political Parties and candidates not to use which of the following in the election campaign as it was violating Article 51 (g) of the constitution?
(a) Animals and Birds
(b) Arms and ammunition
(c) Heavy vehicles
(d) None of these

35. Name the Indian nuclear-capable surface-to-surface missile which on 19 September 2012 was successfully test fired from Wheeler Island, off the Odisha Coast.
(a) Agni III
(b) Agni IV
(c) Prithvi III
(d) Agni V

36 Scientists of the University of Michigan developed a gene therapy which they claimed could restore the sense of olfactory function. What is this olfactory function related to?
(a) Sense of hearing
(b) Sense of smell
(c) Sense of sight
(d) Sense of touch

37. Australian scientists along with US experts claimed that they have discovered treatment for Alzheimer patients following a study finding a link to abnormalities in Alzheimer Patients. Alzheimer’s disease is related to?
(a) Brain
(b) Heart
(c) Eye sightedness
(d) Liver

3.8 Researchers from the Walter and Eliza Hall Institute in Australia discovered that two proteins that work together to kill self-reactive immune cells can protect against diseases such as type1 diabetes and rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis principally attacks which part of the body?
(a) Joints
(b) Skin
(c) Lungs
(d) Kidney

39. India enter into its first multi-lateral Social Science research collaboration with four European Nations by the approval of projects for networking and social science research cooperation in between the researchers of these nations. The colaboration came into existence on which date?
(a) 2 September 2012
(b) 7 September 2012
(c) 5 September 2012
(d) 4 September 2012

40. The Zoological Society of London and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) released a list of 100 different species to be first in line for extinction from 48 different countries during the World Conservation Congress held in Republic of Korea on 11 September 2012. The Indian species that was categorised under first line of extinction was_____________
(a) Great Indian Bustard
(b) One horned Rhino
(c) Indian giant Squirrel
(d) Asiatic Lion

London Olympics 2012 News
1. Which event will take place here at Horse Guards Parade?

a) Beach volleyball
b) Watersports
c) Boxing

The correct answer is a) Beach volleyball

2. Which of these events will be held here at the O2 Arena in Greenwich?

a) Beach volleyball
b) Watersports
c) Gymnastics

The correct answer is c) Gymnastics

3. Which event will be held here in this sweeping building?

a) Athletics
b) Track cycling
c) Fencing

The correct answer is b) Track cycling

4. Olympic football matches will be held at how many different stadia across the UK?

a) One
b) Three
c) Six

The correct answer is c) Six

5. Where in London will the Olympic tennis matches be played?

a) Queen’s Club
b) Wimbledon
c) Stratford

The correct answer is b) Wimbledon

6 Which sport will be played on the Prime Minister’s doorstep?

a) Fencing
b) Long jump
c) Beach volleyball

The correct answer is c) Beach volleyball

7. What is the name of the building where the track cycling event will take place?

a) Velodrome
b) Eton Manor
c) Old Trafford

8. After the 2012 Games in London, where will the next Summer Olympic Games be held?

a) Brazil
b) Belize
c) Bolvia

The correct answer is a) Brazil

9. How much water will the Aquatics Centre use?

a) 5 million litres
b) 30 million litres
c) 10 million litres

The correct answer is c) 10 million litres

10. What type of sport will this specially-built course at Lee Valley be used for?

a) Watersports
b) Triathlon
c) Cycling

The correct answer is a) Watersports
11. Which country held the last Summer Olympic Games?

a) Bolivia
b) China
c) Denmark

The correct answer is c) China

12. Which sport will kick off the games?

a) Women’s rugby
b) Women’s football
c) Women’s golf

The correct answer is b) Women’s football

13. How many sports will feature in the games?

a) 36
b) 55
c) 70

The correct answer is a) 36

14. Which of these Olympic venues is outside London?

15. Who are the official London 2012 mascots?

a) Wendey and Mathew
b) William and Mary
c) Wenlock and Mandeville

The correct answer is c) Wenlock and Mandeville

18. Which sport will be played on the Prime Minister’s doorstep?

a) Fencing
b) Long jump
c) Beach volleyball

The correct answer is c) Beach volleyball

19. What is the name of the building where the track cycling event will take place?

a) Velodrome
b) Eton Manor
c) Old Trafford

20. After the 2012 Games in London, where will the next Summer Olympic Games be held?

a) Brazil
b) Belize
c) Bolvia

The correct answer is a) Brazil

21. How much water will the Aquatics Centre use?

a) 5 million litres
b) 30 million litres
c) 10 million litres

The correct answer is c) 10 million litres

22. What type of sport will this specially-built course at Lee Valley be used for?

a) Watersports
b) Triathlon
c) Cycling

The correct answer is a) Watersports
23 What is the official website of the 2012 Olympics?
Olympics2012.com
London2012.eu
London2012.com

24 The Olympic Games are organized for the … time.
33th
43th
23th
37th

25 When did the IOC decide to let London organise the 2012 Olympics?
2008
2009
2007
2006

26 How many Olympic disciplines will be played?
17
26
21
32

27 Give the end date for the 2012 Olympic Games.
August 5, 2012
July 16, 2012
August 17, 2012
August 12, 2012

28 Which sport will not be played during the 2012 Olympics?
Canoeing
Fencing

29 What’s the official name for the organisation of the 2012 Olympics?
London Organising Olympic 2012
Olympic London Official – Olympic Games and Paralympic Games
Olympic Delivery Authority
London Organising Committee of the Olympic Games and Paralympic Games

30 The 2012 Olympic Games are also known as
The 2012 Winter Olympic Games
The 2012 Summer Olympic Games -Answer

31 What is the official name for the 2012 Olympic Games?
Summer Olympics Games of the XXX Olympiad
2012 Summer Olympic Games

32 Give the start date for the 2012 Olympic Games.
July 20, 2012
June 30, 2012
August 1, 2012
33 Who won the first medal (Bronze) for India at the London Olympics 2012?

Gagan Narang

34 Who won silver medal for India in the final of the Men’s 66kg Freestyle wrestling at the Olympics 2012?

Sushil Kumar

35 Name the team who won their 2nd consecutive Olympic hockey gold?
Netherlands

Placement Paper
IBPS Current Affairs Last Six months Bits for Ibps Bank exam,IBPS Current Affairs specialists officers free solved question papers
1. In which country the tallest communication tower named ‘skruty’ is situated ?

2. Who is the worlds shortest women who is still alive ?

3. Who is the new leader of North Korea who has been recently elected ?

4. How many years have been completed by African National Congress recently ?

5. Who is the first Indian American person who had been elected as governor for Lousiana in states of U.K.?

6. Which year is called as ‘International Year Of Cooperative’ according to UNO ?

7. Worlds oldest yoga teacher who had been entered in Guinnes Book of Records for yoga recently ?

8. After how many years America had totally set back his military army from Iraq ?

9. Shoedar ‘ cruze missile was launched and tested by by which country ?

10. Who is the American Ambassador to India in 2011?

11. For how many yrs the great leader of North Korea has headed the country ?

12. Which is the Worlds first Hydrogen based three wheeler vehicle ?

13. Who is the person who had won the election in US Republican in Florida Primary results recently ?

14. According to the new census Jan 2012 , what is the % population of China ?

15. Who’s name had been kept for the fly over bridge constructed in Islamabad recently?

16 Who is the President who had signed on military spending bills twice recently ?

17. Which is the nation which joined UNO organisation recently ?

18. A credit Standard and Poor’s , due to which reasons it had reduced the rating of France , Italy and other 9 countries recently ?

19. According to the fortune magazine ‘s annual ranking for 100 besr companies to work for 2012,which company stood first ?

20. Who inaugurated the new mission control center the SHAR ?

21. Who is the Managing director for the International Monetary Fund ( I M F )?

22. Which was the protest movement that begin against financial greed & curruption in America recently ?

23. On 20 Jan 2012, Russia had leased which nuclear powered submarine to India recently ?

24. Which country has got the deal of 126 fighters to India recently ?

25. In American International affairs website which state of Indian borders have been wrongly mapped ?

26. How many countries have signed the multilateral agreement to check tax evasion and avoidence recently ?

27. Which two countries agreed to establish a working mechanism on consultation and coordination on border affairs ?

28. In which feild India and Japan had made agreement to enhance their cooperation ?

29. What is the place of India in a global press freedom index in the past years ?

30. On which issue India & USA signed recently ?

31. How many agreements India had signed with Trinidad & Tobago ?

32. Name the new pact which was signed by the countries recently ?

33. The birthday of the great mathematician Srinivasa Ramanujam was declared as ?

34. Where will be the first cooperative university will set up ?

35. Which year is celebrated as National Mathematics day ?

36. What is the Total per capital income of all states in India ?

37. Which ministry had been given to Mr. Ajit singh by the U P A government ?

38. How many news paper companies have been registered under the ‘Register of News paper’s for India ‘ according to the authority in 2010-2011?

39. What is the mascot name for national youth festival ?

40. On which day our national anthem ‘Janaganamana ‘ has completed its hundred years ?

41. Who is the first women who had been selected as Javan in Indian Army ?

42. Who is the 19th Director General of Indian coast guard ?

43. To whom was the Review commite on the Delhi School Education Act &Rules 1973 (DSEAR-79) report was submitted?

44. According to the survey done by the ‘ Brand Trust Report ‘ who is the person who had won the confidence of peoplein the country ?

45. In which five years plan the national slum development programme will be launched by the government ?

46. Who had launched the Interanet ‘Prahari Project ‘ worth of 299 crore recently?

47. The ISRO chief Madhavan Nair and other three who were blacklisted in which deal, the government quit them away?

48. From which year the implementation of common medical entrance test will be conducted according to the medical council of India ?

49. Which is the nodel agency for all anti -terror activities in the country, for which the government gave approval recently?

50. Who is the chief guest for the ‘ Pravasi Bharathiya Devas ‘ conference held at Jaipur on Jan 7th 2012 ?

51. Where was the United Nation Research center for the North-East set up recently ?

52. From which year the implementation of common medical entrance test will be conducted according to the medical council of India ?

53. Name the project which was inagurated by Mr.Chidambaram recently worth of 299 crore ?

54. The Panch Parmeshwar scheme was launched by which state government ?

55. In 2010-2011 ,what is the per capital income of Andhra pradesh ?

56. Name the chief minister who had won the award for great vaccine innovation ?

57. According to the report presented by the central government our state debt in the year 2010-2011 is ?

58. Which Indian company is going launch a new diesel plant in Gurgoan recently ?

59. The bullet train between which two states will announced in railway budget 2012?

60. For the year 2012 in which place Andhra pradesh stood in urbunisation?

61. For how many Assembly seats election have been held in Uttarakhand on 30th Jan 2012 recently?

62. Which state governor’s period has been extended by one year by the government recently ?

63. Which state had agreed for the establishment of internal state board for pranahita- chevella sujatha sravanti project ?

64. Who is the person replaced in the place of E.Sridharan for Delhi Metro Rail M D on 31st Dac 2011?

65. In which state the 10th Pravasi Bharathi Divas event inagurated from Jan 7th to 9th 2012 ?

66. What is the total strentgh of Muncipalities in the state A .P ?

67. Who is the governor of Tamilnadu who has been appointed recently ?

68. Which are the two states where assembly elections had been held on 30 th Jan 2012 ?

69. The assembly polling were held on 28th Jan 2012 for how many seats in Manipur ?

70. In which place our state warangal NIT stands according to the survey done by the country ?

71. According to the national election commission which state minister had been ordered to cover the status of elephants which are election symbol of the party recently ?

72. For many seats the assembly election had been held in Punjab ?

73. Which state University had given Dr. to the Bangladesh P.M Shaik Hassina recently ?

74. In which state the united nation research center for north -east set up ?

75. Which is the first state to issue e-stamp papers in all denominations in India ?

76. According to the National child Right which state stood in top one position ?

77. Which state topped in the list in utilizing the fund for minorities according to the minority affairs ministry?

78. How many new tourism projects have been sanctioned for Jammukashmir by the union government?

79. In which city the geospatail world forum 2012 conference was held recently ?

80. Which is the forum which had conference on the current & relevant issues on global problems recently?

81. On which issue the conference is being organized by International Advanced Research centre for powder metallurgy and new materials (ARCI) recently ?

82. On which issue President Pratibha Paatil constituted a committee recently ?

83. Who had been awarded Sialedra Kumar singh award by the (UPA) chair person Sonia Gandhi?

84. To whom the Guljarilal Nanda ‘Bharat Sevak Samaj has been awardedby Kerala government?

85. The prestegious International sports Association ‘Fair play’ is awarded to which player?

86. How many people have been awarded the prestegious Man Asia award from India ?

87. The Mahatma Gandhi International Award for peace & Reconsilation award has been presented to whom ?

88. Who had given the 2011 FIFA Best player award on 9th Jan 2012?

89. Who has been shortlisted for UK’s Biggest contemporary Art Prize , Artes mundi recently?

90. Who is the person who had conferred the Ashoka Chakra on 63rd Republic Day by the president Pratibha Patil ?

91. To which award the Indian American sciencetist Venkataram Ramakrishna has been selected by the Britan ?

92. On which date the Infosis 2011 awards have been awarded recently at Banglore ?

93. Which university has honoured ‘Dr’ to Bangladesh P.M Shaik Hassina recently ?

94. For the yr2011 who had won the perstegious (CNR ) sahitya puraskaram recently?

95. Who has been presented with pride of India award by the Indian -American community in Washinton?

96. Which university had got the honour ‘Universities with potecial for excellence’?

97. Who is the Bollywood actor who had received a green globe award from Arnold Schwaizenegger recently ?

98. How many researchers got Infosis prize for the year 2011, which was presented by the former president A.P.J Abdul Kalam?

99. Who had won the best steel company of India for the year 2009-2010 ?

100. Where was the 69th golden globe awards been presented on 15 th Jan 2012 ?

101. Which award has been given to the famous music director A.R Rahamn for the muisc composing for the song ‘If I Rise ‘ ?

102. Name the person Who had run barefoot 150 km in 24 hours and made a new world record ?

103. Who is the first Indian women to have received an International Grand Master tittle in the game of chess championship to get gold medal ?

104. Who has been selected for ‘ player of the year award given by all India football assocaition ?

105. Who had won the world super series batmintton tittle ?

106. In which country the women’s team chess championship tournament held ?

107. For the year 2011, who had been selected for International Tennis Federation Woeld champion award?

108. Which country had won the Hopman cup tennis tittle which held on Jan 7th 2012?

109. Where will the Assia criket cup matches 2012 will be conducted ?

110. For which game Abinav Bindra won gold medal ?

111. In which place the South Central Asian Gymnastics championships event held recently ?

112. Who is the person who had won the FIFA Ballond’or award recently ?

113. International player for batmiton Sina Nehal has ranked which place recently?

114. Who are the two Indian shooters who got selected for the London olympic games ?
Answer: Manavjeet singh sidhu & Imran Hassankhan

115. Who is the first Indian tennis player who won the carier men’s doubles grand slam 2012?

116. In the Archery championship from AP Jyothi surekha got which medal ?

117. In which place India stood in the International test series ranking ?

118. In which country the 2012 Olympic Hockey tournament is going to be held ?

119. Who is the Indian criket player who stood in top ten positions according to ICCranking ?

120. Which is the country who had invited the sand artist Sudharshan Pattnaik from Odisha to parcipate at the International Sand Championship recently?

121. What is the revised economic GDP growth rate for 2011-2012 financial year ?

122. Which are the two countries where female infant mortality is higher than male infant mortality?

123. India had signed a TIEA agreement with which country ?

124. What is the national infant mortality rate reduced from ?
Answer: 50 % to 47 %

125. What is industrial growth rate in Dec 2011 ?

126. How much can a customer transact per day by way of mobile banking ?

127. How much money is government going to spend on economic census for the year 2012?

128. Name the bank which has been opened by SBI, which is exclusively for women customers ?

129. What is the minimum investment amount per client managed by portfolio manages decided by SEBI ?

130. How much of fund is spent on improving quality education by all states in 2009-2010 in a survey ?

131. Which country had successfully launched an observation satellite into orbit above earth recently?

132. Who will audit the performance of the schemes under the ministers of rural development ?
Answer: Comptroller & Auditor General of India

133. Regarding to check tax evasion & avoidance India had signed a multilateral agreement with which countries recently ?

134. What is the gross national income grew in the year 2010-2011 ?

135. Which powered ATM’s are going to be installed in the rural areas by the government ?

136. What is the GDP growth percentage for the year 2011-2012 according to the government estimation ?

137. Scientists had produced a artificial human semen which will help in what?

138. Which beverage can be treat tremors in humans recently ?

139. High speed bullet train was launched by which country at Quingdao ?

140. Which missile was successfully test fired by India recently ?

141. From which place the Interceptor missile was launched successfully?

142. The earth observation satellite from where it was launched recently ?

143. Which country has invented the worlds fastest K-computor recently ?

144. Which is the earth -size planet orbiting in space discovered by the NASA’s kepler?

145. Who has been appointed as microfinance ombudsman for the SKS microfinance ?

146. Who is the 19th Director general of Indian coast Guard ?

147. Who is the new 7th chief minister of Arunachal pradesh ?

148. Who is the new advocate general who was appointed by state government ?

149. Who is the independent Director of Infotec enterprises for the year 2012 ?

150. Who is the person who is US ambassador to India resigned in the year 2011 ?

151. Which state minister had resigned recently after indictment in illegal mining scan ?

152. Who is the women general secretary for SAARC who resigned recently?

153. M.B.Hussan Farook who died recently was the governor of which state ?

154. The former deputy chief minister P.Jaganath rao who died recently worked in which year cabinet ?

155. Freedom fighter of Indian diplomacy who was an architect of Indo-soviet treaty passed away in New Delhi on 31st Jan 2012 ?

156. Who is the P.M of Thailand who visited India and has been the chief guest for the 63rd Republic Day ?

157. Who is the president of Mali who visited India recently ?

158. Kamla persad Bissesar is Prime minister for which country who visited India recently ?

159. Which countries P.M is Sheik Hasina who visited India on 12th Jan 2012 ?

160. Who is the Myanmar oposition leader who is standing for parliment on 1st April by election in 2012?

161. What did the pakistan supreme court said against its P.M Yousaf Raza Gilani recently ?

162. Who had been Jailed more than 20 years for charging against secretly filming T.V documentery ?

163. What is the magnitude of earth quake on rickter scale which took place in Japan recently ?

164. Who is the author of the book who wrote “20 great personalities of India” ?

165. Who wrote the book ‘ Pharaoh & the King ‘ ?
Viswanath Venkat Dasari

166. Which is the book writen by MarkTuly recently ?

167. Who wrote the book’ The sence of an ending ‘?

168. Who is the author who had recieved’ Business Book of the year award’ 2010 for his book ‘ Fault lines’?

169. Who had constituted a committee to increase the productivity of agriculture sector?

170. Where was the 19th ASEAN summit took place ?

171. To whom the review committee on the Delhi Education Act & Rules 1973 submitted its report ?

172. . Who had won the US Republic Florida Primary election held recently ?

173. By the end of which year the American military is going to end the combat operations in Afghanistan?

174. What is the mechanism policy of EU to double their renewable energy?

175. In which place the National Australia Bank was opened its Maiden Branch in India recently ?

176. Which country is going to grant India the MFN status by the end of 2012 ?

177. Who is new US abbassador to India ?

178. What is the bilateral trade target set up by India & China recently

179. China wants to work with India in which issue recently ?

180. Between which two countries the 12th defence policy group meeting was held in New delhi ?

181 .Which disease had been included in lifestyle other than diabetes and hypertension ?

182. Which are the three most happiest countries where people reside ?

183.. From which place India is going to test its most ambitious missile Agni- V ?

184. According to researchers which country is losing its forests more rapidly ?

185. Samsung had launched which type of note book into the market recently ?

186. From which date the implementation of Matatma Gandhi Rural Employment, Guarantee Act will start ?

187. Who inaugurated the 12th polio summit 2012 which was held in NewDelhi recently ?

188. How many people died of malaria worldwide in 2010-2011 according to the world malaria report ?

189.. Name the maths social net work in face book called ?

190. Which city in A.P had decided to become cycle proud and introduced ‘no Motor vehicle’ zones across 20km of roads ?

191. Which state Government had shortlisted for the two companies for setting up the E-waste dismantlity facilities ?

192. Who had launched a major state wide de- warming campaign in Delhi recently ?

193. Which state ranked top in investment proposal in the year 2011 ?

194. .Where was the’ National Conference on Governance’ meeting organised on Jan 29 2012 ?

195. . Where was the 58th annual meeting of the Indian Association of Cardiovascular & Thoracic Surgeons held at ?

196. On which date the Indian -Asean summit was held for two days in NewDelhi recently ?

197. Who inaugurated the 15th National conference on e-governance held for two days ?

198. The P.M of Mauritius Navinchandra Ramloolam had been honoured with which Dr. recently ?

199. Who had been awarded as sports women of the year 2012 recently at Laureus sports awards ?

200. Who is the Indian to receive the pretigious honour, Manager of the Year 2011 award recently ?

General Awareness (With Special Reference To Banking Industry) For all IBPS PO CWE Clerical and Specilists officers recruitment test model questions with answers

1. Which one of the following foreign agencies will assist the municipal agencies to improve quality of municipal schools through its School Excellence Programmes (SEP) ?
a) IMF
b) UNDP
c) UNICEF
e) None of these

2. Which of the following carries out ‘Open Market Operations’?
a) Finance Ministry (Ans)
b) External Affairs Ministry
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) Planning Commission
e) Ministry of Commerce

3. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the RBI issues directives to the Banks in India ?
a) RBI Act
b) Banking Regulation Act
c) Essential Commodities Act
d) RBI and Banking Regulation Act (Ans)
e) None of these

4. Which one of the following tools is used by RBI for selective credit control ?
a) It advises banks to lend against certain commodities
b) It advises banks to recall the loans for advances against certain commodities
c) It advises banks to charge higher rate of interest for advance against certain commodities
d) It discourages certain kinds of lending by assigning higher risk weights to loans it deems undesirable (Ans)
e) None of these

5. For which one of the following loan products ‘teaser loans’ are offered by Banks ?
a) Education Loans
b) Commercial Loans
c) Loans against security of gold
e) Home Loans (Ans)

6. As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries (among the given) has highest literacy rate ?
a) India
b) Sri Lanka (Ans)
c) China
d) Vietnam

7. Which one of the following has decided to give guarantee for infra loans ?
a) IDBI
b) SBI
c) IIFCL (Ans)
d) SIDBI
e) None of these

8. In which one of the following States is the uranium project proposed to be set up ?
a) Manipur
b) Meghalaya
c) Orissa (Ans)
d) Assam
e) Nagaland

9. What is ‘Kaveri’ ?
a) India’s indigenous aircraft engine (Ans)
b) India’s low cost laptop
c) India’s Air to Air Missile
d) India’s guided Surface to Air Missile
e) Unmanned Aircraft acquired from Israel

10. An increasing finished good stock as % to sales of a manufacturing Company indicates that —-
i) the market is getting competitive (Ans)
ii) the quality of the goods is not upto the mark
iii) the production cost has increased
iv) the production has decreased
a) Only (i) and (ii) (Ans)
b) Only (ii) and (iii)
c) Only (iii) and (iv)
d) Only (iii)
e) Only (iv) and (i)

11. In which one of the following States Sariska Tiger Reserve is located ?
a) M.P.
b) U.P.
c) Orissa
d) Gujarat
e) Rajasthan (Ans)

12. Which one of the following may be the consequence of buying forex in the market by the RBI ?
b) It lead to control over inflation
c) It does not affect inflation
d) It results into deflation (Ans)
e) None of these

13. Under provisions of which one of the following Act, the Reserve Bank of India has the power to regulate, supervise and control the banking sector ?
a) RBI Act
b) Banking Regulation Act
c) Negotiable Instrument Act
d) RBI and Banking Regulation Act (Ans)
e) None of these

14. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The God of Small Things”?
a) Chetan Bhagat
b) V. S. Naipul
c) Namita Gokhale
d) Kiran Desai
e) Arundhati Roy (Ans)

15. One of the following states is a major producer of spices —–
a) Karnataka
c) Kerala (Ans)
d) Gujarat
e) Manipur

16. The NAV of a mutual fund —-
a) is always constant
b) Keeps going up at a steady rate
c) Fluctuates with market price movements (Ans)
d) Cannot go down at all
e) None of these

17. ASBA, a facility while applying/ submitting an application for purchase of shares under a public issue, is ——
a) Applications Simple Balance Amount
b) Amount Saved and Balance in Account
d) Applications Supported by Blocked Amount (Ans)
e) None of these

18. A Saving Bank Deposit Account is one where ——
a) Amounts are deposited and are withdrawn as per requirement of the customers (Ans)
b) The deposits are made only once in a year
c) Periodical Fixed amount are deposited month wise and withdrawals are allowed after a fixed period
d) All the above
e) None of these

19. The expansion of CDMA is
a) Calculated Division of Many Applications
b) Computer Divided Multiple Access
c) Code Diversified Memory Applications
d) Code Division multiple Access (Ans)
e) None of these

20. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ———
a) Tennis
b) Hockey
d) Cricket
e) Football (Ans)

21. Which of the following is a financial asset ?
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Shares in a demat account (Ans)
d) Land & buildings
e) None of these

22. Zero balance account is generally allowed to be opened for ——-
a) Salaried class (Ans)
c) foreign customers
d) children
e) Senior Citizens

23. Ten Rupee notes contain the signature of —-
a) Finance Secretary, GOI
b) Chairman, State Bank of India
c) Governor, Reserve Bank of India (Ans)
d) Finance Minister
e) Prime Minister

24. Statue of Liberty is the national monument of ——
a) Italy
b) Australia
c) France
d) Denmark
e) USA (Ans)

25. Loan against the security of immovable property is by executing an agreement of —-
a) Assignment
b) Pledge (Ans)
c) Transfer
d) Mortgage
e) None of these

26. Credit Rating ——–
a) is used to rate the borrowers while giving advances (Ans)
b) is used to work out performance of the employees
c) is used to calculate the number of excellent audit rated branches
d) is NOT used in any Bank
e) is necessary before giving promotion to employees.

27. In Corporate Hedging, which one of the following types of risks can be covered ?
a) Liquidity risk (Ans)
b) Currency risk
c) Credit risk
d) Transaction risk
e) None of these

28. Bank of Rajasthan is now merged with which of the following banks ?
a) AXIS Bank
b) IDBI Bank
c) ICICI Bank (Ans)
d) HDFC Bank
e) None of these

29. Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation “IFRS” as used in corporate/finance sector ?
a) Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards
b) Interpretation and Formal Reporting System
c) International Financial Reporting Standards (Ans)
d) International Financial Reporting System
e) None of these

30. As per the new guidelines issued by SEBI, companies are required to list shares within how many days of the closure of the initial Public Offers (IPOs) ?
a) 60 days
b) 12 days (Ans)
c) 30 days
d) 45 days
e) None of these

31. RTGS stands for ——
a) Real Time Gross Settlements (Ans)
b) Reduced Time Gross Settlements
c) Relative Time Gross Settlements
d) Real Total gross Securities
e) None of these

32. The C. Rangarajan government committee was in news in October 2012 for having submitted its recommendations to the central government. Which recommendations did it make ?
a) complete decontrol of the sugar industry
b) stable trade policy and a moderate duty on imports and exports
c) outright ban or quantitative restrictions to be done away with
d) All of the above (Ans)
e) None of these

33. As per the 2012 Global Hunger Index report released for the seventh year in October 2012 by the International Food policy Research Institute (IFPRI), Welthungerhilfe and Concern Worldwide, what is the per cent of children under five in India who are underweight ?
a) 36.3 per cent
b) 43.5 per cent (Ans)
c) 55.2 per cent
d) 60 per cent
e) None of these

34. The British and the government of which territory/region on October 15, 2012 signed a historic deal that will to allow the latter to hold a referendum in 2014 on whether it wants to remain part of the United Kingdom or secede from the 300 – year-old political union ?
a) Wales
b) Falkland Islands
c) Scotland (Ans)
d) Northern Ireland
e) None of these

35. The Asian Development Band (ADB), in its Asian Development Outlook 2012 Update released in October 2012, lowered India’s growth forecast for the current fiscal to what per cent, citing falling global demand and impact of delayed monsoon on agricultural production ?
a) 3.3 per cent
b) 4.4 per cent
c) 5.6 per cent (Ans)
d) 6.1 per cent
e) None of these

36. Which of the following is/are not correct regarding the XII Plant (2012-17) which was approved by the Union Cabinet in October 2012 ?
a) The XII Plan seeks to achieve 4 per cent agriculture sector growth
b) The growth target for the manufacturing sector has been pegged at 10 per cent
c) The approved Plan document will now be placed before the National Development Council for final approval
d) It aims at achieving annual average economic growth rate of 9 per cent (Ans)
e) None of these

37. The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP), on October 18, 2012 estimated the Indian economy to grow at a slower pace during the current fiscal. What is its projection regarding India’s growth rate ?
a) 5.5 per cent
b) 5.9 per cent (Ans)
c) 6.2 per cent
d) 7.1 per cent
e) None of these

38. John Gurdon and Japanese physician Shinya Yamanaka, on October 8, 2012 won the 2012 Nobel Prize in Medicine for the “re-programming” of the fate of cells. Gurdon is a national of
a) Israel
b) France
c) Britain (Ans)
d) USA
e) None of these

39. Nkosazana Dlamini-Zuma, in October, 2012, became the first woman to take office as the Chairperson of the African Union Commission (AUC) at the A.U. head-quarters in
a) Cape-Town
b) Durban
d) Kampala
e) None of these

40. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Dhanush missile which made headlines in October 2012 ?
a) It has a strike range of up to 350 km and can carry 500 kg of conventional or nuclear warhead
b) it is a single stage missile and has been developed by the DRDO
c) It is about 8.53 metre in length and 0.9 metre in diameter and uses liquid propellant
d) All of the above (Ans)
e) None of these
IBPS Bank PO (CWE) English Language Paper

Exam Type: Multiple choice Questions
Total Marks :225
Negative Mark:0.25
a)Logical Reasoning : 50 questions 50 Marks
b)Quantitative Aptitude: 50 Questions 50 Marks
c)Computer Knowledge: 50
d)English Language :50 Questions 25 marks
Descriptive Paper on English Composition : 25 Marks 60 Minutes
(Essay, Précis, Letter Writing etc)
e)General Awareness :50 Questions 50 Marks(With special reference to Banking Industry)
Directions—(Q. 1 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Emperor’s brother-in-law was also his Prime Minister and his avourite courtier. He was not liked by the other courtiers as a result. Jealous of the Emperor’s brother-inlaw the courtiers once said, “Your Majesty, why don’t you appoint one of us as Prime Minister ? Subjectus to a test to see who is truly the right person to be Prime Minister.” At the time the Prime Minister was out hunting with another courtier. In pursuit of their prey they mistakenly rode into the neighbouring kingdom. As they were strangers and had weapons they were arrested as spies by the soldiers there and were certain to be sentenced to death by the ruler, King Amir.

The courtier was petrified and bowed his head in prayer. The Prime Minister pretending to be praying whispered something in his ear. The two of them then began arguing. “I should be the one to die first !” each of them said. Those present were astonished to hear their argument. The soldiers brought the two before King Amir. He was astonished to hear of their strange behaviour. “Tell me why you are so eager to die ?” Pretending to be reluctant to reveal the reason the Prime Minister bowed respectfully and said, “Sir, our Emperor has a secret wish of annexing your kingdom. If you kill us the Emperor can attack your kingdom on the pretext of avenging our deaths. The Emperor has also promised us a great reward for our sacrifice. We felt that in case you changed your mind and set one of us free to return home he would not get the reward.” King Amir was worried when he heard this. Concerned that the lives of his subjects would be lost in war, King Amir refused to kill either of the two and sent them home. When they heard about the incident the Emperor’s courtiers bowed their heads. They were ashamed. They realised the Emperor had made a wise choice in selecting his Prime Minister.

1. Why were the courtiers not on good terms with the Emperor’s brother-in-law ?

(A) The Emperor used to only heed his brother-in-law’s advice
(B) He was cleverer than they were and he would remind them of it
(C) He was empowered to take decisions on behalf of the Emperor
(D) He had more power and prestige and earned more than they did
(E) None of these

2. Why did the Emperor’s two courtiers enter the neighbouring kingdom ?

(A) The Emperor had asked them to deliver a message to its king
(B) They wanted to spy on the neighbouring kingdom
(C) They had accidentally wandered into neighbouring territory
(D) The other courtiers had set a trap for them
(E) Their curiosity about the kingdom led them to enter it

3. Why was the Emperor’s brotherin-law not afraid when faced with death ?

1. He felt that if he told King Amir the truth his life would be spared.
2. He was confident that he would be rescued.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) Only 3

4. Which of the following can be said about the Emperor ?

(A) He reserved important posts for his family members
(B) He had chosen a worthy Prime Minister
(C) He was ruthless and wanted to conquer the neighbouring kingdom
(D) He treated all his courtiers shabbily except his brother-inlaw
(E) He deliberately endangered the lives of his courtiers in order to test them

5. Why did the two courtiers begin to argue with each other ?

(A) They wanted to distract the soldiers so they could escape
(B) It was a delaying tactics till they were rescued
(C) They blamed each other for the predicament they were in
(D) The Prime Minister wanted to stop the other courtier from divulging the Emperor’s plan to the enemy
(E) None of these

6. What surprised King Amir about the courtiers’ behaviour ?

1. They were very respectful to him although he had condemned them to death.
2. Each was volunteering to be killed first.
3. They had managed to convince the soldiers to set them free.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these

7. Why did King Amir set the two courtiers free ?

(A) He believed their story that the Emperor was planning to attack
(B) He had great respect for their courage
(C) He had ascertained they were not spies so he set them free
(D) He was impressed by the wisdom of the Emperor’s courtiers
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following does not describe the Emperor’s reaction to the courtiers’ request to appoint one of them as Prime Minister ?
2. He tested his brother-in-law to prove he was best suited for the post of Prime Minister.
3. He disregarded it completely and punished the courtiers.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ?

(A) King Amir was concerned about the welfare of his people
(B) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw had enemies at court
(C) King Amir set the Emperor’s brother-in-law free on account of his bravery
(D) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw was deserving of the post of Prime Minister
(E) The Prime Minister was a quick thinker

10. What was the courtiers’ reaction when they heard about the Prime Minister’s safe return ?

(A) They were disappointed because their plan had failed

(B) They were ashamed of their plot to kill him
(D) They bowed in respect and praised his wisdom
(E) None of these

Directions–(Q. 11 to 13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. subject

(A) topic
(B) undergo
(C) expose
(D) citizen
(E) accountable

12. pretext

(A) excuse
(B) guess
(C) crime
(D) example
(E) fraud

13. petrified

(A) panic
(B) scared
(C) feared
(D) alarming
(E) terror

Directions—(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word which is most oppositein meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. right

(A) immoral
(B) unsuitable
(C) inaccurate
(D) inconvenient
(E) error

15. reveal

(A) secret
(B) darken
(C) disclose
(D) hide
(E) invisible

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark

16. In these circumstances, they will not be able to meet the assign target to them.

(A) targeted assignment
(B) assigned target

(C) assigning of target
(D) target assigned
(E) No correction required

17. Banks must be ensured that 18 per cent of their loans is given to the agricultural sector.

(A) are ensured
(B) have to ensure
(C) being ensured
(D) should be ensured
(E) No correction required

18. The government has announced several initiatives benefiting to factory workers.

(A) beneficial
(B) for benefiting to
(C) which will benefit
(D) benefited to
(E) No correction required

19. A date for the committee meeting to discuss the details of the proposal has yet to be decided.

(A) will be yet decided
(B) is been decided yet
(C) have not been still decided
(D) is not yet been decided
(E) No correction required

20. With the raining heavily the multi-storey office building was badly damaged and collapsed.

(A) Owing to the heavy rains
(B) Because of raining heavily
(C) Since heavily it rained
(D) In raining heavily
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed inbold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Since petroleum products are taxed (A) heavily they are a majar(B) source (C) of revenue (D) for the government. All correct (E)

22. Even though the proposal appearrs (A) practical (B) the committee should discuss (C) it

at length. (D) All correct (E)

23. The Indian stock market has been one of the well (A)performing (B) markets globally (C) during the current (D) year. All correct (E)

24. Had the scheme been allowed (A) to continue (B) it would havegenerated (C) attracted (D) returns. All correct (E)

25. People should constantly (A) upgrade their skills (B) in order to be effective (C) and efficient. (D) All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the

proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

1. With all this experimentation he incurred an expenditure of over a million dollars before success smiled on him.
2. Edison invented the long lasting electric light bulb.
3. To find a fibre to burn inside a bulb he experimented with over two thousand items.
4. We thus owe the miracle of light as much to his perseverance as to his genius.
5. However he did not invent it overnight.
6. His friends too travelled all over the world from South America to India in search of a suitable fibre.
26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

30. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

Directions—(Q. 31 to 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Senior citizens prefer (A) / banks which (B) / branches are located (C) / near their homes. (D) No error (E)

32. In the latest statistics (A) / China supplies more than (B) / ninety per cent of the (C) / steel

imported by India. (D) No error (E)

33. We shall be calling a meeting (A) / next week to assess (B) / the causes of frequently (C) / delays in infrastructure projects. (D) No error (E)

34. Although it has received (A) / clearance from RBI the bank (B) / has decided not to open (C) / their office in Hongkong. (D) No error (E)

35. Most of the tribals (A) / in the region (B) / are depended on the forest (C) / to earn their livelihoods. (D) No error (E)

36. After graduating from college (A) / having an engineering degree (B) / he received a job offer

(C) / from a reputed American firm. (D) No error (E)

37. In order for (A) / the scheme to be (B) / successful we require as (C) / much as twenty investors.

(D) No error (E)

38. The insurance company has plans (A) / to hire 30,000 agents (B) / at a time when (C) / most companies are cutting jobs. (D) No error (E)

39. One of the important lesson (A) / he taught me was to save (B) / at least thirty per cent (C) / of my gross income. (D) No error (E)

40. Due to the financial crisis (A) / the price of foodgrains (B) / has risen sharply (C) / over the past few months. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 41 to 50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day an expert in time management was …(41)… to a group of business management students and to drive home a point he used and …(42)… they will never forget. As he stood in front of a group of brilliant students he said, “Okay it’s …(43)… for a quiz.” He then pulled out a one gallon jar and set it on the table in front of him. He also …(44)… a dozen fist sized rocks and carefully placed them one at a time into the jar. When the jar was filled to the top and …(45)… more rocks would fit inside, he asked, “Is the jar full ?” Everyone in the class …(46)… said ‘Yes!’

The professor said nothing. He then …(47)… under the table and pulled out a bucket of gravel. He dumped some gravel into the jar and shook it …(48)… pieces of gravel to work themselves down into the spaces between the big rocks. He asked the group once more, “Is the jar full ?” ‘Probably not.’ some answered. ‘Good !’ he said and began…(49)… sand to the contents in the jar. The sand fitted into the spaces between the rocks and gravel. He also poured water into the jar. “What was the point of this exercise ?” he asked. “The point is that no matter how busy your schedule is you can always manage to fit something in.” replied one student. ‘No’ said the professor, “The truth is if you don’t fit in the rocks which symbolize the …(50)…things in your life like your family and your dreams first, you’ll never have time for them.”

(B) conveying
(C) speaking
(D) discussing
(E) expressing

42. (A) imagination

(B) impression
(C) expression

(D) emblem
(E) illustration

(B) usual
(C) opportunity
(D) time
(E) scheduled

(B) produced
(C) dug
(D) constructed
(E) ploughed

45. (A) any

(B) no
(C) few
(D) some
(E) much

46. (A) definite

(B) forcibly
(C) convince
(D) positive
(E) emphatically

47. (A) reached

(B) hid
(C) gone
(D) searching
(E) found

48. (A) making

(B) until
(C) causing
(D) while
(E) resulting

49. (A) filling

(B) pushing
(C) substituting
(E) stuffing

50. (A) important

(B) necessarily
(C) vitally
(D) ideal
(E) expensive

Answers from 26 to 50 are as follows:

1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (E) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (E) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (E) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (E) 24. (D) 25. (E) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (E) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C)
34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (A) 41. (C) 42. (E) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (E)
47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (A)

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IBPS clerical aptitude questions answers. All banks free solved question papers,IBPS PO,clerical SBT SBI,RRB,RBI,PSU companies model practice questions with answers and detailed explanations,IBPS general awareness and English verbal ability questions with answer,IBPS practice model question papers

General Awareness

1. What is the population of India ?
(A) 98 crores
(B) More than 2 billion
(D) Less than 96 crores
(E) 96 crores

2. Thermostat is an instrument used to”
(A) measure flow of current
(B) measure intensity of voltage
(D) regulate velocity of sound
(E) None of these

3. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with”
(A) Football
(B) Cricket
(C) Hockey

4. GNP stands for”
(B) Group Net Product
(C) Grand Nuclear Process
(D) Group Networking Process
(E) None of these

5. ‘Acoustics’ is the science of the study of”
(A) Light
(C) Electricity
(D) Magnetism
(E) None of these

6. Noise pollution is measured in the unit called”
(A) micron
(B) nautical miles
(C) ohms
(D) ampere

7. ‘Heavy Water’ is used in which of the following types of indus-tries ?
(A) Sugar
(C) Textile
(D) Coal
(E) None of these

8. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Indomi-table Spirit’?
(A) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(A) Indomitable Spirit is a book authored by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam the ex-President of India. The book brings together the values, thoughts and ideas of President Kalam as reflected in his speeches and addresses. Interspersed with interesting ancedotes and observations, indomitable Spirit represents the quintessential A.P.J. Abdul Kalam”the man, the scientist, the teacher and the President.
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Justice K. G. Balakrishna
(D) Mr. Natwar Singh
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following is not the name of popular IT/Software Company ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Mastek
(D) IBM
(E) Infosys

10. ‘Yen’ is the currency of”
(A) South Korea
(B) China
(D) Malaysia
(E) None of these

11. Baichung Bhutia whose name was in news is a well known”
(A) Music Director of Indian films
(B) English author of Indian origin
(C) Journalist
(D) Politician

12. ‘Richter Scale’ is used to measure which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of Tsunami Waves
(C) Density of salt in Sea water
(D) Flow of electric current
(E) None of these

13. Which of the following best explains ‘e-governance’?
(A) Improving the functioning of government
(B) Teaching government emp-loyees the basics of computing
(C) Delivery of public services through internet-Answer
(D) Framing of cyber-laws of chatting on internet
(E) Convergence of e-mail and video-conferencing

14. CAS is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Legal System Reforms
(B) Piped gas line
(D) Mobile phone regulation
(E) None of these

15. Tata Steel recently acquired the Corus, a steel giant situated in”
(A) South Africa
(B) Ukraine
(C) Australia
(D) Italy

16. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the Organi-zation/Agency working in the field of Space Research ?
(A) ISBN
(C) INTELSET
(D) INTACH
(E) None of these

17. ‘Handshaking’ in Networking parlance means”
(A) connecting computers to a hub-Answer
(B) distributed Networks
(C) having same operating system on different computers
(D) sending e-mail
(E) None of these

18. VAT stands for”
(A) Value And Tax
(D) Virtual Assessment Tech-nique
(E) None of these

19. Alzheimer’sdiseaseistheailment of which of the following organs /parts of the human body ?
(A) Kidney
(B) Heart
(C) Liver
(D) Stomach

20. Global warming is a matter of concern amongst the nations these days. Which of the follo-wing countries is the largest emitter of greenhouse gases in the World ?
(A) U.S.A.
(C) India
(D) Britain
(E) None of these

21. Which of the following books has been written by Bill Gates ?
(A) Microsoft Secrets
(D) e-commerce
(E) None of these

22. Which of the following is the name of the social network service run by the Google on the internet ?
(A) Online Space
(B) Orkut
(C) Net-Space
(D) Wikipedia
(E) None of these

23. Which of the following states is a relatively new addition ?
(A) Goa
(E) Bihar

24. DOT stands for”
(A) Disc Operating Therapy
(B) Department of Telephones
(C) Directorate of Technology
(D) Damage on Time
Dot stands for Department of Telecommunications.

25. Which of the following States/ parts of India is completely land locked having no contact with sea ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Maharashtra
(E) None of these

26. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following servi-ces ?
(C) Port
(D) Transport
(E) None of these

27. At present for the ATMs in India, the most commonly used net-work communication mode is”
(A) Very Small Aperture Termi-nal (VSAT)-Answer
(B) General Packet Radio Ser-vice (GPRS)
(C) Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
(D) Dial-in Connection
(E) None of these

28. Which of the following is not a foreign bank operating in India ?
(A) DBS Bank Ltd.
(B) Sonali Bank
(C) J. P. Morgan Chase Bank
(D) Shinhan Bank

29. Who is the author of the book ‘Future Shock’ ?
(B) Tom Peters
(C) Napoleon Hill
(D) Kenneth Blanchard
(E) None of these

30. Apex fares are”
(A) more than the normal fare
(B) less than the normal fare-Answer
(C) offered only to corporate clients
(D) applicable to late night flights only
(E) applicable to international flights only

31. Who amongst the following is the Director of the film ‘Water’ which was in news ?
(A) Vidhu Vinod Chopra
(B) Mrinal Sen
(C) Gulzar
(D) Mahesh Bhatt

32. The 10th plan period is upto”
(B) 2008
(C) 2009
(D) 2010
(E) None of these

33. OPEC is a group of countries which are”
(B) producting cotton
(C) rich and developed
(D) developing and poor
(E) nuclear powers

34. Intel Company mainly pro-duces”
(A) Hard disks
(B) VCDs
(C) Monitors
(D) Software

35. Who amongst the following is the M.D./Chairman of one of the major Steel Companies ?
(B) Shri K. K. Birla
(C) Shri Vijaypat Singhania
(D) Shri Mukesh Ambani
(E) Shri Anil Agarwal

36. Who is the President of Nass-com?
(B) Narayana Murthy
(C) Pramod Desai
(D) Devang Mehta
(E) None of these

37. Which of the following awards is not given for excellence in the field of literature ?
(A) Booker Prize
(B) Nobel Prize
(C) Pulitzer Price
(E) Bharatiya Gnanpith Award

38. ‘Singur’ which was in news is a place in”
(A) Orissa
(B) West Bengal
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar
(E) Maharashtra

39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book series named as ‘Harry Potter’ ?
(B) Lindsay Lohan
(C) Julia Roberts
(D) Sandra Bullock
(E) None of these

40. Which of the following Satellites recentlydedicatedtonation helps Direct to Home Television Ser-vice in India ?
(A) Matsat
(B) Edusat
(D) Insat”IB
(E) None of these

41. Many a times we read some news items about the ‘West Bank’. ‘West Bank’ is situated at the western side of the river”
(A) Mississippi
(B) Amazon
(C) Nile
(E) None of these

42. Which of the following pheno-menon is considered responsible for ‘Global Warming’ ?
(B) Fox Fire
(C) Dry Farming
(E) None of these

43. Which of the following instru-ments is not issued by a bank ?
(A) Demand Draft
(B) Pay Order
(C) Debit Card
(D) Credit Card

44. Name of Jyoti Randhawa is asso-ciated with which of the follo-wing games ?
(C) Hockey
(D) Chess
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following Software Companies recently launched its education portal ‘Unlimited Potential’ in India ?
(B) Infosys
(C) Wipro
(D) TCS
(E) None of these

46. Polly Umrigar who died was a well known”
(B) Tennis Player
(C) Golfer
(D) Chess Player
(E) Hockey Player

47. In India Census is done after a gap of every”
(A) Five years
(B) Seven years
(C) Eight years
(E) Fifteen years

48. Prof. Muhammad Yunus the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006 is the exponent of which of the following concepts in the field of banking ?
(A) Core Banking
(C) Retail Banking
(D) Real Time Gross Settlement
(E) Internet Banking

49. Who amongst the following was India’s official candidate for the post of UNO’s Secretary Gene- ral ?
(A) Mr. Shyam Saran
(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(D) Mr. Vijay Nambiar
(E) None of these

50. Mr. Gordon Brown has taken over as the Prime Minister of”
(A) Italy
(C) France
(D) South Africa

English Lanuage

Directions”(Q. 1″15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Crude oil has had a long history, and interesting one. It is probably one single natural resource that has been instrumental in producing maximum conflicts and wars during the last century. With such a track record, it is surprising that in the given environment, where in oil prices are breaking all records, and has become the biggest cause of concern across the globe, why is it that there is silence from some parts of the world`? It is intriguing especially when some have been paying a much higher price on fuel, as compared to their poorer counterparts. It is surprising, more so, when one realizes that the number of oil producing nations is only a handful as compared to the number of oil consuming nations. While a proactive action from the mighty and powerful can bring in a huge respite for the world, why is it that they choose to be silent ? Also, keeping in mind the fact that a few nations”both powerful and weak have some of the largest unused oil reserves,their silence and lack of any serious action look all the more aberrant. Looking at the manner things are shaping up, it just cannot be ruled out that possibly these nations have a definite interest in the increasing prices of oil. The question then is what could their underlying interest be ?
In all probability, what we are seeing right now is just a precursor to the larger picture, well laid out by them may be for the good. With rising prices, the OPEC might be delighted right now, but perhaps they are unable to see what is going to hit them. For this unprecedented rise in oil is creating a most demanding environment for alternative fuels. As and when the reserves deplete and demand really grows, more than anyone else, it is OPEC that would be badly hit, much to the glee of some nations having unused reserves which have the most to gain by using blackmailing tactics. Eventually, the countries at the receiving end would be forced to create an enabling environment for alternative energy. This trend is already visible, with India showing the way with its nuclear deal and other countries dangling the carrot of complete conversion to natural gas towards other countries in order to boost their own business. By doing so they are creating a tactical pressure on countries. As they know that the further the oil prices get pushed, the more the globe would become attracted and ready for alternative and non-conventional fuel. Moreover, for many of the countries, it might become more expensive to invest in newer technologies to conform to the emission norms than to shift to alternative sources, making the market even more attractive. And it is then that the organizations which have already invested billions of dollars in alternate fuels would mop up the global energy market completely.

The second possible reason why some nations of the world are not too enthusiastic to mitigate the price of oil is because the rising oil price is perhaps one of the major deterrents to growth of other countries. Perhaps they were hand in glove in the mechanism to raise the oil price and knowing well that this would make these nations feel the pinch. And now, the rising oil prices have put these nations in a fix. As the pressure of inflationary tendencies increases these countries cannot afford either to sit back and remain entrapped in the larger conspiracy. No wonder then that these are frantically looking around the globe ” especially Africa ” for newer reserves ! As it is said, oil has a long history and the legacy continues.

1. What, according to the passage, is the step that the nations are likely to take with an intolerable rise in oil prices ?
(A) Shift to alternate forms of energy
(B) Come to a state of war with other nations
(C) Put tactical pressure on countries having oil reserves
(D) Formulate more stringent emission norms and apply these across the globe
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. Why is the author surprised with the stance which various nations have taken pertaining to the current global oil crisis ?
(A) The stance is leading to war among the nations for control over oil fields
(B) Powerful nations have been selling oil at a very inflated rate to under developed nations
(C) Many nations have shifted to alternative forms of energy boycotting the use of oil due to inflated prices
(D) Eventhough oil has been a matter of conflict among the nations earlier, many nations have a kept a silence on the current crisis
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which nations does the author refer to in the phrase ‘these nations have a definite interest in the increasing prices of oil’ ?
(A) The mighty and powerful nations
(B) Nations having unused oil reserves
(C) Nations which have exhausted their oil reserves
(D) The nations which have shifted to non-conventional fuels
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Which of the following is not true in context of the passage ?
(A) Some nations have kept a silence upon the rising oil price in order to inhibit the growth of other nations
(B) It is more cost effective to shift to alternative forms of energy than to invest in technology for conforming to the emission norms
(C) Some nations have unused oil reserves which would earn these nations heavy profits once the oil reserves elsewhere deplete
(D) India has had a nuclear deal for its energy needs
(E) All are true
Ans : (E)

5. What does the author mean by ‘dangling the carrot’ in the passage ?
(A) Some countries are stringently opposing the conversion to alternative forms of fuel
(B) Some countries have been luring other countries to change over to alternate fuels in order to boost their own business
(C) Some countries are making the effort to save environment by using natural gas instead of oil as a fuel
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Which of the following is intended in the given passage ?
(A) To highlight the plight of OPEC with rising fuel prices
(B) To urge to the government to shift from oil to natural gas since it is more environment friendly
(C) To highlight the vested interest of some nations in maintaining the indifference to rising oil prices
(D) To urge to save the environment by conforming to the emission norms and using alternate energy sources
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. Why, according to the author, OPEC though delighted currently, would be in difficult situation later ?
(A) All the oil reserves on the earth will soon be exhausted
(B) Powerful nations will try and dominate OPEC later on
(C) As the oil reserves which are being used currently deplete in the time to come, nations having unused oil reserves would arm-twist OPEC
(D) Nations will lose faith in OPEC owing to very high fuel prices
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. What, according to the author, makes the market of alternative sources very attractive ?
(A) Many countries have already made a substantial profit in the industry of alternative fuel
(B) Such measures do not cause harm to the environment
(C) Only a few countries of the world will have the access to alternative forms of fuel
(D) The use of alternative sources has been forced upon certain countries by powerful countries
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the given passage ?
(A) Reasons behind silence on increase in oil prices
(B) Nuclear power as an alternative source of energy
(C) The monopoly of oil reserves by powerful countries
(D) The repercussion of shifting to alternative forms of energy
(E) Oil reserves as deterrent of growth of the nations
Ans : (A)

Directions”(Q. 10″12) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. INSTRUMENTAL
(A) Non-vocal
(B) Reasonable
(C) Creditable
(D) Responsible
(E) Liable
Ans : (D)

11. ABERRANT
(A) Curious
(B) Abnormal
(C) Spoilt
(D) Inferior
(E) Nonfunctional
Ans : (B)

12. PUSHED
(A) Dominated
(B) Pressed
(C) Diverted
(D) Thrown
(E) Increased
Ans : (E)

Directions”(Q. 13″15) Choose the word / phrase which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. PROACTIVE
(A) Quick
(B) Over powered
(C) Dormant
(D) Delicate
(E) Brittle
Ans : (C)

14. GLEE
(A) Disappointment
(B) Dishonour
(C) Appreciation
(D) Disillusion
(E) Defeat
Ans : (A)

15. MITIGATE
(A) Fright
(B) Decline
(C) Degeneration
(D) Worsen
(E) Deprivation
Ans : (D)

Directions”(Q. 16″25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. The merchant counted (A) / the number of pearls (B) / to make sure that (C) / none of them were missing. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

17. When deep sea diving, (A) / one should always take care (B) / that oxygen cylinder is (C) / tied to the back tightly. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

18. As the salary (A) / did not match (B) / his expectations, he did not (C) / accept the job. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

19. The reason behind his success (A) / in the recent past (B) / is due to hard-work (C) / and presence of mind. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

20. No sooner did the students (A) / seen the principal approach (B) / than they ran (C) / from the playground. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

21. My elder sister and I am (A) / interested in painting (B) / and therefore have joined (C) / the coaching classes. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

22. Only after a lot of persuasion, (A) / did the illiterate villager allow (B) / himself’s girl child (C) / to study in the school. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

23. The need for alternate (A) / sources of energy are (B) / essential to conserve (C) / the environment. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

24. I have being working (A) / in that organization for five years (B) / but now I work (C) / for a different company. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

25. There is no argument against (A) / the fact that (B) / humans are the most intelligent (C) / of all other species. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

Directions”(Q. 26″30) Which of the phrases (A), (B) (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

26. Many students waits anxiously at the college gate to know their results”
(A) student waited anxiously
(B) students waiting anxiously
(C) students waited anxiously
(D) students waited anxious
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

27. Through a fortuitous circumstance Rakhi met her childhood friend on the bus in which she was travelling.
(A) she was travelled
(B) she did travel
(C) she has travelling
(D) she were travelling
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

28. The opposition party has alleged that the prices of essential commodities are soaring like never before on the last three decades”
(A) before on the next
(B) before in the last
(C) before at the last
(D) previously in the next
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

29. The salaries and the perks of the employees in this institution are not in according with the rest of the industry”
(A) are not in accordance
(B) is not in accordance
(C) are not according
(D) is not on accordance
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

30. The soldiers deployed in the town were instructed exercising restraint and handle the situation
peacefully.
(A) was instructed to exercising
(B) were instructed for exercise
(C) were instructed to exercise
(D) was instructing to exercising
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions”(Q. 31″35) Rearrange the following sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow”
1. The only way in which this problem can be solved is by making artificial blood which has remained a distant dream for science.
2. Donation of blood is considered to be the most noble of all the charities.
3. If they succeed, it would be noted as one of the most important inventions in the history of mankind.
4. This is because this donated magic potion can give life to another person in an emergency.
5. A group of scientists, however, has dedicated themselves towards making this a reality.
6. A growing problem however is that the requirement for safe blood is increasing whereas the number of donors is decreasing.

31. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

32. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (D)

33. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (D)

35. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

Directions”(Q. 36″40) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

36. One of the TV cameramen was in the leg by a bullet when he was in the middle of a gun fight between two gangs.
(A) hurt, entered
(B) shot, caught
(C) injured, came
(D) stabbed, trapped
(E) beaten, engulfed
Ans : (B)

37. Although the fire was very small everyone and rushed out of the cinema hall complete chaos.
(B) died, producing
(C) injured, resulting
(D) scared, making
(E) panicked, causing
Ans : (E)

38. The of pesticides and fertilizers while growing the vegetables and fruits is one of the greatest to the health these days.
(A) production, dangers
(B) consumption, problem
(C) overuse, threats
(D) application, rewards
(E) amount, injury
Ans : (C)

39. The group’s mission is to peace between the nations and help different people each other better.
(A) maintain, understand
(C) keep, interact
(E) communicate, friendly
Ans : (A)

40. History the Kings and influential leaders whereas the real battle was by the soldiers who remain little known and celebrated in the texts.
(A) remembers, played
(B) highlights, underwent
(D) glorifies, fought
(E) writes, done
Ans : (D)

Directions”(Q. 41″50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Without doubt there is one thing (41) to all of us-We have played a game at some time in our lives. Most of us play to relax or have fun, but for many playing a game or a sport is a way to (42) poverty behind. Infact, in many African countries, playing a sport professionally can (43) the lives of a person’s entire family.

For example, in the samll town of Bekoji, in Ethiopia (44) than a hundred boys and girls can be seen running at dawn everyday. Each of these youth is (45) and serious and their coach is (46) that one of them will be a world champion. This seems like an idle (47) but it is virtually a guarantee in this small community (48) mainly farmers. Many of the fastest male and female distance runners in the world hail from this small town. A small handpainted sign which greets visitors outside Bekoji (49) “Welcome to the Village of Athletes?. Children here start running at an early age, (50) great distance to fetch water and firewood or to reach, school. At the Olympics, runners from this small town are likely to win more medals than those from developed countries. It will give their families a way out of poverty.

41. (A) accepted
(B) common
(C) alike
(D) similar
(E) popular
Ans : (B)

42. (A) alleviate
(B) forgot
(C) prevent
(D) reduce
(E) leave
Ans : (E)

43. (A) changes
(B) arrange
(C) control
(D) transform
(E) shift
Ans : (D)

44. (A) further
(B) more
(C) greater
(D) over
(E) larger
Ans : (B)

45. (A) concentrated
(B) rival
(C) focused
(D) playful
(E) performed
Ans : (C)

46. (A) convince
(B) optimist
(C) intended
(D) privilege
(E) confident
Ans : (E)

47. (A) boast
(B) suspicion
(C) risk
(D) worship
(E) precaution
Ans : (A)

48. (A) existing
(B) that
(C) comprising
(D) consisting
(E) for
Ans : (C)

49. (A) warn
(B) inform
(C) notices
(E) wish
Ans : (D)

50. (A) covering
(B) driving
(C) measuring
(D) following
(E) competing
Ans : (A)
IBPS bank PO computer questions

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IBPS computer awareness questions with answers

1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.
B. spam.
C. viruses.
D. identity theft.
2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.
A. data mining
B. data selection
C. POS
D. data conversion
3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems.
A. Data
B. Point-of-sale (POS)
C. Sales
D. Query
4. A (n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an item’s tag and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
A. PSS
B. POS
C. inventory
D. data mining
5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an example of a law enforcement specialty called:
A. robotics.
B. simulation.
C. computer forensics.
D. animation.
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
A. gathering data
B. processing data into information
C. analyzing the data or information
D. storing the data or information

7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database all of the animal’s movements.
A. POS
B. RFID
C. PPS
D. GPS
8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of manually. This technology is known as:
A. robotics.
B. computer forensics.
C. simulation.
D. forecasting.
9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:
A. proprietary.
B. open.
C. experimental.
D. in the public domain.
10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers.
A. Nanoscience
B. Microelectrodes
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence

11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence that humans do.
A. Nanoscience
B. Nanotechnology
C. Simulation
D. Artificial intelligence (AI)

12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
A. A process
B. Software
C. Storage
D. Information

13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
A. programming.
B. processing.
C. storing.
D. organizing.
14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data.
A. present
B. input
C. output
D. store
15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual print of the picture is considered:
A. data.
B. output.
C. input.
D. the process.
16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data.
A. processing
B. kilobyte
C. binary
D. representational
17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:
A. multimedia.
B. words.
C. characters.
D. numbers.
18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique combination of:
A. eight bytes.
B. eight kilobytes.
C. eight characters.
D. eight bits.

19. The term bit is short for:
A. megabyte.
B. binary language.
C. binary digit.
D. binary number.
20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
A. megabyte.
B. byte.
C. kilobyte.
D. gigabyte.
21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.
A. kilobyte
B. bit
C. gigabyte
D. megabyte
22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.
A. gigabyte
B. kilobyte
C. megabyte
D. terabyte
23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
A. Hardware
B. A device
C. A peripheral
D. An application
24. The components that process data are located in the:
A. input devices.
B. output devices.
C. system unit.
D. storage component.

25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:
A. scanner.
B. mouse.
C. keyboard.
D. printer.
26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
A. scanner
B. speaker
C. CD
D. printer
27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:
A. hard disk drives.
B. printers.
C. floppy disk drives.
D. CD drives.
28. The ____________, also called the “brains” of the computer, is responsible for processing data.
A. motherboard
B. memory
C. RAM
D. central processing unit (CPU)
29. The CPU and memory are located on the:
A. expansion board.
B. motherboard.
C. storage device.
D. output device.
30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:
A. application software.
B. system software.
C. operating system software.
D. platform software.

31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
A. An instruction
B. Software
C. Memory
D. A processor
32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and ____________ software to work together.
A. management
B. processing
C. utility
D. application
33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
A. platforms.
B. applications.
C. programs.
D. storage devices.
34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different operating systems.
A. languages
B. methods
C. CPUs
D. storage devices
35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:
A. network.
B. mainframe.
C. supercomputer.
D. client.
36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many businesses.
A. supercomputers
B. clients
C. laptops
D. mainframes

37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly.
A. Servers
B. Supercomputers
C. Laptops
D. Mainframes
38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection.
A. network
B. wireless
C. slow
39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the:
A. digital divide.
B. Internet divide.
C. Web divide.

40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small scale.
A. Nanotechnology
B. Micro-technology
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer?
A. Process an Output an Input a Storage
B. Input an Output Process a Storage
C. Process an Storage an Input a Output
D. Input a Process a Output a Storage
42. ____________ bits equal one byte.
A. Eight
B. Two
C. One thousand
D. One million

43. The binary language consists of ____________ digit(s).
A. 8
B. 2
C. 1,000
D. 1
44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data.
A. bit
B. binary digit
C. character
D. kilobyte
45. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer.
A. The platform
B. The operating system
C. Application software
D. The motherboard
46. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software.
A. communication
B. application
C. system
D. word-processing software
47. ____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
A. Servers
B. Embedded computers
C. Robotic computers
D. Mainframes
48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon, are called:
A. instructions.
B. the operating system.
C. application software.
D. the system unit.
49. The two broad categories of software are:
B. transaction and application.
C. Windows and Mac OS.
D. system and application.
50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:
A. system unit.
B. CPU.
C. mainframe.
D. platform.

51. UNIVAC is

a. Universal Automatic Computer
b. Universal Array Computer
c. Unique Automatic Computer
d. Unvalued Automatic Computer

UNIVAC is
Correct Answer: a. Universal Automatic Computer
Explanation: There are no computers with the name as in other options. UNIVAC was the first general purpose electronic digital computer designed for commercial use, produced by Universal Accounting Company of John Mauchly and J.P.Eckert in 1951.

52. CD-ROM stands for

b. Compact Data Read Only Memory
c. Compactable Disk Read Only Memory
d. Compact Disk Read Only Memory

CD-ROM stands for
Explanation: There are no objects with the name as in other options. CD-ROM is a non-volatile optical data storage medium using the same physical format as audio compact disk, readable by a computer with a CD-ROM drive. The standard 12 cm diameter CD-ROM store about 660 megabytes.

53. ALU is

a. Arithmetic Logic Unit
b. Array Logic Unit
c. Application Logic Unit
d. None of above

ALU is
Correct Answer: a. Arithmetic Logic Unit
Explanation: ALU is a unit in Central Processing Unit in a computer system that is responsible for arithmetic calculations and logical operations. Apart from ALU, the CPU contains MU (Memory Unit) and CU (Control Unit).

54. VGA is

a. Video Graphics Array
b. Visual Graphics Array
c. Volatile Graphics Array

VGA is
Correct Answer: a. Video Graphics Array
Explanation: VGA is a type of Graphics Adapter. Graphic Adapter is an electronic board that controls the display of a monitor. This device helps the motherboard to work with the monitor and in VGA and SVGA the last letter ‘A’ stands for ‘Array’ whereas in MDA, CGA, MCGA the last letter ‘A’ stands for ‘Adapter’.

55. IBM 1401 is

a. First Generation Computer
b. Second Generation Computer
c. Third Generation Computer
d. Fourth Generation Computer

IBM 1401 is
Correct Answer: b. Second Generation Computer
Explanation: IBM 1401 is a Second Generation Computer and is the first computer to enter Nepal in 2028 BS for census. Government of Nepal had brought this computer on rent and later purchased for data processing in Bureau of Statistics. After this computer, another ICL 2950/10, a British computer, was purchased by the fund of UNDP and UNFPA for the census of 2038 BS is second computer in Nepal.

56. MSI stands for

a. Medium Scale Integrated Circuits
b. Medium System Integrated Circuits
c. Medium Scale Intelligent Circuit
d. Medium System Intelligent Circuit

MSI stands for
Correct Answer: a. Medium Scale Integrated Circuits
Explanation: After the invention of IC chips the development of computers plunged into next phase. Small Scale Integration and Medium Scale Integration (SSI and MSI) were used in third generation of computers and Large Scale Integration and Very Large Scale Integration (LSI and VLSI) are being used in fourth generation of computers. People are now expecting ULSI (Ultra Large Scale Integration) Circuits to be used for fifth generation computers.

57. The capacity of 3.5 inch floppy disk is

a. 1.40 MB
b. 1.44 GB
c. 1.40 GB
d. 1.44 MB

The capacity of 3.5 inch floppy disk is
Explanation: Microfloppy disks (3.5 inch) if it is high density (MF2HD) can store 1.44 MB and if it is low density (MF2DD), it can store 720 KB. Mini Floppy disks (5.25 inch) if it is high density (MD2HD) can store 1.2 MB and low density (MD2DD) stores 360 KB of data.

58. The first computer introduced in Nepal was

a. IBM 1400
b. IBM 1401
c. IBM 1402
d. IBM1402
The first computer introduced in Nepal was
Explanation: IBM 1401, a second generation computer was brought in Nepal by the Government of Nepal paying One Lakh and twenty five thousands per month to use in the census in 2028 B.S. Before this computer, Nepal was using a calculating device called Facit for statistical tasks.

59. WAN stands for

a. Wap Area Network
b. Wide Area Network
c. Wide Array Net
d. Wireless Area Network

WAN stands for
Correct Answer: b. Wide Area Network
Explanation: There are three different classes of computer network namely, Local Area Network (LAN) that covers a small geographical area such as a room, a building or a compound; Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) that has a citywide coverage; and Wide Area Network (WAN) that covers the whole globe or beyond the globe.

60. MICR stands for

d. None

MICR stands for
Explanation: MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Reader) is kind of scanner that can scan and identify the writing of magnetic ink. This device is used in banks to verify signatures in Checks.

61. EBCDIC stands for
a. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
b. Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code
c. Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code
d. Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code

EBCDIC stands for
Correct Answer: a. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
Explanation: EBCDIC is an 8-bit binary code for larger IBMs primarily mainframes in which each byte represent one alphanumeric character or two decimal digits. 256 characters can be coded using EBCDIC.

62. BCD is
a. Binary Coded Decimal
b. Bit Coded Decimal
c. Binary Coded Digit
d. Bit Coded Digit

BCD is
Correct Answer: a. Binary Coded Decimal
Explanation: BCD is a binary coded notation in which each of the decimal digits is expressed as a 8-bit binary numeral. For example in binary coded decimal notation 12 is 0001 0010 as opposed to 1100 in pure binary.

63. ASCII stands for
a. American Stable Code for International Interchange
b. American Standard Case for Institutional Interchange
c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
d. American Standard Code for Interchange Information

ASCII stands for
Correct Answer: c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
Explanation: ASCII is a code which converts characters – letters, digits, punctuations and control characters such as Alt, Tab etc – into numeral form. ASCII code is used to represent data internally in micro-computers. ASCII codes are 7 bits and can represent 0 to 127 and extended ASCII are 8 bits that represents 0 to 255.
64. Which of the following is first generation of computer
a. EDSAC
b. IBM-1401
c. CDC-1604
d. ICL-2900

Explanation: IBM-1401, CDC-1604 is second generation computer. ICL-2900 is a fourth generation computer. EDSAC is important in the development of computer since it was the first computer to use John von. Neumann’s Stored Program Concept. It used 3000 vacuum tubes and computers with vacuum tubes are of first generation computers.
65. Chief component of first generation computer was
a. Transistors
b. Vacuum Tubes and Valves
c. Integrated Circuits
d. None of above

Correct Answer: b. Vacuum Tubes and Valves
Explanation: Transistors were used for second generation computers and integrated circuits in third generation. First generation computers used vacuum tubes and valves as their main electronic component. Vacuum Tubes were invented by Lee DeForest in 1908.
66. FORTRAN is
a. File Translation
b. Format Translation
c. Formula Translation
d. Floppy Translation

Explanation: FORTRAN (Formula Translation) is one of the earlier High Level programming languages used to write scientific applications. It was developed by IBM in 1956.
67. EEPROM stand for
a. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
b. Easily Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
c. Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
d. None of the above

Explanation: There are three types of ROM namely, PROM, EPROM and EEPROM. PROM can’t be reprogrammed, EPROM can be erased by exposing it in high intensity ultraviolet light and EEPROM can be erased and reprogrammed electrically. It is not needed to be removed from the computer to be modified.

68. Second Generation computers were developed during
a. 1949 to 1955
b. 1956 to 1965
c. 1965 to 1970
d. 1970 to 1990

Explanation: Second generation computers used transistors as their main electronic component. Transistor was invented by Bell Lab Scientists John Burdeen, Walter Brattain and William Shockley in 1947 and won the Nobel Prize in 1956 but it was not used in computers till 1956. The second generation continued until the implementation of IC chips invented by Jack Kilby in Texas Instruments in 1958.

69. The computer size was very large in
a. First Generation
b. Second Generation
c. Third Generation
d. Fourth Generation

Explanation: It is obvious that computers developed with more power, reliability, speed and smaller sizes due to the enhancement of technology. First generation computers used 1000s of vacuum tubes that required lot of space made them gigantic in size. Single transistor could replace 1000 vacuum tubes and a single IC chip replaced 1000s of transistors made computers smaller and more speedy.

70. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers
a. First Generation
b. Second Generation
c. Third Generation
d. Fourth Generation

Explanation: Microprocessors further revolutionized the development of computers. Personal microcomputers were possible due to the microprocessors. The first microprocessor called Intel 4004 was developed by American Intel Corporation in 1971. Microprocessors are used in the computers of fourth generation computers.

71. Which generation of computer is still under development
a. Fourth Generation
b. Fifth Generation
c. Sixth Generation
d. Seventh Generation

Explanation: Today’s computer fall under the fourth generation computers that uses the LSI and VLSI Integrated Circuits. For fifth generation computers it is expected for Ultra Large Scale Integrated Circuits (ULSI). The study for using Gallium Arsenide instead of silicon chips is underway. Electrons can travel 5 times faster in Gallium Arsenide compared to the silicon. Similarly, genetically engineered protein molecules are being tried for processors. Fifth generation computers are expected to have artificial intelligence, ability to use natural language.

72. Artificial Intelligence is associated with which generation?
a. First Generation
b. Second Generation
c. Fifth Generation
d. Sixth Generation

Explanation: ‘A computer is a slave in a box’. This is a saying due to the lack of intelligence in computer in spite of their speed, accuracy, diligence and reliability. A computer can only perform instructed task in the way already programmed. Thus, scientists are trying to develop artificial intelligence in computers so that they can think and make decisions themselves. This is expected for fifth generation computers.

73. Which operation is not performed by computer
a. Inputting
b. Processing
c. Controlling
d. Understanding

Explanation: Computers can’t understand since they don’t have intelligence. Let’s hope in fifth generation they will achieve artificial intelligence and be able to understand.

74. Fifth generation computer is also known as
a. Knowledge information processing system
b. Very large scale integration (VLSI)
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Correct Answer: a. Knowledge information processing system
Explanation: Fifth Generation computers will have artificial intelligence and will be able to understand making knowledge information processing system possible,

75. Central Processing Unit is combination of
a. Control and storage
b. Control and output unit
c. Arithmetic logic and input unit
d. Arithmetic logic and control unit

Correct Answer: d. Arithmetic logic and control unit
Explanation: Arithmetic logic and control unit along with memory unit forms a complete central processing unit and central processing unit along with input/output unit forms a computer system.

76. The brain of any computer system is
a. Control Unit
b. Arithmetic Logic Unit
c. Central Processing Unit
d. Storage Unit

Correct Answer: c. Central Processing Unit
Explanation: Control unit or arithmetic logical unit alone can not represent the function of brain to compare with neither does storage unit only. Central Processing Unit is the combination of control, arithmetic logic and memory units thus can be compared with brain that controls the body, processes its functions and remembers.

77. Pick the one that is used for logical operations or comparisons such as less than equal to or greater than.
a. Arithmetic and Logic Unit
b. Control Unit
c. Both of above
d. None of above

Correct Answer: a. Arithmetic and Logic Unit
Explanation: Logical sub-unit of ALU performs all the comparisons such as less than equal to or greater than. Arithmetic sub-unit of ALU performs calculations such as addition, subtraction and so on.

78. Analog computer works on the supply of
a. Continuous electrical pulses
b. Electrical pulses but not continuous
c. Magnetic strength
d. None of the above

Correct Answer: a. Continuous electrical pulses
Explanation: Analog computers works on the continuous electrical pulses and digital computers work on the discrete electrical pulses. Analog computers need to process physical quantities such as temperature, pressure, speed etc.

79. Digital devices are
a. Digital Clock
b. Automobile speed meter
c. Clock with a dial and two hands
d. All of them

Explanation: Automobile speed meter and clock with a dial and two hands are analog devices. Speed meter works on speed of wheel and the later works on tension of dialed spring.

80. The computer that process both analog and digital is called
a. Analog computer
b. Digital computer
c. Hybrid computer
d. Mainframe computer

Explanation: Analog, Digital and Hybrid are the three classes of computers based on the work or principle on which computer work. Hybrid computers can perform both the tasks of analog computers as well as hybrid computers. These computers are used in aircraft, hospitals where measuring physical quantities and converting them into digital data to analyze is required.

81. To navigate to a new web page for which you know the URL, type that URL in the browser’s …….. and press Enter.

(2) Domain bar

(4) Name button

(5) None of these

82. The CPU, also called the …. when talking about PCs, does the vast majority of the processing for a computer.

(1) Maicroprocessor

(2) RAM

(3) Memory system

(4) Microprocessor (Ans)

(5) None of these

83. A computer’s type, processor, and operating system define its …….. .

(1) brand

(2) size

(3) platform

(4) speed (Ans)

(5) None of these

84. A kiosk

(1) is data organized and presented in a manner that has additional value beyond the value of the data itself

(2) combines microscopic electronic components on a single integrated circuit that processes bits according to software instructions

(3) is a computer station that provides the public with specific and useful information and services (Ans)

(4) describes a computer’s type, processor, and operating system

(5) None of the above

85. The part of the CPU that accesses and decodes programme instructions, and coordinates the flow of data among various system components is the

(1) ALU

(2) control unit (Ans)

(3) megahertz

(4) motherboard

(5) None of these

86. Computer programs are written in a high level programming language, however, the human-readable version of a program is called

(1) cache

(2) instruction set

(3) source code (Ans)

(4) word size

(5) None of these

87. What is the difference between a CD-ROM and a CD-RW ?

(1) They are the same-just two different terms used by different manufacturers

(2) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot

(3) A CD-RW can be written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from (Ans)

(5) None of the above

88. What is the term for how words will appear on a page?

(1) Text formatting (Ans)

(2) Character formatting

(3) Point size

(4) Typeface

(5) None of these

89. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as

(1) pulling

(2) pushing

(4) transferring

(5) None of these

90. When sending an e-mail, the …. line describes the contents of the message.

(1) subject (Ans)

(2) to

(3) contents

(4) cc

(5) None of these

91. All the deleted files go to

(1) Recycle bin (Ans)

(3) Tool bar

(4) My Computer

(5) None of these

92. You organize files by storing them in

(1) archives

(2) folders (Ans)

(3) indexes

(4) lists

(5) None of these

93. A website address in a unique name that identifies a specific …… on the web.

(1) web browser (Ans)

(2) website

(3) PDA

(5) None of these

94. ……….. are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.

(1) Servers

(2) Embedded computers (Ans)

(3) Robotic computers

(4) Mainframes

(5) None of these

95. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest ?

(1) Character, file, record, field, database

(2) Character, record, field, file, database

(3) Character, field, record, file, database

(4) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database (Ans)

(5) None of the above

96. Which of the following, statements is false concerning file names ?

(1) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both

(2) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name

(3) File extension is another name for file type

(4) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the files

(5) None of the above (Ans)

97. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is

(1) memory-only

(2) write-only

(4) run-only

(5) None of these

98. Distributed processing involves

(1) solving computer component problems from a different computer

(2) solving computing problems by breaking them into smaller parts that are separately processed by different computers (Ans)

(3) allowing users to share files on a network

(4) allowing users to access network resources away from the office

(5) None of the above

99. The operating system determines the manner in which all of the following occurs except

(1) user creation of a document

(2) user interaction with the processor (Ans)

(3) printer output

(4) data displayed on the monitor

(5) None of the above

100. Office LANs that are spread geographically apart on a large scale can be connected using a corporate

(1) CAN

(2) LAN (Ans)

(3) DAN

(4) WAN

(5) TAN
IBPS general awareness
IBPS Bank PO Gramin Bank and IBPS SBT,SBI bank based General Awareness questions with answers, IBPS For complete package of Bank preparation, Bank test preparation tips, All Bank written test examination questions with answers, IBPS, Gramin Bank Aptitude ,reasoning, data interpretation, data sufficiency english questions with answers and detailed explanations

1. Which 3 eminent persons nominated by the government for as members of Rajya Sabha on April 26, 2012 ?
Ans:- Sachin Tendulkar, actress Rekha and industrialist Anu Aga

2. Which indian Bollywood actress passed away recently ?
Ans:- Achla Sachdev

3. Who won India Open badminton 2012 Men’s singles title ?
Ans:- Shon Wan Ho (South Korea)

4. Who won India Open badminton 2012 Women’s singles title ?
Ans:- Li Xuerui(China)

5. Who won 6 NTR National Literary Award ?
Ans:- Ashokamitran (Tamil writer)

6. Name of new web-enabled mobile Phone launched by Nokia ?
Ans:- Asha 202

7. Who win 28th Asian snooker title ?

8. Who has been elected as New President of France ?
Ans:- Francois Hollande (defeating the incumbent Nicolas Sarkozy)

9. Who became the first batsman to hit five consecutive Twenty20 half-centuries ?
Ans:- Virender Sehwag (In IPL-5)

10. Who were awarded with Kalpana Chawla excellence award on 6 May 2012 ?
Ans:- Miss India World Vinya Mishra and actress Sushma Seth

11. Which indian discus thrower created a new national record bywinning the silver medal at the Altius Track Crew Throwdown meet in Maui Island, Hawaii ?
Ans:- Krishna Poonia (64.76 meters)

12. Who became the first-ever batsman to cross 2000 runs in the Indian Premier League ?
Ans:- Suresh Raina

13. Who has re-appointed as Attorney General of india ?
Ans:- Goolam E.Vahanvati

14. Which missile was successfully test-fired by pakistan on May 012 ?
Ans:- Hatf III Ghaznavi missile (Range – 290 km)

15. What is HSRP ?
Ans:- High Security Registration number Plates

16. when was India’s first Parliament session held ?
Ans:- 13th May, 1952 ( On 13 may, 2012 Indian Parliament celebrate 60th anniversary)

17. When was the World red cross day celebrated?
Ans:- May 8th (every year)

18. Who won Junior Hockey World Cup 2012 ?
Ans:- Malaysia (defeated Pakistan)

19. Which mobile manufacturer became Number One Mobile Company in the World ?
Ans:- Samsung (Korean mobile company)

20. Who is elected as new chairman of Atomic Energy Commission of India ?
Ans:- Dr.Ratan Kumar Sinha

21. Who has been elected New Chairman of the Standing Committee of Parliament on Personnel Public Grievances, Law and Justice ?
Ans:- Shantaram Naik

22. Which 2 Indian women Squash Players won the 16th Asian Team Squash Championship in Kuwait?
Ans:- Dipika Pallikal (ranked 14th) and Joshna Chinnappa (ranked 71st)

23. Name of The joint exercise carried out by the Army and the Indian Air Force in the desert of Rajasthan ?
Ans:- Operation Shoorveer

24. Who has been elected as Chair of the ADB’s( Asian Development Bank) Board of Governors, India ?
Ans:- Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee

25. Who was sworn in as Russian president for 3rd time?

26. who has been selected as the brand ambassador of ‘Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan’ (a programme of the rural development ministry to spread awareness about sanitation and cleanliness in india) ?
Ans:- Vidya Balan

27. Who became the 1st player to win Barcelona title for 7 times?

28. Which English tean won 2012 FA Cup Final ?
Ans:- Chelsea (defeat Liverpool by 2-1)

29. Who has been conferred with his first American Honorary Doctorate by the Miami University ?
Ans:- A.R.Rahman

30. Which 3 northeastern Indian states will have its own high courts?
Ans:- Tripura, Manipur and Meghalaya

31. Who won the Madrid Masters woman single’s title 2012 ?
Ans:- Serena Williams

32. Who won the men single’s Madrid Masters title 2012?
Ans:- Roger Federer

33. Who became World’s Oldest Women to climb the Mount Everest the world’s highest mountain peak ?
Ans:- Tamae Watanabe (73-year-old)

34. who became the youngest Indian to win Asian Chess Championship 2012 ?
Ans:- Primarjan Negi (Negi is also the third Indian afer Krishnan Sasikaran (2003), Surya Sekhar Ganguly (2009) and Pendyala Harikishna (2011) to win the Asian title.)

35. Who has been appointed as TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India) chairman for a 3 year term?
Ans:- Rahul Khullar

36. Who is sworn in as the 24th President of France?
Ans:- Francois Hollande

37. Who is sworn in as the Prime Minister of France?
Ans:- Jean-Marc Ayrault

38. Which football club won the 2012 English Premier League Championship after 44 years?
Ans:- Manchester city

39. Who won the Football Champions League 2012 ?
Ans:- Chelesa

40. where was held 38th G-8 summit recently(May -2012) ?
Ans:- Camp David, Maryland (USA)

41. Who sworn in as the 19th Governor of Rajasthan ?
Ans:- Margaret Alva

42. Who won the men’s Rome Masters (Italian Open ) 2012 for a record 6th time?

43. Who won the women’s Rome Masters 2012 (Italian Open) for 2nd time?
Ans:- Maria Sharapova (russia)

44. Who won the Men’s doubles Rome Masters 2012 title?
Ans:- Marcel Garnollers and Marc Lopez

45. Who won the Women’s doubles Rome Masters 2012 title?
Ans:- Sara Errani and Roberta Vinci

46. Name of the bollywood movie, which has figured in the TIME magazine’s 10 greatest movies of the millenium ?
Ans:- Devdas (directed by Sanjay Leela Bhansali)

47. Who is set to be India’s next football coach ?
Ans:- Wim Koevermans (former Dutch central defender)

48. Which indigenously built Missile was test- fired by india, at Chandipur, Odisha on 24 May 2012 ?
Ans:- Akash missile

49. Who won Indian Premier League Season 5 (IPL 2012) ?
Ans:- Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR) defeated the Chennai Super Kings (CSK)

50. Who won won the Man of the Tournament award in IPL 2012 ?
Ans:- Sunil Naraine (KKR)

51. Who won Orange Cap(highest run getter) of IPL-2012 ?
Ans:- Chris Gayle (Royal Challengers Banglore) – 733 runs

52. Who Won Purple Cap (highest wicket- taker) of IPL 2012 ?
Ans:- Morne Morkel (Delhi Daredevils) – 25 wickets ( for IPL-2012 Awards List – Click Here)

53. Who won the Chennai Open 2012 Squash title ?
Ans:- Joshna Chinappa

54. Who won FIDE World Chess Championship 2012 title for the record fifth time ?
Ans:- Vishwanathan Anand (defeated Boris Gelfand-isreal)

55. Who became the first Indian Prime Minister to visit Myanmar after 25 years ?
Ans:- Dr.Manmohan Singh

56. Who won the 66th Santosh Trophy?
Ans:- Services team against Tamil Nadu

57. What is current economic growth rate of india in the January-March quarter of 2011-12 ?
Ans:- 5.3 percent (The figure is lowest in the past 9 years.)

58. Who assumed the charge as the 25th Chief of the Indian Army ?
Ans:- General Bikram Singh (He succeeded General V K Singh.)

59. As per Latest India state of forest Report 2011, Which indian state has the maximum forest cover area in Country ?

60. 2012 summer olympic games is of which Olympiad ?
61. India conducted its first underground nuclear test
Ans. Rajasthan

62. Which of the following states in India is the largest in area?

63. A large sized nitrogenous plant based on the gas supplied through Hazira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur pipeline is being set up at

Ans. Hazira

64. Fazilka-Abohar region is noted for

Ans.prosperous cotton textile industry

65. In which industry is sal wood used mostly?

Ans. Railway sleepers

66. Which of the following is the principal reason for the concentration of heavy industries in the South Bihar region?
Ans. Availability of raw materials in the region

67. Out of the following, India earns the maximum foreign exchange from the export of

Ans. handicrafts

68. Kandla, situated on the Gulf of Kachchh, is well known for which of the following?

Ans. Export processing zone

69. The main centre of diamond cutting industry in India is
Ans.Jaipur
70 The Himalayan region inspite of having raw material for paper and pulp industry could not develop so far. Which of the following is the most important factor for this?

Ans. Poor means of transport in the region
71. As per the latest figures available, out of the total sugar production in India, Maharashtra contributes about
Ans. 23%

72. Where is the Hindustan Shipyard located?

Ans. Vishakhapatnam

73. The ‘satellite freight city’ is being developed near which of the following cities?

Ans. Gurgaon

74. Which of the following states accounts for the largest share of industrial production and capital investment?

Ans.Maharashtra

75. Consider the following statements:

The Rourkela steel plant obtains

1. hydel power from the Hirakud dam

2. coking coal from Jharia coalfields

3. iron ore from Baba Budon hills

Of these statements, the correct ones are:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

76. A group of tourists is interested in visiting some beaches in India. Which of the following groups of cities would you suggest?

A. Calcutta, Bangalore, Baroda

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(c) Only C

(d) Both A and B

(e) Both A and C

Ans. (c)

77. Which of the following cities is situated on the bank of river Saryu?

Ans.Ayodhya

78. Railway rolling stock is not manufactured at

79. Of the following cities, which one is situated along the banks of river Sabarmati?

80 .Which industry in India was worst affected be cause of the partition?
Ans.Jute and Cotton

81. Which of the following cities is known as ‘Pink City’?
Ans.Jaipur

82. Indian Standard Time is the time at which of the following longitudes East of Greenwich?

Ans. 82 .5 °

83. Which of the following places is not associated with India’s space programme?

Ans. Trombay
84. Garo and Khasi tribes are mainly found in

Ans.Meghalaya

85. In terms of the area of the countries, India ranks in the world.

Ans.7th

86. Which is the most urbanized state in India?

Maharashtra

Ans. (d)

87 In addition to the entire Union Territory of Delhi, the National Capital Region covers parts of the states of

Ans. Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh

88. ‘Ghotul’, a tribal youth dormitory is found among the

89 Which one of the following organizations is responsible for production of topographical sheets?

Ans.Survey of India (501)

90. In terms of area, which of the following is the smallest state in India?

Ans.Sikkim

91. India’s oldest planetarium is located at

Ans. Calcutta

92. Consider the following satellites put into orbit by India

2. INSAT-1 B

3. Rohini

4. APPLE

Ans. 2 and 4

93. What is SLV-3?

Ans. India’s space launching vehicle

94. Which one of the following is the most important reason for the establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?

Ans.The sea is near to the place in the East, West and South directions.

95. The first submarine built by India is

Ans. INS Shalki

96. The satellite Aryabhatta was built at

Ans.Bangalore

97. In which of the following regions is ‘Dandakaranya’ located?

98. Onge tribe is mainly settled in which of the following States / Union Territories?
Ans.Meghalaya

99. Which of the following places is not associated with the launching of the space satellites?

Ans.Hassan
100. INSAT – 2B was launched from

Ans. Kourou

1. What is the percentage of geographical area of India in the world area?

(a) 2.3%

(b) 3.2%

(c) 4%

(d) 5%

Ans. (a)

2. India- built remote sensing satellite Bhaskara II was put into space with the help of

(a) an intercosmos rocket from a soviet cosmodrome

(b) an SLV-3 rocket from Thumba

(c) an Ariana from French Guiana

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

3. Which one of the following is known as the Pearl City?

(a) Cochin

(b) Tuticorin

(c) Masulipatnam

(d) Rameshwaram

Ans. (b)

4. In which of the following places is India’s second satellite launching station being

developed?

(a) Sriharikota

(b) Trombay

(d) Vishakhapatnam

(e) Balasore

Ans. (e)

5. The highest number of tribal population in Tamil Nadu is

(a) Todas

(b) Irulas

(c) Kodas

(d) Malayalis

Ans. (a)

6. Kukis belong to which state?

(a) Nagaland

(b) Tripura

(c) Manipur

(e) Mizoram

Ans. (c)

7. Which one of the following pairs is not correct?

(a) Sriharikota – India’s satellite launching centre

(b) Bangalore – India’s space application centre

(c) Thumba – India’s first earth satellite station

(d) SLV-3 – India’s four stage rocket

Ans. (c)

8. In Mizoram, the settlement pattern is mostly of ‘linear type’ along the ridges because

(a) the ridges are cooler than the valleys

(b) the valleys are densely forested

(c) the valleys are cooler than the ridges

(d) accessibility is easier on the ridge tops

Ans. (c)

9. The first district in India to have telephones in all its villages is

(b) Nellore

(c) Gurdaspur

(d) Ahmednagar

Ans. (a)

10.The city of Surat is situated on the bank of the river

(a) Krishna

(b) Kaveri

(c) Tapti

(d) Godavari

Ans. (c)
11. What does Yugoslavia mean?
a. The land of the rising sun
b. The land of the midnight sun
c. The land of the Southern Slavs
d. The land of Yahoos
Ans. C

12. Which state of USA was once part of Russia?
b. Louisiana
c. Florida
d. California
Ans. A

13. What did the Greeks call the present day Amu River in Iran?
a. Indus
b. Ganges
c. Jhelum
d. Oxus
Ans. D

14. Which of these is not a metal?
a. Gold
b. Diamond
c. Silver
d. Copper
Ans. B

15. Who won Wimbledon Men’s Singles Championship in 2011?
b. Andy Roddick
c. Roger Federer
d. Novak Djokovic
Ans. D

16. Who won the Olympic Gold Medal for hockey in 1980 Moscow Olympics?
a. India
b. UK
c. USA
d. USSR
Ans. A

17. What name was taken by Cardinal Joseph Sarto when he became pope?
a. John XXIII
b. Paul VI
c. Benedict XVI
d. Pius X
Ans. D

18. How many metres is one mile?
a. 1000
b. 100
c. 1609.344
d. 1705.212
Ans. C

19. What are vertebrates that live both under water and on land called?
a. Amphibians
b. Cats
c. Grasshoppers
d. Frogs
Ans. A

20. Who is the first President of the United States of America?
a. George Washington
b. Thomas Jefferson
c. James Monroe
Ans. A

21. Who was born on August 15, 1769?
a. Winston Churchill
b. Queen Victoria
c. Napoleon Bonaparte
d. George V
Ans. C

22. Which city was previously known as Salisbury?
a. London
b. Paris
c. Harare
d. New York
Ans. C

23. Who is the author of “The Namesake”?
a. Jhumpa Lahiri
b. Tennessee Williams
c. Ian Fleming
d. Salman Rushdie
Ans. A

24. What is the number of squares on a chess board?
a. 72
b. 64
c. 32
d. 48
Ans. B

25. Which city was the summer capital of India during British Rule?
a. Nainital
b. Darjeeling
c. Simla
d. Ooty
Ans. C

26. The name of which city was changed to Petrograd and Leningrad?
a. Moscow
b. Tashkent
c. Kiev
d. St. Petersburg
Ans. D

27. Which film is in Aramaic and Latin?
a. The Ten Commandments
b. Ben-Hur
c. Apocalypto
d. The Passion of the Christ
Ans. D

28. Which of the following books is not part of Pentateuch?
a. Genesis
b. Numbers
c. Ruth
d. Exodus
Ans. C

29. Which of the following countries is landlocked?
a. Brazil
b. Cuba
c. Bolivia
d. Colombia
Ans. C

30. Which language is written in five scripts?
a. Hindi
b. Urdu
c. Konkani
d. Telugu
Ans. C

31. Which British monarch in 20th century was not crowned?
a. George V
b. Edward VIII
c. George VI
d. William IV
Ans. B

32. Who was told “Beware the Ides of March.”?
a. Julius Caesar
b. Augustus Caesar
c. Mark Antony
d. Cleopatra
Ans. A

33. Which country’s postal stamps have the name Helvetia?
a. Finland
b. Iceland
c. Switzerland
d. Swaziland
Ans. C

34. Yen is the currency of which country?
a. Japan
b. China
c. Nepal
d. Bhutan
Ans. A

35. Which is the national flower of Australia?
a. Red Rose
b. Lotus
c. Tulip
d. Golden Wattle
Ans. D
36 Literacy in India according to 2011 census:
(A) 74.06 %
(C)76.08%
(D)77.01%

37. Name of the director of the film ” The dirty picture” which got thumbs up from film critics recently:
(A) Ekta kapoor
(B) Abhinav Kashyap
(C) Gurvinder Singh

38.Besides USA and France, India has a Civil Nuclear Deal with

a) Britain
c) Germany
d) Australia

39.Name the gene found by the neuroscientists, which could help in creating and altering memory.

a) Mpas 4
c) Npas 3
d) Mpas 2

5.Which of the following is NOT a missile developed by the Defence Research and Development. Organisation (DRDO) ?

a) Shaurya
c) Brahmos
d) Agni

40.Who is crowned Miss India Earth 2012?
B) Vanya mishra
C)Rochelle maria rao
D)Erica fernandez

41 Highest divident paying company
a. TCS
b. Reliance Mobile
c. ITC

42. Recently RBI changed repo rate in % :
a. 7.75%
b. 7.5%
d.8.5%

43 Pradeep Saurabh bagged the prestigious International Indu Sharma Katha Samman-2012 for his novel…………..
a) Teesari Aankh
c) Teesri Manjil
d) Teesri Tasveer

44. The Union cabinet of India on 22 December 2011 approved __ percent share for minorities within the 27% OBC quota in jobs and university seats.

b) 5.6
c) 3.4
d) 5
Placement Paper
IBPS Specialists officers IT -Computer based questions, IBPS Specialists officers largest collection of aptitude ,reasoning general awareness, Professional Knowledge questions with answers

1. You can use the formula pallette to

A) format cells containing numbers
B) create and edit formula containing functions-Answer
C) enter assumptions data
D) copy a range of cells
2. When a range is selected, how can you activate the previous cell?

A) Press the Alt key
B) Press Tab
C) Press Enter
3. Which tool you will use to join some cells and place the content at the middle of joined cell?

A) From Format Cells dialog box click on Merge Cells check box
B) From Format Cells dialog box select the Centered alignment
C) From Format Cells dialog box choose Merge and Center check box
D) Click on Merge and Center tool on formatting toolbar-Answer
4. Tab scroll buttons are place on Excel screen

A) towards the bottom right corner
B) towards the bottom left corner-Answer
C) towards the top right corner
D) towards the top left corner
5. The Name box on to the left of formula bar

A) shows the name of workbook currently working on
B) shows the name of worksheet currently working on
C) shows the name of cell or range currently working on-Answer
D) None of above
6. Each excel file is a workbook that contains different sheets. Which of the following can not be a sheet in workbook?

A) work sheet
B) chart sheet
C) module sheet
7. Which of the following is not the correct method of editing the cell content?

B) Press the F2 key
C) Click the formula bar
D) Double click the cell
8. You can merge the main document with data source in Excel. In mail merge operation, Word is usually

A) server
B) source
D) none
9. How can you update the values of formula cells if Auto Calculate mode of Excel is disabled?

A) F8
C) F10
D) F11
10. You want to set such that when you type Baishakh and drag the fill handle, Excel should produce Jestha, Aashadh and so on. What will you set to effect that?

B) Auto Fill Options
C) Fill Across Worksheet
D) Fill Series
11. Where can you change automatic or manual calculation mode in Excel?

A) Double CAL indicator on status bar
B) Go to Tools >> Options >> Calculation and mark the corresponding radio button-Answer
C) Both of above
D) None of above
12. How can you show or hide the gridlines in Excel Worksheet?

A) Go to Tools >> Options >> View tab and mark or remove the check box named Gridline
B) Click Gridline tool on Forms toolbar
D) None of above
13. Which of the following Excel screen components can NOT be turned on or off?

A) Formula Bar
B) Status Bar
C) Tool Bar
14. What happens when you press Ctrl + X after selecting some cells in Excel?

A) The cell content of selected cells disappear from cell and stored in clipboard
B) The cells selected are marked for cutting-Answer
C) The selected cells are deleted and the cells are shifted left
D) The selected cells are deleted and cells are shifted up
15. Which of the following option is not available in Paste Special dialog box?

B) Subtract
C) Divide
16. Which command will you choose to convert a column of data into row?

A) Cut and Paste
B) Edit >> Paste Special >> Transpose-Answer
C) Both of above
D) None of above
17. It is acceptable to let long text flow into adjacent cells on a worksheet when

A) data will be entered in the adjecent cells
C) there is no suitable abbrevition for the text
D) there is not time to format the text
18. Which of the cell pointer indicates you that you can make selection?

B) small thin plus icon
C) Mouse Pointer with anchor at the tip
D) None of above
19. Which of the cell pointer indicates that you can fill series?

A) Doctor’s symbol (Big Plus)
C) Mouse Pointer with anchor at the tip
D) None of above
20. Which of the cell pointer indicate that you can move the content to other cell?

A) Doctor’s symbol (Big Plus)
C) Mouse Pointer with anchor at the tip
D) None of above

21. What function displays row data in a column or column data in a row?

b. Index

c. Transpose

d. Rows

22. When you insert an Excel file into a Word document, the data are

b. Placed in a word table

d. Embedded

Correct Answer: b. Placed in a word table

23. Except for the …… function, a formula with a logical function shows the word “TRUE” or “FALSE” as a result

a. IF

b. AND

c. OR

d. NOT

24. Macros are “run” or executed from the ….. menu.

a. Insert

b. Frmat

c. Tools

d. Data

25. You can open the consolidate dialog box byt choosing Consolidate from the ….. menu.

a. Insert

b. Format

c. Tools

d. Data

26. Each excel file is called a workbook because

a. It can contain text and data

b. It can be modified

c. It can contain many sheets including worksheets and chart sheets

d. You have to work hard to create it

27. Which types of charts can excel produce?

a. Line graphs and pie charts only

b. Only line graphs

c. Bar charts, line graphs and pie charts

d. Bar charts and line graphs only

28. How are data organized in a spreadsheet?

a. Lines and spaces

b. Layers and planes

c. Rows and columns

d. Height and width

29. What does the VLOOKUP function do?

a. Looks up text that contain ‘v’

b. Checks whether text is the same in one cell as in the next

c. Finds related records

d. All of above

30. Gridlines

a. May be turned off for display but turned on for printing

b. May be turned on or off for printing

c. The be turned off for display and printing

d. a, b and c

31. You can print only an embedded chart by

a. Moving the chart to a chart sheet before you print.

b. Formatting the chart before you print

c. Selecting the chart before you print

d. a and c

32. Which of the following is a correct order of precedence in a formula calculation?

a. Multiplication and division, exponential positive and negative value

b. Multiplication and division, positive and negative values, addition and subtraction

c. Addition and subtraction, positive and negative values, exponentiation

d. None of above

33. A function inside another function is called a ….. function.

a. Nested

b. Round

c. Sum

d. Text

34. How should you print a selected area of a worksheet, if you’ll want to print a different area next time?

a. On the file menu, point to print area, and then click set print area.

b. On the file menu, click print, and then click selection under print what

d. All of above

35. Youar German supplier still invoices for parts in deutsche marks. How can you have Excel convert those sums to Euros?

a. On the Insert menu, click Symbol and from the currency symbols subset, select the Euro sign.

b. On the tools menu, click Add-Ins, and select the Euro Currency Tools check box

c. Apply a selected background color

d. All of above

36. Which function calculates your monthly mortage payment?

a. PMT (payments)

b. NPER (number of periods)

c. PV (present value)

d. All of above

37. If you are working in English (US), Chinese or Japanese, Excel 2002 can speak data as you enter it, to help you verify accuracy. How do you activate this feature?

a. Point to speech on the tools menu, and then click show text to speech toolbar.

b. Click validation on the data menu

c. Point to speech on the tools menu, and then click speech recognition

d. All of above

38. Which of the following methods can not be used to enter data in a cell?

a. Pressing an arrow key

b. Pressing the tab key

c. Pressing the Esc key

d. Clicking the enter button to the formula bar

39. Which of the following will not set text in selected cells to italics?

a. Pressing Ctrl + I on the keyboard

b. Using the Tools – Wizard – Web Form menu item

c. Using the Format – Cells – Font menu item

d. None of the above

40. Which of the following methods cannot be used to edit the content of cell?

a. Pressing the Alt key

b. Clicking the formula bar

c. Pressing F2

d. Double clicking the cell

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IBPS General Awareness/Computer Knowledge/Marketing

1. Balmiki Prasad Singh has taken over as the Governor of

1. Goa
2. Bihar
3. Meghalaya
4. Sikkim
5. None of these

2. The Paralympic Games in September,2008 were held at

1. Tokyo
2. New York
4. Stockholm
5. Beijing

3. Which of the following is/are true about the National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) which was in news recently ?

A. The NRAA was set-up in 1995 at the initiative of the then Prime Minister J. L. Nehru.
B. NRAA was established to co-ordinate the work of five ministries associated with the development of rainfed areas.
C. NRAA is now converted into a corporation of the same name.

1. Only (A)
2. Only (B)
3. Only (C)
4. All (A), (B) and (C)
5. None of the above

4. Daiichi Sankyo has recently taken over which of the following companies /Corporations of Indian base?

1. Jet Airways
2. Ranbaxy
3. Bhilai Steel Plant
4. National Textiles Corporation
5. None of the above

5. The recent report on Global Development Finance released by the World Bank has projected India’s GDP growth rate at which of the following levels ?

1. 5%
2. 6%
3. 7%
4. 8%
5. 9%

6. Which of the following cities is placed at the top of the list of cities found suitable for “Global Commerce” compiled by the Master Cards ? (Results of the survey were published recently in various financial newspapers).

1. London
2. New York
3. Tokyo
4. Beijing
5. Mumbai

7. The final results of the last economic census conducated in India in the year 2005were published recently. Which of the following statement(s) is/are True about the economic census ?

A. Economic Census is basically the data pertaining to growth in employment opportunities.
B) Economic Census is conducted every fifth year by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
C) Only non-agricultural establishments are covered in Economic Census.

1. Only (A)
2. Only (B)
3. Only (C)
4. All (A), (B) and (C)
5. None of these

8. The Govt. of India is in the process of bringing some changes and amendments in the existing Money Laundering Act. What are the changes suggested in the law?

A. Some payment gateways like Master and Visa Cards are required to be discontinued with immediate effect.
B. Money Transfer Services like Western Union should be brought under the purview of the Act.
C. A New Financial Intelligence Unit will be set-up to keep a check on huge cash transactions.

1. Only (A)
2. Only (B)
3. Only (C)
4. All (A), (B) and C
5. None of these

9. The New Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for the banks is commonly known as

1. Credit Policy
2. Monetary Policy
3. KYC Norms
4. Basel Accord
5. None of these

10. As we all know Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of the deposit banks keep in reserve with them. This ratio is also known as

1. Repo Rate
2. Reverse Repo Rate
3. SLR
4. Liquidity Ratio
5. None of the above
11. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The Shape of the Beast” ?

1. Arundhati Roy
2. V. S. Naipaul
3. Salman Rushdie
4. Chetan Bhagat
5. None of these

12. Russia has recently made a ceasefire Agreement with which of the following nations ?

1. Ukraine
2. Kazakhstan
3. Coatia
4. Georgia
5. None of these

13. The Govt. of India has decided to build a Nuclear Power Plant in which of the following North Eastern States ?

1. Manipur
2. Asom
3. Meghalaya
5. None of these

14. ” Lisbon Treaty” is the treaty accepted/adopted by the members of which of the following organizations recently ?

1. NATO
2. SAARC
3. European Union
4. Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
5. None of the above

15. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing

1. Treasury Bills
2. Memorandum of Association
3. Kisan Vikas Patra
4. National Saving Certificate
5. Commercial Papers

16. Sending an E-mail is similar to

1. Writing a letter
2. drawing a picture
3. talking on the phone
4. sending a package
5. None of these

17. What is the main folder on a storage device called ?

1. Platform
2. Interface
3. Root directory
4. Device driver
5. None of these

18. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the

1. Mouse
2. hand
3. light
4. cursor
5. None of these

19. What is correcting errors in a program called ?

1. Interpreting
2. Translating
3. Debugging
4. Complilng
5. None of these

20. A ——– is an organised collection of data about a single entity
1. file
2. library
3. database
4. dictionary
5. None of these

21. The type of software that controls the internal operations in the computer, and controls how the computer words with alol its parts is which of the following ?
1. Shareware
2. Operating system software
3. Application software
4. Public Domain software
5. None of the above

22. A word processor would most likely be used to do which of the following ?

1. Keep an account of money spent
2. Maintain an inventory
3. Type a biography
4. Do a computer search in the media centre
5. None of the above

23. In addition to keying data directly into a database, data entry can be done from a(n)

1. input form
2. table
3. field
4. data dictionary
5. None of these

24. Something which has easily-understood instructions is said to be

1. user friendly
2. information
3. word processing
4. icon
5. None of these

25. What is an E-Mail attachment ?

1. A receipt sent by the recipient
2. A separate document from another program sent along with an E-mail message
3. A malicious parasite that feeds off of your messages and destroys the contents
4. A list of CC : or BCC: recipients
5. None of above

26. What happens when you boot up a PC ?

1. Portions of the operating system are copies from disk into memory
2. Portions of the operating system are copied from memory onto disk
3. Portions of the operating system are compiled
4. Portions of the operating system are emulated
5. None of the above.

27. Manipulating data to create information is known as
1. feedback
2. Programming
3. Processing
4. Analysis
5. None of the above

28. A hard copy of a file created on a computer refers to data

1. Saved on a floppy disk
2. printed on a printer
3. backed up on a tape drive
4. sent as an e-mail
5. None of the above

29. The database administrator’s function in an Organization is

1. to be responsible for the more technical aspects of managing the information contained in organizational database.
2. to be responsible for the executive level aspects of decisions regarding the information management.
3. to show the relationship among entity classes in a data warehouse.
4. to define which data mining tools must be used to extract data.
5. None of the above.

30. Each of the following is a true statement except

1. on-line systems continually update the master file
2. in on-line processing, the user enters transactions into a device that is directly connected to the computer system.
3. batch processing is still used today in older systems or in some systems with massive volumes of transactions
4. information in batch systems will always be up-to-date
5. None of the above

31. In a customer database, a customer’s surname would be keyed into a

1. row
2. text field
3. rocord
4. computer field
5. None of these

32. A set of interrelated components that collect, process, store and distribute information to support decision making and control in an organization best defines

1. Communication technology
2. a network
3. an information system
4. hardware
5. None of the above

33. Control in design of an information system is used to

1. inspect the system and check that it is built as per specifications
2. ensure that the system processes data as it was designed to and that the results are reliable
3. ensure privacy of data processed by it
4. protect data from accidental or intentional loss
5. None of the above

34. One of the following is not included in the 7Ps of marketing. Find the same.

1. Product
2. Price
3. Production
4. Promotion
5. None of these

35. Home Loans can be best canvassed among

1. Builders
2. Flat owners
3. Land developers
4. Agriculturists
5. Individuals wanting to buy a flat or house

36. CRM (Customer Relationship Management) is

1. A Pre-sales Activity
2. A tool for lead generation
3. An ongoing daily activity
4. The task of a DSA
5. All of the above

37. One of the following is not involved in the Growth Strategies of a Company

1. Horizontal integration
2. Vertical integration
3. Diversification
4. Intensification
5. None of the above

38. SME means

1. Selling and Marketing Establishment
2. Selling and Managing Employee
3. Sales and Marketing Entity
4. Small and Medium Enterprises
5. None of the above

39. A successful ‘Blue Ocean Strategy’ requires
1. Effective communication
2. Innovative skills
3. Motivation
4. All of the above
5. None of the above

40. Bancassurance can be sold to

1. All the banks
2. All insurance companies
3. Insurance Agents
4. All existing and prospective bank customers
5. All of the above

41. Data mining means analyzing the data stored with

1. The DSA
2. The front-office-staff
3. The back-office staff
4. The customers
5. None of these

42. Find the correct statement.

1. Marketing is redundant in monopolistic companies.
2. Performance of sales person depends on the amount of incentives paid
3. Marketing is influenced by peer performance
4. An increase in market share indicates fall in business volume
5. A Mission statement is part of the Company’s Prospectus

43. Storing same data in many places is called

1. iteration
2. concurrency
3. redundancy
4. enumeration
5. None of these

44. Which of the following is the first step in the ‘ transaction processing cycle’. which captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or at an electronic commerce website ?

1. Document and report generation
2. Database maintenance
3. Transaction processing
4. Data Entry
5. None of the above

45. Cross selling is the basic function of

1. All employers
2. All employees
3. All sales persons
4. Planning Department
5. All of these

46. Cross-selling is not effective for which one of the following products ?

1. Debit cards
2. Savings accounts
3. Internet banking
4. Pension loans
5. Personal loans

47. The target group for SME loans is

2. All Professionals
3. All SSIs
4. All of these
5. None of these
48. One of the following is not a target group for Savings Accounts

1. Salaried persons
2. Doctors
3. Public Servants
4. Insurance agents
5. Loss making companies

49. Rural bank marketing has good scope for
1. Industrial loans
2. Corporate loans
3. NRI loans
4. Tractor loans
5. All of these

50. ASBA accounts are a type of

1. Loan accounts
2. Credit card facilities
3. Savings accounts
4. Export-Import remittances
5. Internet banking

IBPS Clerk Question Paper

IBPS CWE examination for clerical cadre question paper written test pattern consists 5 sections of 40 questions from each sections IBPS CWE clerical these sections included in questions papers are Numerical Ability,Reasoning,English Language General Awareness special reference to banking industry and computer knowledge. For every wrong answer given by the candidate there will be deduction of 0.25 of the arks assigned to that question as penalty.

Fresher world IBPS CWE Clerical -Sample placement papers section prepared huge collection of solved IBPS CWE model Question papers with detailed explanations and answers,IBPS previous years solved question papers, also provide IBPS CWE Clerical cadre Free on line Mock tests. These sample, model solved question papers and mock tests of IBPS cwe clerical will be very helpful for the students to prepare for upcoming IBPS CWE clerical examinations..

1 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ADIC using each letter only once in each word?

(1) None

(2) One (Ans)

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) Violin

(2) Harp

(3) Guitar

(4) Flute (Ans)

(5) Sitar

3 In a certain language ‘give me more’ is coded as ‘7 3 5’, ‘she has more’ is coded as ‘9 7 1’ and ‘she asked me gently’ is coded as ‘6 3 2 1’. Which of the following is the code for ‘give’ in that language?

(1) 5 (Ans)

(2) 7

(3) 6

(4) 9

(5) 1

Explanation : give me more ? 7 3 5

she has more ? 9 7 1

she asked me gently = 6 3 2 1

So, give = 5

4. If each of the vowels in the word GOLIATHS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be sixth from the left of the new arrangement thus formed?

(1) S

(2) P (Ans)

(3) G

(4) J

(5) F

Explanation : After changing the word GOLIATHS will be F P K J B S G R

The new word will be in alphabetical order

B F G J K P R S

So, sixth letter from left = P

5. In a certain language ‘WEAK’ is coded as 4\$9?’ and REST’ is coded as 7\$8#’ and ‘WREK’ is ceded as ‘4\$?7’. How will ‘KEWRA’ be coded in the same code?

(1) 7 4 \$ ? #

(2) ? 7 \$ 8 #

(3) # ? 9 7 4

(4) \$ ? 7 9 4 (Ans)

(5) 4 7 8 ? \$

Explanation : WEAK ? 4 \$ 9 8, REST ? 7 \$ 8 #

and WREK ? 4 \$ 8 7

So, KEWRA ? 4 \$ 9 8 7

6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FORMATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two (Ans)

(4) Three

(5) More than three

Explanation : FORMATION ?

F _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ N, ON

Ans Two

7. If the digits in the number 79246358 are arranged in descending order from left to right, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left in the new arrangement?

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4 (Ans)

(5) 5

Explanation : In descending order the number 79246358 will be 98765432

Difference between 8 and 4

= 8 – 4 = 4

8. ‘Music’ is related to ‘Notes’ in the same way as ‘Language’ is related to _____

(1) Sentences

(2) Combination

(3) Grammar

(4) Alphabets (Ans)

(5) Syntax

Explanation : Music ? Notes

So, language ? Alphabet

If ‘P * Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’.

If ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’.

If ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’.

If ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’.

If ‘P > Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’.

If ‘P < Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’.

9. In the expression ‘A x B + R > S’ how is S related to A?

(1) Daughter

(2) Son

(3) Niece (Ans)

(4) Nephew

(5) Cannot be determined

Explanation : A x B + R > S

Which of the following means P is the father of S ?

(1) P x Q < R * S (Ans)

(2) R x P < Q – S

(3) R + S > Q + P

(4) S + Q – R * P

(5) Cannot be determined

10. In the expression ‘P + Q> A – B’ how is P related to B?

(1) Daughter

(2) Son

(3) Niece (Ans)

(4) Nephew

(5) Cannot be determined

Explanation : P + Q > A – B

sister son brother

So, P is niece of B

11. Which of the following means D is the aunt of C?

(1) D > B * A * C

(2) D + B – C * A (Ans)

(3) D – B – A x C

(4) D + B x A x C

(5) None of these

Explanation : D + B – C * A

12. In the expression ‘W > X < Y * Z ‘how is W related to Z?

(1) Nephew (Ans)

(2) Uncle

(3) Son

(4) Brother-in-law

(5) None of these

Explanation : W > X < Y * Z

13. If it is possible to mark only one meaningful word with the first, fourth, fifth and tenth letters of the word TELEVISION, which of the fallowing would be the second letter of that word from the right end? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.

(1) X

(2) L

(3) N (Ans)

(4) E

(5) Y

Explanation : The First, fourth, fifth and tenth letters of the word TELEVISION are

= T, E, V, N

useful will be VENT.

so, second letter from right is N

14. In a certain code TRUMP is written SUTQN. How is FIRED written in that code?

(1) GJQEF

(2) JGEQF

(3) JQFEF

(4) JGQFE

(5) JGQEF (Ans)

1. Which of the following bodies tightened the norms for foreign exchange risk cover in India mentioning that only companies with a networth of Rs 200 crore can use derivatives to hedge against risk of volatility in currency rates?
a. IMF
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. SEBI
d. Union Ministry of Finance
Ans: b

2. Which body in India finally provided tax exemption on the 9.5 per cent interest income on PF deposits for 2010-11?
a. Reserve Bank of India
b. Income Tax Department
c. Employees? Provident Fund Organisation
d. Corporate Affairs Ministry
Ans: b

3. (1) The report on Customer Service in Banks by a committee chaired by M. Damodaran, former Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that was released on 3 July 2011 recommended an increased deposit insurance cover of Rs.5 lakh so as to encourage individuals to keep all their deposits in banks.
(2) The panel also suggested blocking of lost ATM cards through SMS and immediate restoration of funds in case of non-dispensation of cash at an ATM within 5 working days.
Which of the above is not true?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. None of the above
Ans: b

4. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?
a. 7%
b. 7.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.5%
Ans: c
5. Which bank posted a 99 per cent drop in net profit at Rs 21 crore for the fourth quarter ended 31 March 2011 against Rs 1867 crore during the corresponding period in 2010?
a. Indian Overseas Bank
b. State Bank of India
c. Bank of India
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b

6. Who did global payments processing company MasterCard appoint as the General Manager, South Asia and Country President, India?
b. Vicky Bindra
c. Tunde Lemo
d. Ajay Banga
Ans: a
7. Government of India on 19 July 2011 appointed Usha Ananthasubramanian, former general manager of Bank of Baroda (BoB) as executive director of which public sector lender?
a. Central Bank of India
b. Punjab National Bank
c. United Bank of India
d. Gramin Bank
Ans: b
8. Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray into the life insurance segment.
a. Syndicate Bank
b. Punjab National Bank
c. Corporation Bank
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b
9. Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Dewan Housing Finance Corporation (DHFL) under which DHFL will distribute home loans to Yes Bank’s customers?
a. Canara Bank
b. ABN Amro bank
c. Yes Bank
d. HSBC
Ans: c
10. Which life insurance company in India launched a new non-linked health insurance plan, Jeevan Arogya?
a. HDFC Standard Life Insurance Co. Ltd
b. Life Insurance Corporation of India
c. IDBI Fortis Life Insurance Company Ltd.
d. SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd
Ans: b
IBPS Question-Paper
IBPS Clerk Previous Year Question Paper

Reasoning

1. In a certain code ?BUILT? is written as ?5#32@? and ?TRIBE? is written as ?@9345©?. How is ?RULE? written in that code?
(5) None of these

2. How many meaningful English can be formed, starting was S, with the second, the fourth, the fifth and the eight letters of the word PERISHED, using each letter only once in each word? (To be counted from left)
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. The positions of how many digits in the numbers 837 912 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ? (from left to right)
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. How many such pairs of letters are three in the word STREAMING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (in both forward and backward directions)
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

5. In a certain code ?CLEAR? is written as ?SBFMD? and ?BONDS? is written as ?TEOPC?. How is ?STALE? written in that code?
(1) DKZSR
(2) BUTFM
(3) TUBMF
(4) FMBUT
(5) None of these

6-10. Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below:
R @ 2 9 T V A Y 5 © # J 1 P 8 Q \$ E 3 * H % 6 W 4 I ? U Z

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(2) E Q *
(3) W I %
(4) 9 V @
(5) 1 # ?

7. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the nineteenth element from the right end?
(1) P
(2) V
(3) W
(4)8
(5) None of these

8. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately prepared by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

9. If the positions of the last eighteen elements in the above arrangement are reserved, which of te following will be the seventeenth from the left end?
(1) E
(2) P
(3) W
(4)6
(5) None of these

10. How many such vowels are three in the above arrangement , each of which is either immediately followed by a symbol or immediately preceded by a symbol?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

11-15. Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the center not necessarily in the same order. F is fourth to the left of A and second to the right of C. B is second to the left of A , and A is to the immediate right of G. E who is not an immediate neighbour of B is fourth to the left of D.

11. Which of the following is correct?
(1) F is third to the left of B
(2) H is third to the left of D
(3) C is third to the left of B
(4) E is third to the left of F
(5) All are correct

12. What is H?s position with respect to G?
(1) Fifth to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Third to the right
(4) Fifth to the left
(5) Fourth to the left

13. Who is second to the right of E?
(1) C
(2) H
(3) G
(4) A

14. Who is the immediate right of F?
(1) D
(2) H
(3) B
(4) C
(5) None of these

15. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of A?
(1) EB
(2) GC
(3) EG
(4) ED
(5) None of these

16-20. In the following questions, the symbols ©, ? , \$, * and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

?P ? Q? means ?P is not greater than Q?.
?P % Q? means ?P is not smaller than Q?.
?P © Q? means ?P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
?P * Q? means ?P is smaller than Q?.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) is if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) is either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

16. Statements : R \$ J,J % M,M © K
Conclusions : I. K © J, II. K * J

17. Statements : D ? R,M \$ R,M © F
Conclusions : I.F \$ D, II. F \$ R

18. Statements :H © F,F \$ R,R * K
Conclusions : I.R * H, II. K \$ F

19. Statements : B % D,D * T,T ? R
Conclusions : I.B \$ T, II. R \$ D

20. Statements :M % N,N * A, A \$ B
Conclusions : I. B * N, II. A \$ M

Computer Knowledge

1. The operation of combining two cells into a single cell in Excel is referred to as _______
(1) Join Cells
(2) Merge Cells
(3) Merge Table
(4) Join Table
(5) None of these

2. Which of the following can be used to store a large number of files in a small amount of storage space?
(2) File copying
(4) File compatibility
(5) File compression

3. In a computer most processing takes place in ________
(1) Memory
(2) RAM
(3) Motherboard
(4) CPU
(5) None of these

4. Data is organized in a worksheet as
(1) charts and diagrams
(2) rows and columns
(3) tables and boxes
(4) graphs
(5) None of these

5. Which of the following is an example of a binary number?
(1) 6AH1
(2)1 0 01 01
(3) 00 5
(4) ABCD
(5) 23456

6. Spell Check will find errors in which of the following?
(1) Today is a rainy day
(2) Today is a rainy a day
(3) Is a rainy
(4) Rainy today a day
(5) None of these

7. Which of the following is not a storage medium?
(1) hard disk
(2) flash drive
(3) DVD
(4) CD
(5) Keyboard

8. In Excel, when the contents and attributes of a cell or range of cells have to be erased using the menu, the user must ________
(1) Select the cells , choose Edit , and select Clear, the All
(2) Select the cells, and click delete on the keyboard
(3) Select the cells, choose Tools,and select Clear, the Formats
(4) Select the cells, choose Tools,and select Formula Audit, the Delete
(5) None of these

9. The computer abbreviation KB usually means _________
(1) Key Block
(2) Kernel Boot
(3) Kilo Byte
(4) Kit Bit
(5) None of these

10. If an Excel Worksheet is to be linked for use in PowerPoint presentation, the following should be clicked
(1) Edit, Paste Special
(2) Edit, Paste
(3) Edit, Copy
(4) File, Copy
(5) None of these

11. RAM stands for ________
(1) Random Access Memory
(4) Remote Access Machine
(5) None of these

12. Which of the following is hardware and not software?
(1) Excel
(2) Printer driver
(3) Operating System
(4) PowerPoint
(5) Control Unit

13. In Word, which menu would the user select to print a document?
(1) Tools
(2) File
(3) View
(4) Window
(5) None of these

14. Which of the following is not true about computer files?
(1) They are collections of data saved to a storage medium.
(2) Every file has a filename.
(3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate the data it was created
(4) Usually files contain data.
(5) None of these

15. The common name for a modulator- demodulator is ___________
(1) modem
(2) joiner
(3) networker
(4) connector
(5) demod

16. What do you see when you click the right mouse button?
(1) The same effect as the left click
(3) No effect
(4) A mouse cannot be right clicked
(5) Computer goes to sleep mode

17. In order to choose the font for a sentence in a WORD document
(1) select Fond in the Format menu
(2) select Font in the Edit menu
(3) select Font in the Tools menu
(4) select Font in the Insert menu
(5) None of these

18. The ALU performs operations.
(1) logarithm-based
(2) ASCII
(3) algorithm-based
(4) arithmetic
(5) None of these

19. Excel is a program that is used to prepare a _________
(1) Database
(2) Text Document
(4) Slide Presentation
(5) None of these

20. ______ consists of volatile chips that temporarily store data or instructions.
(1) CPU
(2) ROM
(3) RMA
(4) RAM
(5) None of these

Numerical Ability

1. 10.8 × 5.5 × 8.4 = ?
(1) 458.69
(2)489.96
(3) 498.96
(4)485.69
(5) None of these

2. 45 ÷ 5 – 0.5 = ?
(1) 10
(2)12
(3) 9.5
(4)8.5
(5) None of these

3. 3.5 × (60 ÷ 2.5) = ?
(1) 62
(2)96
(3) 74
(4)88
(5) None of these

4.(4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4)5 × (4 × 4 × 4)8 ÷ (4)3 = (64)?
(1) 17
(2)10
(3) 16
(4)11
(5) None of these

5. 5 × ? = 8484 ÷ 4
(1) 444.2
(2)424.2
(3) 442.2
(4)422.2
(5) None of these

6. 17059 – 2350 + 1936 = × 50
(1) 123.6
(2)132.3
(3) 132.6
(4)123.9
(5) None of these

7. 16% of 550 ÷ ?% of 550 = 2.5
(1) 5.64
(2)8.11
(3) 7.04
(4)6.08
(5) None of these

8. 8648 – 7652 = ? × 40
(1) 24.7
(2)28.9
(3) 27.4
(4)25.9
(5) None of these

9. 22% of 364 – ? = 23
(1) 50.02
(2)57.08
(3) 53.16
(4)59.14
(5) None of these

10. 683-46 – 227.39 – 341.85 = ?
(1) 114.22
(2)141.22
(3) 144.22
(4)112.22
(5) None of these

11. 14.5% of 608 = ?
(1) 88.16
(2)86.18
(3) 81.68
(4)86.88
(5) None of these

12. 840 ÷ 40 ÷ 0.5 = ?
(1) 8.5
(2)21
(3) 10.5
(4)42
(5) None of these

13. 750.0003 ÷ 19.999 = ?
(1) 49
(2)18
(3) 22
(4)45
(5) 38

14. 6888.009 – 487.999 – 87.989 = ?
(1) 6000
(2)6570
(3) 6430
(4)6200
(5) 6310

15. (9.5)2 = ?
(1) 75
(2)90
(3) 125
(4)110
(5) 80

16. 5454 ÷ 54 ÷ 5 = ?
(1) 15
(2)25
(3) 30
(4)20
(5) None of these

17. ? -5 = 2209
(1) 2704
(2) (52)2
(3) 52
(4)52
(5) None of these

18. 3 women and 18 children together take 2 days to complete a piece ofwork. How many will 9 children alone take to complete the piece of work alone can complete the piece of work in 3 days?
(1) 9
(2)7
(3) 5
(4)6
(5) None of these

19. 129. The average weight of 21 boys was recorded as 64 kgs. If the weight of the teacher was added, the average increased by one kg. What was the teachers? weight?
(1) 86 kgs
(2)64 kgs
(3) 72 kgs
(4)98 kgs
(5) None of these

20. The perimeter of a square is twice the perimeter of a rectangle . If the perimeter of the square is 72 cms and the length of the rectangle is 12 cms, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?
(1) 9 cms
(2)12 cms
(3) 18 cms
(4)3 cms
(5) None of these

English Language

1-5. In each of these questions , two sentences (i) and (ii) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it . Five words (1) ,(2),( 3),(4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one first at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.
1. I . Boats take more time going against the ________ of the river.
II . She keeps herself abreast of ________ events.
(1) flow
(2) latest
(3) water
(4) all
(5) current

2. I . While trying to open the door, the ______ broke.
II . It is not difficult to ________ tricky situations.
(1) handle
(2) knob
(3) bracket
(4) overcome
(5) win

3. I . This course teaches you not to _______ to temptations.
II . We hope to increase our ________ of rice this year.
(1) succumb
(2) produce
(3) yield
(4) share
(5) submit

4. I . When you play your radio at high _______, it disturbs others.
II . We have just received a latest ______ of this encyclopedia.
(1) edition
(2) volume
(3) channel
(4) frequency
(5) pitch

5. I . It helps to rinse one’s mouth early morning with a _______ of salt and water.
II . You can always refer to this reference material to find the _________ to these problems.
(1) mixture
(3) liquid
(4) fix
(5) solution

6-10. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.

6. In terms with seating capacity, it is the third largest stadium in India.
(1) On terms with
(2) As far as
(3) In respective to terms with
(4) In terms of
(5) No correction required

7. The actor can double for the star if needed be.
(1) if need
(2) if need be
(3) while it is needed
(4) whenever needed be
(5) No correction required

8. The 1982 Asian Games brought about a major change in India.
(1) brought after
(2) bring after
(3) best resulted
(4) bring around
(5) No correction required

9. Tourism, surely has suffered given the huge social unrest in the country.
(1) giving the huge
(2) because to
(3) as the huge
(4) taken the huge
(5) No correction required

10. Combining the ongoing crisis in Europe, the data make a case for a pause in rate hike.
(1) Together
(2) Apart with
(3) Combined with
(4) Combination of
(5) No correction required

11-13. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning of the word printed in bold
11. clearance
(1) cleaning
(2) permission
(3) sale
(4) remedy
(5) clarity

12. turn
(1) throw
(2) chance
(3) send
(4) transform
(5) rotate

13. potential
(1) intelligence
(2) aptitude
(3) possibility
(4) portion
(5) will

14-15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold
14. feasible
(1) unattended
(2) physical
(3) practical
(4) unviable
(5) wasteful

15. indifference
(1) interest
(2) difference
(3) ignorance
(4) rule-bound
(5) insignificance
IBPS PO CWE and IBPS Clerical CWE General awareness questions

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Latest Current Affairs for IBPS PO (CWE),IBPS Clerical and IBPS Gramin Bank – 2012 February,March and April 2012

Reserve Bank of India- Monetary and Credit Policies (1999-2012)
Dr. D. Subbarao, RBI Governor announces the First Quarter Review of Monetary Policy for the year 2011-12 …
Bank Rate & CRR retained at 6.0%.However policy repo rate increased by 50 basis points
RBI increase the repo rate under LAF by 25 basis points to 7.5 per cent in Mid-Quarter Monetary Policy Review: June 2011 .
RBI announces Annual Monetary Policy Statement for the Year 2011-12
Policy repo rates hiked 50 bps, Bank Rate & CRR retained at 6%, Savings Bank Interest increased to 4%
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Extends Liquidity Management Measures up to May 6, 2011The Reserve Bank of India releases Mid-Quarter Monetary Policy Review: March 2011RBI increases the repo & reverse repo rates by 25 basis points
Repo & Reverse Repo rates hiked by 25bp but CRR & bank rate retained at 6%
Bank Rate & CRR retained at 6.0%.However, repo & reverse repo rate increased by 25 basis points

IBPS PO (CWE) General awareness IBPS Clerical IBPS Gramin Bank General Awareness questions
General Awareness Questions
1RBI, in its annual policy for 2011-12, has estimated the wholesale price inflation at about which among the following fractions by March 2012?
(A)5%
(B)6%
(C)8%
(D)9%
Ans(B)6%
2 Who amongst the following was India’s official candidate for the post of UNO’s Secretary Gene- ral ?
(A) Mr. Shyam Saran
(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(C) Mr. Shashi Tharoor
(D) Mr. Vijay Nambiar
(E) None of these
Ans (C) Mr. Shashi Tharoor
3 In India Census is done after a gap of every____________
(A) Five years
(B) Seven years
(C) Eight years
(D) Ten years
(E) Fifteen years
Ans (D) Ten years

IBPS PO (CWE) IBPS (CWE) clerickal and IBPS (Gramin Bank)RRBs (CWE) Bank Based General Awareness Questions
4 Which of the following pheno-menon is considered responsible for ‘Global Warming’?
(A) Greenhouse Gas Effect
(B) Fox Fire
(C) Dry Farming
(E) None of these
Ans (A) Greenhouse Gas Effect
5 Which of the following Satellites recentlydedicatedtonation helps Direct to Home Television Ser-vice in India ?
(A) Matsat
(B) Edusat
(C) Insat–4b
(D) Insat–IB
(E) None of these
Ans (C) Insat–4b
6 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently raised the interest rate on savings bank deposits and the repo rate by 50 basis points (bps). In this context, consider the following:
1. CASA Ratio
2. Net Interest Margin
Which among the above of the commercial banks would be affected by the above
step taken by the Reserve Bank of India ?
(A)Only 1
(B)Only 2
(C)Both 1 & 2
(D)Neither 1 nor 2
Ans C Both1 & 2
7The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional
Investors is called?
[A]FDI
[B]Portfolio Investment
[C]NRI Investment
[D]Foreign Indirect Investment
Ans [D]Foreign Indirect Investment
8 In which year, the World Bank revised the common international poverty line to
\$1.25 at the 2005 purchasing power parity?
[A]2006
[B]2007
[C]2008
[D]2009
9As per the recent estimates, India’s overall foodgrain production is expected to be 241.56 million tonnes, which is highest ever. Which among the following shares the maximum quantity in this ?
[A]Rice
[B]Wheat
[C]Coarse cereals
[D]Maize
Ans[A]Rice
10. Recently RBI governor D Subbarao has pointed out that “recent global macro
economic developments pose some risks to domestic growth.” What does he refer to by using the term “domestic growth”?
(A)Per Capita Income
(B)Gross Domestic Product
(C)Net National product
(D)Net National Product per capita
Ans (B)Gross Domestic Product

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Latest Current Affairs for IBPS PO (CWE),IBPS Clerical and IBPS Gramin Bank – 2012 February,March and April 2012
11 Lending rates are expected to rise further in the coming months because the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to ………………….. Which among the following would fill the space correctly?
(A)Increase policy rates
(B)Decrease Policy Rates
(C)Conduct Open Market Operations
(D)Conduct Repo Auctions
Ans (A)Increase policy rates
12 .Recently we read in the newspapers that in the country , there are undoubtedly, negative risks to the fiscal deficit target of 4.6 per cent for 2011-12. Which among the following does not poses such risk to the fiscal deficit targets?
(A)The higher Fuels, Food and Fertilizers prices
(B)Burden of Subsidy
(C)Low collection of Tax Revenue
(D)Lower external commercial borrowings
Ans (D)Lower external commercial borrowings
13What was the initial growth target of the Eleventh Plan (2007-08 to 2011-12) on an average a year?
(A)7%
(B)8%
(C)9%
(D)10%
Ans (C)9%
14In the first four years of the Eleventh Plan, Indian economy expanded by which among the following fractions?
(A)8.15%
(B)8.30%
(C)8.45%
(D)8.65%
Ans (A)8.15%
15 OPEC is a group of countries which are_______
(A) exporting oil
(B) producting cotton
(C) rich and developed
(D) developing and poor
(E) nuclear powers
16Recently we read in the newspapers that World Bank has now endorsed a longstanding proposal that governments should impose a carbon levy. What is Carbon Levy?
(A)It’s a tax levied on jet and shipping fuel to finance climate change mitigation
(B)It’s a tax levied on carbon fuel
(C)It’s a tax levied on production of fossil fuel and coal
(D)It’s a tax levied on production of coal only
Ans (B)It’s a tax levied on carbon fuel
17 Sandhyarani Devi Wangkhem, was a winner of a Silver Medal in the 2010 Asian Games in Guangzhou , China . In which sports she won this medal?
(A)Shooting
(B)Taekwando
(C)Squash
(D)Wushu
Ans (D)Wushu

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18: Who is the VC and CEO of HDFC bank?
Keki Mistry
19 Which bank has entered into pact with SBI Mutual Fund?
Indian Bank
20ASBA (application Supported by Blocked Amounts) is a term used in which of the following sectors?
(a) Aviation
(b) Real Estate
(d) Capital Markets
Ans (d) Capital Markets
21Which of the following started production at India’s largest naphtha cracker project recently?
(a) ONGC
(b) Essar Oil
(d) Reliance Industries Ltd
22Which of the following is/are correctly matched after RBI’s ‘Third Quarter Review of Monetary Policy 2010-11’ on January 26, 2011?
I. Repo rate – 6.5%
II. Reserve Repo rate – 5.5%
III. Cash Reserve Ratio – 6%
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Ans (d) I, II and III
(d) Rs 902000 crore
23The union finance Ministry raised the tax collection target for
2010-11 to _________ recently.
(a) Rs 782000 crore
(b) Rs 834000 crore
(d) Rs 902000 crore
Ans(a) Rs 782000 crore
24 Which of the following became the first oil & Gas Company to find shale gas deposits in India recently?
(a) Reliance Industries Ltd.
(b) Carin India
(d) ONGC
Ans (d) ONGC
25 . Who among the following has been recently appointed as chairman of Central
Board of Direct Taxes?
(A)Prakash Chandra
(B)Sudhir Chandra
(C)Satyanand Mishra
(D)Sri Kumar
Ans (A)Prakash Chandra

26 According to the state-wise cotton crop data released by the Agriculture Ministry for 2010-11 on 25 July 2011 which variety of cotton emerged as the largest cotton crop in all the major cotton producing states?
a. V-797
b. RS2013
c. Digvijay
d. Bt cotton
Ans: (d) Bt cotton
27 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?
a. 7%
b. 7.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.5%

IBPS PO (CWE) IBPS (CWE) clerickal and IBPS (Gramin Bank)RRBs (CWE) Bank Based General Awareness Questions
28The Union government on 26 July 2011 announced restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme for export of cotton. Which of the following is/are not true with regard to the following?
1. Restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme was announced for export of cotton with retrospective effect from 1 April 2011 and on cotton yarn from 1 October 2010.
2. Cotton yarn had been placed under Open General Licence for exports from 1 October 2011.
3. Exports of cotton were dis-incentivised by virtue of export tax, following a sharp rise in prices in January 2011.
4. Restrictions continue to remain on export of cotton, that is, 65 lakh bales this year.
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. Only 4
Ans: (b) Only 2

29Who among the following had written the books “Reintegrating India with the
World Economy’ and ‘Understanding Reforms’.?
(A)C Rangrajan
(B)Amartya Sen
(C)Suresh Tendulkar
Ans (C)Suresh Tendulkar

30. As per the recent Data released by the Central Statistical Organization, what is India ’s Percapita income in 2010-11?
(A)Rs. 54835
(B)Rs. 52165
(C)Rs. 56115
(D)Rs. 50143
Ans (A)Rs. 54835

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IBPS PO CWE Clerical Gramin Bank and All Banks Preparation Practice questions|
31 Who won the women’s Kabaddi World Cup championship?
Ans:India
32 Who is expected to visit India with export of gas and investment on agenda?
Ans:Qatar’s Emir Sheikh Hamad bin Khalifa al Thani
33 Who has been elected as Russian President?
34. Which 4 financial institutions have agreed to form country’s first \$2 billion (about Rs.10,000 crore) Infrastructure Development Fund to finance infrastructure projects in India?
Ans:Bank of Baroda, ICICI Bank, LIC and Citi Financial
35 Who has been appointed as MD of Hyundai Motor India Ltd.?
Ans:Bo Shin Seo
36. Which Chinese Electric company has started office in India?
Ans:Shangai Electric
37 Which university conferred honoris causa(as honorary academic degree) during its 12th convocation to the finance minister Pranab Mukherjee?
Ans:Assam University
38 Which India’s leading commodity exchange would be listed on the BSE making it India’s first exchange to be listed?
Ans:Multi Commodity Exchange

Bank based General Awareness| IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude, Reasoning. Data Interpretation and Bank based General awareness
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Latest Current Affairs for IBPS PO (CWE),IBPS Clerical and IBPS Gramin Bank – 2012 February,March and April 2012
39. Which western India university will start the Institute of International Studies?
Ans:M S University
40 HSBC will sell its general insurance for US \$914 million to which 2 companies?
Ans:AXA Group and QBE Insurance Group
41 Against which team India will play one-off Twenty20 International cricket on March 30th 2012 to commemorate the 150 years of settlement of Indians in that country?
Ans:South Africa
42 Who retained his title of being the world’s richest Indian in Forbes magazine’s annual list of the world’s richest people?
Ans:Mukesh Ambani
43 Name the music director – king of soft melodies who passed away recently.
Ans:Ravi Shankar Sharma
44 Who has been appointed as head coach of the Pakistan cricket team?
Ans:Dav Whatmore
45 Name the bank that has entered into a partnership with Remit2home to offer Sri Lankans to transfer money back home.
Ans:Nations Trust Bank
. Where is Kerala a film city is to be built?
Ans:Varikkassery Mana at Ottapalam
46. Who will be appointed as CEO of L&T?
Ans:K Venkataraman

IBPS PO (CWE) IBPS (CWE) clerickal and IBPS (Gramin Bank)RRBs (CWE) Bank Based General Awareness Questions
47 Who is appointed as ISI chief of Pakistan Government?
Ans:Lt. Gen. Zaheerul Islam
48. Which Indian NGO has been chosen for America’s first Innovation Award for the Empowerment of Women and Girls, for training and organising wastepickers and eliminating child labour from recycling?
Ans:Chintan
49 What is the reduced CRR of scheduled banks as revised by RBI at 75 basis points?
Ans:4.75%
50. At what value did Euro zone finance ministers release 2nd bailout package for debt-hit Greece?
Ans:\$46.9 billion
51. Where was the International Financial Hub inaugurated in India recently?
Ans:New Town, Kolkata
52. What is the extended number of days for advance reservation of Indian railway tickets?
Ans:120
53 Which state has recorded an increase in foodgrains production that touched 50.22 lakh tonnes during Kharif 2011 season?
Ans:Haryana
54 Expand – NBFC
Ans:Non-Banking Finance Companies
55Who is appointed as Wipro’s banking head?
Ans:Rajan Ko

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Question papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination Pattern and Latest Question Papers\
IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Common Written Examination (CWE) for PO,Clerical and Gramin Banks Officer scale jobs
IBPS PO (CWE) Gramin Banks Latest Selection Procedures2012|Aptitude Reasoning, Data Interpretation computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions
IBPS Previous Years question papers with answers Detailed Test Analysis|IBPS

IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Eamination Detailed Analysis

The CWE was conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS).About 14 lakh candidates had applied for this exam .The examination was conducted in two slots,
Morning slot from 9.30am to 1pm
Evening slot from 2.30pm to 6pm.
The duration of the objective paper was 150 minutes and this was immediately followed by a Descriptive Test of 1 hour duration.
To understand the IBPS Bank PO CWE paper better, we provide you with a detailed analysis below.

IBPS Written Test from which the questions were asked in the exam were,
Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness, Computer Awareness and English Language.
There were 50 questions, all objective type, from each of these 5 test areas.
IBPS Bank PO CWE -Detaled Analysis of the Objective Test :
(1) Quantitative Aptitude
The type of questions in this section were on lines similar to the questions that have appeared in the different Bank PO exams earlier.The two question types which did not appear in this paper, as compared to the earlier Bank PO exams, are (a) column-wise comparisons of roots of a quadratic and (b) Data sufficiency.
There were 10 questions based on simplification and approximation. At a glance these questions appeared to be easy and every one would have started solving these first. But when students got down to solving them they would have found them to be lengthy and time consuming. A good student would have attempted 6 to 7 questions in 10 minutes.
There were 5 questions on series. The questions involved finding the wrong number in the given sequence. The students who were aware of this question type, would have solved them comfortably.
3 to 4 correct attempts in 5 minutes is considered to be good.
Coming to the individual questions, there were 10 questions, from various topics like Simple Equations, Ratio, Percentages, Simple Interest-Compound Interest and Averages. The questions were aimed at testing basic conceptual knowledge.
Data Interpretation, there were 4 sets of 5 questions each. Two sets were based on the data given in tabular form, one set on pie chart and one set on Bar graph. Of these the set on Bar graph was very easy. All the five questions on Bar graph were direct and simple without any lengthy calculations. The students who had practiced the basic question types that appear in DI , concepts of percentages and speed maths techniques would have had an added advantage. An attempt of 2 to 3 sets in 15 minutes is considered good.
The following table gives the topic wise break up of the questions asked in this section.

(2)IBPS Bank PO CWE anlysis of English Language

The Verbal Ability section presented some questions different from what have been seen so far in Bank PO exams.
The section had a total of 50 questions in 6 types, with a total of 25 marks. There were:

Five Para-completion questions (Verbal Reasoning). These were questions where a paragraph was presented with a blank in place of a sentence that had been removed. From the choices given, and keeping in mind the context of the paragraph, the candidate had to pick the sentence best suited to the blank.
Five Sentence equivalence questions (Vocabulary usage). These were questions where a sentence was presented with a blank in place of a word that had been removed. From the choices given, and keeping in mind the context of the sentence, the candidate had to pick 2 words either of which would fit to the blank.

Five questions on synonymous words/phrases (Vocabulary). These were questions where a given word was followed by choices that present words/phrases. From the choices the candidate had to pick all those that were synonymous with the headword. These 3 question types have not appeared in earlier Bank PO exams.
.

Five Para-formation questions (jumbled paragraph), of 7 sentences each. In earlier exams, such questions had upto 6 sentences.

15 questions on Cloze test (a paragraph with blanks to be filled). In earlier exams, cloze test presented upto 10 questions.

15 Reading Comprehension questions (7+8) based on 2 passages.In earlier exams, a passage had upto 15 questions, including 6 vocabulary-based questions. This time, though the passages were of the size previously seen, about 600-700 words, each had 7 to 8 questions, including 2 vocabulary-based questions in each of the passages. The passages were on economic and developmental
aspects, presented a lot of detail, and required careful reading.
While the vocabulary-based questions were moderately difficult, overall, the section was difficult. It required a reasonable level of familiarity with English – the sort of familiarity that comes with regular reading. Clearly, the candidates who had been reading extensively, apart from practice in specific areas, would have been able to perform well.
An attempt of 30-32 questions, with not more than two or three wrong, is a good score.
(3)IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning
The topic wise break up of the questions is given below.

(4)IBPS Bank Po CWE – Computer Knowledge
The overall difficulty level of Computer knowledge section was moderate. All the questions asked in this section in the exam conducted in both the slots, were purely based on the fundamentals of topics like Archtecture , Operating Systems, DBMS,Networks,E commerce and MS Office.A student with a good knowledge of the fundamentals would have scored well. An attempt of 35-40 questions, with not more than 3-4 wrong, is a good score

(4) IBPS Bank PO CWE General Awareness

The questions that appeared in both the slots were based on a wide range of topics like, banking, economy, current affairs – national & international and a few questions on sports and literature.banking dominated with 17 questions coming from it. Out of these 17 questions , five questions were easy(Who is the largest shareholder of nationalized banks) and 8 questions were of moderate difficulty level.(questions based on fixed & recurring deposits etc..) The remaining 4 questions on core banking, and cross selling by banks etc, were difficult.
There were 10 questions related to economy
Out of the 50 questions, there were 16 questions related to banking. Out of these 16 questions, six were easy. (question on “interest rate on FDs higher/lower than normal savings accounts, etc.). Of the rest , seven were found to be of moderated difficulty level (questions on KYC norms, & NPAs etc.)The remaining four were difficult (questions on NEFT, and inter bank transfer codes for NEFT etc).
From topics related to economy, there were 10 questions, five of which were easy.(question on Microfinance originator etc.).Among the rest, three were of moderate difficulty level(question on Capital markets, inflation & Price rise etc.).The balance two questions were difficult. (one question on self-help groups, and another one on ASBA (Applications Supported by Block Amounts), a stock /share issue concept).
Under current affairs-national topics, there were six questions out of which three were easy.(question based on West Bengal CM’s predecessor, CM of which state resigned in illegal
mining case etc.) and remaining three questions were of moderate difficulty level.(questions on location of copper mines in India, SFIO is under the ministry of — etc.).
Under current affairs -international issues, there were 10 questions. Five of these were easy. (question on which country’s credit rating is down graded from AAA to AA+, attracting world-wide attention etc. ) and the remaining five were of moderate difficulty level(Name of South Sudan’s president etc.).
There were four questions on sports, three of which were relatively easy. (Michael Helps plays which sport etc and one question was difficult (Virdhawal Vikram hade, qualified for which sport for 2014 London olympics)
An attempt of 32 – 35 questions, with not more than one or two wrong, in about 20 minutes is a good score.
IBPS Bank PO (CWE)Detaled Analysis of the Descriptive Test :

The Descriptive Writing section did not present any surprises.This test was for 50 marks ( to be scaled to 25). The tasks that were asked are as follows.
Letter Writing:
The students were asked to write a letter of 150 words , from the given three choices. Two of these were formal letters and one was an informal letter. Marks alloted for this task was 15.
Essay Writing:
An essay of 250 words , from the three given choices.The topics were on social and economic aspects.Marks alloted for this task was 20.
Precis Writing:
A precis in 130 words of a passage of about 300 words. 15 marks was alloted for this task.
Those who had spent some time on regular practice would have been able to perform well in this section.

IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning ,Quantitative Aptitude,General awareness and Computer Questions

IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions
Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

3. Who is at the extreme right?
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)

7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?

5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)

12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)

14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)

15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)

16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question

22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

Directions (questions 1 to 5):Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

3. Who is at the extreme right?
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)

7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit â€˜4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4â€™s and 6â€™s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.

9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)

12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)

14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)

15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)

16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.

21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ˜S in the question

22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

At the start of game, A and B between them had four times as much money as C while B & C together had three times as much as A. At the end, A & B between them had three times as much as C, while B & C together had twice as much as A. B finished Rs. 200 poorer at the end. A, B, C are the only players.
1. What fraction of the total money did C have at the beginning of the game ?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/8
(c) 2/9
(d) 1/5

2. What fraction of the total money did A win (or lose)?
(a) won 1/12
(b) lost 1/6
(c) lost 1/3
(d) won 1/5

(a) Rs. 575
(b) Rs. 375
(c) Rs. 825
(d) Rs. 275

4. What amount did C win (lose)?
(a) lost Rs. 50
(b) won Rs. 75
(c) lost Rs. 125
(d) won Rs. 175

5. How much money did A have at the end of the game?
(a) Rs. 375
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 325
(d) Rs. 1100
IBPS Bank PO CWE Quantitative Aptitude Questions

1 A sum of money doubles itself in four years at compound interest in scheme 1. The same sum doubles itself in six years at simple interest in scheme 2. What is the ratio of the respective number of years required in scheme 1 and scheme 2 for a sum to become eight times itself ?
a) 2: 7 b) 2 : 3 c) 1 : 3 d) 1 : 4 e) none of these Ans 2:7

2. Tap T1 can fill an empty tank in 9 hours. Two emptying taps , tap T2 and T3 can empty it in 18 hours and 27 hours respectively, if they are fitted at the bottom of the tank. But tap T2 is fitted at 1/3rd of the height of the tank and Tap T3 is fitted at 2/3rd of the height of the tank. In how much time will the tank be filled, if all the three taps are opened simultaneously when the tank is empty?
a) 27 hours b) 26 2/3 hours c) 251/2 hours d) 24 hours e) none of these

Till the level reaches 1/3rd of the tank, neitherof the emptying taps will function.
So,the filling tap will take 9 x 1/3 = 3 hours to fill 1/3rd of the tank
From here till 2/3rd of the height is reached, tap T1 and tap T2 are functional.
1/3 x 1(1/9-1/18) = 6 hours
The last 1/3rd of the tank, all the three taps will function they will fill tank in
1/3 * (1/(1/9-1/18– 1/27) = 18 hours
So, a total of ( 3+ 6 + 18) = 27 hours. Choice (1)
3 Two men starting from the same place walk at the rate of 5 kmph and 5.5 kmph respectively. What time will they take to be 8.5 km apart, if they walk in the same direction ?
a) 4 hrs 15 min b)8 hrs 30 min c)17hrs e) none of these Ans 17 hrs

4 The calendar for the year 2005 is the same as for the year
a) 2010 b)2011 c) 2012 d)2013 e) none of these Ans 2012

5.A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3189 digits in all. How many pages does the book have ?
a) 1000 b)1074 c) 1075 d)1080 E) 1084 Ans 1074

6 In a garden, there are 10 columns and 12 rows of mango trees. The distance between the two trees is 2 metres and a distance of 1 metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The width of the garden is :
a) 20m b) 22m c) 24m d) 26m e) 29m Ans 22 m

7In a certain railway network there are 25 railway stations. Earlier the tickets issued contained only the destination station’s name. Now the officials want to print tickets with both starting and destination station’s names on them. How many more kinds of tickets than in previous method are to be printed in the new method?
a. 50 b. 250 c. 575 d. 600 e) None of these Answer: Option (c)

8 A and B throw dice, one after the other, until one of them throws a 5 and the person who throws a 5 first wins the game. If A begins the game, then the probability that B wins the game is ..
a. 5/11 b. ½ c. 7/11 d. 6/11 e) None of these Answer: Option (a)

IBPS Bank PO CWE Data Interpretation Questions

41. Of every dollar received by the federal government, how much (in cents) is from coporate sources?

1. 32
2. 70
3. 30
4. 35
42. what percentage of the federal revenue is derived from borrowings?

1. 0.2%
2. 0.02%
3. 2.7%
4. 1.2%

IBPS Bank PO CWE computer Awareness
1. Which among the following is a device , that is used in computers to add external components?
(A)Storage Device such as USB
(B)Keyboard
(C)Ports / System Boards
(D)RAM

2. The term Round-trip delay time, used in telecommunication is replaced in computers with which among the following?
(A)Access time
(B)Response time
(C)Entrance time
(D)Ping Time

3. The terms “push and pull services” in context with the Banking are used in which among the following generally?
(A)Rural Banking
(B)Unit Banking
(C)Online Banking
(D)Mobile Banking

4. Consider the following in context with the CVV or Card security code of an ATM or Credit Card:
1.Magnetic Stripe
2.Front of the in embossed or printed digits
3.Back of the card as a separate group of 3 digits to the right of the signature strip
At which among the above locations CVV or Card Security Code of an ATM is found?
(A)1 & 2
(B)2 & 3
(C)1 & 3
Ans C

6. What do we call the process of collecting, organizing, storing and otherwise maintaining a complete historical record of programs and other documents used or prepared during the different phases of the system?
(A)Segmentation
(B)Documentation
(C)Data Management
(D)Data History

7. Which among the following is an example of “Card not present transaction” in context with the Credit / Debit Cards?
(A)A person paying a restaurant bill by giving details of his credit card
(B)A person making an online purchase using his / her credit card
(C)A person making a purchase using mobile banking
(D)Both 2 & 3

8. Consider the following:
1. Application software
2. Hardware
3. Operating systems
The PDF documents are dependent upon which among the above to display the text, fonts, graphics, and other information contained by them?
(A)Only 1
(B)1 & 2
(C)1, 2 & 3
(D)None of them

9. As a person working in internet banking environment, why you should be aware of the “Dictionary attack”?
(A)It is used to inject worms or viruses in the system
(B)It is used to determine a password
(C)It is used to access customer’s account by determining other details
(D)It is used for stealing info from the Credit Card

10. Consider the following:
1. Software
2. Hardware
3. Internet Programs
The terms Bug and Debugging are generally used in which among the above?
(A)1 & 2
(B)2 & 3
(C)1 & 3
(D)1, 2 & 3

11. What is ISO 9362 is related to in context with Banking Technology?
(A)RTGS Transfers
(B)NEFT Transfers
(C)SWIFT Transfers
(D)All of them

12. The Clearing House Interbank Payments System or CHIPS is a clearing system for large value transactions in which among the following countries / regions?
(A)United States
(B)United Kingdom
(C)Entire Europe
(D)Australia

13. The terms Goodput , Throughput and Maximum throughput are most closely associated with which among the following in computers?
(A)Bit Rate
(B)Response Time
(C)Command Line Interface
(D)Random memory

14. Which among the following is the time period during which a computer is malfunctioning or not operating correctly due to machine failures?
(A)Downtime
(B)Uptime
(C)Response time
(D)Runtime

15. What would be the number of bytes, transferred at the rate of 1 Kilobit per second?
(A)100
(B)108
(C)125
(D)140

16. Which public sector bank was the banking partner in Commonwealth Games 2010?
(a) Central Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Bank of Baroda
(d) None of these

17 A group of attribute/field in a database is known as a______.
a) Record -ans
b) File
c) Database
d) Entry
e) None

18 Which layer of OSI model, firstly make use of unit of data called “Packet”?
b) Transport Layer
c) Network Layer-ans
d) Presentation Layer
e) None

19 Which layer of OSI model, firstly make use of unit of data called “Packet”?
b) Transport Layer
c) Network Layer-ans
d) Presentation Layer
e) None

20 A computer programmer
a) can draw only flowchart
b) can enter data quickly
c) does all the thinking for a computer-ans
d) can operate all type of computer equipment
e) None

21 A Trojan horse is
b) A virus disguised as a useful program.-ans
c) A program that blows up every time you use it
d) A spy ware which steal information over internet
e) None

22 A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
a) To confirm that data exists
b) To create a new data warehouse
c) To analyze data for expected relationships-ans
d) To explain some observed event or condition
e) None of the above

23 A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
a) To confirm that data exists
b) To create a new data warehouse
c) To analyze data for expected relationships
d) To explain some observed event or condition
e) None of the above-ans

24 The process of finding errors in software’s source code
a) Debugging -ans
b) Compiling
c) Testing
d) Running
e) None

25 The section of CPU which selects, interprets and sees to the execution of program
instructions?
a) ALU
b) Control Unit -ans
c) Register Unit
d) Processing Unit
e) None

IBPS Bank PO CWE General Awareness

1.According to latest World Tourism Organization figures, which country is the most popular tourist destination with 78.95 million tourist arrivals ?
(1)USA
(2)France
(3)China
(4)Spain
(5)Non of these Ans : (2)

2.Who is the present President of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) ?

(1)N. Chandrasekaran
(2)B. Muthuraman
(3)Kris Gopalakrishnan
(4)N.R. Narayana Murty
(5)Non of these Ans : (2)

3.Which company has been declared “The 5th Maharatna Company “ ?

(1)NMDC
(2)CIL
(3)BHEL
(4)GAIL
(5)MTNL Ans : (2)

4.Which tennis player won his 7th straight Monte Carlo Masters title in April 2011 ?

(1)David Ferrer
(2)Roger Federer
(4)Novak Djokovic
(5)Non of these Ans : (3)

5.Which bank has entered into an agreement with Deutsche Bank to buy its credit card business in India ?

(1)ICICI Bank
(2)Axis Bank
(3)Yes Bank ]
(4)HDFC
(5)Induslnd Bank Ans : (5)

6.Who smashed a world record 15 sixes in a one day international cricket match, in April 2011 ?

(1)Chris Gayle
(2)Shane Waston
(3)Virender Sehwag
(4)Brendon McCullum
(5)Non of these Ans : (2)

7.According to the World Tourism Organization figures released in April 2011, what is India’s rank with regard to the number of tourist arrivals?

(1)35
(2)47
(3)52
(4)11
(5) Non of these Ans : (2)

8.Who is the president Chairman of the Indian Banks Association (IBA)?

(1)M.V. Nair
(3)M.D. Mallya
(4)K.R. Kamath
(5)Prateep Chaudhari Ans : (3)

9.Which programme is aimed at the development of infrastructure service in cities ?

(1)NREGP
(2)JNNURM
(3)VAMBAY
(4)PURA
(5)IAY Ans : (2)

10.Who is the author of the book ‘Wide Angle’?

(3)Anil Kumble
(4)Shane Warne
(5)Imran Khan Ans : (3)

11.The 2012 ICC is World Twenty20 cricket championship is to be held in which of the following countries ?

(1)India
(2)West Indies
(4)Sri Lanka
(5)England Ans : (4)

12.Which of the following books was written by Margaret Atwood, the Booker prizewinner?

(1)The Sea of Poppies
(2)Shame
(3)The Blind Assassin
(4)Shalimar, the Clown
(5)An Area of Darkness Ans : (3)
13.Who is the chairman of the Nalanda Mentor Group, that is related to the following Nalanda University?

(1)M.S. Swaminathan
(2)Amartya sen
(3)Prof. Yash Pal
(4)V. Ramakrishnan

14.Who is called “The Father of White Revolution” in India?

(1)M.S. Swaminathan
(2)V.S. Ramachandran
(3)Amruta Patel
(4)Medha Patkar
(5 Ans : (5)

15.India is yet to sign a civil nuclear agreement with which of the following countries ?

(1)USA
(2)Russia
(3)France
(4)Mongolia
(5)South Korea Ans : (5)

16.The Justice B.K. Somasekhara Commission of Inquiry is related to which of the following states ?

(1)Orissa
(2)Karnataka
(3)Assam
(4)Maharashtra

17.Which of the following prizes/awards is given for progress in regulation ?

(1)Kalinga Prize
(2)Prizker Prize
(3)Templeton Prize
(4)Magsaysay Award
(5)Non of these Ans : (3)

18.Identify the mismatched pair
BOOK AUTHOR
1.The Catcher in the Rye J.D Salinger
2.If God was a Banker Ravi Subramanian
3.The Eighth Ring K.M. Mathew
4.Asian Drama Amartya Sen
5.Dreams From My Father: A Story of Race and InheritanceBarack Obama Ans : (4)
19.April 24 is celebration in India as

(1)National Public Sector Day
(2)National Panchayat Raj Day
(3)National Statistics Day
(4)National Sports Day
(5)Non of these Ans : (2)

20.Which of the following companies manufacture Blackberry smartphones?

(1)Samsung
(2)Motorola
(3)Onida
(4)Nokia
(5)Non of these Ans : (5)
IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Question paper with answers

IBPS PO Exam Paper

Latest IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Question Paper with answers-Reasoning,Quatitative Aptitude & General Awareness

General Awareness

1. The Name of Abdul Karim Telgi is associated with:
(1) Oil for Food scam
(2) Stamp Paper scam
(3) Fodder scam
(5) Shares scam

2. Match the following books with their authors:
(A) In Line of Fire (i) Pervez Musharraf
(B) My Name is Red (ii) Orhan Pamuk
(C) Call of Honour (iii) Sagarika Ghose
(D) Blind Faith (iv) Jaswant Singh
A B C D
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(5) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

3. Consider the following statements about Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission:
(i) The budget for the scheme is approximately Rs 1000 crore.
(ii) It will cover 100 cities having population over one million.
(iii) It is aimed at infrastructure and the poor.

Which of the above is NOT true?
(1) (iii) only
(2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(5) None of the above

4. The Tarapore Committee Report is concerned with which of the following:
(1) SEZs (2) SBI (3) RBI (4) Exim policy (5) Capital A/c convertibility

5. Out of the following options regarding the Railway Budget announcements, 2006, which of these is

not true?
(1) Major railway stations will have ATMs and cybercafes
(2) Central budgetary support of nearly Rs 7500 crores
(3) AC fares brought down
(4) The railways generated resources worth Rs 13,000 crores internally
(5) Railway safety fund was Rs 100 crores

6. Afghan President Hamid Karzai was recently awarded:
(1) Indira Gandhi prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, 2005
(2) Gandhi Peace Prize, 2005
(3) Right Livelihood Award, 2006
(4) Nobel Prize for Peace, 2006
(5) Mother Teresa International Award, 2006

7. Which of the following has completed 50 years in 2006?
(1) HDFC (2) RBI (3) LIC
(4) BARC (5) SBI

8. Which of these matchings of recently appointed persons is not correct?
(1) A.K. Antony?Foreign Minister
(2) M.M. Singh?Chairman of Planning Commission
(3) Sureesh Mehta?Chief of Naval Staff
(4) M. Nair?Chief of ISRO
(5) N. Gopalaswami?Chief Election Commissioner

9. What is the ?Book of Life? related to?
(1) Book which received Booker prize, 2006
(2) A new book on zoology
(3) A comprehensive dictionary on various life-forms on earth.
(4) The Human Genome Project
(5) Peace efforts in various nations

10. Who was recently invited by the U.N. Secretary General Kofi Annan to deliver a lecture on poverty alleviation?
(1) Anil Ambani
(3) Swami Ramdev
(4) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(5) Pandit Ravi Shankar

11. Given below is the list of Forbes? powerful women and their fields/posts.:
(A) ICICI Bank (i) Sonia Gandhi
(B) Pepsico (ii) Lalita Gupte
(C) German Chancellor (iii) Indra Nooyi
(D) Congress Chief (iv) Angela Merkel
Which of these matchings is correct:
A B C D
1. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
5. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

12. Considering the Tarapore Atomic Power Plant-3, which of these facts is TRUE?
1. It has 540 MW capacity
2. It is India?s 3rd such plant
3. India?s nuclear energy capacity now goes upto 3890 MW
4. It is situated in Maharashtra
(1) All the above are true
(2) 1, 2 only are true
(3) 1, 2, 3 are true
(4) 1, 3, 4 are true
(5) Only 3, 4 are true

13. On the basic needs of LPG and kerosene, approximately how much a cylinder and a litre, did the government subsidize in early 2006?
(1) Rs 220 and Rs 12
(2) Rs 250 and Rs 20
(3) Rs 300 and Rs 30
(4) Rs 180 and Rs 10
(5) None of the above

14. The per capita income in India is estimated by:
(1) Census Commission
(2) Central Bank
(3) RBI
(4) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(5) Central Statistical Organisation

15. The Health Ministry has planned to set standards of aerated water, following the controversy between the soft-drink giants and the
NGO, Centre for Science and Environment. What is the tentative period assigned for this?
(1) by December 2006
(2) by January 2007
(3) by August 2007
(4) by March 2007
(5) by December 2007

16. Roughly how many years has the economic liberalisation programme completed in India?
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 (5) 50

17. Which of the following is correctly matched?
1. Asit Biswas?Stockholm Water Prize
2. Chandrakanta?Vyas Samman
3. Devi Cherian?Rajiv Gandhi Rashtriya Ekta Samman
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) Only 1 (4) Only 2 (5) 1, 2 and 3

18. Consider the following statements regarding India and tell which one is not correct:
(1) 2005 experienced a fall in total unemployment
(2) High Security Animal Disease Lab declared India free of bird flu
(3) ULFA chairman Arbinda announced a peace truce with the army
(4) The RBI praised SEZs for creating regional balance in the future
(5) None of these

19. Regarding the online population of India (accessing the internet), as in mid-2006, which of the following statements is true?
(1) There were approximately 18 million users
(2) The percentage increase over previous year was 20%
(3) India has the 2nd largest online population
(4) The population was measured for people aged 18 years or nmore
(5) None of these

20. NACP III can be designated as:
(1) National AIDS Control Programme
(3) National Air Craft Programme
(4) New Age Child Programme
(5) None of these

21. Match the following: State Rank according to no. of patent applications
(A) Delhi (i) 4
(D) Maharashtra (iv) 3
A B C D
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(5) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

22. IAF?s recent combat exercise on the Western front was:
(1) Garuda
(2) Gagan Shakti
(3) Vayudoot
(4) Sangha Shakti
(5) Varuna

23. Consider the following happenings/programmes:
I. D. Raju has been appointed for micro-division of reservation.
II. India will host International AIDS Conference, 2012.
III. Supreme Court upheld that State domicile was needed for contesting election to Rajya Sabha, from a State.
Which of the above

IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Question paper with answers

IBPS PO Exam Paper

Latest IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Question Paper with answers-Reasoning,Quatitative Aptitude & General Awareness

General Awareness

1. The Name of Abdul Karim Telgi is associated with:
(1) Oil for Food scam
(2) Stamp Paper scam
(3) Fodder scam
(5) Shares scam

2. Match the following books with their authors:
(A) In Line of Fire (i) Pervez Musharraf
(B) My Name is Red (ii) Orhan Pamuk
(C) Call of Honour (iii) Sagarika Ghose
(D) Blind Faith (iv) Jaswant Singh
A B C D
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(5) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

3. Consider the following statements about Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission:
(i) The budget for the scheme is approximately Rs 1000 crore.
(ii) It will cover 100 cities having population over one million.
(iii) It is aimed at infrastructure and the poor.

Which of the above is NOT true?
(1) (iii) only
(2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(5) None of the above

4. The Tarapore Committee Report is concerned with which of the following:
(1) SEZs (2) SBI (3) RBI (4) Exim policy (5) Capital A/c convertibility

5. Out of the following options regarding the Railway Budget announcements, 2006, which of these is

not true?
(1) Major railway stations will have ATMs and cybercafes
(2) Central budgetary support of nearly Rs 7500 crores
(3) AC fares brought down
(4) The railways generated resources worth Rs 13,000 crores internally
(5) Railway safety fund was Rs 100 crores

6. Afghan President Hamid Karzai was recently awarded:
(1) Indira Gandhi prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, 2005
(2) Gandhi Peace Prize, 2005
(3) Right Livelihood Award, 2006
(4) Nobel Prize for Peace, 2006
(5) Mother Teresa International Award, 2006

7. Which of the following has completed 50 years in 2006?
(1) HDFC (2) RBI (3) LIC
(4) BARC (5) SBI

8. Which of these matchings of recently appointed persons is not correct?
(1) A.K. Antony?Foreign Minister
(2) M.M. Singh?Chairman of Planning Commission
(3) Sureesh Mehta?Chief of Naval Staff
(4) M. Nair?Chief of ISRO
(5) N. Gopalaswami?Chief Election Commissioner

9. What is the ?Book of Life? related to?
(1) Book which received Booker prize, 2006
(2) A new book on zoology
(3) A comprehensive dictionary on various life-forms on earth.
(4) The Human Genome Project
(5) Peace efforts in various nations

10. Who was recently invited by the U.N. Secretary General Kofi Annan to deliver a lecture on poverty alleviation?
(1) Anil Ambani
(3) Swami Ramdev
(4) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(5) Pandit Ravi Shankar

11. Given below is the list of Forbes? powerful women and their fields/posts.:
(A) ICICI Bank (i) Sonia Gandhi
(B) Pepsico (ii) Lalita Gupte
(C) German Chancellor (iii) Indra Nooyi
(D) Congress Chief (iv) Angela Merkel
Which of these matchings is correct:
A B C D
1. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
5. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

12. Considering the Tarapore Atomic Power Plant-3, which of these facts is TRUE?
1. It has 540 MW capacity
2. It is India?s 3rd such plant
3. India?s nuclear energy capacity now goes upto 3890 MW
4. It is situated in Maharashtra
(1) All the above are true
(2) 1, 2 only are true
(3) 1, 2, 3 are true
(4) 1, 3, 4 are true
(5) Only 3, 4 are true

13. On the basic needs of LPG and kerosene, approximately how much a cylinder and a litre, did the government subsidize in early 2006?
(1) Rs 220 and Rs 12
(2) Rs 250 and Rs 20
(3) Rs 300 and Rs 30
(4) Rs 180 and Rs 10
(5) None of the above

14. The per capita income in India is estimated by:
(1) Census Commission
(2) Central Bank
(3) RBI
(4) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(5) Central Statistical Organisation

15. The Health Ministry has planned to set standards of aerated water, following the controversy between the soft-drink giants and the
NGO, Centre for Science and Environment. What is the tentative period assigned for this?
(1) by December 2006
(2) by January 2007
(3) by August 2007
(4) by March 2007
(5) by December 2007

16. Roughly how many years has the economic liberalisation programme completed in India?
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 (5) 50

17. Which of the following is correctly matched?
1. Asit Biswas?Stockholm Water Prize
2. Chandrakanta?Vyas Samman
3. Devi Cherian?Rajiv Gandhi Rashtriya Ekta Samman
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) Only 1 (4) Only 2 (5) 1, 2 and 3

18. Consider the following statements regarding India and tell which one is not correct:
(1) 2005 experienced a fall in total unemployment
(2) High Security Animal Disease Lab declared India free of bird flu
(3) ULFA chairman Arbinda announced a peace truce with the army
(4) The RBI praised SEZs for creating regional balance in the future
(5) None of these

19. Regarding the online population of India (accessing the internet), as in mid-2006, which of the following statements is true?
(1) There were approximately 18 million users
(2) The percentage increase over previous year was 20%
(3) India has the 2nd largest online population
(4) The population was measured for people aged 18 years or nmore
(5) None of these

20. NACP III can be designated as:
(1) National AIDS Control Programme
(3) National Air Craft Programme
(4) New Age Child Programme
(5) None of these

21. Match the following: State Rank according to no. of patent applications
(A) Delhi (i) 4
(D) Maharashtra (iv) 3
A B C D
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(5) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

22. IAF?s recent combat exercise on the Western front was:
(1) Garuda
(2) Gagan Shakti
(3) Vayudoot
(4) Sangha Shakti
(5) Varuna

23. Consider the following happenings/programmes:
I. D. Raju has been appointed for micro-division of reservation.
II. India will host International AIDS Conference, 2012.
III. Supreme Court upheld that State domicile was needed for contesting election to Rajya Sabha, from a State.
Which of the above
IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Reasoning,Data Intrepretation,Data Anlysis and General Awreness Questions
Question papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination Pattern and Latest Question Papers\
IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Common Written Examination (CWE) for PO,Clerical and Gramin Banks Officer scale jobs
IBPS PO (CWE) Gramin Banks Latest Selection Procedures2012|Aptitude Reasoning, Data Interpretation computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions
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IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Previous Question Papers with answers

1.In a certain code language ‘how many goals scored’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7’; ‘many more matches’ is written as ‘9 8 2’ and ‘he scored five’ is written as ‘ 1 6 3’. How is ‘goals’ written in that code language ?
A.5

B.7

C.5 or 7

E.None of these

2.In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in that code ?

A.RMNBSFEJ

B.BNMRSFEJ

C.RMNBJEFS

D.TOPDQDCH

E.Non of these

3.How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter only once in each word ?

A.None

B.One

C.Two

D.Three

E. More than three

4.Among A, B,C,D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest ?

A.B

B.E
C.C

E.None of these

5.Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the third digit from the left and after the rearrangement ?

A.2

B.4
C.5

D.6
E.None of these

6. Pratap correctly remembers that mother’s birthday is before twenty third April but after Nineteenth April, whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is not on or after twenty second April. On which day in April is definitely their mother’s birthday ?

A.Twentieth
B.Twenty-first
C.Twentieth or twenty-first
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these

7. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 meters he took a right turn and walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and walked 100 meters. He again took a right turn and walked 30 meters and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the starting point ?

A.50 meters South
B.150 meters North
C.180 meters East
D.50 meters North
E.Non of these

8. If ‘÷’ means ‘+’; means ‘-‘ means ‘X’; ‘X’ means ‘÷’ and ‘+’ means ‘-‘ ; than ______ 15-8 x 6 ÷ 12+4 = ?

A.20

B.28
C.8 4/7

D.2 2/3
E.None of these

9. Town D is towards East of town F. Town B is towards North of Town D. Town H is towards South of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F ?

A. East

B. South-East
C. North-East

E. Non of these

10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

A. None

B. One
C. Two

D. Three

E. More than three

Directions (Qs. 11-15) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements :
All cups are bottles.
Some bottles are jugs.
No jug is plate.
Some plates are tables.

Conclusions :
I.Some tables are bottles.
II.Some plates are cups.
III.No table is bottle
IV.Some jugs are cups.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Only IV follows
E. Only either I or III follows
12.Statements :
Some chairs are handles.
All handles are pots.

All pots are mats.
Some mats are buses.

Conclusions :
I.Some buses are handles.
II.Some mats are chairs.
III.No bus is handle.
IV.Some mats are handles.

A. Only I, II and IV follow
B. Only II, III and IV follow
C.Only either I or III and II follow
D.Only either I or III or IV follow
E.Only either I or III and II and IV follow

Statements :
All birds are horses.
All horses are tigers.
Some tigers are lions.
Some lions are monkeys.

Conclusions :

I.Some tigers are horses.
II.Some monkeys are birds.
III.Some tigers are birds.
IV.Some monkeys are horses.

A. Only I and III follow
B. Only I, II and IV follow
C. Only II, III and IV follow
D. All I, II, III and IV follow
E. Non of these

14. Statements :
Some walls are houses
All walls are houses
Some houses are jungles.

Conclusions :
II.Some jungles are walls.
III.Some houses are benches.

A.Only I and II follow
B.Only I and III follow
C.Only III and IV follow
D.Only II, and IV follow
E.None of these

15.Statements :
Some sticks are lamps.
Some flowers are dressed.
All dressed are shirts.
Conclusions :
I.Some shirts are sticks
II.Some shirts are flowers
III.Some flowers are sticks.
IV.Some dresses are sticks

A.None follows
B.Only I follow
C.Only II follow
D.Only III follow
E.Only IV follow

Directions (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

A,B,C,D,E,F,G, and H are eight employees of an organization working in three departments viz. Personnel, Administration and Marketing with not more than three of them in any department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from football, cricket, volley ball, badminton, lawn tens, basketball, hockey and table tennis not necessarily in the same order.

D works in Administration and does not like either football or cricket. F works in Personnel with only A who likes table tennis. E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes hockey and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in Administration and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who work in Administration likes football. The one who likes volley ball works in Personnel. None of those who work on Administration likes either badminton or lawn tennis. H does not like cricket.

16.Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department ?

A.EGH

B.AF
C.BCD

D.BGD

17.In which department does E work ?

A.Personnel
B.Marketing

E.None of these

18.Which of the following combinations of employee-department-favourite sport is correct?

B.F-Personnel-Lawn Tennis
C.H-Marketing-Lawn Tennis
E.None of these

19.What is E’s favourite sports ?
A.Cricket
D.Lawn Tennis
E.None of these

20.What is G’s favourite sports ?
Cricket
Lawn Tennis
None of these

DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION

Directions (Qs. 21-25) : Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow……

Number (N) of candidates (In lakhs) appearing for an entrance Examination from Six Different States and the percentage (P) of Candidates Clearing the same over the Years

State

A

B

C

D

E

F

Year

N

P

N

P

N

P

N

P

N

P

N

P

2004

1.23

42

1.04

51

1.11

32

1.32

24

1.23

36

1.33

31

2005

1.05

43

1.12

62
IBPS-
IBPS PO CWE Latest Question paper with answers– Aptitude,Reasoning,Data Intrepretation Generalawareness,Marketing,Computer
GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Left Front has come into power in Tripura for the ________ consecutive term.
(1) Second (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Fifth (5) Sixth
2. Who is the new head of SEBI?
(1) M. Damodaran (2) C.B. Bhave (3) Ravi Kumar (4) A.K. Khandelwal (5) Rajiv Chouhan
3. Who has won the just concluded Bangalore Open Tennis women’s single title?
(1) Venus Williams (2) Maria Sharapova (3) Justin Hennin (4) Serena Williams (5) Sania Mirza
4. Who is the Chief Minister of Meghalaya?
(1) P.A. Sangma (2) Donkuper Roy (3) D.D. Lapang (4) Y.C. Apang (5) None of these
5. India was finally defeated in recently concluded Olympic Qualifying Hockey Tournament held Santiyago by
(1) Britain (2) China (3) Austria (4) Russia (5) Japan
6. Between April and December 2007, India’s personal tax collections have risen
(1) 40 per cent (2) 45 per cent (3) 50 per cent (4) 60 per cent (5) 55 per cent
7. According to a Nasscom Deloitte study, the Indian information technology industry’s contribution to the country’s GDP in the year 200607 was
(1) 3.2 per cent (2) 3.8 per cent (3) 4.6 per cent (4) 5.2 per cent (5) 7.2 per cent
8. On February 10, 2008 the Grammy award for the album of the year went to
(1) River : The Joniletters
(2) Rehab
(3) Stupid boy
(4) Call me irresponsible
(5) Once more
9. Which actress won on February 10, 2008 in London the best actress BAFTA award?
(1) Julie Christie (2) Keira Knightley (3) Jodic Foster (4) Marion Cotillard (5) None of these
10. Russy Karanjia, the editor of the India’s first tabloid weekely passed away in Mumbai on February 1,2008 at the age of 95. What was the name of that tabloid weekely?
(1) Surya (2) Illustrate Weekely (3) Blitz (4) The Week (5) Sunday Times
11. As per the state of the forest Report, 2005 released on February 12, 2008, in percentage of the country’s total land area, the forest cover stands at
(1) 19.7 per cent (2) 20.6 per cent (3) 23.8 per cent (4) 18.3 per cent (5) 25.5 per cent
12. According to the 2005 report, which state has the largest area under forest cover?
(1) Chhattisgarh
(2) Jharkhand
(5) Odisa
13. Global Internet major Google is going to set up its first campus in India in __________
(1) Chennai (2) Bangalore
(5) Kolkata
14. Which country was in February 2008 threatened by Russia of a nuclear attack in case it joins NATO and allows the developemnt of the American missile
defence shield on its territory?
(1) Belarus (2) Ukraine (3) Uzbekistan (4) Armenia (5) None of these
15. Under the recently launched National Health Insurance Scheme for the unorganised sector BPL workers, the total sum insured would be _______
(1) Rs. 20,000 (2) Rs. 30, 000 (3) Rs. 50, 000 (4) Rs. 75, 000 (5) Rs.80, 000
16Fulfilling the longheld demand of the people of Darjeeling, the Union Cabinet decided to create an autonomous selfgoverning Gorkha Hill council under the _________ of the constitution
(1) Fourth schedule (2) Fifth schedule(3) Sixth schedule (4) Third schedule(5) Seventh schedule
(1) 40 per cent (2) 50 per cent (3) 60 per cent (4) 70 per cent (5) 80 per cent
18. As per the new policy what percentage of all DAVPvadvertisements is to go to small publications?
(1) 15 per cent (2) 20 per cent(3) 25 per cent (4) 30 per cent (5) 35 per cent
19. According to new policy, English newspapers are entitled to ___________ of all advertisements.
(1) 40 per cent (2) 60 per cent (3) 30 per cent (4) 50 per cent (5) 65 per ent
20. According to the latest data released by the World Bank, the top remittance receiving country in the world is __________
(1) India (2) China (3) Mexico (4) Brazil (5) Russia
21. Which company reently claimed to have developed the world’s most powerful memory chip, which could help create a memory card capable of storing 80 DVD movies?
(1) LG (2) Nokia (3) Samsung (4) Motorola (5) Sony
22. The first case of genome sequencing of an individual in Asia has been reported from ____
(1) Japan (2) China (3) South Korea (4) Singapore (5) Mexico
23. As part of the 11 th plan UGC is preparing an action plan for setting up __________
(1) 8 Universities (2) 9 Universities (3) 11 Universities (4) 15 Universities (5) 20 Universities
24. The commission, centre is going to set up to look into discrimination against deprived groups in the public and private sector is _________.
(1) Justice Commission
(2) Equality Commission
(3) Equal Treatment Commission
(4) Equal Opportunities Commission
(5) None of these
25. The first of six scorpene submarines, being built by a French company in Mazgaon is expected to be delivered by the year______.
(1) 2010 (2) 2011 (3) 2012 (4) 2015 (5) 2018
26. Which state has been selected by the Union Government for the National Tourism Award, 200708 in the best tourism performing state/UT category?
27. Who recently replaced Fidel Castro as the President of Cuba?
(1) Raul Castro (2) Jean Castor (3) Peiter Feith (4) Paul Skinner (5) None of these
28. Who has been recently selected for the 17 th Saraswati Samman for his collection of Short stories Taoos Chaman ki Myna?
(1) Girija Guleri (2) Naiyer Masud (3) Ram Narayan Mishra (4) Shyam Kumar Ashq (5) Nirja Guleri
29. Rajendra Nath who died on February 13, 2008 was a famous_____________.
(1) Urdu writer (2) Southampton (3) London (4) Melbourne (5) Colambo
30. Where is the bronze statue of legendry cricket umpire Dickie Bird going to be established?
(1) Barnsley (2) Southampton (3) London (4) Melbourne (5) Colambo
31. Who was the captain of U19 Indian team that won the U19 cricket world cup concluded recently in Kuala Lumpur?
(1) Vira Kohli (2) Ajitesh Argal (3) Sreevats Goswami (4) Ravindra Jadeja (5) Ajeet Narayan
32. India won the U19 cricket world cup, 2008 by beating _________ in the final.
(1) Pakistan (2) Sri Lanka (3) South Africa (4) Australia (5) England
33. Who won the Johnie Walker classic golf tournament in Gurgaon on March 2, 2008?
(1) Shiv Kapur (2) Jyoti Randhawa (3) Vijay Singh (4) Mark Brown (5) Tiger Wods
34. Who was the man of match of the second final played in Brisbane on March 4, 2008, between Australia and India?
(1) M.S. Dhoni (2) Sachin Tendulkar (3) Pravin Kumar (4) Sreesanth (5) Yuvraj Singh
35. With the victories in both their games in the finals at Sydney and Brisbane India registered a traingular series win in Australia for the __________.
(1) First time (2) Second time (3) Third time (4) Fourth time (5) Fifth time
36. Who was adjudged player of the Commonwealth Bank traingular series recently concluded in Australia?
(1) Brett Lee (2) Nathan Bracken (3) Ishant Sharma (4) Gautam Gambhir (5) Ricky Ponting
37. Who was the leading rungetter on the either side in the Commonwealth Bank traingular series?
(1) Sachin Tendulkar (2) Mathew Hayden (3) Gautam Gambhir (4) Adam Gilchrist (5) Michel Hassy
38. Jose Ramos Horta who was recently injured in a predawn attack on his home by fugitive members of the country’s armed forces is _________.
(1) Prime Minister of Kosovo (2) President of Serbia (3) Prime Minister of East Timor (4) President of East Timor (5) None of these
39. Jens Stoltenberg who was on a satevisit to India in March, 2008 is _______.
(2) Prime Minister of Norway
(3) Prime Minister of Denmark
(4) President of Greece
(5) President of Japan
40. Amaresh Bachi who died on February 20, 2007 was a renowned_______.
(1) Educationist
(2) Economist
(3) Scientist
(4) Novelist
(5) None of these

GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions for Questions 41 to 50:
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Marc Rodin flickedoff witch of his transistor radio and rose from the table, leaving the breakfast tray almost untouched. He walked over to the window, lit another in the endless chain of cigarettes and gazed out at the snowencrusted landscape hich the late arriving spring had not yet started to dismantle. He murmured a word quietly and with great venom, following up with other strong nouns and epithets that expressed his feeling towards the French President, his Government and the Action Service. Rodin was unlike his predecessor in almost every way.
Tall and spare, with a cadaverous face hollowed by the hatred within, he usually masked his emotions with an unLatin frigidity. For him there had been no Ecole Polytechnic to open doors to promotion. The son of a cobbler, he had escaped to England by fishing boat in the halcyon days of his late teens when the Germans overran France, and had enlisted as a private soldier under the banner of the Cross of Lorraine.
Promotion through sergeant to warrant officer had come the hard way, in bloody battles across the face on North Africa under Koenig and later through the hedgerows of Normandy with Leclerc. A field commission during the fight for Paris had got him the officer’s chevrons his education and breeding could never have obtained and in postwar France the choice had been between reverting to civillian life or staying in the Army.
41. What was the period when Rodin escaoed to England?
(1) First half of the late arriving spring
(2) The time when Germany occupied France
(3) The period when Cross of Lorraine was disbanded
(4) When Rodin was a child cobblers work
(5) None of these
42. Which of the following best described the phrase ______ cared not a fig _______ as used in the passage?
(1) Only A (2) Only A and B (3) Only C (4) Only B (5) Only B and C
43. Which factors made Rodin stay in the Army?
(A) He did not have any big business in civil life
(B) The parent country had Communist domination
(C) He wanted to experience the bitterness of officer rank
(1) Only A (2) Only A and B (3) Only C (4) Only B (5) Only B and C
44. According to the passage, who resisted the dominance of Communists?
(1) The native of Viet Mihn
(2) The fredom loving citizens of Algeria (3) The Marc Rodin (4) The people of France (5) None of these
45. Which of the following best described the meaning of the phrases officer from the ranks as used in the passage?
(1) The person who has ll essential academic qualifications and experience required to become
(2) The person who grows in the organization from lowest hierarchical position
(3) An officer who is given a rank of an officer to perform a specific task
(4) The person who struggle hard but falls to obtain a rank
(5) None of these
46. What favourable situations did Rodin find in IndoChian campaign?
(1) He could attain his lost seniority
(2) He could manage his desired posting to Algeria
(3) The people around him were of the same nature as he was
(4) He attained the rank of Majore in the Army
(5) None of these
47. What option did Robin choose in post war France situation?
(1) He joined an officer’s school for Army
(2) He monitored the army parade in drill squares
(3) He joined a colonial
(4) He preferred a cobbler’s bench
(5) None of these
48. Why the Army could not overpower VietMinh?
(1) The compating army Ignored the local civil authority
(2) The Government lacked political will to support army operation
(3) The builtin hate of the commandor did not percolate atthe soldier level
(4) The conviction held by the army chief proved to be false
(5) None of these
49. What were the outcome of battles in IndoChina?
(1) It removed the inbuilt hatred in Rodin
(2) It did not achieve the objectives for which it had been fought
(3) The French Army betraye Rodin
(4) Rodin regarded it as his life’s achievement
(5) None of these
50. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) Marc Rodin was a qualified officer from Ecole Polytechnic
(2) Unlike his predecessor, the achievements in the army for Rodin were easy
(3) Rodin believed that only people who are worth their salt are soldiers
(4) Rodin’s father did not teach him the trade of a cobbler
(5) None of these
Directions of for Questions 51 to 53: Choose the word which has most nearly the SAME meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
51. Chevrons
(1) Colours (2) Badges (3) Skills (4) Crowns (5) Ranks
52. Conscript
(1) Commissioned (2) Secret (3) Detailed (4) Compulsive (5) Registered
53. Lickspittles
(1) Spoons (2) Approvers (3) Sycophant (4) Witnesses (5) Sincere
Direction for Questions 54 55:Choose the word which isMOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage
54. Frigidity
(1) Warmth (2) Heat (3) Embrace (4) Negative (5) Calm
55. Denuciations
(1) Enrolment (2) Greeting (3) Rejections (4) Honouring (5) Acceptance
Directions for Questions 56 to 60 : In each question, a sentence with two words/groups of words printed in bold type are give. One of them or both may have certain error. You have to find out the correct word or group of ords from among the three choices A, B or C given below each sentence which can replace the wrong word/group of words, if any, and makes the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5) i.e. ‘No Correction Required’ as your answer.
56. Aerobics are found to be of exreme hlepful to diabetes patients
(A) Extremely helpful (B) Of extreme hlep (C) Of extremely helpful (1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) Either A or B (5) No Correction Required
57. Our emphasis is also on the quality of the producebbut not on its appearance alone.
(A) Emphasizing ___________ and
(B) Emphasis ___________ and
(C) Emphasis _________ and
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) None (5) No Correction Required
58. Investors have been receiving better services from Insurance Companies.
(A) Demanding ________ by
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) Either A or Cb (5) No Correction Required
59. Our insistence had duly impact on their decision making processes.
(A) Due impact __________ their
(B) Duly impacted _________ their
(C) Due impacting __________ them
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) None (5) No Correction Required
60. Before the doctor comes, the patient had bend escaped from the ward.
(A) Reached ________ has
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) Either A or B (5) No Correction Required
Direction for Questions 61 to 70 : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
61. In guest rooms, the central portion is generally reserved for sofa set.
(1) Generally is reserved
(2) Is reserved generally
(3) Was generally reserved
(4) Are generally reserved
(5) No correction required
62. The impact of the composite bow on warfare was equal to the crossbow of medieval times.
(1) Was equal to of the
(2) Is equal to the
(3) Is equal to that
(4) Was equal to that of the
(5) No correction required
63. Culture, climate and geography plays an important part in the formation of any proverb.
(1) Plays an important role
(2) Plays a important part
(3) Play an important role
(4) Play a important part
(5) No correction required
64. This book will be of particular interested to those fascinated by the recent philsophy.
(1) Of particularly interested
(2) Of particular interest
(3) Of interested in particular
(4) Particularly of Interested
(5) No correction required
65. These days developed countries have started looking down for underdeveloped countries as it is advantageous for both the parties.
(1) Looking after (2) Looking down upon (3) To look down at (4) Looking for at (5) No correction required
66. The methods to adopt for eradication of poverty should depend upon the magnitude and nature of resources available.
(5) No correction required
67. In the production of desert trees, Nature seems sometimes to have been experimenting with the truly strange
(1) Seem to have been sometimes experimenting
(2) Seems sometimes to have been experimented
(3) Sometimes seen to be experimented
(4) Sometimes seem to have experimented
(5) No correction required
68. In the first round, the participants played in the presence of an accomplice who was committed deliberate errors
(1) Committed deliberate
(2) Was to be committed deliberate
(4) Committed deliberately
(5) No correction required

69. What prevent from winning the battle is not known
(1) What prevented them to win
(2) What prevents them from winning
(3) What prevented them form winning
(4) What prevented their winning
(5) No correction required
70. The scenario was identical to the one that was to be observed in the previous tournament.
(1) Was observing
(3) Was observed
(4) Was to observe
(5) No correction required
Direction for Questions 71 to 75: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four boldly printed words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. It all the boldly printed words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
71. The questionnaire/(1) reflected/(2) various phenomena(3)/that are sparingly (4)/experienced. All correct/(5)
72. Contrary/(1) to popular belief,(2)/ripe fruits are not necessarily (3)/delicious. (4) All Correct (5).
73. The most ambitious (1)/enterprise(2)/undertaken in the ancient (3)/Egypt was of the construction (4)/of pyramids. All Correct (5)
74. The astronomical (1)/calculations (2)/were admiringly (3)/accurate. (4) All Correct (5)
75. Looking inward from the top of the rampart, (1)/ the sentries (2)/had a marvellous panerama (3)/ spread (4)/ before them. All Correct (5)
Direction for Questions 76 to 80: Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) No one knows their names
(B) With irrigation systems, farmers were able to raise more food with less labor.
(C) The first engineers lived in the middle East, probably round 35000 B.C.
(D) Today’s city, thus, is essentially still a place where specialists live and work.
(E) Thus, an increasing number of people were relieved of agricultural chores and able to gather in cities to practice specialties.
(F) However, they conceived and built the elevated irrigation canal.
76. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D(5) E
77. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
78. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
79. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (Last) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
80. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
NUMERICAL ABILITY
81. Three fourth of a number is equal to 60% of another number. What is the difference between the numbers?
(1) 18 (2) 32 (3) 24 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
82. Abhijit invested in three schemes A, B and C the amounts in the ratio of 2:3:4 respectively. If the schemes offered interest @20 p.c.p.a. 16 p.c.p.a and 15 p.c.p.a respectively, what will be the respective ratio of the amounts after one year?
(1) 10:8:5 (2) 12:14:15 (3) 12:15:22 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
83. A train crosses a 300 metre long platform in 38 seconds while it crosses a signal pole in 18 seconds. What is the speed of the train in kmph?
(1) Cannot be determind (2) 72 (3) 48 (4) 54 (5) None of these
84. If 2x + 5y = 109 and 2x + 5 = y + 12 then y – x = ?
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) None of these
86. Certain number of pieces of an ariticle are to be packedin boxed, such that each box contains 145 pieces. If after packing them in 32 boxed 25 pieces are left out, what was the number of pieces to be packed?
(1) 4566 (2) 4655 (3) 4465 (4) 4640 (5) None of these
87. Which of the following set of fractions is in ascending order?

88. 3 Girls and 4 boys are to be seated in a row on 7 chairs in such a way that all the three girls always sit together. n how many different ways can it be done?
(1) 720 (2) 576 (3) 144 (4) 480 (5) None of these
89. In how many different ways can the leters of the word DRASTIC be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?
(1) 720 (2) 360 (3) 1440 (4) 540 (5) None of these
90. Area of circle is equal to the area of a rectangle having perimeter of 50 cms, and length more than the breadth by 3 cms. What is the diameter of the circle?
(1) 7 cms (2) 21cms (3) 28 cms (4) 14 cms (5) None of these
Directions for Questions 91 to 95:
What will come in place of the question mark (?) in following equations?
93. 135% of 480+?% of 320 = 728
(1) 25 (2) 28
(3) 125 (4) 115
(5) None of these

95. 323.001×15+? = 5000.015
(1) 145.014 (2) 155
(3) 145 (4) 155.014
(5) None of these

Direction for Questions 96 to 100 : What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in following equations?
96. 35% of 121+85% of 230.25=?
(1) 225 (2) 230 (3) 240 (4) 245 (5) 228
97. 3.2´8.1+ 3185 ¸ 4.95 = ?
(1) 670 (2) 660 (3) 645 (4) 690 (5) 685
98. 2508 ¸15.02 + ?´11 = 200
(1) 13 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 6
99. 42.07´7.998 + ( ?) 2 = 20 2
(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 32 (4) 64 (5) 8
100. 2375.85 ¸18.01- 4.525´8.05 = ?
(1) 105 (2) 96 (3) 88 (4) 90 (5) 112
Directions 101 to 105:
What will come in place of question mark (?) in each of the following number series?
101. 445 ? 21 6 2
(1) 89 (2) 88 (3) 98 (4) 99 (5) None of these
102. 11 36 ? 178 364
(1) 86 (2) 92 (3) 74 (4) 84 (5) None of these
103. 8 36 144 504 ?
(1) 1512 (2) 1296 (3) 1728 (4) 1664 (5) None of these
104. 5 6 20 ? 412
(1) 92 (2) 85 (3) 95 (4) 87
(5) None of these
105. 23 36 95 343 ?
(1) 1541.5 (2) 1551.5 (3) 1561.5 (4) 1543.5
(5) None of these
Directions 106 to 110: In each of the following questions two questions I & II are given. You have to solve both the equations and giveanswer
(1) 1x > y (2) If x £ y (3) if x < y (4) if x ³ y (5) if x = y
106.
I. 9×2 – 36x + 35 = 0
II. 3y2 -16y + 21 = 0
107.
I. 2×2 + 3x +1 = 0
II. 2y2 – 7 y + 6 = 0
108.
I. 2×2 -17x + 35 = 0
II. 2y2 +13y + 21 = 0
109.
I. 2x – y = 3
II. 2y – x = 15
110.
I. 20×2 – 9x +1 = 0
II. 9 y2 – 9y + 2 = 0
Directions 111 to 115 :
Study the following graphs carefully to answer these questions. Quantity of various items produced and the amount earned by selling them
Quantity produced Total = 2000 tons
111. If the expenditure incurred in production of product ‘C’ per ton was Rs. 16000, what was the per cen profit earned?
(1) 12.5 (2) 11.11 (3) 12.25 (4) 11.28 (5) None of these
112. What is the average per ton selling price of all the six products together?
(1) Rs. 20, 525 (2) Rs. 18, 500 (3) Rs.22,500 (4) Rs. 20, 500 (5) Rs. 18, 525
113. What is the selling price of product ‘A’ per ton?
(1) Rs. 17, 580
(2) Rs. 18, 570
(3) Rs. 17, 850
(4) Rs. 18, 750
(5) None of these
114. Approximately, what was the average selling price per ton of products D& E together?
(1) Rs. 21, 800 (2) Rs. 22, 800 (3) Rs. 22, 000 (4) Rs. 22, 500 (5) Rs. 23, 500
115. Which product has the highest selling price per ton?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) None of these
Directions for Questions 116 to 120: Study the following table to answer these questions. Number of Officers in various Departments of an Organization in different Scales
116. What is the ratio between the total number of employees in Scale III and Scale IV respectivity?
(1) 19:9 (2) 9:19 (3) 17:9 (4) 9: 17 (5) None of these
117. Total number of employees in Scale VI is what per cent of the total number of employees in Scale I ?
(1) 2.8 (2) 2.4 (3) 3.6 (4) 3.2 (5) None of these
Deptt.Scale Personnel Operations Systems Accounts Maintenance Public Relations
I 225 725 750 300 325 175
II 120 426 576 288 240 150
III 75 250 320 120 85 100
IV 40 126 144 60 30 50
V 25 65 70 35 20 35
VI 4 20 28 15 8 5
118. In Public Relations department the number o in Scale II is less than that in Scale I by what percent? (rounded off to two diaits after decimal)
(1) 14.67 (2) 16.67(3) 14.29 (4) 16.27 (5) None of these
119. Out of the total number of employees in ‘Personnel’ department, approximately what per cent of employees are in scale II?
(1) 26.5 (2) 28
(3) 28.5 (4) 27
(5) None of these

REASONING
Directions 121 to 125: Read the following information carefully and answer questions given below:
A, B, D, F, G, H and K are seven members of a family. The belong to three generations. There are two married couples belonging to two different generations. D is son of H and is married to K,F is granddaughter of B. G’s father is grandfather of A. B’s husband is fatherinlaw of K.H has only one son.
121. How is K related to G?
(1) Sisterinlaw (2) Sister (3) Niece (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
122. Which of the following is the pair of married ladies?
(1) HK (2) HD (3) KF (4) BF (5) None of these
123. How is F related to G?
(1) Son (2) Nephew (3) Niece (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
124. How many female members are there among them?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
125. How is H related to B ?
(1) Father (2) Fatherinlaw (3) Uncle (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Directions for Questions 126 to 130: Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the following questions:
F J M P O W R N B E Y C K A V L
D G X U H Q I S Z T
126. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
(1) OMR (2) ECN (3) BRY (4) KYV (5) HXI
127. FMJ : TSZ in the same way as JMP : ?
(1) ZIS (2) ISZ (3) SIQ (4) ZSI(5) IZS
128. Which letter is the 10 th to the right of the letter which is exactly the middle letter between F and D ?
(1) G (2) D (3) U (4) H (5) None of these
129. Which of the following pairs of letters has as many letters between them in the above arrangement as there are between them in the English alphabet?
1) MR (2) EL (3) LS (4) AI (5) MO
130. If each letter is attached a value equal to its serial number in the above arrangement starting from your left, then what will be the sum of the numbers attached to all the vowels in the arrangement?
(1) 73 (2) 50 (3) 63 (4) 58 (5) None of these
irections for questions 131 to 135: Following is given a set of digits and the corresponding letter code of each digit followed by certain conditions for coding.
Digit : 2 5 7 8 9 4 6 3 1
Letter Code : M R T B W K D N J
In each question one number consisting six digits followed by four combinations of letter codes. You have to find out which of the combination of letter codes represents the set of digits based on the abouve codes and the conditions given below and mark your answer accordingly. Otherwise give answer (5) i.e. None of these. Conditions : (i) If both the first and the last digits of the number are odd digits then both are to be codes as I. (ii) If both
he first and last digits of the number are even digits then both are to be coded as Y.
131. 726395 (1) IMDNWI (2) YMDNWY (3) TMDNWR (4) IMDNWR (5) None of these
132. 263847 (1) IDNBKI (2) YDNBKY (3) IDNBKY (4) MDNBKY (5) None of these
133. 591248 (1) IWJMKB (2) RWJMKY (3) YWJMKY (4) RWJMKB (5) None of these
134. 615824 (1) IJRBMI (2) IJRBMY (3) YJRBMY (4) DJRBMK (5) None of these
135. 831795 (1) INJTWR (2) BNJTWR (3) BNJTWY (4) YNJYWY (5) None of these
Directions for questions 136 to 140: In each of the questions below there are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements.
136. Statements:All gogs are birds. Some birds are trees. No house is tree.
Conclusions:
I. Some house are dogs.
II. Some birds are dogs.
III. Some trees are dogs
(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only II follows (4) Only II and III follow (5) None of these
137. Statements :
All goats are tigers. Some tigers are horses. All horses are jackals.
Conclusions:
I. Some jackals are tigers
II. Some jackals are goats
III. Some horses are goats
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only I and II follow (4) Only II and follow (5) All follow
138. Statements:
Some pens are tables. All tables are links. Some links are apples.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are pens.
II. Some apples are tables.
III. Some inks are pens.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows (5) None of these
139. Statements:
All fruits are vegetables. All pens are vegetables. All
vegetables are rains.
Conclusion:
I. All fruits are rains
II. All pens are rains
III. Some rains are vegetables
(1) None follows (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only II and III follow (4) Only I and III follow (5) All follow
140. Statements:
Some flowers are skies. Some skies are rooms. Some
rooms are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are skies
II. Some rooms are flowers
III. No sky is window
(1) Only I follows (2) Only either I or II follows (3) Only either II or III follows (4) Only either I or III follows (5) None of these
141. In a certain code ‘GROWTH’ is writen as HQPVUG and ‘FOUR’ as GNVQ. How is ‘PROBLEMS’ written in that code?
(1) OQPAMDNR (2) QQNCMDNR (3) QQPAKDNR (4) QQPAMDNR (5) None of these

142. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CHILDREN’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet?
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 2 (5) None of these
143. Pointing to the lady in the photograph, Seema said, “Her son’s father is the son in law of my mother”. How is Seema related to the lady?
(1) Sister (2) Mother (3) Counsin (4) Aunt (5) None of these
144. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
(1) DONE : NOED (2) WANT : NATW (3) WITH : TIHW (4) JUST : SUJT (5) HAVE : AVEH
145. Each of the vowels in the word ‘MAGNIFY’ is replaced by number ‘2’ and each consonant is replaced by a number which is the serial number of that consonant in the word, i.e. M by 1, G by 3 and so on. What is the total all the numbers once the replacement is completed?
(1) 25 (2) 24 (3) 26 (4) 22 (5) None of these
Directions for Questions 146 to 150: In the following questions, the symbols, @, #, \$, %, *are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’
‘P # Q ‘ means ‘P is greater than or equal to Q’
‘P \$ Q’ means ‘P is less than Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor less than Q’
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true?
146. Statement: B \$ R, R * N, K @ N
Conclusions: I. B * K II. K % R III. B # N
1) All are true (2) only I is true (3) Only I and II are true (4) Only I and III are true (5) None of these
147. Statements:
M % R, R # T, T * N
Conclusions:
I. N % R II. M % T III. M * N
(1) Nine is true (2) Only I is true
(3) only II is true (4) Only I and III are true
(5) All are true
148. Statements:
V # T, T % N, N * M
Conclusions:
I. V % N II. M * T III. V # M
(1) All are true (2) Only I is true
(3) Inly II and III are true
(4) Only I and II are true
(5) None of these
149. Statements:
D \$ K, K % W, F @ W
Conclusions:
I. F % K II. D * W III. D * F
(1) None is true (2) Only II is true
(3) Only II and and III are true
(4) Only III is true
(5) All are true
150. Statements:
J @ H, H % M, D # M
Conclusions:
I. J % D II. D * H III. M * J
(1) Only land II are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) All are true
(5) None of these
151. In a class, among the passed students Neeta is 22nd from the top and Kalyan, who is 5 ranks below Neeta is 34th from the bottom. All the students from the class have appeared for the exam. If the ratio of the students who passed in the exam to those who failed is 4:1 in that class, how many students are there in the class?
(1) Data inadequate (2) 60 (3) 75 (4) 90 (5) None of these
,
152. If in a certain code, ‘O’ is written as ‘E’, ‘A’, as ‘C’, ‘M’ as ‘I’, ‘S’ as ‘O’, ‘N’ as ‘P’, ‘E’ as ‘M’, ‘I’, as ‘A’, ‘P’ as ‘N’, and ‘C’ as ‘S’, then how will ‘COMPANIES’ be written in that code?
(1) SEIACPAMO (2) SMINCPAMO (3) SEINCPAMO (4) SEINCPMIO (5) None of these
153. If a meanigful word beginning with B can be formed from ‘HACEB’, then the fourth letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed then your answer is ‘5’ i.e., ‘None of these’.
(1) A (2) C (3) E (4) H
(5) None of these
154. In a certain code ‘what else can you do for me, Mr. is written as ‘You Mr. what can Ajay else do me
for’. How will anyone else who can do such favour to be written in that code?
(1) Can to who anyone me else do favour such
(2) Can favour anyone who me else do to such
(3) Can to anyone who me else do such favour
(4) Can to anyone who me do else favour such
(5) None of these
155. B is the husband of P. Q is the only grandson of E, who is wife of D and motherinlaw of P. How is B related to D?
(1) Counsin (2) Soninlaw (3) Son (4) Nephew\ (5) None of these
Directions for Questions 156 to 160:There are two sets of figures. One set is called ProblemFigures while he other set is called Answer Figures. Problem set figures from some kind of series. You have to select one figure the Answer set figures which will continue the same series as given in Problem set figures.
156.

157.

COMPUTER
161. Which of the following sort technique does not use divide and conquer methodology?
(1) Merge sort (2) Bubble sort (3) Quick sort (4) Both (1) and (2) (5) None of these
162. A technique which collects all defected space onto free storage list is called
(1) Static memory allocation
(2) Garbage collection
(3) Dynamic memory allocation
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
163. Node to node delivery of the data unit is the responsibility of the laer.
(1) Physical (2) Data link (3) Transport (4) Network (5) None of these
164. Am and FM are examples of modulation
(1) Digitaldigital
(2) Digital to analog
(3) Analog to analog
(4) Analog to digital
(5) None of these
165. What is the major factor that makes co axial cable less susceptible to noise than twisted pair cable?
(1) Inner conductor
(2) Diameter of Cable
(3) Outer conductor
(4) Insulating material
(5) None of these
166. VLF propagation occurs in
(1) Troposhere (2) Inosphere
(3) Space (4) All of the above
(5) None of these
167. ____________ is the concept of sending extra bits for use in error detection.
(1) Check (2) Redundancy(3) Checksum fault (4) Detection (5) None of these
168. A data communication system covering at area the size of a town or city is
(1) LAN (2) WAN (3) MAN (4) VPN (5) None of these
169. The ____________ model shows how to network functions of computer to be organised.
(1) ITUT (2) At and T (3) OSI (4) ISO (5) None of these
170. The physical layer is concerned with transmission of _________ over the physical medium.
(1) Programs (2) Dialogs (3) Protocols (4) Bits (5) None of these
171. Virtual memory systemallow the employment of
(3) More than hard disk capacity
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) Noen of these
172. A 8 bit microprocessor must have
(1) 8 address lines (2) 8 data lines(3) 8 control lines (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) None of these
173. The basic circuit of ECI supports the
(1) NAND logic (2) NOR logic (3) EXOR logic (4) OR Nor logic (5) None of these
174. In fourth generation computer, the main technology used is
(1) Transistor (2) SSI (3) MSI (4) LSI and VLSI (5) None of these
175. In a halfadder, CARRY is obtained by using
(1) OR ‘gate’ (2) N and gate (3) And gate (4) ExNor gate (5) None of these
176. Assembly language programs are written using
(1) Hex Code (2) Mnemonics (3) ASCII Code (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) None of these
177. Micro instructions are kept in
(1) Main memory (2) Control store (3) Cache (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) None of these
178. The number of input lines required for a 8 to 1 multiplexes is
(1) 1 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 256 (5)None of these
(1) Unsigned integer
(2) Pointer of interger
(3) Pointer of struct
(4) Either (1) or (2)
(5) None of these
180. In HTML coding which out of the following attribute HR tag suppresses the shading effect and fields a solid line
(1) Noshade (2) Nocolor (3) Nohr (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) None of these
MARKETING
181. A technique in which the researcher shows a swt of pictures to the respondents and then asks them to describe what they think the pictures represent?
(1) MAT (2) SAT (3) TAT (4) CAT (5) None of these
182. Which among the following are the disadvantage of Focus Group Interview?
(1) Difficulty in sample selection
(2) Samples are necessarily small
(3) Difficulty in analysing the results
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
183. A predetermined cost for having a standard employee perform under standard conditions as one easurable unit of the activity is
(1) Fixed cost (2) Merchandise cost (3) Selling cost (4) Standard cost (5) None of these
184. The purchase of salt of the same brand comes under
(2) Ordinal behaviour
(3) Complex burying behaviour
(5) None of these
185. A situation when there is repetitive or routine basis order given by the buyer to the older suppliers is nown as________
(5) None of these
186. In Banking Serives, market can be segment on the basis of _________________
(1) Density (2) Customer (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2) (5) None of these
187. In testing the new product, ‘concept testing’ is __________
(1) Customer’s reaction to the idea of product
(2) Salesman reaction to the idea of product
(3) To put the real product into a few selected markets
(4) To asses total product performance
(5) None of these
188. When the product is finally submitted to the market, it is known as __________.
(1) Commercialization
(2) Product testing
(3) Concept testing
(4) Market testing
(5) None of these
189. Which among the following is/are true about ‘Brand Rejuvenation’?
1) It adds value to an existing brand
(2) It refocus the attention of con summer
(3) It helps overcome the consumer’s boredom
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
190. What is the full form of V.E.D.?
(1) Value Exempted Demand
(2) Vital Essential Desirable
(3) Value Expected Desirable
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) None of these
191. A system of distribution channef in which the producer, wholesalers and retailers act as a unified system
(1) Vertical Marketing System
(2) Horizontal Marketing System
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
(5) None of these
192. Niche marketing refers to ____________
(1) A strategy that specialises in limited or unique product category
(2) A strategy that specialises in NICHE products
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
(5) None of these
193. The sales promotion, customers response
(1) Quickly (2) Slowly (3) Immediately (4) Both (1) and (3) (5) None of these
94. Which among the following is a disadvantage of ‘Press’ as an Advertising medium?
(1) High cost of brand usage
(2) Short message life
(3) Suitable only for educated class
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
195. In cash the objective of the company is to increase repeat purchase, the appropriate promotional tool would be
(1) Coupons in print media
(2) Multiple packs
(4) Continuity promotions
(5) None of these
196. Which among the following is the most commonly used sales promotional technique in India?
(1) Price Deals
(2) Refunds and Refits
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
(5) None of these
197. Which among the following has an impact on the morale of the salesforce?
(1) Salary
(2) Incentives
(3) Organisational structure
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
198. In the preapproach stage of personal selling
(1) Salesman tries to know about the like and dislike of the prospect
(2) Salesman identify the prospect
(3) Test the product
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) None of these
199. An organisational structure designed to overcome the problems of individual sales organisations is called
(1) Hyprid sales organisation
(2) Double sales organisation
(3) Tripls sales organisation i
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
200. While selecting an advertising medium, which criteria should be consideredd?
(1) Coverage
(2) Fusibility
(3) Frequency
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these

IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Reasoning,General awareness,quantitative Aptitude Question Paper
IBPS Exam Paper

General awareness

1. Which one of the following Public Sector Organizations has offered largest ever equity offer ?
1.SAIL
2.Coal India
3.Power Grid
4.Shipping Corporation of India
5.None of these

2. Through which one of the following sources domestic funds are raised by Companies ?
(a) IPO only
(b) FPO only
(c) Commercial papers
1.Only (a) and (b)
2.All (a), (b) and (c)
3.Only (a),and (c) Only (a)
5.Only (c)

3. Which one of the following was the reason owing to which Govt. want Reserve Bank of India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs?
1.To reduce liquidity in the market
2.It is as per Basel II requirements
3.It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives
4.It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown
5.None of these

4. In the financial year 2009-10, which one of the following Banks has made highest Total dividend Payout?
1.SBI

2.PNB

3.Bank of India

4.Canara Bank

5.None of these
5. In respect of which one of the following countries, India has proposed non payments for import of crude oil ?
1.Iran

2.Iraq

3.Kuwait

4.Sudan

5.U.A.E.

Numerical Ability Questions
1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1.25

2.26

3.27

4 30

5.26

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1.1/8

2.4/9

3.2/8

4.3/8

5.3/8

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1.36

2.37

3.42

4.29

5.47

4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh?s age in years?
1.29

2.30

3.24

4.25

5.28

5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paisa coins is:
1.Rs. 28

2.Rs. 36

3.Rs. 49

4.Rs. 72

5.Rs. 50

6. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4 5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate of 1.3 percent amounts to Rs. 910, the original value of the tempo is:

1.Rs. 78,000

2.Rs. 78,500

3.Rs. 80,000

4.Rs. 85,000

7. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20% in the transaction?
1.19

2.18

3.24

4.22

5.23

8. In a ratio, which is equal to 3 : 4, if the antecedent is 12, then the consequent is:

1.10

2.16

3.20

4.22

9. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid?
1.Rs. 320

2.Rs. 345

3.Rs. 355

4. Rs. 380

5.None of these

10. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately:
1.10.4 km/hr

2.10.8 km/hr

3.12 km/hr

4.14 km/hr

5.13 km/hr

11. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings?

12. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
1.13%

2.10.25%

3.15%

4.11%

5.None of these

13. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is:
1.11%

2.12%

3.20%

4.28%

5.33%

14. What is the difference in exports between the periods March to May and June to August (in \$ million)?
1.418

2.592

3.5790

4.585

5.None of these

15. If the exports of company B in the year 2003 were Rs. 77 crore, then, what were the imports of the company in that year?
1.86 crore

2.107.5 crore

3.103.95 crore

4.101 crore

5.None of these

Mental Ability Verbal Questions
1. If Step IV reads ?to restrict the use of air conditioners?, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can?t be determined
(5) None of these

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security easons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every atch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on?
2. If pass-code for the third batch is ?night succeed day and hard work-to for?, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these

3. If ?visit in zoo should the time day? is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in? will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1)II

(2)IV

(3)I

(4)III

(5)VI

4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ?to fast rush avoid not do very run?. What would have been the pass-code for him had visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(5) None of these

5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ?length the day equal of an night are?. However, he could not visit the museum the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4)and of are the night length day equal
(5) None of these

6. If ass-code for the second batch is ?to confidence hard you leads work and success?, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?
(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these

7. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is ?and pencil by all boys used are pen?, what will be the passcode for the first batch?
(1)pencil and pen are used by all boys
(2)pen and pencil used are by all boys
(3)pen and pencil are used by all boys
(4)Pencil and pen are used all by boys
(5) None of these

8. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is ?not go the way to of out do?, what will be the pass-code for the third batch?
(1)Of do to out go not way the
(2)of to do out not go way the
(3)of to go out do not way the
(5) None of these

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:
A word rearrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
the steps of rearrangement:
Input: Over you pat me crow easy to.
Steps: (I) pat over you crow easy to me
Steps: (II) crow pat over you to me easy
Steps: (III) over crow pal to me easy you
Steps: (IV) to over crow pat easy you me and so on.
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in the following questions:

9. If Step II of an input is ?ge su but he for game free?, what would be step VI?
(1)a for but fine he game su
(3)free ge for but game su he
(4)he ge su but game free for
(5) None of these

10. If step IV of an input is ?blue navy kit lime se get?, which of the following would definitely be the input?
(1)navy get lime out kit se blue
(2)lime navy get kit se blue out
(3)lime blue navy kit get out se
(4)kit blue navy se get out lime
(5) None of these

11. Input: but calm free are so not eat. Which of the following will be the 3rd step for this input?
(1)so free but calm eat are not
(2)but calm are free not so eat
(3)are but calm free not eat so
(4)but so free eat are not calm
(5) None of these
12. If step V of an input is ?put down col in as mach sa? , what would be the 8 th step?
(1)down in put much sa as col
(2)in put down cot much sa as
(3)much in put down sa as col
(4)col put down as much sa in
(5) None of these
13. Input: rim bye eat klin fe to low Which of the following steps would be ?fe low rim to bye klin eat??
(1)VIth

(2)vth

(3)IVth

(4)IIIrd

(5)None of these

Directions: A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:
Input: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
Step I: Put for he watch hand pocket them.
Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them.
Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them.
Step IV: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow:
14. If Step III of a given input be ?fly sky birds my su fur say?, what is the seventh step of the input?
(1)fly sky birds my su fur say
(2)fly birds sky my fur su say
(3)fly fur su my birds sky say
(4)fly su fur my sky birds say
(5) None of these

15. If Step VII of an input is ?slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi?, what is step V of that input?
(1)slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi
(2)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(3)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(4)slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi
(5) None of these

English Language
Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four ords are suggested. One of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out appropriate word in each case. The Reserve Bank has taken a bold (1) in the development of they, the government securities and the foreign exchange markets in (2) of their critical role in overall growth and development of the economy and (3) in the transmission mechanism of monetary policy. The approach has been one of simultaneous movements on several fronts, graduated and callibrated,with an (4) on institutional and infrastructural development and improvements in market microstructure. The pace of reforms was contingent (5) putting in place appropriatesystems and procedures, technologies and market practices. Initiatives taken by the Reserve Bank have brought about a (6) transformation of various segments of the financial market. These developments by improve the depth and liquidity in domestic financial markets have (7) to better price discovery of interest rates and exchange rates, which, in turn, hae led to greater (8) in resource allocation in the economy. The increase in size and depth of financial market has (9) the way for (10) use of indirect instruments.
1. (1)interest (2)participation(3)step (4)role (5)None of these
2. (1)point (2)tune 3)view (4)pursuit (5)None of these
3. (1)decisively (2)reluctantly 3)visibly (4)particularly (5)None of these
4)equilibrium (2)emphasis (3)appeasement (4)overload (5)None of these
5. (1)by (2)for (3)against (4)upon (5)None of these
6. (1)trivial (2)jubilant (3)fastidious (4)significant 5)None of these
7. (1)addressed (2)contributed (3)initiated (4)evolved (5)None of these
8. (1)measures (2)activism (3)debacle (4)efficiency (5)None of these
9. (1)paved (2)repaired (3)dug (4)elevated (5)None of these
10.(1)revolutionised (2)indiscriminate (3)flexible (4)arbitrary (5)None of these

1. (3 ) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10.(3)

Computer Knowledge Questions
1. Buffer is device/storage area?
1.Where data are temporarily stored
2.Where data is permanently stored
3.Where data error occurs
4.All of the above

5.None of these

2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called?
1.Car Topology

2.Bus Topology

3.Truck Topology

4.All of the above

5.None of these

3. An error in a computer program is referred as?
1.Bug

2.Bit

3.Virus

4.All of the above

5.None of these

4. Circuits that provide a ommunication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is?

1.Car

2.Bus

3.Truck

4.All of the above

5.None of these

5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as? 1.Byte

2.Octal

3.Bubble

4.All of the above

5.None of these

6. Cache memory is a?

1.Small buffer storage

2.Permanent storage

3.Main memory

4.All of the above

5.None of these

7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as?

1.Number system

2.Base

3.Power

4.All of the above

5.None of these
8. Cache memory?

1.Is a Static RAM

2.Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate

3.Both 1. and 2. true .

4.Both 1. and 2. are false

5.None of these
9. Following is false for BASIC?

1.Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code

2.High-level interactive programming language

3.Works in time sharing nvironment

4.Low level object oriented language

5.None of these
10. A unit for measuring data transmission speed that describes the capacity of a carrier is referred as?

1.Baud

2.Bit

3.Bond

4.All of the above

5.Batch
11. A process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally manufactured/developed?

1.Alpha test

2.Beta Test

3.Gamma test

4.All of the above

5.None of these

12. A selection, choice, or condition involving two possibilities is referred as?
1.Unary

2.Binary

3.Octal

4.All of the above

5.None of these

13. Base band System is?

1.A networking system

2.Where the channel support a single digital signal

3.Both 1. and 2. are true

4.All of the above

5.None is true

14. One of the early coding systems, based on the idea of converting each digit of a decimal number into its binary equivalent rather than converting the entire decimal value into a pure binary form is?
1.ASCII code

2.BCD

3.ASCII-8

4.All of the above

5.None of these

15. In Batch processing?
1.Several computer programs runs one after another without human interaction to run each program individually
2.Several computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
3.Selected computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to
un each program individually
4.All of the above
5.None is true

16. BISYNC is?
1.Binary synchronous
2.A process of transmitting data
3.A half-duplex, character oriented, synchronous data communication transmission method
4.All of the above
5.None of these

17. A device that is used to transmit data from one location to another is referred as?

1.Storage

2.Memory

3.Carrier

4.All of the above

5.None of these

18. Programs developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine readable form is known as?
1.Canned programs
2.Beta program
3.Alpha program
4.All of the above
5.None of these

19. A binary numbers are represented by?

1.Digits 0 and 1

2.Digits 0, 1, …, 8

3.Digits AB, C,…

4.All of the above

5.None of these

20. BIOS is responsible for

1.Handling the particulars of input/output operations

2.Output operations

3.Input operations

4.All of the above

5.None of these

21 BIOS is an abbreviation for?

1.Binary Input/Binary Output

2.Binary synchronous

3.Binary digit

4.All of the above

5.None of these

22. BISYNC is an abbreviation for?

1.Binary Input/Binary Output

2.Binary synchronous

3.Binary digit

4.All of the above

5.None of these

23. The overall design, construction, organization and interconnecting of the various components of a computer system is referred as?

1.Computer Architecture

2.Computer Flowchart

3.Computer Algorithm

4.All of the above

5.None of these

24. A number system with a base of two is referred as?

1.Unary number system

2.Binary number system

3.Octal number system

4.All of the above

5.None of these

25. Call statement?

1.A program statement which transfers program control to a subroutine.

2.A program statement that does not transfers program control to a subroutine

3.Void statement

4.All of the above

5.None of these

Answers 1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (2)

IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Reasoning Paper
IBPS latest reasoning Question Papers with answers -These are the different reasoning questionsasked
Reasoning : Solved Paper

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Sandin CWE
(B) Stone
(C) Cement
(D) Brick
(E) Wall
Ans : (E)

2. If Yellow is called Green, Green is called Black, Black is called White, White is called Red, Red is called Blue, Blue is called Orange then what is the colour of milk ?
(A) White
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Green
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Pointing to a photograph Seema said ‘He is the only grandson of my mother’s father-in-law’.How is the man in photograph related to Seema ?
(A) Father
(B) Uncle
(C) Cousin
(D) Brother
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (D)

4. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’ and ‘–’ means ‘+’ what is the value of—17 + 15 – 135 × 9 ÷ 70 ?
(A) 270
(B) 240
(C) 170
(D) 200
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the fourth, the fifth, the sixth, the eighth and the eleventh letters of the word GOURMANDISE using each letter only once first letter of the word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is X. If no such word can be formed your answer is Y—
(A) D
(B) R
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (D)

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Nickel
(D) Copper
(E) Brass
Ans : (E)

7. In a certain code EXTRA is written as % 5 # 73 and NOSE is written as 4 @ 8%; how is STORE written in that code ?
(A) 5#@7%
(B) 8#@7%
(C) 8#@%5
(D) 8@75%
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. In a row of children facing North, Shamika is third to the right of Nikhil who is seventeenth from the right end of the row. Ravi is fifth to the left of Shamika and is twentieth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 39
(B) 38
(C) 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXAMINATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. In a certain code ACQUIRE is written as EIRUQAC, how is DENSITY written in that code ?
(A) YTISNDE
(B) YITSNED
(C) YTISNED
(D) YITSNDE
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) These questions are based on the following letter/number/ symbolarrangement.Study it carefully and answer the questions.
T 8 # 1 7 F J 5 % E R @ 4 D A 2 B © Q K 3 1 ? U H 6 L

11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a vowel ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) E@%
(B) #78
(C) 5EJ
(D) U6?
(E) QKB
Ans : (E)

13. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

14. What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
TL8 #6I 7HF ?
(A) FUJ
(B) JU?
(C) FU?
(D) JU5
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. Which of the following is seventh to the right of thirteenth from the right ?
(A) 1
(B) ?
(C) F
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each question below are given three statements followed by twoconclus ions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answer (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) is correct answer and indicate
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow
Ans : (C)

16. Statements :
Some cards are plastics.
Some Plastics are metals.
All metals are pots.
Conclusions :
I. Some pots are cards.
II. No pot is a card.
Ans : (C)

17. Statements :
All chairs are tables.
All tables are trains.
All trains are buses.
Conclusions :
I. All tables are buses.
II. All trains are tables.
Ans : (A)

18. Statements :
Some machines are computers.
Some computers are calculators.
Some calculators are phones.
Conclusions :
I. Some phones are computers.
II. Some computers are machines.
Ans : (B)

19. Statements :
All spoons are bowls.
Some bowls are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Conclusions :
I. Some glasses are spoons.
II. Some plates are bowls.
Ans : (D)

20. Statements :
Some envelopes are packets.
Some packets are boxes.
All boxes are parcels.
Conclusions :
I. Some parcels are packets.
II. Some parcels are boxes.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer—
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) If thedata in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

21. Among D, B, J, T and F who was the first person to reach the office ?
I. D reached before J and F but after B.
II. B was not the first to reach office.
Ans : (E)

22. What is the code for ‘not’ in the code language ?
I. In the code language ‘do not go’ is written as ‘la ra de’.
II. In the code language ‘go to school’ is written as ‘ka ma ra.’
Ans : (D)

23. How many children are there in the class ?
I. Rita ranks 23rd from the top.
II. Anita ranks 17th from the bottom and is five ranks above Rita.
Ans : (E)

24. How is Neela related to Deepa ?
I. Neela’s mother is Deepa’s brother’s wife.
II. Neela is the only granddaughter of Deepa’s mother.
Ans : (C)
25. R is in which direction with respect to T ?
I. R is to the east of H who is to the north of T.
II. Q is to the east of T and to the South of R
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) These questions are based on the following arrangements I & II. Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow—
I. P T 7 A # 4 B C 3 @ K F 1 9 ?
II. E H L © 6 8 \$ U 5 J M 2 D% 1

26. How many such symbols are there in arrangements I & II together each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a numeral ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

27. If P7© : TAL : : B3J : ?
(A) @KJ
(B) C@J
(C) C@5
(D) 3KJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. Which element will be third to the right of seventh element from right end in the arrangement I if the order of its elements is reversed ?
(A) 7
(B) #
(C) F
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the position of the elements in the above two arrangements ?
(A) U3
(B) \$C
(C) 3J
(D) UC
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

30. If the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth elements in arrangement II are replaced by the respective elements in arrangement I, which element will be third to the left of sixth element the right end in arrangement II ?
(A) \$
(B) B
(C) 7
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Symbols @, %, ?, \$ and # are used with following meanings—
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.
‘A ? B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
‘A \$ B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B.’
‘A # B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of
the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.

31. Statements : G @ H, H ? Q, Q \$ M
Conclusions : I. M % G
II. H \$ M
Ans : (E)

32. Statements : F ? B, B @ E, E # J
Conclusions : I. F @ E
II. J \$ B
Ans : (A)

33. Statements : R \$ H, H % M, M # F
Conclusions : I. F \$ H
II. F @ R
Ans : (D)

34. Statements : T # L, L % W, W @ V
Conclusions : I. L % V
II. T % W
Ans : (B)

35. Statements : K % L, L # T, I \$ T
Conclusions : I. L % I
II. L ? I
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) These questions are based on the following information—
Seven persons R, J, M, Q, L, T and K conduct workshop on Developing Managerial skills in seven different companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G on a different day of the week from Monday to Sunday. The order of persons, companies and days of the week are not necessarily the same. J organizes workshop in Company D on Wednesday. Q does not conduct workshop for companies A or C and conducts on the next day of L who conducts the workshop for Company F. T conducts workshop for Company E on Friday. K conducts workshop on Monday but not for Company C or G. M conducts workshop for Company A but not on Tuesday.

36. Who conducts workshop on Saturday ?
(A) M
(B) Q
(C) L
(D) Q or L
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. On which day does Q conduct the workshop ?
(A) Sunday
(B) Saturday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. M conducts workshop on which day ?
(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Thursday
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

39. Which of the following combinations of person-company and day is correct ?
(A) K–B–Wednesday
(B) R–B–Monday
(C) K–C–Monday
(D) K–G–Sunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

40. Who conducts workshop for Company C and on which day ?
(A) R, Thursday
(B) R, Tuesday
(C) Q, Saturday
(D) Q, Sunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) Below in each question are given two statements (a) and (b). These
statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the
statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship
between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) If statement (a) is the cause and statement (b) is its effect
(B) If statement (b) is the cause and statement (a) is its effect
(C) If both the statements (a) and (b) are independent causes
(D) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of some common cause

41. (a) Government of state ‘X’ imposed a higher sales tax on petroleum products compared to
the neighbouring states.
(b) All the petrol pumps in the state observed ‘bandh’ in protest.
Ans : (A)

42. (a) Attendance for the All India examination held in July 2006 was poor at all the centres.
(b) Western States of the country were affected by heavy floods during July 2006.
Ans : (D)

43. (a) High Court has declared stay on construction of residential buildings on the land under dispute.
(b) A large number of middle class salaries people had booked flats in the buildings under
dispute.
Ans : (C)

44. (a) Residents in the locality have now decided to launch a cleanliness drive.
(b) Civic authorities in the city have recorded many cases of Cholera and gastro.
Ans : (B)

45. (a) Senior citizens of the city have complained about the late night disturbance caused due to loudspeakers used during festivals.
(b) Though, the Government has issued a directive banning late night celebrations
involving use of loudspeakers, it is not being strictly followed in some of the areas.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) An organization wants to recruit Manager—HRD for its umbai division. The following criteria have been laid down, to be eligible for selection. The candidate must—
(a) Be a graduate in any discipline passed in first class with minimum 60% marks
(b) Have done post graduate degree/diploma in HRD or personnel management with minimum
65% marks
(c) Have cleared the selection test with minimum 50% marks
(d) Have cleared the interview with minimum 45% marks
(e) Be not less than 21 years and not more than 28 years of age as on 1.2.2007.
However, if a candidate satisfies all other criteria except for—
(i) At (b) above but has got-at-least two years post-qualification experience of working in HRD department case may be referred to the Chairman of the organisation.
(ii) At (c) above but has secured minimum 45% marks in selection test and 55% marks in interview the case may be referred to the President of the organization.
In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2007. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows. Give answer—
(A) If the candidate is to be selected
(B) If the candidate is not to be selected
(C) If the case is to be referred to Chairman
(D) If the case is to be referred to President
(E) If the data provided is not adequate to decide the course of action

46. Nalini Zaveri has done her graduation in Arts in first class with 60% marks and postgraduate management diploma in HRD with 62% marks. Her date of birth is 16.1.1981. She has been working in the HRD department of a bank for past three years after completing her postgraduation diploma in HRD. She has secured 55% marks in selection test and 50% marks in interview.
Ans : (C)

47. Rajesh Nalawade is a B. Sc. In first class with 75% marks and post-graduate in personnel management with 60% marks. He is working as an Officer in administration department of an organisation for past two years. He has secured 55% marks in selection test and 52% marks in interview. He has completed 26 years of age in November 2006.
Ans : (B)

48. Shyam Bansode has passed B. Com. in first class with 65% marks and MBA in personnel management with 72% marks. He has cleared the selection test with 58% marks and interview with 52% marks. His date of birth is 17.5.1983.
Ans : (A)

49. Nikhil Agnihotri is a postgraduate in personnel management passed out in 2005 at the age of 24 years securing 71% marks. He has secured 62% marks in selection test and 57% marks in interview.
Ans : (E)

50. Sujata Shirke has passed out B. Com. in first class with 62% marks in 2003 at the age of 21 years. Thereafter she has done MBA with specialization in HRD with 72% marks. She has secured 48% marks in selection test and 58% marks in interview.
Ans : (D)

51. (B) In each subsequent figure one time the three designs remain same and next time after shifting
one side anticlockwise direction then it remain same position. Inside shaded part of the designs form
after rotating 90° anticlockwise in the two designs and forms after rotating 90° clockwise in a simple
square design with this also.

52. (D) In each subsequent figure the outside bigger design ‘<’ forms after rotating 45° and 90°
anticlockwise respectively and the inside smaller design ‘^’ forms after rotating 90° and 180°
anticlockwise respectively.

53. (E)

54. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on upper side straight horizontal line increase in
sequence of 2, 3, 1 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and one curved line
is missing from back side each time. The curved lines on lower side straight horizontal line increase in
sequence of 3, 4, 2 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and is also missing
1 and 2 respectively from back side.

55. (C) In each subsequent figure the designs shift half side anticlockwise first and then one side
anticlockwise respectively and a new design forms one by one from back side each time then forward
side respectively.

56. (E) In each subsequent figure one design forms on upper left side corner first and then this design
shifts half side, one side and, one and half side clockwise respectively. These designs rotate 90°
clockwise each time with this change also.

57. (B)

58. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on the upper and lower side horizontal lines reverse
in sequence one and three in clockwise direction from upper left respectively.
59. (B) In each subsequent figure the outside half circle forms inside after reversing and shifting one
side anticlockwise and then it forms outside after reversing on the same side. So these sequences
continue respectively. The second design square forms once on next side anticlockwise after reversing
from outside to inside.

60. (E) 61. (A)

62. (C) In each subsequent figure increase in the number of triangles from upper left corner beome on
the basis of increasing of lines three, four, five, six and seven lines respectively.

63. (B)

64. (E) In each subsequent figure the circles form on the place of two-two stars from upper left corner.
These small circles form on the place of existing stars in the next two lines after forming upto lower
left as 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 respectively and then two-two stars form on the place of circles from back side.

65. (D) In each subsequent figure the ‘square’ forms one side clockwise first and then half side
anticlockwise respectively. Similarly, the ‘circle’ shifts half side, one side, one and half side, two side
and two and half side anticlockwise respectively in each subsequent figure also.

COMPUTER COMPETENCY

81. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
(A) CPU (B) slice of time (C) stack (D) event
Ans : (B)

82. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
Ans : (A)

83. An interrupt handler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)

84. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)

85. Virtual memory is typically located:
(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)

86. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)

87. The definition of thrashing is:
(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)

88. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)

(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)

90. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)

91. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration
settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration
settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration
settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating
system
Ans : (B)

93. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
Ans : (D)

94. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating
system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)

95. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)

96. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the
____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)

97. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)

98. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)

99. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)

100. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon
Ans : (C)

IBPS Model Paper

Reasoning
1. In a certain code ROPE is written as \$3%6 and RITE is written as \$4#6. How is PORT written in that code?
(1) %4\$#
(2) \$3%#
(3) \$64%
(4) %3\$#
(5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said ?She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother’s daughter’. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece/ daughter
(3) Aunt
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) Pineapple
(2) Guava
(3) Grapes
(4) Papaya
(5) Pear
5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?
(1) S
(2) B
(3) A
(4) K
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code?
(1) DIBJS
(2) SBJID
(3) SHBGD
(4) SJBID
(5) None of these
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) FH
(2) KM
(3) PR
(4) CE
(5) JM

8. If ? P Q’ means ?P is wife of Q’, ?P+Q’ means ?P is father of Q’ and ?P Q’ means ?P is sister of Q’ then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Mother
(3) Niece
(4) Aunt
(5) None of these
9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) 17
(2) 19
(3) 23
(4) 29
(5) 27
11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
12. If ??’ means ?x’, \$ means ?+’, # means ? ‘ and ?©’ means ?-? then what is the value of360 # 24\$ 56« 5© 48?
(1) 253
(2) 242
(3) 247
(4) 285
(5) None of these
13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of turmeric?
(1) green
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) pink
(5) None of these
14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your answer is Y.
(1) A
(2) E
(3) L
(4) X
(5) Y
15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how many children are there in the row?
(1) 19
(2) 20

(3) 21

(4) 18

(5) None of these
Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, \$ and @ are used with different meanings as follows:
?A © B’ means ?A is smaller than B’
?A # B’ means ?A is either smaller than or equal to B’
?A « B’ means ?A is greater than B’
?A \$ B’ means ?A is either greater than or equal to B’
?A @ B’ means ?A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
Conclusions: I. M #H
18. Statements: H\$F, F@G, G«M
Conclusions: I. H «M
II. H «G
19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L
Conclusions: I. R @ T

II. J @ l
20. Statements: W@T, T\$K, K «F
Conclusions: I. W \$ K
II. W @ K
Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
21. Statements:
Some pens are books.
All books are pencils.
All pencils are jars.
Conclusions:
I. All books are jars.
II. Some pens are pencils.
22. Statements:
Some bowls are spoons
Some spoons are forks
All forks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls are forks.
II. Some spoons are plates.
23. Statements:
Some bottles are jars.
All jars are buckets.
All buckets are tanks.
Conclusions:
I. All jars are tanks.
II. Some buckets are tanks.
24. Statements:
Some phones are mobiles.
Some mobiles are computers.
Some computers are keys.
Conclusions:
I. Some phones are keys.
II. Some computes are phones.
25. Statements:
All papers are files.
Some files are folders.
All folders are bags.
Conclusions:
I. Some files are bags.
II. Some papers are folders.
Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?
I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.
II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.
27. What is the code for ?Play’ in the code language?
I. In the code language ?play and dance’ is written as ?ka to pe’
II. In the code language enjoy the dance’ is written as ?pe jo ra’.
28. How many children are there in the class?
I. Vandana’s rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom.
II. Nandini’s rank is seventeenth from the top.
29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?
I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta.
II. Neeta is not the tallest.
30. How many sons does Ramesh have?
I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.
II. R is brother of H.
Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:
5 D G E « 7 9 \$ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2

31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) \$9F
2) R6%
(3) 8PU
(4) #B4
(5) 3BJ
32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left?
(1) L
(2) R
(3) 6
(4) I
(5) None of these
33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
EDH 9 « 7 I\$F ?
(1) 6RI
(2) %R6
(3) R16
(4) %6R
(5) None of these
34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement?
(1) K
(2) @
(3) P

(4) #

(5) None of these
35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.
36. Who is to the immediate left of L?
(1) Q
(2) O
(3) K
(4) N
(5) None of these
37. Who is to the immediate left of K?
(1) N
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?
(1) Second to the right of K
(2) To the immediate left of K
(3) To the immediate right of M
(4) To the immediate right of K
(5) None of these
39. Who is third to the right of P?
(1) L
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) N
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two?
(1) PJO
(2) OPJ
(3) OPM
(4) MPO
(5) None of these
Answers for Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper:
1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5), 11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4), 20. (1), 21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5), 30. (5), 31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1), 40. (2), 41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49. (2), 50. (3)

Computer Questions
1. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n)____________ to each task requiring the processor?s attention.
(A) CPU
(B) slice of time
(C) stack

(D) event Ans : (B)
2. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications
interact with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
Ans : (A)
3. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
(A) point-and-click
(B) user-friendly
(C) command-driven
(D) Mac
Ans : (C)
4. An interrupt handler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)
5. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)
6. Virtual memory is typically located:
(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)
7. (A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a program?s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can?t fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)
8. The definition of thrashing is:
(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)
9. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)
(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)
11. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the
computer?s:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)
12. The following message generally means:
(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
(B) the CD drive is not functioning.
(C) the BIOS is corrupted.
Ans : (A)
13. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
14. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
Ans : (D)
15. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating
system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)
16. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)
17. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)
18. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the?
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)
19. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)
20. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT?
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)
21. The operating system allows users to organize the computer?s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.
(B) folders.
(D) drives.
(D) systems.
Ans : (D)
22. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT?
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)
23. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT?
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.
(C) Files are stored in RAM.
(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)
24. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates?
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)
25. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon Ans : (C)
IBPS CWE PO Clerical Specilists officers aptitude and reasoning solved question papers

IBPS CWE PO Clerical Specilists officers aptitude and reasoning solved question papers

Ibps Aptitude and reasoning questions with answers and detailed explanations for clerical PO officers and specilists officers posts.In IBPS examination wrriten test conists aptitude,reasoning,bank based general awareness,computer questions,data intrepreatation and data analysis.For IBPS exam preparation we have to earn and practice easy methods to solve questions within the time limit.Here are some reasoing and aptitude model question papers with answers and detailed explnations for your upcming bank,ibps psu and IT companies writen test

1. How many such pairs of digits are there in number ‘36725918’ each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number ?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Ans: (d)

2. What should come next in the following number series ?
6 8 8 1 2 6 8 6 1 2 3 6 8 8 1 2 3 4 6 8 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 ?
a) 6
b) 1
c) 4
d) 8
e) None of these
Ans: (d)

3. In a certain code PAGE is written as ‘3%7@’, SORE is written as ‘8©9@’. How is ‘PEAS’ written in that code ?
b) 3@%9
c) 3@%8
d) 3%@8
Ans: (c)

4. If ‘@’ means ‘X’, ‘©’ means ‘÷’ and ‘\$’ means ‘-‘ then 6 % 12 © 3 @ 8 \$ 3 = ?
a) 37
b) 35
c) 39
d) 33
e) None of these
Ans: (b)

5. In a certain code ”MOUSE’ is written as PRUQC’. How is ‘SHIFT’ written in that code ?
a) VKIRD
b) VKIDR
c) VJIDR
d) VIKRD
e) None of these
Ans: (b)

6. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word ?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
Ans: (b)

7. Among A, B, C, D and E each scoring different, marks in a test, C scored more than D but not as much as E. E scored more than A who scored less than B. Who did score third highest marks ?
a) B
b) A
c) C
e) None of these
Ans: (d)

8. ‘K’ walked 5 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked for 10 metres. He then took a right turn and walked for 20 metres, and again took right turn and walked again took right turn and walked 10 metres. How far he is from the starting point ?
a) 20 metres
b) 15 metres
c) 25 metres
d) 30 metres
Ans: (c)

9. Pointing to a girl, Mr. Suraj said “she is the only daughter of my father’s son-in-law”. How is the girl related to Mr. Suraj ?
a) Niece
b) Cousin
c) Sister
d) Daughter
e) Cannot be determined
Ans: (a)

10. Sneha correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is before 16th June but after 11th June whereas her younger brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 13th June but before 18th June and her elder brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is on an even date. On what date in June is definitely their father’s birthday ?
a) sixteenth
b) Twelfth
c) Fourteenth or Sixteenth
e) None of these
Ans: (e) According to Sneha her father’s birthday may be on 12th, 13th 14th or 15th June. According to brother of Sneha their father’s birthday may be on 14th, 15th, 16th or 17th June. Even date ==> 14th June.

11 How many such digits are there in the number ‘37152869’ each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Ans: (c)

12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
Ans: (c)

13. ‘KN’ is related to ‘QT’ in the same way as ‘DG’ related to
a) JN
b) IM
c) JM
d) IN
e) IL
Ans: (c)

Directions (14-15) : Following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below
518 849 365 783 291
14. If the position of first and third digits in each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of third highest number ?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 8
d) 9
e) 6
Ans: (e)
518 ==> 815 : 849 ==>948 ;
365 ==>563; 783 ==>387;
291==>192;
Third highest number ==> 563

15. If the first digit in all the numbers starting with an even digit is replaced by a number preceding it, then which of the following will be the sum of the first digit of the resulting highest and the lowest numbers ?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 7
d) 6
e) 3
518 ==> 518 : 849 ==>749 ;
365 ==>365; 783 ==>783;
291==>191;
Highest number ==> 783
Lowest number ==> 191
Required sum ==> 7 + 1 = 8
Ans: (b)

Directions (16-20) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
16. Statements :
All coins are glasses
Some glasses are cups
Some cups are boxes
All boxes are pins
Conclusions :
I. Some coins are cups
II. Some pins are glasses
III. Some cups are pins
(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only II and III follow
(e) None of these
Ans : (c) Some cups are boxes -> Particular Affirmative (I-type)
All boxes are pins -> Universal Affirmative (A- type)
I + A => I-type of Conclusion ; some cups are pins
This is Conclusion III.
17. Statements :
Some pens are pencils
All pencils are caps
All caps are buses
Some buses are trains
Conclusions :
I. Some trains are caps
II. Some pens are buses
III. Some pencils are trains
(1) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) None follows
(e) All I, II and III follow
Ans : (b) Some pens are pencils -> I type
All pencils are caps -> A type
I+A => I-type of conclusion; some pens are caps
All pencils are caps
All caps are buses
A +A => A-type of conclusion “All pencils are buses”
Some pens are caps
All caps are buses
I+A => I-type of conclusion “Some pens are buses “. This is conclusion II

18. Statements :
All shirts are skirts
All skirts are banks
Conclusions :
I. All banks are skirts
III. Some brushes are shirts
a) Only I follows
b) Only III follows
c) Only I and III follow
d) All I, II and III follow
e) None follows
Ans : (b) All shirts are skirts
All skirts are banks
A+A => A -type of Conclusion “All shirts are banks”.
All skirts are banks
A+A => A-type of conclusion “All skirts are roads”.
A+A => A-type of conclusion “All shirts are brushes”.
Conclusion III is Converse of it.

19. Statements :
Some fishes are plates
Some plates are spoons
Some spoons are plants
All plants are crows
Conclusions: I. Some plates are crows
II. Some crows are spoons
III. Some plants are spoons
a) Only I follows
b) Only I and II follow
c) None follows
d) Only II and III follow
e) Either I or III follow
Ans : (d) Some spoons are plants (I-type)
All plants are crows (A-type)
I+A => I-type of conclusion
“Some spoons are crows”.
Conclusion II is Converse of it
Conclusion III is Converse of the third Premise

20. Statements :
Some eggs are hens
Some hens are ducks
All ducks are pigeons
All pigeons are sparrows
Conclusions :
I. All ducks are sparrows
II. No egg is duck
III. Some sparrows are hens
a) Only I follows
b) Only I and II follow
c) Only III follows
d) Only I and III follow
e) All I, II and III follow
Ans (d) Some hens are ducks (I-type)
All ducks are pigeon (A-type)
I+A => I-type of conclusion
“Some hens are pigeons”.
All ducks are pigeons (A-type)
All pigeons are sparrows
A+A => A-type of conclusion “All ducks are sparrows”. This is conclusion I
Some hens are pigeons (I -type)
All pigeons are sparrows (A-type)
I + A = > I – type of conclusion
“Some hens are sparrows “.
Conclusion III is converse of it.

Directions (21-24) : In the following questions , the symbols @, ©, \$, % and * are used with the following meanings as illustrated below :
P©Q means ‘P is not smaller than Q
P * B means P is not greater than Q
P©Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
P\$Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
P%Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answers accordingly.

21. Statements : K© L, L% O, O @ M, M*N
Conclusions : I. N © O
II. M \$ L
III. K * N
IV. L @ N
a) Only II is true
b) Only I and II are true
c) Only I is true
d) Either I or II is true
e) None is true
Ans : (b)

22. Statements : A * B, B \$ C, C%D, D © E
Conclusions : I. D\$A
II. B\$D
III. E%C
IV. A @ E
a) Only I is true
b) Only either I or II is true
c) Only I and IV are true
d) None is true
e) Only IV is true
Ans : (d)

23. Statements : F\$P, P @ R, R © S, S % T
Conclusions : I. R % F
II. S * P
IV. S % F
a) Only I, II and III are true
b) Only I and II are true
c) Only III and IV are true
d) Only I, II and IV are true
e) All are true
Ans : (d)

24. Statements : G % H, H * I, I \$ J, J @ K
Conclusions : I. G % I
II. G % J
III. K \$ I
IV. H * J
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only I, II and III are true
d) Only either I or II and III are true
e) All is true
Ans : (a)

Directions (25-30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is fourth to the left of F who is fifth to right of E. D is third to the right of A who is not immediate neighbour of E or F. B is third to left of H who is not immediate neighbour of E.

25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? a) HFE
b) DCG
c) BHF
d) AEF
e) CGB
Ans : (d) Except in A E F, in all others the arrangement is anticlockwise

26. Who is between D and E ?
a) C
b) B
c) A
e) None of these
Ans : (b) B is between D and E

27. Which of the following pairs are sitting between A and D ?
a) FB
b) GB
c) FG
d) FE
e) GE
Ans : (c) G and F are sitting between A and D

28. Who is third to the right of E ?
a) B
b) F
c) D
d) G
e) None of these
Ans : (e) A is third to the right of E

29. Who is to the immediate right of A ?
a) G
b) B
c) F
e) None of these
Ans : (d) G is to the immediate right of A

30. What is D’s position with respect to B ?
(i) immediate right
(ii) fourth to the right
(iii) third to the left
(iv) immediate left
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Only B and C
d) Only D
e) Only either A or D
Ans : (d) D is to the immediate left of B