IBPS clerical Numerical ability questions

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IBPS bank po clerical and specialists officers Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos.1 to 5) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. 348 ÷ 29 x 15 + 156 = (?)3 + 120

(1) 12

(2) 6 (Ans)

(3) 36

(4) 9

(5) None of these

Ans : 348 ÷ 29 x 15 + 156 = (?)3 + 120

? 12 x 15 + 156 = (?)3 + 120

? 180 + 156 – 120 = (?)3

? 216 = (?)3

? (6)3 = (?)3

? ? = 6

2. (4 x 4)3 ÷ (512 ÷ 8)4 x (32 x 8)4 = (2 x 2)? + 4

(1) 8

(2) 12

(3) 6 (Ans)

(4) 14

(5) None of these

Ans : (4 x 4)3 ÷ (512 ÷ 8)4 x (32 x 8)4 = (2 x 2)? + 4

? (16)3 ÷ (64)4 x (256)4 = (4)? + 4

? (4)2×3 ÷ (4)3×4 x (4)4×4 = (4)? + 4

? (4)6 ÷ (4)12 x (4)16 = (4)? + 4

? (4)6-2+16 = (4)? + 4

? (4)10 = (4)? + 4

? 10 = ? + 4

? ? = 6

3. (2v392 – 21) + (v8 – 7)2 = (?)2

(1) 4

(2) -4

(3) 12

(4) 2

(5) 6 (Ans)

Ans : (2v392 – 21) + (v8 – 7)2 = (?)2

? (2 x 14v2 – 21) + (v8 – 7)2 = (?)2

? 28v2 – 21 + (v8)2 – 2 x v8 x 7 + (7)2 = (?)2

? 28v2 – 21 + 8 – 28v2 + 49 = (?)2

? – 21 + 8 + 49 = (?)2

? 36 = (?)2

? ? = 6

4. 1 1/4 + 1 1/6 – 1 1/8 = ? + 1 1/12

(1) 5/24 (Ans)

(2) 7/24

(3) 5/12

(4) 7/12

(5) None of these

Ans : 1 1/4 + 1 1/6 – 1 1/8 = ? + 1 1/12

? 1 1/4 + 1 1/6 – 1 1/8 – 1 1/12 = ?

? (1 + 1 – 1 – 1) + (1/4 + 1/6 – 1/8 – 1/12) = ?

? 0 + (6 + 4 – 3 – 2/24) = ? ? 0 + 5/24 = ?

? ? = 5/24

5. 76% of 1285 = 35% of 1256 + ?

(1) 543

(2) 537 (Ans)

(3) 547

(4) 533

(5) None of these

Ans : 76% of 1285 = 35% of 1256 + ?

? 976.6 = 439.6 + ?

? 976.6 – 439.6 = ?

? ? = 537

Directions (Q. Nos. 6 to 10) What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

Solutions (106 to 110)

You can take approximate value of any number

6. 499.99 + 1999 ÷ 39.99 x 50.01 = ?

(1) 3200

(2) 2700

(3) 3000 (Ans)

(4) 2500

(5) 2400

Ans : 499.99 + 1999 ÷ 39.99 x 50.01 = ?

500 + 2000 ÷ 40 x 50 = ?

500 + 50 x 50 = ?

500 + 2500 = ?

3000 = ?

7. [(7.99)2 – (13.001)2 + ‘(4.01)3]2 = ?

(1) -1800

(2) 1450

(3) -1660

(4) 1660 (Ans)

(5) -1450

Ans : [(7.99)2 – (13.001)2 + ‘(4.01)3]2 = ?

? [(8)2 – (13)2 + (4)3]2 = ?

? [64 – 169 + 64]2 = ?

? (-41)2 = ?

? ? = 1681 (?- x – ? +)

˜ 1660

8. 601/49 x 399/81 ÷ 29/201 = ?

(1) 520

(2) 360

(3) 460

(4) 500

(5) 420 (Ans)

Ans : 601/49 x 399/81 ÷ 29/201 = ?

? 601/49 x 399/81 x 201/29 = ?

? 600/50 x 400/80 x 200/30 = ?

? 400 = ?

420 ˜ ?

9. 441.01 – 232.99 + 1649.99 = ? + 1225.92

(1) 600

(2) 630 (Ans)

(3) 660

(4) 690

(5) 720

Ans : 441.01 – 232.99 + 1649.99 = ? + 1225.92

? 441 – 233 + 1650 – 1226 = ?

? 2091 – 1459 = ?

? ? = 623 ˜ 630

10. (21.5% of 999)1/3 + (43% of 601)1/2 = ?

(1) 18

(2) 22 (Ans)

(3) 26

(4) 30

(5) 33

Ans : (21.5% of 999)1/3 + (43% of 601)1/2 = ?

(1000 X 21.5%)1/3 + (600 X 43%)1/2 = ?

(215)1/3 + (258)1/2 = ?

(216)1/3 + (256)1/2 = ?

(6)3X1/3 + (16)2X1/2 = ?

6 + 16 = ?

22 = ?

Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 15) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

11. 15 21 39 77 143 (?)

(1) 243

(2) 240

(3) 253

(4) 245

(5) None of these (Ans)

Ans : – Solutions – Qn Ans -111

12. 33 39 57 87 129 (?)8

(1) 183 (Ans)

(2) 177

(3) 189

(4) 199

(5)

Ans : Solutions – Qn Ans -112

13. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)

(1) 731 (Ans)

(2) 693

(3) 712

(4) 683

(5) None of these

Ans : Solutions – Qn Ans -113

14. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)

(1) 246

(2) 238

(3) 236 (Ans)

(4) 256

(5) None of these

Ans : Solutions – Qn Ans -114

15. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)

(1) 62

(2) 98

(3) 109

(4) 63

(5) None of these (Ans)

Ans : Solutions – Qn Ans -115

Directions (Q. Nos. 16 to 20) In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer

(1) if x > y

(2) if x = y

(3) if x < y

(4) if x = y

(5) if x = y or the relationship cannot be established

Ans :

16. I. x2 – 11x + 24 = 0

II. 2y2 – 9y + 9 = 0

Ans : 2 I. x2 – 11x + 24 = 0

x2 – 8x – 3x + 24 = 0

x (x – 8) – 3 (x – 8) = 0

(x – 8)(x – 3) = 0

? x = 8 or 3

II. 2y2 – 9y + 9 = 0

2y2 – 6y – 3y + 9 = 0

2y(y – 3) – 3 (y – 3) = 0

(2y – 3) (y – 3) = 0

? y = 3/2 or 3

So, x = y

17. I. x3 * 13 = x2 * 247

II. y1/3 * 14 = 294 ÷ y2/3

Ans : 3 I. x3 * 13 = x2 * 247

or x3 / x2 = 247/13

x = 19

II. y1/3 * 14 = 294 ÷ y2/3

or, (y)1/3 * (y)2/3 = 294/14

or, (y)1/3+2/3 = 21

? y = 21

So, y > x

18. I. 12 * 4 / x4/7 – 3 * 4 / x4/7 = x10/7

II. y3 + 783 = 999

Ans : 4 I. 12 * 4 / x4/7 – 3 * 4 / x4/7 = x10/7

or, 48 – 12 = (x)10/7 * (x)4/7

or, 36 = (x)7 = (x)2

? x = ±6

II. y3 + 783 = 999

y3 = 999 – 783

y3 = 216
Placement Paper

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Directions (1-5) What approximate value should come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions ?(You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

1. (56)2 x 2.5385 = ?
(1) 4740
(2) 5570
(3) 6600
(4) 7960 – Ans
(5) 8880

2. (775% of 523) ÷ 777 = ?
(1) 5 – Ans
(2) 12
(3) 19
(4) 26
(5) 29

3. 783.559 + 49.0937 x 31.679 – 58.591 = ?
(1) 26600
(2) 5000
(3) 12800
(4) 2550
(5) 2280 – Ans

4. (4438 – 2874 – 559) ÷ (269 – 106 -83)
(1) 55
(2) 13 – Ans
(3) 47
(4) 29
(5) 31

5. (12.51)4 = ?
(1) 22300
(2) 23400
(3) 24500 – Ans
(4) 25600
(5) 26700

Directions (Q. 6-10) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?
6. 2187 729 243 81 27 9 ?
(1) 36
(2) 3 – Ans
(3) 18
(4) 6
(5) 12

7. 522 1235 2661 4800 7652 11217 ?
(1) 15495 – Ans
(2) 16208
(3) 14782
(4) 16921
(5) 14069

8. 51975 9450 2100 600 240 160 ?
(1) 80
(2) 120
(3) 320 – Ans
(4) 240
(5) 300

9. 4 18 48 100 294 ?
(1) 416
(2) 480
(3) 512
(4) 384
(5) 448 – Ans

10. 6 26 134 666 3334 16666 ?
(1) 84344
(2) 83443
(3) 84434
(4) 83334 – Ans
(5) 83344

Directions 11-20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
11. 4895 + 364 x 0.75 – 49 = ?
(1) 5119 – Ans
(2) 3895
(3) 3907
(4) 5210
(5) None of these

12. 5 and 1/4 +6 and 2/3+ 7 and 1/6 = ?
(1) 19.5
(2) 19 and 11/12
(3) 19 and 1/12 – Ans
(4) 19
(5) None of these

13. [(144)2 ÷ 48 x 18] ÷ 36 = v ?
(1) 23328
(2) 36
(3) 216
(4) 46656 – Ans
(5) None of these

14. (27)18 ÷ (27)3 = ?
(1) (27) 54
(2) (27) 21
(3) (27) 15 – Ans
(4) (27) 6
(5) None of these
Expl : (3)? = (27)18 ÷ (27)3
= (27)18-3 (:. am ÷ an = am-n)
= (27)15

15. 156 + 16 x 1.5 – 21 = ?
(1) 126
(2) 258
(3) 237
(4) 159 – Ans
(5) None of these

16. 434.43 + 43.34 + 3.44 + 4 + 0.33 = ?
(1) 421.45
(2) 455.54
(3) 485.54 – Ans
(4) 447.45
(5) None of these

17. 24336 ÷ ? = 78 x 24
(1) 6
(2) 13 – Ans
(3) 11
(4) 17
(5) None of these

18. (98)45 x (98)-35 = ?
(1) 98
(2) (98)2
(3) (98) -5
(4) (98)10 – Ans
(5) None of these

19. (78.95) – (43.35) = ?
(1) 4353.88 – Ans
(2) 4305
(3) 4235.78
(4)4148
(5) None of these

20. (23.6 % of 1254) – (16.6 % of 834) = ?
(1) 159.5
(2) 157.5 – Ans
(3) 155.5
(4) 153.5
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 21-25) In each of these questions, two equations I and II with variables a and b are given. You have to solve both the equations to find the values of a and b.
Mark answer if
(1) a<b
(2) a<b
(3) relationship between a and b cannot be established
(4) a>b
(5) a>b

21. I. 16a2 = 1
II. 3b2 +7b +2 = 0
Ans : 4
From statement I, 16a2 = 1
==> a = + 1/4
From Statement II
3b2 +7b +2 = 0
3b2 +6b +b+2 = 0
3b(b+2) +1(b+2) = 0
==> (3b+1) (b+2) = 0
==> b = -2 or -1/3
:. a>b

22. I. a2 + 5a + 6= 0
II. b2 +7b +12 = 0
Ans : 5
From statement I, a2 + 5a + 6= 0
==> a2 + 2a + 3a+6= 0
==> a(a+2) (a+3)= 0
==> (a+2) (a+3)= 0
a=-2, -3

From statement II, b2 +7b +12 = 0
==> b2 +4b +3b+12 = 0
==> b(b+4) +3(b+4)= 0
==> (b+3) (b+4) = 0
b= -3, -4
:. a>b

23. I. a2 +2a +1 = 0
II. b2 = + 4
Ans : 3

24. I. a2 -5a + 6=0
II. 2b2 – 13b +21 = 0
Ans : 2

25. I. 2a2 + a-1 =0
II. 12b2 – 17b +6 =0
Ans :1

26. A 200m long train crosses a platform of double its length in 36s. What is the speed of the train in km/h. ?
(1) 60 – Ans
(2) 48
(3) 64
(4) 66
(5) None of these

27. Work done by A in one day is half of the work done by B in one day. Work done by B is half of the work done by C in one day. If C along can complete the work in 7 days, in how many days can A, B and C together complete the work ?
(1) 28
(2) 14
(3) 4 – Ans
(4) 21
(5) None of these

28. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DAILY be arranged ?
(1) 60
(2) 48
(3) 160
(4) 120 – Ans
(5) None of these

29. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two digit number is less than the original number by 63. If the sum of the digits of the number is 11, what is the orginal number ?
(1) 29
(2) 92 – Ans
(3) 74
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

30. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction is 15/16. What was the original fraction ?
(1) 8/11
(2) 10/11
(3) 9/13
(4) 10/13 – Ans
(5) None of these

31. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.996 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for Rs.894. What is the cost price of the article ?
(1) Rs.935
(2) Rs.905
(3) Rs.945 – Ans
(4) Rs.975
(5) None of these
32. The ages of Nishi and Vinnee are in the ratio of 6:5 respectively. After 9 yr the ratio of their ages will be 9:8. what is the difference in their ages ?
(1) 9 yr
(2) 7 Yr
(3) 5 Yr
(4) 3 Yr – Ans
(5) None of these

33. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.84000 at the end of 3 yr is Rs.30240. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period ?
(1) Rs.30013.95
(2) Rs. 31013.95
(3) Rs.32013.95
(4) Rs.33013.95
(5) Rs.34013.95 – Ans

34. The total of the ages of a class of 75 girsl is 1050, the average age of 25 of them is 12 yr and that of another 25 is 16 yr. find the average age of the remaining girls.
(1) 12 yr
(2) 13 yr
(3) 14 yr – Ans
(4) 15 yr
(5) None of these

35. One-fifth of the number is 81. What will 68% of that number be ?
(1) 195.2
(2) 275.4 – Ans
(3) 225.6
(4) 165.8
(5) None of these

36. In a class of 40 students and 8 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20 % of the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 25% of the total number of students. How many sweets were there?
(1) 420
(2) 400 – Ans
(3) 320
(4) 360
(5) None of these

37. What is 35% of 45% of 7/9th of 3600?
(1) 441 – Ans
(2) 414
(3) 444
(4) 411
(5) None of these

38. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that the committee has at least one woman ?
(1) 1/10
(2) 9/20
(3) 9/10 – Ans
(4) 1/20
(5) None of these

39. By how much is 5/12th of 516 lesser than 4/5th of 495 ?
(1) 22
(2) 15
(3) 12
(4) 27
(5) None of these – Ans

40. Ms. Deepthi jain invests 11% of her monthly salary, ie, Rs.5236 in Fixed Deposits. Later, she invests 19% of her monthly salary on Life Insurance Policies; also she invests another 7% of her monthly salary on Mutual Funds. what is the total annual amount invested by Ms. Deepti Jain ?
(1) Rs.211344 – Ans
(2) Rs.17612
(3) Rs.105672
(4) Rs.35224
(5) Non of the above
Placement Paper

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Directions-(Q.1 – 5) In each of these questions a group of numbers are given which are to be coded as per the scheme given below. You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B). (C) or (D) has the correct coded form of the given numbers and indicate it on your answer sheet. If none of the coded forms are correct mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Numbers : 6 8 3 4 0 1 2 5 7 9
Codes : S L V K M R Y D B Z
(Letters)
1. 824301
(A) YLKVMR
(B) LVKYMR
(C) L YKVMR -answer
(D) L YKVRM
(E) None of these

2. 734025
(A) VBKMYD
(B) BVKMYD -answer
(C) BVMKYD
(D) BVKMDY
(E) None of these

3. 432908
(A) KVYZML -answer
(B) KYVZML
(C) VKYZML
(D) KVYZLM
(E) None of these

4. 578914
(A) DBLZRK -answer
(B) BDLZRK
(C) DBLRZK
(D) DBLZKR
(E) None of these

5. 215963
(A) YRDSZV
(B) RYDZSV
(C) YRDZVS
(D) YRDZSV-answer
(E) None of these

Directions-(Q.6 – 10) In each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third place if arranged alphabetically?
6.
(A) Jovial
(B) Journey
(C) Jumble
(D) Juggle
(E) Judicial -answer
7.
(A) Magus
(B) Magneto
(C) Magnolia -answer
(D) Magnum
(E) Magnify
8.
(A) Concoct -answer
(B) Concourse
(C) Concierge
(D) Condense
(E) Concise
9.
(A) Thistle
(B) Thorough
(C) Thirsty
(D) Thole -answer
(E) Thorium
10.
(A) Resemble
(B) Rescind
(C) Reside
(D) Residue
(E) Reserve-answer

Directions-(Q.11 – 15) The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas-
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment -answer
The letter of the area (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) or (E), as the case may be is your answer.

11. Famous actress offered a three film deal by a leading production house.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment -answer

12. Scientists discover 4 new Alzheimer genes.
(A) Sports
(B) Health -answer
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment

13. 1500 students were vaccinated against Hepatitis B last week .
(A) Sports
(B) Health -answer
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment

14. Only 1164 tigers left in India.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment -answer
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment

15. Majority Asian stocks hit a 3 year high this week.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics -answer
(E) Entertainment

Directions-(Q.16 – 20) In each of these questions a group of numbers are given which are to be coded as per the scheme given below. You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B), (C) or (D) has the correct coded form of the given numbers and indicate it on your answer sheet. If none of the coded forms are correct mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Numbers : 3 4 5 2 1 8 9 7 6 0
Codes : U H L D J Y R M S A
(Letters)
16. 786301
(A) MYSAUJ
(B) YMSUAJ
(C) MYSUAJ -answer
(D) MYSUJA
(E) None of these

17. 596142
(A) LRSJOH
(B) RLSJHO
(C) LRSJHO -answer
(D) LRJSHO
(E) None of these

18. 057218
(A) LAMOJY
(B) ALDMJY
(C) ALMOY J
(D) ALMOJY -answer
(E) None of these

19. 634159
(A) SUHJLR -answer
(B) SUJHLR
(C) SUHJRL
(D) USHJLR
(E) None of these

20. 841035
(A) HY JAUL
(B) YHJAUL -answer
(C) YHAJUL
(D) YHJALU
(E) None of these

Directions-(Q.21 – 25) In each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third place if arranged alphabetically?
21.
(A) Nitrate
(B) Nimbus
(C) Niobium -answer
(D) Nirvana
(E) Nineteen
22.
(A) Gazebo -answer
(B) Gauze
(C) Gazette
(D) Gavotte
(E) Gazump

23.
(A) Coffee
(B) Coffin -answer
(C) Cogent
(D) Coeval
(E) Cogitate
24.
(A) Alliance
(B) Alley
(C) Allotrope
(D) Allowance
(E) Alligator -answer
25.
(A) Dimple
(B) Dinar
(C) Dinner
(D) Dinette -answer
(E) Dingle

Directions-(Q.26 – 30) The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas-
(A) Sports
(B) Health -answer
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment
The letter of the area (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) or (E), as the case may be is your answer.

26. Vitamin consumption was found to be lower in the girls from the rural areas as compared to the males.
(A) Sports
(B) Health -answer
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment

27. Four new talent shows to be launched on television in the coming weeks.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment -answer

28. 7% hike in stock prices of a leading car manufacturing company.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics -answer
(E) Entertainment

29. Team’s victory in the world championship series has done the nation proud.
(A) Sports -answer
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment
30. Famous choreographer has turned director for a leading production company
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment-answer

Directions-(Q.31 – 35) The letter group in each question below is to be codified in the following number codes

Letters : M T V B S A Z R P C
Number 7 4 1 9 6 8 2 5 0 3
Codes : You have to find out which of the answers (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) has the correct coded form of the given letters and indicate it on the answersheet. If none of the coded form is correct mark (E) as the answer.
31. TACZMBP
(A) 4832790 -answer
(B) 4328790
(C) 4823970
(D) 4823790
(E) None of these

32. SRMVPBA
(A) 6751098
(B) 6571089
(C) 6571098 -answer
(D) 6750198
(E) None of these

33. VZBMPRC
(A) 1927053
(B) 1279503
(C) 1297503
(D) 1297053 -answer
(E) None of these

34. ZTCAVSP
(A) 2483160
(B) 2438160 -answer
(C) 2348160
(D) 2431860
(E) None of these

35. SMAVPTC
(A) 6871043
(B) 6780134
(C) 6781034
(D) 6870143
(E) None of these -answer

Directions-(Q.36 – 40) Below in each of the question, five words are given. Which of them will come at the third position if all of them are arranged alphabetically as in the dictionary.
36.
(A) Lamp
(B) Little
(C) Low
(D) Lick-answer
(E) Late

37.
(A) Sack
(B) Shame
(C) Sick
(D) Shy
(E) Show-answer

38.
(A) Dog
(B) Dig
(C) Dress
(D) Dull
(E) Doll-answer

39.
(A) Bill-answer
(B) Book
(C) Bake
(D) Bind
(E) Bank

40.
(A) Negotiate
(B) Natural
(C) Neglect
(D) Name-answer
(E) Note
Directions-(Q.41 – 45) The news items in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas-
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues
(C) Science and Health
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous

41. Meditation is the best cure for Stress Disorders.
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues
(C) Science and Health -answer
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous

42. Fashion Designer seen as a Fashion Disaster in a party.
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues
(C) Science and Health
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous -answer

43. Pregnancy amongst the teenagers is on a rise.
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues -answer
(C) Science and Health
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous

44. Car Racing is the latest fad amongst the youngsters.
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues
(C) Science and Health
(D) Sports -answer
(E) Miscellaneous

45. With election campaign at its peak, the politicians come up with new promises.
(A) Politics -answer
(B) Social Issues
(C) Science and Health
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous

Directions-(Q.46 – 50) The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas-
(A) Science and Technology -answer
(B) Politics
(C) Sports
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment
The letter of the area (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) or (E) as the case may be is the answer.

46. Scientists have discovered a new gene responsible for causing diabetes.
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Politics
(C) Sports -answer
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment

47. Indian duo beat their Russian counterparts to reach the semi finals of the Australian open.
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Politics
(C) Sports -answer
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment

48. An NGO has been making best efforts to provide shelter to the thousands of homeless people in the country.
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Politics
(C) Sports
(D) Social issues -answer
(E) Environment

49. In the recent assembly elections, less than 50% citizens cast their vote.
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Politics -answer
(C) Sports
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment

50. An alarming rise in the cases of Asthma was reported in the city due to increased levels of pollutants from the nearby factories.
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Politics
(C) Sports
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment-answer

Take IBPS – Clerical free online test “Evaluate yourself before attempting the real bank test”
Directions-(Q.51 – 55) Following table shows the number of students from colleges A, B, C, D, E, F and G participating in an annual inter-college festival having the events as mentioned in the table.
Study the following table carefully and answer the questions which follow
Fields A B C D E F G
Elocution 14 7 10 5 8 11 9
Quiz 19 15 14 20 11 15 19
Dancing 12 20 15 18 21 16 19
Painting 23 16 17 10 15 9 17
Sports 32 29 41 30 19 26 21
Singing 26 17 14 14 21 24 19
Extempore 8 12 3 9 10 6 11

51. In College D, maximum number of participants is from which of the following fields?
(A) Quiz
(B) Sports -answer
(C) Elocution
(D) Painting
(E) None of these
52. Which college has the highest number of participants in Dancing?
(A) B
(B) D
(C) E -answer
(D) G
(E) None of these

53. Which two colleges have the same number of participants in Dancing?
(A) None -answer
(B) A and D
(C) C and G
(D) B and E
(E) C and F

54. Which is true in the following about the college F?
(A) Minimum participants in the Painting
(B) The number of participants of Quiz are more in the college F with the comparison of college B
(C) The number of participants in Elocution and Dancing are same
(D) Maximum students participating in the Sports -answer
(E) None of these

55. Which college has maximum students participate in the Extempore competition?
(A) E
(B) G
(C) C
(D) A
(E) None of these -answer
Directions-(Q. 56 – 60) The letter group in each question below is to be codified in the following number codesLetters # D J M E N H L B K G
Codes # 3 9 5 0 7 1 6 4 2 8

56. KJBGLM
(A) 298465
(B) 294865 -answer
(C) 294685
(D) 249865
(E) None of these

57. HLBJND
(A) 169473
(B) 164793
(C) 146973
(D) 164973 -answer
(E) None of these

58. MGJHBL
(A) 589146 -answer
(B) 581946
(C) 598146
(D) 589416
(E) None of these

59. NJBMEG
(A) 794580
(B) 749508
(C) 794058
(D) 754908
(E) None of these -answer

60. NBDKHE
(A) 723410
(B) 742310
(C) 743210 -answer
(D) 743120
(E) None of these

Directions-(Q.61 – 65) In each of these questions a group of numbers and symbols are given which are to be coded as per the scheme given below. You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B), (C) or (D) has the correct coded form of the given numbers and symbols and indicate it on your answer sheet. If none of the coded forms are correct mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Numbers and Symbols : 4 & 6 $ ? 3 + @ 9 2 # 7 5 8
Codes (Letters) : A T Y O L R K Z X E W J B H

61. 753+$?:
(A) JBRKLO
(B) BJRKOL
(C) JBKROL
(D) JBRKOL -answer
(E) None of these

62. #73&+4:
(A) WJTRKA
(B) WJRTAK
(C) JWRTKA
(D) WJRTKA -answer
(E) None of these

63. 65&?+4:
(A) YBTLKA -answer
(B) YBLTKA
(C) BYTLKA
(D) YBTLAK
(E) None of these

64. 9263?+:
(A) XERYLK
(B) EXYRLK
(C) XEYRLK -answer
(D) XEYRKL
(E) None of these

65. @?7943:
(A) LZJXAR
(B) ZLJXAR -answer
(C) ZLXJAR
(D) ZLJXRA
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q.66 – 70) In each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third place if rranged alphabetically?
66.
(A) Hostage -answer
(B) Hospital
(C) Hospice
(D) Hostile
(E) Hostel
67.
(A) Psalm
(B) Psychic
(C) Psephology
(D) Psyche
(E) Pseudo-answer
68.
(A) Ligament
(B) Ligneous
(C) Lignite
(D) Ligature
(E) Lighting -answer
69.
(A) Requisite
(B) Request -answer
(C) Requiem
(D) Reputable
(E) Repulsion
70.
(A) Glycerin
(B) Gluten -answer
(C) Glucose
(D) Glycogen
(E) Glowing
Question 1
Bala buys an equal number of pens, pencils, sketch pens of Rs.2.50, Rs.3, Rs.5 respectively. How many of each did he buy if he spends Rs.168 ?
a)12 b)16 c)18 d)20

Answer: b)16
Solution:
Let us assume that he buy X number of pens, pencils and sketch pens.
Then 2.50 x X + 3 x X + 5 x X = 168
10.50X = 168
X = 168 / 10.5 = 16
Hence he buys 16 numbers of pencils, pens, sketch pens respectively.

Question 2
Prabha and Aarthi paid a total of Rs.600 for some good. If Prabha paid 120 more than that of Aarthi, then how much is already paid?
a)Rs.250 b)Rs.150 c)RS.550 d)Rs.240

Answer : d)Rs.240
Solution :
Let the amount paid by Aarthi be Rs.X
Then, the amount paid by Prabha = Rs. X + 120
The total amount paid = Rs.600 = X + X + 120 = 2X + 120 = X = 240
Thus the amount paid by Aarthi is Rs.240

Question 3
A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 30% apples at the rate of Rs.30 per apple and the remaining 315 apples at the rate of Rs.20 per apple. The total selling price is :
a)Rs.15900 b)Rs.10350 c)RS.11550 d)Rs.12420

Answer :b)Rs.10350

Solution :
Let the total number of apples be X.
Then X = 30X / 100 + 315
70X / 100 = 315
X=3150 / 7 = 450
Now 30% of X = 30 x 450 / 100 = 135
He sells 135 apples at the rate of Rs.30 per apple and 315 at the rate of Rs.20 per apple
Then the total selling price = 135 x 30 + 315 x 20 = 4050 + 6300 =Rs.10350
Hence the answer is Rs.10350

Question 4

Devi buys some material worth Rs.X.She gets a deduction of Rs.650 on it. After getting deduction she pays tax of Rs.169. Then find X the value if she pays Rs.6000 for that material.
a)Rs.6481 b)Rs.5689 c)RS.6819 d)Rs.5181

Answer :Rs.6481
Solution :
Let the total amount be Rs.X
After getting deduction the amount will be X – 650
And after paying the tax Rs.169,
Rs.6000 = X – 650 + 169 = X – 481.
X =6481
Hence she buys material worth Rs.6481
Question 1
The percentage of numbers from 11 to 75 which are divided by 5 or 7 is:
a)31 b)35 c)36 d)41

Answer : a)31
Solution:
Clearly, the numbers which divided by 5 or 7 from 11 to 75 are 14, 15, 20, 21, 25, 28, 30, 35, 40, 42, 45, 49, 50, 55, 56, 60, 63, 65, 70, 75.
The number of such numbers = 20
Total numbers from 11 to 75 = 65
Then the required percentage = (20/65) x 100 = 30.76% = 31 %
Hence the answer is 31%

Question 2
If P is X% of Y and Q is Y% of X then the relationship between P and Q is :
a)P < Q b)P > Q c)cannot be determined d)none of these

Answer :d) none of these
Solution:
P = X% of Y = (X/100)xY
= (XY/100)
= (Y/100)xX
= Y% of X = Q
i.e., P = Q
Thus the relationship between P and Q is P = Q.

Question 3

If A has weight 9kg more than B and his weight is 56% of the sum of their weights then their weights are :
a)31,40 b)33,42 c)36,45 d)41,50

Answer :b) 33,42
Solution:
Let B’s weight be X then A’s weight is X+9.
And,
X+9 = 56% of X+X+9
= 56/100 (2X+9)
25(X+9)= 14(2X+9)
3X = 99 => X=33 and X+9 = 42
So, their weights are 33kg,42kg

Question4
What will be the Y% of 25 when 24% of X = Y
a)16% of X b)26% of X c)36% of X d)6% of X

Answer :d) 6% of X

Solution:
Given that,
24% of X = Y i.e, 24X/100 = Y
and, Y% of 25 = 25Y/100
= (25Y/100) x (24X/100)
= (1/4) x (24X/100)
= (6/100)x X
= 6% of X
Hence the answer is 6% of X.

Question 5
What will come in the place of ? in the following question?

(88.128 / ? ) / {(2.4 x 0.3)/(0.2 x 1.5)} = 18

a)1.04 b)2.04 c)3.04 d)4.04

Answer : b)2.04
Solution:
Given that (88.128 / ? ) / {(2.4 x 0.3)/(0.2 x 1.5)} = 18

Let us take ? as X.

Then, (88.128/X)/{(0.72) / (0.3)} = 18

(88.128/X)/2.4 = 18

88.128/X = 18 x 2.4

88.128/X = 43.2

43.2 x X = 88.128

X = 88.128 / 43.2

X = 2.04

Hence the answer will be 2.04

Question 6

One-fifth of sqrt(X) x 3 = 37.2 – sqrt(12.96)

a)2601 b)2916 c)3136 d)2704

Answer : c)3136

Solution:

Given that one-fifth of sqrt(X) x 3 = 37.2 – sqrt(12.96)

i.e., 1/5 x sqrt(X) x 3 = 37.2 – 3.6

3/5 x sqrt(X) = 33. 6

sqrt(X) = 33.6 x 5/3

sqrt(X) = 11.2 x 5 = 56

X = 562 = 3136.

Hence the answer is 3136.

Question 7

What will come in the place of X in the following question:

3.5 – { 2.5 – [6.5 – (1.4/X)]} x 8.24 /(0.2)2 = 813.08

a)20 b)25 c)40 d)5.5

Answer : a)20

Solution:

3.5-{2.5-(6.5-(1.4/X))}x(8.24/0.04) = 813.08

3.5-{2.5-{(6.5X-1.4)/X)}x(824/4) = 813.08

3.5-{(2.5X-6.5X+1.4)/X} x 206 = 813.08

3.5-{(-4X+1.4)/X} x 206 = 813.08

3.5-{(-824X-288.4)/X} = 813.08

(3.5X+824X-288.4)/X = 813.08

827.5X-288.4 / X = 813.08

827.5X-288.4 = 813.08X

827.5X-813.08X = 288.4

14.42X = 288.4

X = 288.4 / 14.42

X = 20
Free online mock test for IBPS-CWE Clerical 2012 Exam (Just same as IBPS Pattern – Fully solved Questions with answer and Explanation)

Placement Paper

IBPS clerical aptitude questions answers All banks free solved question papers,IBPS PO,clerical SBT SBI,RRB,RBI,PSU companies model practice questions with answers and detailed explanations,

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?

(a) 30 minutes-Answer

(b) 25 minutes

(c) 28 minutes

(d) 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?

(a) 4096

(b) 8192 -Answer

(c) 512

(d) 1024

3. Find the number missing at question mark:

10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149

(a) 100 -Answer

(b) 103

(c) 78

(d) 128

4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?

(a) 34 minutes
(b) 36 minutes -Answer
(c) 38 minutes
(d) 40 minutes

5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?

(a) 12
(b) 9
(c) 7 -Answer
(d) 6

6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?

(a) 4
(b) 6-Answer
(c) 9
(d) 18

7. One fourth percent of 180 is:

(a) 4.5
(b) 0.45
(c) 0.045 -Answer
(d) 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?

(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 180
(d) 150-Answer

9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135

(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 17-Answer
(d) 14

10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?

(a) 16.67
(b) 20-Answer
(c) 23
(d) 17

11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is .

(a) 1:40
(b) 1:4000 -Answer
(c) 9:10
(d) 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?

(a) 204-Answer
(b) 250
(c) 240
(d) 210

13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?

(a) 25
(b) 00
(c) 75
(d) 50-Answer

14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?

(a) 30 seconds
(b) 36 seconds
(c) 20 seconds
(d) 18 seconds-Answer

15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be .

(a) 90 seconds-Answer
(b) 70 seconds
(c) 60 seconds
(d) 100 seconds

16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?

(a) Rs. 30
(b) Rs. 24
(c) Rs. 36-Answer
(d) Rs. 40

17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?

(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 6-Answer

18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers

(a) 5050-Answer
(b) 5005
(c) 9900
(d) 9050

19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:

(a) 12m
(b) 5m
(c) 13m-Answer
(d) 11m

20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?

(a) 4
(b) 8-Answer
(c) 16
(d) 2

21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ..

(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3
(b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3-Answer
(d) No solution

22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?

(a) 2/3
(b) 1/6 -Answer
(c) 1/3 (
d) 1/2

23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?

(a) 10% -Answer
(b) 7.5%
(c) 16%
(d) 15%

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number

(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 9 -Answer
(d) 5

25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM

(a) 900
(b) 1200 -Answer
(c) 1500
(d) 2400

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in

(a) 20 minute-Answer
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds
(d) 10 minutes

27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes
b) 10 minute-Answer
(c) 100 minutes
(d) 10000 minutes

28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:

(a) 250
(b) 750
(c) 400
(d) 300-Answer

29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?

(a) 6 days
(b) 7 days
(c) 10 days -Answer
(d) 8 days

30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?

(a) 25
(b) 28-Answer
(c) 26
(d) 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?

(a) 33 1/8 %
(b) 66 2/3 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 50 %-Answer

32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:

(a) 7,200m2
(b) 15,000m2
(c) 54,000m2
(d) 13,500m2-Answer

33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?

(a) 1.5
(b) 1.0-Answer
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.0

34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?

(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 475
(d) 450-Answer

35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the

(a) Interior of the triangle

(b) Midpoint of the diameter

(c) Exterior of the triangle-Answer

(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle

36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?

(a) 360
(b) 90
(c) 270
(d) -Answer180

37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?

(a) Circumcentre
(b) Centroid-Answer
(c) Orthocenter
(d) Incentre

38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?

(a) 3r
(b) 4r
(c) -Answer5r
(d) ?3r

39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?

(a) 4:9
(b) 2:3
(c) 8:27-Answer
(d) 4:6

40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3?2, 6, 6?2 ?

(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) ?2-Answer
(d) ?3

41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?

(a) 25 -Answer
(b) 30
(c) 50
(d) 45

42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?

(a) 3 km/hr-Answer
(b) 4 km/hr
(c) 4.5 km/hr
(d) 5 km/hr

43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?

(a) 20
(b) 26-Answer
(c) 30
(d) 32

44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.

(a) 48 sq.cm
(b) 34 sq.cm
(c) 24 sq.cm-Answer
(d) 42 sq.cm

45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54,

(a) 81-Answer
(b) 69
(c) 63
(d) 57

46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:

(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 25-Answer
(d) 30

47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =

(a) 5 (
b) 2 -Answer
(c) 6
(d) 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30

(a) 800
(b) 600
(c) 1050
(d) 750-Answer

49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?

(a) 306
(b) 765-Answer
(c) 700
(d) 510

50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:

(a) 36
(b) 37-Answer
(c) 38
(d) 31
IBPS clerical aptitude paper

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IBPS clerical cadre Quantitative Aptitude Model Paper Questions Test – 1 model questions for practice
1. By what number less than 1000 must 43259 be multiplied So that the last three figures to the right of the product may be 437?
(a) 743 (b) 658 (c) 701 (d) None of these
Answer-a

2. By what least number must 217800 be multiplied in order to make it a perfect square?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these
Answer-a

3. Find the least number by which 19404 must be multiplied or divided so as to make it a perfect square.
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) None of these
Answer-c

4. Find the smallest number which is a perfect square and contains 1400 as a factor.
(a) 8670 (b) 9600 (c) 9000 (d) None of these
Answer-b

5. Find in the blank indicated by a star in the number 456 so as to make it divisible by 33
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) None of these
Answer-a

6. By what least number must 6796 by multiplied or divided in order that the resulting number may be a perfect square?
(a) 17 (b) 39 (c) 43 (d) None of these
Answer-b

7. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238 and 1400 leaving remainders 41,31 and 51 respectively.
(a) 71 (b) 64 (c) 67 (d) None of these
Answer-a

8. Find the greatest number that will divide 19409 and 43037 leaving remainders 17 and 29 respectively.
(a) 178 (b) 192 (c) 194 (d) None of these
Answer-b
9. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238, 1400 leaving remainders 41, 31 and 51 respectively.
(a) 64 (b) 71 (c) 69 (d) None of these
Answer-b
10. Find the greatest number which will divide 12288, 28200, and 44333 so as to leave the same remainder in each case.
(a) 221 (b) 120 (c) 272 (d) None of these
Answer-a

Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

3. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)

7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)

12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)

14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)

15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)

16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question

22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
Directions (questions 26 to30 ):Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

26. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

27. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

28. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

29. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

30. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

31 Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)

32 . In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

33. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

Directions (Q.34 & 35): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.

34 . How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

35 . How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

36 . If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)

37 . How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

38 . Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)

39 . Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)

40 . Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)

41 . If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

42 . If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

43. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

44. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

45 . Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 46 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.

46 ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question

47. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

48. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

49. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

50 ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper

IBPS Bank PO CWE QUANTITATIVE APTITUTE Questions
Directions (Qs. 1-20 ) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. (-251 X 21 X -21) ÷? = 158.13

A. 250 B. 400 C.300 D.150

2. 25.6 % of 250 + v? = 119

A. 4225 B. 3025 C.2025 D. 5625 E. None of these

3. 36865 + 12473 + 21045 – 44102 = ?

A. 114485 B. 28081 C. 26281 D.114845 E. None of these

4. (15.20)2 – 103.04 ) ÷ ? = 8

A. 12 B. 6.5 C.8.2 D.16 E. None of these

5. 0.4 X 1.5 / ? 0.2

A. 2 B. 3 C. 1.2 D. 0.3 E. None of these

6. 7428 X 3/4 X 2/9 X ? = 619

A. 0.5 B. 1.5 C. 0.2 D. 2.4 E. None of these

7. (560 ) ÷ 32 ) X (720 ÷ 48) = ?

A. 262.5 B. 255 C. 263.5 D. 271.25 E.None of these

8. 748 X ? X 9 = 861696

A. 122 B. 132 C. 128 D. 124 E. None of these

9. 3.2 % of 500 X 2.4 % of ? = 288

A. 650 B. 700 C. 600 D.750 E. None of these

10. 333 X 33 X 3 = ?

A. 32697 B. 36297 C. 32679 D. 39267 E. None of these

11. (36) 2 + (47) 2 ÷ ? = 28.04

A. 55 B. 75 C.105 D. 125 E. None of these

12. 3v? = (28 X 24 ) ÷ 14

A. 85184 B. 140608 C.97336 D. 117649 E. None of these

13. 14785 – 358 – 4158 – 9514 = ?

A.755 B. 825 C.721 D. 785 E. None of these

14. 156 + 328 X 0.8 = ?

A. 287.2 B. 352.8 C. 418.4 D. 451.2 E. None of these

15. 1148 ÷ 28 X 1408 ÷ 32 = ?
A. 1800 B. 1804 C. 1814 D. 1822 E. None of these

16. 3v148877 = ?

A. 51 B. 59 C.53 D. 49 E. None of these

17. 1425 + 8560 + 1680 ÷ 200 = ?

A. 58.325 B. 9973.4 C. 56.425 D. 9939.4 E. None of these

18. [(12) 2 X (14) 2 } (16) = ?

A. A.282.24 B.1764 C.126 D. 104.25 E. None of these
19. 2 & 4/25 + 3 & 1/5 = ?

A. 1 &7/15 B. 6 & 4/15 C. 5 & 4/15 D. 5 & 9/25 E. None of these

20. v? X v3025 = 2695

A. 2401 B. 2209 C. 2601 D. 2304 E. None of these

Directions (21-25) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?

21. 7413 7422 7440 ? 7503 7548

A. 7464 B. 7456 C. 7466 D.7466 E. None of these

22. 4 16 36 64 100 ?

A. 120 B. 180 C. 136 D. 144 E. None of these

23. 12 33 96 ? 852 2553

A.285 B. 288 C.250 D.540 E. None of these

24. 70000 14000 28000 ? 112 22.4

A. 640 B. 420 C.560 D. 540 E. None of these

25. 102 99 104 97 106 ?

A. 96 B. 95 C. 100 D.94 E. None of these

26. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator of the fraction is increased by 120% , the resultant fraction is 4/11. What is the original fraction ?

A. 4/15 B. 3/11 C.5/12 D. 6/11 E. None of these

27. Mr. Rao invests a sum of Rs.41.250 at the rate of 6+ p.c.p.a. What approximate amount of compound interest will he obatain at the end of 3 years ?

A. Rs.8,100 B. Rs. 7,425 C. Rs. 8,210 D. Rs.7,879 E. Rs. 7,295

28. The profit after selling a pair of trousers for Rs.863 is the same as the loss incurred after selling the same pair of trousers for Rs.631. What is the cost price of the pair of trousers ?

A. Rs. 750 B. Rs.800 C. Rs. 763 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

29. The ration of the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot is 6:5 respectively ; if the breadth of the plot is 34 metres less than the length, what is the perimeter of the rectangular plot ?

A. 374 metres B. 408 metres C. 814 metres D.748 metres E. None of these

30. Ninad, Vikas and Manav enter into a partnership. Ninad invests some amount at the beginning. Vikas invests double the amount after 6 months and Manav invests thrice the amount invested by Ninad after 8 months. They earn a Profit of Rs.45,000 at the end of the year. What is Manav’s share in the profit ?

A. Rs.25,000 B. Rs.15,000 C. Rs.12,000 D. Rs.9,000 E. None of these

31. The cost of 7 tables and 12 chairs is Rs. 48,250. What is the cost of 21 tables and 36 chairs?

A. Rs. 96,500 B. Rs.1,25,500 C. Rs. 1,44,750 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
32. ‘A’ can complete a piece of work in 12 days. ‘A’ and ‘B’ together can complete the same piece of work in 8 days. In how many days can ‘B’ alone complete the same piece of work ?

A. 15 days B. 18 days C. 24 days D. 28 days E. None of these

33. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question ?
6523 ÷ 544 X 1.2 = ?

A. 21 B. 33 C.14 D. 8 E.28

34. Raman drove from home to a neighbouring town the speed of 50 kms/hr and on his returning journey, he drove at the speed of 45 kms/hr. and also took an hour longer to reach home. What distance did he cover each way ?

A. 450 kms. B. 225 kms. C. 900kms. D. 500kms. E. None of these

35. 3/4th of 2/9th of 1/5th of a number is 249.6 What is 50 % of that number ?

A. 3794 B. 3749 C. 3734 D. 3739 E. None of these

36. The average weight of a group of 75 girls was calculated as 47 kgs. It was later discovered hat the weight of one of the girls was read as 45 kgs., Whereas her actual weight was 25 klgs. What is the actual average weight of the group of 75 girls ? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)

A. 46.73 kgs. B. 46.6 kgs. C. 45.96 kgs. D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

37. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘MIRACLE’be arranged?

A. 720 B. 5040 C. 2520 D.40320 E. None of these

38. The sum of the two digits of two digit number is 12 and the difference between the two digits of the two digit number I s6. What is the two-digit number ?
A. 39 B. 84 C.93 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
39. If an amount of Rs.74, 336 is equally divided amongst 150 people, how much approximate amount would each person get ?

A. Rs. 522 B. Rs.485 C. Rs.496 D. Rs.488 E. Rs.510

40. What is 170 % of 1140 ?

A. 1938 B. 1824 C. 1995 D.1881 E. None of these

41. Mr. Sarang invests 6 % of his monthly salary i.e. Rs. 2,100 on insurance policies . Also he invests 8% of his monthly salary on family medi claim policies and another 9 % of his salary on NSCs. What is the total annual amount invested by Mr. Sarang ?
A. Rs.11,400 B. Rs. 96,600 C. Rs.8,050 D. Rs.9,500 E. None of these

42. A trader sells 145 metres of cloth for Rs.12,325 at the profit of Rs.10 per metre of cloth. What is the cost price of one metre of cloth ?

Rs., Rs.65 B. Rs.75 C. Rs.95 D. Rs.85 E. None of these

43. There are 7 dozaen candles kept in a box. If there are 14 such boxes, how many candles are there in all the boxes together ?

A. 1176 B. 98q C.1216 D. 168 E. None of these

44. Which of the following smallest number should be added to 6659 to make it a perfect square ?

A. 230 B. 65 C.98 D.56 E. None of these

45. What is the greater of two number whose product is 1092 and the sum of the two numbers exceeds their difference by 42 ?

A. 48 B. 44 C. 52 D. 54 E. None of these

46. Veena obtained an amount of Rs.8,376 as simple interest on a certain amount at 8 p.c.p.a after 6 years. What is the a mount invested by Veena ?

A. Rs. 17,180 B. Rs.18,110 C. Rs.16,660 D. Rs.17,450 E. None of these

47. Two numbers are such that the sum of twice the first number and thrice the second number is 36 and the sum of thrice the first number and twice the second number is 39. Which is the smaller number ?

A.9 B. 5 C. 7 D.3 E. None of these

48. The difference between the present ages of Arun and Deepak is 14 years . Seven years ago the ratio of their ages was 5 :” 7 respectively. What is Deepak’s present age ?

A. 49 years B. 42 Years C. 63 years D. 35 years E. None of these

49. A, b,c,d and e are 5 consecutive even numbers. If the sum of ‘a’ and ‘d’ is 162, what is the sum of all the numbers ?

A. 400 B. 380 C. 420 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

50. What is 348 times of 265 ?

A. 88740 B. 89750 C. 95700 D. 92220 E. None of these

Complete preparation kit for Bank P O and Common Written Examination
Placement Paper
IBPS PO CWE Clerical free solved sample placement papers,IBPS PO CWE aptitude,reasoning english and general awareness based on bank questions with answers and detailed soultions

Directions (1-5) What approximate value should come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions ?(You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

1. (56)2 x 2.5385 = ?
(1) 4740
(2) 5570
(3) 6600
(4) 7960 – Ans
(5) 8880

2. (775% of 523) ÷ 777 = ?
(1) 5 – Ans
(2) 12
(3) 19
(4) 26
(5) 29

3. 783.559 + 49.0937 x 31.679 – 58.591 = ?
(1) 26600
(2) 5000
(3) 12800
(4) 2550
(5) 2280 – Ans

4. (4438 – 2874 – 559) ÷ (269 – 106 -83)
(1) 55
(2) 13 – Ans
(3) 47
(4) 29
(5) 31

5. (12.51)4 = ?
(1) 22300
(2) 23400
(3) 24500 – Ans
(4) 25600
(5) 26700

Directions (Q. 6-10) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?
6. 2187 729 243 81 27 9 ?
(1) 36
(2) 3 – Ans
(3) 18
(4) 6
(5) 12

7. 522 1235 2661 4800 7652 11217 ?
(1) 15495 – Ans
(2) 16208
(3) 14782
(4) 16921
(5) 14069

8. 51975 9450 2100 600 240 160 ?
(1) 80
(2) 120
(3) 320 – Ans
(4) 240
(5) 300

9. 4 18 48 100 294 ?
(1) 416
(2) 480
(3) 512
(4) 384
(5) 448 – Ans

10. 6 26 134 666 3334 16666 ?
(1) 84344
(2) 83443
(3) 84434
(4) 83334 – Ans
(5) 83344

Directions 11-20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
11. 4895 + 364 x 0.75 – 49 = ?
(1) 5119 – Ans
(2) 3895
(3) 3907
(4) 5210
(5) None of these

12. 5 and 1/4 +6 and 2/3+ 7 and 1/6 = ?
(1) 19.5
(2) 19 and 11/12
(3) 19 and 1/12 – Ans
(4) 19
(5) None of these

13. [(144)2 ÷ 48 x 18] ÷ 36 = v ?
(1) 23328
(2) 36
(3) 216
(4) 46656 – Ans
(5) None of these

14. (27)18 ÷ (27)3 = ?
(1) (27) 54
(2) (27) 21
(3) (27) 15 – Ans
(4) (27) 6
(5) None of these
Expl : (3)? = (27)18 ÷ (27)3
= (27)18-3 (:. am ÷ an = am-n)
= (27)15

15. 156 + 16 x 1.5 – 21 = ?
(1) 126
(2) 258
(3) 237
(4) 159 – Ans
(5) None of these

16. 434.43 + 43.34 + 3.44 + 4 + 0.33 = ?
(1) 421.45
(2) 455.54
(3) 485.54 – Ans
(4) 447.45
(5) None of these

17. 24336 ÷ ? = 78 x 24
(1) 6
(2) 13 – Ans
(3) 11
(4) 17
(5) None of these

18. (98)45 x (98)-35 = ?
(1) 98
(2) (98)2
(3) (98) -5
(4) (98)10 – Ans
(5) None of these

19. (78.95) – (43.35) = ?
(1) 4353.88 – Ans
(2) 4305
(3) 4235.78
(4)4148
(5) None of these

20. (23.6 % of 1254) – (16.6 % of 834) = ?
(1) 159.5
(2) 157.5 – Ans
(3) 155.5
(4) 153.5
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 21-25) In each of these questions, two equations I and II with variables a and b are given. You have to solve both the equations to find the values of a and b.
Mark answer if
(1) a<b
(2) a<b
(3) relationship between a and b cannot be established
(4) a>b
(5) a>b

21. I. 16a2 = 1
II. 3b2 +7b +2 = 0
Ans : 4
From statement I, 16a2 = 1
==> a = + 1/4
From Statement II
3b2 +7b +2 = 0
3b2 +6b +b+2 = 0
3b(b+2) +1(b+2) = 0
==> (3b+1) (b+2) = 0
==> b = -2 or -1/3
:. a>b

22. I. a2 + 5a + 6= 0
II. b2 +7b +12 = 0
Ans : 5
From statement I, a2 + 5a + 6= 0
==> a2 + 2a + 3a+6= 0
==> a(a+2) (a+3)= 0
==> (a+2) (a+3)= 0
a=-2, -3

From statement II, b2 +7b +12 = 0
==> b2 +4b +3b+12 = 0
==> b(b+4) +3(b+4)= 0
==> (b+3) (b+4) = 0
b= -3, -4
:. a>b

23. I. a2 +2a +1 = 0
II. b2 = + 4
Ans : 3

24. I. a2 -5a + 6=0
II. 2b2 – 13b +21 = 0
Ans : 2

25. I. 2a2 + a-1 =0
II. 12b2 – 17b +6 =0
Ans :1

26. A 200m long train crosses a platform of double its length in 36s. What is the speed of the train in km/h. ?
(1) 60 – Ans
(2) 48
(3) 64
(4) 66
(5) None of these

27. Work done by A in one day is half of the work done by B in one day. Work done by B is half of the work done by C in one day. If C along can complete the work in 7 days, in how many days can A, B and C together complete the work ?
(1) 28
(2) 14
(3) 4 – Ans
(4) 21
(5) None of these

28. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DAILY be arranged ?
(1) 60
(2) 48
(3) 160
(4) 120 – Ans
(5) None of these

29. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two digit number is less than the original number by 63. If the sum of the digits of the number is 11, what is the orginal number ?
(1) 29
(2) 92 – Ans
(3) 74
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

30. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction is 15/16. What was the original fraction ?
(1) 8/11
(2) 10/11
(3) 9/13
(4) 10/13 – Ans
(5) None of these

31. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.996 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for Rs.894. What is the cost price of the article ?
(1) Rs.935
(2) Rs.905
(3) Rs.945 – Ans
(4) Rs.975
(5) None of these
32. The ages of Nishi and Vinnee are in the ratio of 6:5 respectively. After 9 yr the ratio of their ages will be 9:8. what is the difference in their ages ?
(1) 9 yr
(2) 7 Yr
(3) 5 Yr
(4) 3 Yr – Ans
(5) None of these

33. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.84000 at the end of 3 yr is Rs.30240. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period ?
(1) Rs.30013.95
(2) Rs. 31013.95
(3) Rs.32013.95
(4) Rs.33013.95
(5) Rs.34013.95 – Ans

34. The total of the ages of a class of 75 girsl is 1050, the average age of 25 of them is 12 yr and that of another 25 is 16 yr. find the average age of the remaining girls.
(1) 12 yr
(2) 13 yr
(3) 14 yr – Ans
(4) 15 yr
(5) None of these

35. One-fifth of the number is 81. What will 68% of that number be ?
(1) 195.2
(2) 275.4 – Ans
(3) 225.6
(4) 165.8
(5) None of these

36. In a class of 40 students and 8 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20 % of the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 25% of the total number of students. How many sweets were there?
(1) 420
(2) 400 – Ans
(3) 320
(4) 360
(5) None of these

37. What is 35% of 45% of 7/9th of 3600?
(1) 441 – Ans
(2) 414
(3) 444
(4) 411
(5) None of these

38. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that the committee has at least one woman ?
(1) 1/10
(2) 9/20
(3) 9/10 – Ans
(4) 1/20
(5) None of these

39. By how much is 5/12th of 516 lesser than 4/5th of 495 ?
(1) 22
(2) 15
(3) 12
(4) 27
(5) None of these – Ans

40. Ms. Deepthi jain invests 11% of her monthly salary, ie, Rs.5236 in Fixed Deposits. Later, she invests 19% of her monthly salary on Life Insurance Policies; also she invests another 7% of her monthly salary on Mutual Funds. what is the total annual amount invested by Ms. Deepti Jain ?
(1) Rs.211344 – Ans
(2) Rs.17612
(3) Rs.105672
(4) Rs.35224
(5) Non of the above

Placement Paper

IBPS Banking Question papers based on Test of Reasoning-Made Simple -Easy methods to crack verbal reasoning questions in Bank Test, Verbal Classification Notes,types of verbal classification Choose the odd word out,Choose the odd pair out ,Choose the odd number out ,Choose the odd numeral-pair group and Analogy – Tips and tricks to crack bank test,IBPS CWE analogy questions ‘Analogy’ means ‘correspondence’. Verbal analogical tests use words,Alphabet Analogy,Number Analogy, Completing the analogous pair

IBPS and Bank PO Clerical -Verbal Classification Questions and Tips :-

‘Classification’ means to assort the items of a given group on the basis of a certain common quality they possess and then spot the odd one out. Different types of questions that can be asked are as follows :-

(1) Choose the odd word out : In these questions, you are given a group of certain items out of which all except one are similar to one another in some manner. You have to identify the item which does not fit into the given group.

(2) Choose the odd pair out : In these type of questions, you are given certain pairs of words out of which the words in all the pairs except one bear a certain common relationship. You have to decipher the relationship and choose the pair in which the words are differently related than the remaining pairs.

(3) Choose the odd number out : In these type of questions certain numbers are given, out of which all except one are alike in some manner while one is different and this number is to be chosen as the answer.

(4) Choose the odd numeral-pair group : In these type of questions, certain pairs or groups of numbers are given out of which all except one are similar in some manner while one is different. The numbers in these similar pairs may have the same property or may be related to each other according to the same rule. You have to choose the odd pair/group.

IBPS and Bank PO Clerical ANALOGY Questions and Tips

‘Analogy’ means ‘correspondence’. Verbal analogical tests use words, letters and digits and require logical common sense reasoning to solve questions based on these. In these questions, a particular relationship is given and another similar relationship has to be identified from the alternatives provided. These analogical questions test the candidate’s overall knowledge and ability to think concisely and accurately.

Different types of questions that can be asked on Analogy are as follows :-

(1) Completing the analogous pair : In this, two words which are related to each other are given along with a third word. You have to find the relationship between the first two words and choose the word from the given options that bears the same relationship with the third word as the first two words.

(2) Choose the analogous pair : In these type of questions, a pair of words is given, followed by four pairs of words as options. You have to choose the pair in which the words have the same relationship to each other as the words in the given pair.

(3) Three word Analogy : In these types of questions, a group of three inter-related words is given. You have to trace the relationship among these three words and choose another group with similar analogy from the alternatives that are provided.

(1) Number Analogy : Two types of questions are asked on this.

(i) Choosing a similarly related pair as the given number pair on the basis of the relation between the numbers in each pair.

(ii) Choosing a number similar to a group of numbers on the basis of certain common properties they possess.

(5) Alphabet Analogy : In these type of questions, two groups of alphabets related to each other in some way are given. You have to find out his relationship and choose a group of alphabets that is related in the same way to the third group in the question.

Illustrative Questions

Directions (Q.Nos. 1-5) : – Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

1.

(1) Pear

(2) Mango

(3) Orange

(4) Apple

(5) Radish

Ans : Radish – Except radish, all others are fruits. Radish is a modified root.

2.

(1) Sun

(2) Moon

(3) Star

(4) Mars

(5) Universe

Ans : Universe – All except Universe form part of the Universe.

3.

(1) Tailor

(2) Barber

(3) Engineer

(4) Carpenter

(5) Blacksmith

Ans : Barber – All except barber require raw material to work.

4.

(1) X-ray

(2) Radio

(3) Telephone

(4) Computer

(5) Television

Ans : X-ray – All except X-ray are media instruments.

5.

(1) Arc

(2) Diagonal

(3) Tangent

(4) Radius

(5) Diameter

Ans : Diagonal – All except diagonal are terms associated with circle.

Directions (Q.Nos. 1-11) : – Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

1.

(1) IJK

(2) ABC

(3) OPQ

(4) EFG

(5) VWX

Ans : VWX – In all the other groups, the first letters is the odd-numbered letter in the English alphabet.

9 10 11 1 2 3 15 16 17 5 6 7
I J K A B C O P Q E F G

But

22 23 24
V W X

2.

(1) Tiger

(2) Cow

(3) Bitch

(4) Mare

(5) Lioness

Ans : Tiger – Except tiger, all others are of feminine gender.

3.

(1) 13

(2) 17

(3) 19

(4) 27

(5) 23

Ans : 27 – Except 27, all others are prime numbers.
4.

(1) Pound

(2) Yen

(3) Ounce

(4) Franc

(5) Dollar

Ans : Ounce – All except ounce are names of currencies of different countries, while ounce is a unit of weight.

5

(1) Lemon

(2) Orange

(3) Malta

(4) Banana

(5) Pineapple

Ans : Banana – All except banana are juicy fruits.

6.

(1) Lake

(2) Tank

(3) River

(4) Pool

(5) Pond

Ans : River – All except river contain stagnant water.

7.

(1) Carrot

(2) Guava

(3) Tomato

(4) Pear

(5) Brinjal

Ans : Brinjal – All except brinjal can be eaten raw.

8.

(1) Sit

(2) Hit

(3) Kit

(4) Fit

(5) Knit

Ans : Kit – Except kit, the rest all are verbs. Kit is a noun.

9.

(1) Tab

(2) Pot

(3) Reed

(4) Level

(5) Hold

Ans : Hold – Other words when read backwards give meaningful words.

10.

(1) CFI

(2) UXA

(3) RUX

(4) SVZ

(5) LOR

Ans : SVZ

+3 +3
C ? F ? I

+3 +3
U ? X ? A

+3 +3
R ? U ? X

+3 +3
L ? O ? R

But,

+3 +4
S ? V ? Z

Therefore, ‘SVZ’ does not belong to the group.

11.

(1) 117

(2) 74

(3) 153

(4) 108

(5) 99

Ans : 74 – Except 74, all other numbers are completely divisible by 3.

Directions (Q.Nos. 12-16) : – The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship with each other, followed by five pairs of words. Select the pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

12. Escape : Abscond

(1) Endless : Eternal

(2) Flee : Surrender

(3) Exult : Jubilate

(4) Escalate : Weaken

(5) Confront : Submit

Ans : Endless : Eternal – Escape and abscond are nearly similar in meaning like endless and eternal.

13. Host : Hospitable

(1) Artist : Imitative

(2) Guest : Rude

(3) Humanitarian : Altruistic

(4) Idealist : Cynical

(5) Pollyanna : Pessimistic

Ans : Humanitarian : Altruistic – As a host is supposed to be hospitable, in the same way, a humanitarian is expected to be altruistic.

14. Editor : Magazine

(1) Director : Film

(2) Novel : Writer

(3) Psychiatrist : Neurotic

(4) Librarian : Library

(5) Poem : Poet

Ans : Director : Film – Like all actions of a magazine are interpreted by the editor, in the same way, all the actions of a film are interpreted by the director.

15. Pain : Misery

(1) Disease : poverty

(2) Despair : loneliness

(3) Ignorance : confusion

(4) Superstition : peasants

(5) Ignore : greet

Ans : Ignorance : Confusion – Pain causes misery and ignorance causes confusion.

16. ABD : EJL

(1) GFH : IPR

(2) IPR : URT

(3) IPR : OTY

(4) IPR : ORT

(5) GHI : PRT

Ans : IPR : ORT – This is a vowel-consonant based relationship. In the question pair, the first letters of each term are ‘A’ and ‘E’ which are first two vowels (AEIOU). In the same manner, the first term of the answer pair will begin with ‘I’ and the second term of the answer pair will begin with ‘O’. In the question pair, we have ABD i.e. the third letter in first term is obtained by skipping ‘C’. In the second term, ‘EJL’, ‘L’ is obtained by skipping ‘K’. So, the answer is (4) IPR : ORT.
Placement Paper
IBPS clerical cadre written test examination questions with answers and explanations, IBPS aptitude, Reasoning Arithmetic, logical Reasoning questions with answer

1. Ram went 15km to the west from his house, then he turned left and walked 20 km. He then turned east and walked 25 km and finally turning left covered 20 kms.How far was he from his house

5 kms
10kms-Answer
40 kms
80 kms
2. Vishnu ranks 16th from the top and 49th from the bottom in a class . How many students are there in the class

66
65-Answer
64
63
3. Mahesh is older than Samir and Jayanth.Navin is older than Samir but younger than Jacob.Jayanth is older than Jacob.Who among them is the oldest

Jayanth
Jacob
Navin
Mahesh-Answer
4. Choose the option related to the given numbers
21, 37, 53

19, 36, 55
23, 39, 55-Answer
35, 62, 79
47, 64, 80
5. Find out the next term in the given series
34, 18, 10, 6, 4, ….

3-Answer
2
1
0
6. DWH : WDS :: FUL : ………

ELV
OFU
UFO-Answer
FOU
7. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s son.Whose photograph was it

His own
His son’s-Answer
His father’s
His nephew’s
8. In an examination 36 % is the pass mark.If an examinee gets 17 marks and fails by 10 marks, what was the maximum mark

70
75-Answer
65
55
9. If 76 is divided into four parts proportional to 7: 5: 3: 4 the smallest part is

12-Answer
15
16
19
10. A train 280 m long, running with a speed of 63 km/hr.will pass an electric pole in ………seconds

20 sec
16sec-Answer
15 sec
18 sec
11. Articles which are bought for Rs 400 are sold for Rs 560.Find the profit percent

45
60
40
65
12. If the total rainfall in a month is 75cm, then the average daily rainfall is

3.5 cm
2.5 cm-Answer
1.5 cm
4 cm
13. A man sells an article for Rs 330, at a gain of 10 %.What did it cost him

300-Answer
340
330
360
14. 2.65 – 0.5 = ……….

2.60
3.70
3.15
2.15-Answer
15. If 27 x 29 = 783, then 0.27 x 290 = ………

7830
783
78.3-Answer
7.83
16. Which of the following names will be second in an alphabetical list ?

Andhra Pradesh
17 Haryana1. Which of the following names will be second in an alphabetical list ?

Andhra Pradesh
Haryana-Answer
Himachal Pradesh
Kerala
18 . Which of the following names would be fourth in the telephone directory ?

Sita Ram Agrawal-Answer
Seeta Ram Agrawal
Seta Ram Agarwal
Seeta Ram Agarawal
19 . Ina military mode, TARGET is written as RATTEG. Using the same code BRIDGE should be written as

DGEBRI-Answer
IRBDGE
BRIEGD
IRBEGD
20 . If x means ÷, – means x , ÷ means +, and + means -, then the value of the expression
(3- 15 ÷ 11) x 8 + 6 will be

1-Answer
0
8
4
21. A number exceeds its one fifth by 20, what is the number
Answer : 25
22. Pointing to Veena in the photograph, Vishnu said, She is the daughter of my Grandfather’s only son.How is Veena related to Vishnu
Answer : Sister
23. If 27 x 29 = 783, then 0.27 x 290 = ………
Answer : 78.3
24. A man sells an article for Rs 330, at a gain of 10 %.What did it cost him
Answer : 300
25. If the total rainfall in a month is 75cm, then the average daily rainfall is
Answer : 2.5 cm
26. Which number should come in the blank space to complete the series
2, 6, 12, 36, 72, ……..
Answer : 216
27. Find the value of 7° + 8° = ………..
Answer : 2
28. If the radius of a circle is increased by 6 % , then its area is increased by ……….%
Answer : 12.36 %
29. Which is the number that comes next in the following series.
4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, ……..
Answer : 60
30. The downstream speed of a boat is 15 kmph. and the speed of the stream is 2 kmph.Then the upstream speed of the boat is …
Answer : 11 kmph
31. When a number x is divided by 4 we get the cube of another number y.Find x if y3<10.
Answer : 32
32. The smallest number which if divided by 9, 12, and 16 each time 5 remains. The number is ……….
Answer : 149
33. Some boys are standing in a queue. If the 10th boy from behind is 5 behind the 12th boy from the front. how many boys are there in the queue
Answer : 26
34. A cube is to be painted. No two adjacent faces can be coloured the same. What is the least number of colours needed
Answer : 3
35. There are four roads. I have come from the south and want to go to the temple. The road to the right leads me away from the coffee house, straight ahead it leads only to a college. In which direction is the temple
Answer : East
36. A , B, C are intelligent.A, D, E are laborious. D, C, E are honest. A, B, E are ambitious. Which of the following are not honest
Answer : A, B
37. The average age of a husband and wife was 22 years when they were married five years back. What is the present average age of the family if they have a three year old child
Answer : 19 years
38. A father tells his son, I was your present age when you were born. If father is 36 now, how old was the son five years back
Answer : 13
39. If 3 + 3 = 27: 4 +7 = 84 and 5 +7 = 105, then 6 + 7= ………
Answer : 126
40. Find out the number that comes in the missing position of the following number series:
0, 7, 26, 63, 124,…..
Answer : 215
41. What will be the next number if the series of numbers is as follows 3, 11, 27, 59,……….
Answer : 123
42. What will be the next number in the following series of numbers 2,4,16,……
Answer : 256
43. Bangladesh : Dhaka ; Austria : ………..
Answer : Vienna
44. Pareekkutty: Madhu; Chemban Kunju : ………..
Answer : Kottarakara Sreedharan Nair
45. Pather Panjali: Sathyajith Ray ;Athithi : ……………..
Answer : K . P. Kumaran

Free online mock test for IBPS-CWE Clerical 2012 Exam (Just same as IBPS Pattern – Fully solved Questions with answer and Explanation) Try It Now
1 Two students fought a college election. The winning student got 60 % of the total votes and won the election by 144 votes only. What was the total number of votes polled
Answer : 720
2. 200 ÷ 20 ÷ 100 = ……..
Answer : 0.1
3. If 75% of a number is added to 75 the result is the number itself, then the number is
Answer : 300
4. 375÷ 25 – 19 = ……….
Answer : -4
5. 2.65 – 0.5 = ……….
Answer : 2.15
6. Articles which are bought for Rs 400 are sold for Rs 560.Find the profit percent
Answer : 40
7. A train 280 m long, running with a speed of 63 km/hr.will pass an electric pole in ………seconds
Answer : 16sec
8. If 76 is divided into four parts proportional to 7: 5: 3: 4 the smallest part is
Answer : 12
9. In an examination 36 % is the pass mark.If an examinee gets 17 marks and fails by 10 marks, what was the maximum mark
Answer : 75
10. The smallest prime number is
Answer : 2
11. What is the largest number that divides 10 and 15 without a remainder
Answer : 5
12. The ratio between two numbers is 2: 3. Their LCM is 36. What is the smaller number.
Answer : 12
13. The marks obtained by a student in five subjects are 68, 73, 62, 85 and 79. Find the average score.
Answer : 73.4
14. 21 ÷ 3 ( 10 – 3 ) – 20 + 1 =
Answer : 30
15. 0.0076 ÷ 1.9 = …………
Answer : 0.004
16. Which term of the progression 4, 7, 10, ………is 76
Answer : 25
17. When 8 % of 630 is added to 12 % of 315, the sum is
Answer : 88.2
18. One half of the students at an Indian University study German and 1/3 of others study French.The remaining 600 do not study any foreign language. How many students are there in the university.
Answer : 1800
19. A 300 m long train passes a pole in 12 secs. What is its speed in km/hr
Answer : 90 km/hr
20. A train runs for 2 hrs at the speed of 35 km/hr. It runs for 3 1/2 hrs at the speed of 60 km/hr and then runs for 2 1/2 hrs at the speed of 70 km/hr. Find the average speed of the train
Answer : 56.87 km/hr
21. In an examination 40 % students fail in maths, 30 % in English and 15 % in both.Find the pass percentage
Answer : 45 %
22. A class has R rows of desks with D desks in each row. On a particular day when all the pupils were present, three seats were found vacant. The number of pupils in the class is
Answer : DR – 3
23. Nalini purchases a cycle for Rs. 660 including sales tax.If the rate of sales tax is 10 % find out the sale price of the cycle
Answer : Rs 600
24. Which one of the following is having greater value
Answer : 5:3
25. What must be added to the numbers 6, 10, 14 and 22 so that they became successive proportional
Answer : 2
Placement Paper
IBPS clerical cadre solved question papers,IBPS aptitude reasoning computer knowledge bank based general knowledge professional knowledge questions with answers,IBPS previous years solved question papers

IBPS REASONING ABILITY
1. Four teams, Team A, B, C and D participated in a tournament. Team C scored the least. Team B scored more than team D but not as much as Team A. Who amongst the four teams scored third highest ?
1. Team A
2. Team B
3. Team C
4. Team D -Answer
5. Cannot be determined

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JOURNEY each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order ?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three -Answer
5. More than three

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
1. Jute
2. Cotton
3. Wool
4. Silk
5. Rayon-Answer

Directions (Q. 4 and 5) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is to the South of B’.
If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is to the North of B’
If ‘A % B’ means ‘A is to the East of B’
If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is to the West of B’.

4. Which of the following means ‘P is to the East of Q’ ?
1. H % P – S + Q
2. Q + R × S – P
3. P % A – Q + B -Answer
4. Q – Z % S × P
5. None of these

5. In the equation F % Q + R – S, S is in which direction with respect to Q ?
1. East
2. South
3. West
4. South-West
5. South-East-Answer

Directions (Q. 6 – 8) The following questions are based on the five four digit numbers given below –
3475 2791 6458 1826 7534
6. What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is subtracted from the third digit of the second lowest number ?
1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 6

5. 4-Answer

7. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right within the number, whichof the following will be the sum of all the four digits of the number which is third highest in the new arrangement?
1. 19

2. 18

3. 22

4. 17 -Answer

5. 23

8. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second lowest number ?
1. 3475

2. 2791

3. 6458

4. 1826

5. 7534-Answer

Directions – (Q. 9 – 13) In each question/set of questions below are statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give Answers –
1. If only conclusion I follows
2. If only conclusion II follows
3. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
4. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
5. If both conclusions I and II follow
1–Answer
9. Statements :
All gems are precious
Some gems are stones.
All stones are diamonds
Conclusions :
I. At least some stones are precious
II. All diamonds are precious.

10. Statements :
All dreams are fantasies.
Some fantasies are pleasant
All pleasant are everlasting
Some everlasting are memories
Conclusions :
I. Some dreams are memories
II. Some fantasies are everlasting
2–Answer
11. Statements :
All black are blue.
All blue are green
All green are emerald
Conclusions :
I. Some emeralds are green
II. All black and blue are green
5-Answer
Directions – (Q. 12 and 13)
Statements :
No design is fashion
All fashions are temporary
Some temporary are permanent

12. Conclusions :
I. Some designs are permanent
II. No fashion is permanent
4-Answer
13. Conclusions :
I. At least some temporary are fashions.
II. At least some temporary are not designs.
5-Answer
Directions – (Q.14 – 17) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions -Seven trees namely mango, lemon, apple, ashoka, banana, guava and papaya are planted in a straight row, not necessarily in the same order. (Assume as if the trees are facing North)
a. The papaya tree is planted fourth to the right of the lemon tree
b. The Ashoka tree is planted at the extreme right end of the row
c. The mango and guava trees are immediate neighbours of the lemon tree
d. The banana tree is planted immediately next to the mango tree

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so forma group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
1. lemon, mango
2. banana, apple
3. mango, banana
4. guava, lemon
5. apple, ashoka-Answer
-Answer
15. Which trees are planted at the extreme ends of the row ?
1. guava, apple
2. lemon, ashoka
3. guava, ashoka -Answer
4. lemon, papaya
5. guava, papaya

16. Which of the following tree is planted exactly in the middle of the row ?
1. papaya
2. mango
3. banana -Answer
4. lemon
5. apple

17. What is the position of the apple tree with respect to the guava tree ?
1. Second to the right
2. Fourth to the right -Answer
3. Immediate left
4. Third to the right
5. Third to the left3

Directions – ( 18 – 21 ) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions –
A, B, C, D, F, G, H and J are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
a. D sits exactly between J and F.
b. J sits second to the left of F and second to the right of B.
c. H sits third to the left of G.
d. A is not an immediate neighbour of B.-Answer

18. How many people sit between G and H when counted in an anti-clockwise direction from G ?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four -Answer
5. Five

19. If H : F then J : ?
1. B -Answer
2. F
3. H
4. G
5. None of these

20. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in anticlock-wise direction, starting from A, the positions of how many (excluding A) will remain nchanged as compared to their original seating positions ?
1. None
2. One -Answer
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four

21. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting to the immediate left of the first person ?
1. GJ
2. FA
3. CH -Answer
4. AH
5. DF

Directions (Q. 22 – 26) Study the following arrangement of digits and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below –
3 4 2 6 8 7 © 5 4 £ 3 2 9 $ 1 6 5 3 7 # 9 8 6 @ 2 1 4 3 ? 9 8 7 2 ? 4 3
22. How many 2’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square ?
(1 is also a perfect square)
1. None
2. One
3. Two -Answer
4. Three
5. Four

23. Which of the following is fifth to the right of the eighteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
1. $

2. 9

3. 2 4. @

5. 6-Answer

24. How many symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded as well as followed by an even number in the above arrangement ?
1. One
2. Two -Answer
3. Three
4 Four
5. Five

25. If all the digits that are perfect squares are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the thirteenth (digit/symbol) from the left end of the above arrangement ?(1 is also a perfect square)
1. $ 2. 6 3. # 4. 7 5. 5-Answer

26. How many pairs of digits are there in the number highlighted in bold in the above arrangement each of which has as many digits between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the numerical series ?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four -Answer
5. Five

Directions – (Q. 27 – 30) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by five combinations of number / symbol codes lettered 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the letter of that combination as your answer –
Letter P I R S E J L O D N X A B C K
Number Symbol code:/ : ? 5 4 # 3 8 @ 7 2 1 $ 6 ? 9 ?
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the fifth elements are vowels, the codes for both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the group of letters contains no vowel, the codes for the first and the last elements are to be interchanged
(iii) If the third element is a vowel and the fourth a consonant, the fourth element is to be coded as the code for the second element.
27. JDRALS
1. 8246@# -Answer
2. 8246#@
3. 8264@#
4. 8@426#
5. 2846@#

28. ORNKEL
1. 314?7@
2. 374?1@
3. 741?3@
4. 341?7@ -Answer
5. 714?3@

29. EPBCOK
1. 7??93? -Answer
2. 3??97?
3. 3?9?7?
4. ?3? 79?
5. 3??97?

30. RXISCN
1. $45$91
2. 4$9$51
3. 4$5$91 -Answer
4. 4$$951
5. 4$$519

IBPS clerical QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (Q. 1 – 10) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
1. (124)2+ 0.4624 = ?
1. 1.7024
2. 154.2224 -Answer
3. 2 4. 1.542
5. None of these

2.
v256/ 337 *1011/ 1024 = ?
1. 4/3
2. 3/4-Answer
3. 1/2
4. 2/3
5. None of these

3.961/1681 =?
1. 29/39
2. 31/49
3. 31/41-Answer
4. 21/39
5. None of these

4. 2/7(54*2-6)*?=1/4 of 3024
1. 24
2. 756
3. 92.41
4. 29.41
5. 31.50-Answer

5. 0.006 × 0.2 × 0.35 = ?
1. 0.000042
2. 0.00042 -Answer
3. 0.0042
4. 0.000004
2 5. None of these
6.v 7 of 64 +(7 +9)?
1. 28
2. 14 -Answer
3. 17
4. 73
5. None of these

7.80/0.4 +0.8/8 = ?

1. 1125
2. 2000 -Answer
3. 200
4. 20
5. None of these

8.vof 0.9 =?
1. 0.3
2. 0.0
3 3. 0.949 -Answer
4. 0.992
5. 0.45

9. Ifv 16/49=?/ 49
1. 4
2. 7
3. 16
4. 28 -Answer
5. 29

10. 9 + 99 + 999 + 9999 = ?
1. 111006
2. 11007
3. 12006
4. 11106 -Answer
5. None of these

Directions (Q. 11 – 15) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in following equations.
11. 35% of 121 + 85% of 230.25 = ?
1. 225
2. 230
3. 240 -Answer
4. 245
5. 228

12. 3.2 × 8.1 + 3185 / 4.95 = ?
1. 670
2. 660 -Answer
3. 645
4. 690
5. 685

13. 2508 / 15.02 + ? × 11 = 200
1. 13
2. 8
3. 3 -Answer
4. 4
5. 6

14. 42.07 × 7.998 + (?)2 = 202
1. 6
2. 12
3. 32
4. 64
5. 8-Answer

15. 2375.85 / 18.01 – 4.525 × 8.05 = ?
1. 105
2. 96
3. 88
4. 94 -Answer
5. 112

Directions (Q.16 – 20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series.
16. 21, 24, 33, 48, 69, 96, ?
1. 129 -Answer
2. 126
3. 132
4. 135
5. None of these

17. 540, 316, 204, 148, 120, 106 ?
1. 92
2. 89
3. 98
4. 99 -Answer
5. None of these

18. 135, 124, 111, 96, 79, 60 ?
1. 37
2. 41
3. 43
4. 35
5. 39-Answer

19. 23, 32, 50, 77, 113, 158 ?
1. 213
2. 212 -Answer
3. 203
4. 221
5. None of these

20. 37, 101, 150, 186, 211, 227, ?
1. 235
2. 231
3. 238
4. 236 -Answer
5. None of these

21. A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to make water 20% in the new mixture ?
1. 9 ltrs
2. 7 ltrs
3. 5 ltrs -Answer
4. 10 ltrs
5. None of these

22. What would be the cost of building a fence around a square plot with area equal to 361 sq.ft. If the price per foot of building the fence is Rs. 62?
1. Rs.4026
2. Rs. 4712 -Answer
3. Rs. 3948
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these

23. When the price of an item was reduced by 15%, the sale of the item increased by 20%. What was the effect on the sales
1. 2% increase -Answer
2. 2% decrease
3. 1% increase
4. 1% decrease
5. None of these

24. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘TRUST’ be arranged ?
1. 240
2. 120
3. 80
4. 25
5. 60-Answer

25. Manish travels at the speed of 40 km/hr for 3 hours and the speed of 60 km/hr for 4.5 hours. In this way he covers three fifths of the total distance. At what average speed should he travel to cover the remaining distance in 4 hours ?
1. 60 km/hr
2. 70 km/hr
3. 62 km/hr
4. 65 km/hr -Answer
5. None of these

26. An empty pipe can empty 1/4 of a cistern in 15 minutes. In 5 minutes, what part of the cistern will be emptied?.
1.3/4

2. 1/3
3. 1/2
4. 1/12-Answer
5. None of these

27. Alok, a marine student, has to secure 60% to get first division. He gets 450 marks and misses the first class by 30 marks. Find the maximum marks
1. 600
2. 650
3. 700
4. 750
5. 800-Answer

28. The difference between simple and compound interests on a certain sum for 3 years at 5% is Rs.61/- Find the sum
1. Rs.9000
2. Rs.9261
3. Rs. 9200
4. Rs.8000 -Answer
5. None of these

29. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is 9. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 15, then what is the original number?
1. 89
2. 67
3. 87
4. 96
5. None of these-Answer

30. A man has Rs. 480 in the denomination of one-rupee notes, five rupee notes and ten – rupee notes. The number of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes ?
1. 90 -Answer
2. 75
3. 60
4. 45
5. 30
Directions (Q. 111 – 115) : In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. Youhave to solve both the equations and – Give Answer if
1. x < y
2. x < y
3. x > y
4. x > y
5. x = y or the relationship can not be established

Directions (Q. 31 – 35) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Number of Females and Males working in five different organisations

31. What is the ratio of the number of females to the number of males from organisation A ?
1. 11 : 8
2. 7 : 6
3. 8 : 11
4. 6 : 7 -Answer
5. None of these

32 The number of males in the Organisation D forms what percent of the total number of employees from that organisation ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
1. 54.17 -Answer
2. 62.64
3. 52.25
4. 61.47
5. None of these

33. What is the total number of employees working in Organisation C and B together ?
1. 8950
2. 9520
3. 8250
4. 9500
5. 9250-Answer

34. The number of females from Organisation E forms approximately what percent of the total number of employees from that Organisation ?
1. 58
2. 60
3. 52 -Answer
4. 62
5. 55

35. What is the total number of females from all the Organisations together ?
1. 11540
2. 11750 -Answer
3. 12440
4. 10250
5. None of these

36. The number of females from Organisation E forms approximately what percent of the total number of employees from that Organisation ?
1. 58
2. 60
3. 52 -Answer
4. 62
5. 55

37 . What is the total number of females from all the Organisations together ?
1. 11540
2. 11750 -Answer
3. 12440
4. 10250
5. None of these

IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Quantitative and Reasoning Questions with answers

Question papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination Pattern and Latest Question Papers\
IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Common Written Examination (CWE) for PO,Clerical and Gramin Banks Officer scale jobs
IBPS PO (CWE) Gramin Banks Latest Selection Procedures2012|Aptitude Reasoning, Data Interpretation computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions
IBPS Previous Years question papers with answers Detailed Test Analysis|IBPS

IBPS Quantitiative and Reasoning Questions with answers

1. Four bells will ring at intervals of 18, 24, 32 and 40 seconds. If they begin by ringing together what time will elapse before they ring together again?
a. 1000 min
b. 2000 min
c. 1440 min
d. 1560 min
2.At what rate will the interest on Rs. 1125/- be Rs. 225 for 4 years?
a. 6%
b. 5%
c. 8%
d. 4%

3,By selling 32 books for Rs. 100/- a man loses 40%. How many books shall he sell for Rs. 100/- to gain 20%?
a. 18
b. 16
c. 10
d. 8

4.A person spends Rs. 501 in buying tables and chairs. If the cost of each chair is Rs. 15 and table costs 40% more than the chair and total number of articles he bought was 27, how many of each kind did he buy?
a. 16, 11
b. 15, 12
c. 13, 14
d. 10, 17

5.Milk is available in two vessels. The ratio of milk to water in each of the vessels is 9 : 7 and 11 : 8 respectively. Which vessel contains more water?
a) 2nd Vessel
b) 3rd Vessel
c) 1st Vessel
d) None

6.If 6 horses eat 108 kg of grass in 4 days, how much grass will be eaten by 20 horses in 3 days?
a) 440
b) 270
c) 430
d) None

7.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.5 lakhs and Rs.6 lakhs respectively. After 6 months A invested Rs.1 lakh and after one more year B withdrew 2 lakhs. Find the share of A in the profit of Rs.26 lakhs at the end of the third year.
a) 2 lakhs
b) 4 lakhs
c) 7 lakhs
d) 14 lakhs

8.P and Q entered into a partnership with Rs.75000 and Rs.1,25,000 respectively. Q was the sleeping partner. At the end of the year they shared the profit of Rs.2,40,000 in the ratio of 5 : 3. Find the salary drawn by P.
a) Rs.48000
b) Rs.96000
c) Rs.25000
d) None

9.A sum of Rs5500 is lent out in 3 parts in such a way that the interest on first part at 5% for 2 years and the interest on the second part at 6% for 5 years and that of 4% for 5 years on the third part are equal. The ratio in which the sum is divided into three parts is ….
a) 6 : 2 : 3
b) 3 : 6 : 2
c) 3 : 2 : 6
d) 6 : 3 : 2

10.Two taps A & B can fill a cistern in 12 and 16 minutes respectively. Both fill taps are opened together, but 4 minutes before cistern is full, one tap A is closed. How much time will the cistern take to fill?
a) 9 1/7 min.
b) 3 1/7 min.
c) 11 1/7 min.
d) None

Answers :
1.C, 2.B, 3.B, 4.A, 5.C, 6.B, 7.D, 8.B, 9.A, 10.A
IBPS Qunatitaitive aptitude Questions

1.A sum of money amounts to Rs.6050 in 2 years and to Rs.6655 in 3 years at C.I. being compounded annually. Find the sum and the rate?
a) Rs.5000, 10%
b) Rs.6000, 20%
c) Rs.8000, 10%
d) None of these

2.A manufacturer sells an article to a wholesale dealer at a profit of 20% and the wholesale dealer sells it to a retail merchant at a loss of 5%. Find the resultant profit or loss%
a) 14% loss
b) 14% gain
c) 12% gain
d) None

3.A man can row 6 km/hr in still water. If the speed of stream is 2km/hr, it takes him 3 hours to row to a place and back. How far is the place?
a) 16 km
b) 10 km
c) 12 km
d) 8 km

4.A boat traveled from A to B and back to A from B in 5 hours. If the speed of boat in still water and the speed of stream be 7.5 kmph and 1.5 kmph, then what is the distance between A and B?
a) 80 km
b) 45 km
c) 18 km
d) 19 km

5.A mixture of 66 litres of milk and water are in the ratio of 5 : 1, water is added to make the ratio 3 : 5. find the quantity of water added.
a) 20 litres
b) 18 litres
c) 22 litres
d) 24 litres

6.40 litres of mixture of milk and water contains 10% of water. The water to be added to make water content 20% in the new mixture is ….
a) 6 litres
b) 6.5 litres
c) 5.5 litres
d) 5 litres

7.A clock which loses 50 seconds every two minutes is set at 6.00 P.M. on a certain day. What is the time shown by this watch if the current time is 3.00 P.M.?
a) 4 P.M.
b) 9 P.M.
c) 5 P.M.
d) 6 P.M.

8.Today is Tuesday. What day of the week it was 124 days before?
a) Wednesday
b) Thursday
c) Tuesday
d) Wednesday

9.In a km race, P beats Q by 25 m or 5 sec then find the time taken by P to complete the race.
a) 3 min 15 sec
b) 4 min 20 sec
c) 2 min 30 sec
d) 5 min 10 sec

10.9876543210 is divisible by
a) 5, 9 & 11
b) 5, 9 but not by 11
c) 9 & 11 but not by 5
d) 11 & 5 but not by 9

Answers :
1.A, 2.B, 3.D, 4.C, 5.C, 6.D, 7.B, 8.B, 9.A, 10.B

11Find the last digit of the product 8743 x 7156 x 7567 x 8452
a) 3
b) 6
c) 4
d) 2

12.Two numbers in binary system are 110010011 and 101010101. Find their difference in decimal system.
a) 66
b) 56
c) 65
d) 62

3.The side of a square is decreased by 10%. What is the percent of change in area?
a) 20% decrease
b) 100% decrease
c) 19% decrease
d) 21% decrease

14.In an examination, 22% students failed. If the number of passed candidates was 420 more than number of failed candidates, then the total number of candidates appeared the examination is?

a) 300
b) 324
c) 750
d) 960

15.The average age of a family of 6 members is 22 years. If the age of the youngest member be 7 years, the average age of the family at the birth of the youngest member is ……
a) 15 years
b) 17 years
c) 17.5 years
d) 18 years

16.Find the average of squares of first consecutive even numbers from 1 to 26.
a) 243
b) 236
c) 252
d) 235

17.A’s money : B’s money = 4 : 5 and B’s money : C’s money = 2 : 3. If A has Rs.800, then what amount of money C has?
a) 1600
b) 2700
c) 1500
d) None

18.The income of A, B and C are in the ratio 7 : 9 : 12 and their spending are in the ratio 8 : 9 : 15. If A saves 1/4th of the income then what is the ratio of the savings of A, B and C?
a) 56 : 69: 99
b) 56 : 99 : 69
c) 69 : 56 : 99
d) None

19.A, B and C started a business. The capital of A is three fourth of as much as the capitals of B and C together and the capital of B is two third of as much as the capitals of C and A together. Find the share of C in the annual profit of Rs.1,75,000.

a) Rs.15000
b) Rs.30000
c) Rs.8000
d) None

20.If the S.I. for 3 years at 5% is Rs.1200 then find the C.I.
a) Rs.1206
b) Rs.1241
c) Rs.1251
d) Rs.1261

Answers :
1.D, 2.D, 3.C, 4.C, 5.D, 6.C, 7.C, 8.B, 9.D, 10.D

IBPS Reasoning Number series Questions

1. 9, 25, ?, 81, 121
a) 64
b) 36
c) 49
d) 91

2.5, 8, 13, 20, 29, ?
a) 30
b) 38
c) 32
d) 33

3.10, 13, 19, 22, 28, 31, ?
a) 37
b) 39
c) 34
d) 38

4.6, 12, 21, ?, 48
a) 33
b) 38
c) 40
d) 45

5.2, 5, 9, 14, ?, 27
a) 21
b) 20
c) 25
d) 22

6.6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?
a) 42
b) 51
c) 91
d) 81

7.10, 18, 28, 40, 54, 70, ?
a) 88
b) 87
c) 85
d) 86

8.120, 99, ?, 63, 48, 35
a) 82
b) 80
c) 70
d) 63

9.1, 6, 15, ?, 45, 66, 91
a) 25
b) 26
c) 27
d) 28

10.2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
a) 73
b) 75
c) 76
d) 78

Answers :
1.C, 2.B, 3.A, 4.A, 5.B, 6.D, 7.A, 8.B, 9.D, 10.B
IBPS Reasoning Questions -Calendars
1. Find the number of odd days in 200 days.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

2.Find the number of odd days in 425 days.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

3.Find the number of odd days in 49 years.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

4.What day of the week on 26th Jan 1950?
a) Monday
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Thursday

5.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October, 1869. What day was it of the week?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Saturday
d) Sunday

6.What day of the week on 2nd June, 1988?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday

7.What day of the week on 15th August, 1947?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday

8.What day of the week on 31st October, 1984?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday

9.What day of the week on 14th March, 1993?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday

10. What day of the week on 14th November, 1889?
a) Monday
b) Wednesday
c) Thursday
d) Saturday
Answers :
1.B, 2.A, 3.C, 4.D, 5.C, 6.A, 7.B, 8.D, 9.D, 10.C

IBPS Bank PO CWE Percentage Topic Questions

1. A reduction of 10% in price of sugar enables a housewife to buy 5 kg more for Rs. 300/-. Find the reduced price per kg of sugar
a. 5/-
b. 4.5/-
c. 6/-
d. None

2. From a 20lt solution of alt and water with 20% salt, 2lt of water is evaporated. Find the new % concentration of salt
a. 20%
b. 23%
c. 25%
d. None

3. In a list of weights of candidates appearing for police selections, the weight of A is marked as 58 kg instead of 46.4 kg. Find the percentage of correction required
a. 30
b. 20
c. 24
d. None

4. A person spends 20% of his income on rent, 20% of the rest on food, 10% of the remaining on clothes and 10% on groceries. If he is left with Rs. 9520/- find his income
a. 10000/-
b. 15000/-
c. 20000/-
d. None

5. A shopkeeper offers three successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 30% to a customer. If the actual price of the item is Rs. 10000, find the price the customer has to pay to the shopkeeper.
a. 5040/-
b. 4000/-
c. 6000/-
d. None

6. If 10lt solution of water and alcohol containing 10% alcohol is to be made 20% alcohol solution, find the volume of alcohol to be added
a. 1 lt
b. 1.25 lt
c. 1.5 lt
d. 2 lt

7. A is twice B and B is 200% more than C. By what percent is A more than C?
a. 400
b. 600
c. 500
d. 200

8. In an examination, a student secures 40% and fails by 10 marks. If he scored 50%, he would pass by 15 marks. Find the minimum marks required to pass the exam
a. 250
b. 100
c. 110
d. 125

9. If A is 20% taller than B, by what percent is B shorter than A?
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 16.66%
d. None

10. The population of a town increases at a rate of 10% for every year. If the present population is 12100, find the population two years ago
a. 11000
b. 9800
c. 10000
d. 10120

IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude Questions
1. Mohan started a business with a capital of Rs.16000. After 2 months Venu joined him with a capital of Rs.20000. At the end of the year they got Rs.4900 as a profit. Find the share of Mohan in this profit.
a) Rs.20000
2) Rs.24000
c) Rs.18000
d) None

2.Kiran started a business with Rs.25000. After certain months Madhav joined with Rs.40000. At the end of the year they shared the profits in the ratio of 3 : 4. After how many months Madhav joined?
a) 1 month
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 4 months

3.Vimala and Kamala entered into a partnership with Rs.15000 and Rs.25000 respectively. After 4 months Vimala put in Rs.5000 more. Find the share of Kamala in the annual profit of Rs.26000.
a) Rs.15000
b) Rs.12000
c) Rs.18000
d) Rs.9000

4.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.50000 and Rs.60000 respectively. After 4 months A invested Rs.25000 more while B withdrew Rs.20000. Find the share of B in the profit of Rs.1,70,000.
a) Rs.5000
b) Rs.10000
c) Rs.8000
d) None

5.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.45000 and Rs.36000 respectively. After 4 months they invested Rs.10000 each. Find the difference between their shares in the annual profit of Rs.2,58,000.
a) Rs.27000
b) Rs.58000
c) Rs.54000
d) Rs.48000

6.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.5 lakhs and Rs.6 lakhs respectively. After 6 months A invested Rs.1 lakh and after one more year B withdrew 2 lakhs. Find the share of A in the profit of Rs.26 lakhs at the end of the third year.
a) 2 lakhs
b) 4 lakhs
c) 7 lakhs
d) 14 lakhs

7.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.24000 and Rs.35000 respectively. B was a sleeping partner. At the end of the year they received Rs.18200 each. Find the salary of A.
a) Rs.5720
b) Rs.2750
c) Rs.4720
d) None

8.P and Q entered into a partnership with Rs.75000 and Rs.1,25,000 respectively. Q was the sleeping partner. At the end of the year they shared the profit of Rs.2,40,000 in the ratio of 5 : 3. Find the salary drawn by P.
a) Rs.48000
b) Rs.96000
c) Rs.25000
d) None

9.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.48000 and Rs.60000 respectively. B was the sleeping partner. A had to take 25% of total profit and the rest to be divided between them in proportion of their capitals. If A got Rs.21000 at the end of the year then find the total profit.
a) Rs.18000
b) Rs.9000
c) Rs.36000
d) None

10.A, B and C started a business. The capital of A is three fourth of as much as the capitals of B and C together and the capital of B is two third of as much as the capitals of C and A together. Find the share of C in the annual profit of Rs.1,75,000.
a) Rs.15000
b) Rs.30000
c) Rs.8000
d) None

Answers :
1.B, 2.B, 3.A, 4.B, 5.C, 6.D, 7.A, 8.B, 9.C, 10.D

1. Raju buys a watch for Rs.350 and sells it for Rs.392. Find his profit percentage.
a) 9%
b) 12%
c) 14%
d) None

2.Kumar purchased an article for Rs.5200 and spent Rs.800 on its repair. He had to sell it for Rs.5500. Find his profit or loss percentage.
a) 8 1/3 % loss
b) 7 1/2 % profit
c) 9% loss
d) None

3.A tooth paste marked Rs.80 is sold for Rs.68. Find the rate of discount.
a) 12%
b) 14%
c) 15%
d) None

4.Mr.Sharma bought 200 dozen mangoes at Rs.10 per dozen. He spent Rs.500 on transportation. He sold them at Rs.1 each. Find the profit or loss%.
a) 4%
b) 6%
c) 5%
d) None

5.Mr.Shekar sold his bike for Rs.10500 at a profit of 5%. Find the C.P. of the bike.
a) Rs.10300
b) Rs.10700
c) Rs.10000
d) None

6.Sujan buys a binocular for Rs.1800 and sells it at 10% loss. Find its S.P.
a) Rs.1620
b) Rs.1730
c) Rs.1650
d) None

7.Ravi purchased 120 rims of paper at Rs.80 per rim. He spent Rs.280 on transportation, paid tax at the rate of 40 paise per rim and also paid Rs.72 to the workers. He wants to gain 8% then find the S.P. per rim.
a) Rs.89
b) Rs.90
c) Rs.95
d) None

8.A shopkeeper loses 7% by selling an item for Rs.31. For how much should he sell the ball so as to gain 5%?
a) Rs.50
b) Rs.65
c) Rs.35
d) None

9.A shopkeeper sold some articles at Rs.35 per article and gained 40% on it. What would be the S.P. of each article if he wants to gain 60% profit?
a) Rs.40
b) Rs.45
c) Rs.50
d) None

10.A man bought oranges at the rate of 6 for Rs.20 and sold them at 4 for Rs.16. Find his estimated profit%.
a) 23%
b) 18%
c) 20%
d) None

Answers :
1.B, 2.A, 3.C, 4.B, 5.C, 6.A, 7.B, 8.C, 9.A, 10.C

Complete preparation kit for Bank PO Common Written Examination
IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Reasoning Question Paper
IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions

REASONING

IBPS Bank PO CWE Coding and Decoding Questions

1. In a certain code language ‘how many goals scored’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7’ : ‘many more matches’ is written as ‘9 8 2’ and ‘he scored five’ is written as ‘1 6 3’. How is ‘goals’ written in that code language ?

A. 5 B. 7 C.5 or 7 D. Data Inadequate E. None of these

2. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONDENSER written in that code ?

A. RMNBSFEJ B. BNMRSFEJ C.RMNBJEFS D. TOPDQDCH C. RMNBJEFS D.TOPDQDCH E. None of these

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter only once in each word ?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

4. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest ?

A. B B. E C. C D. Data Inadequate E. None of these

5. Each odd digit in the number 6263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the third digit from the left and after the rearrangement ?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. None of these

6. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before twenty third April but after Nineteenth April, whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is not on or after twenty second April. On which day in April is definitely their mother’s birthday ?

A. Twentieth B. Twenty –first C. Twentieth or Twenty –first D. Cannot be determined E. None of

these

7. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 meters he took a right turn and walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and walked 100 meters. He again took a right turn and walked 30 meters and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the starting point ?

A. 50 meters South B. 150 meters North C. 180 meters East D. 50 meters North E. None of these
8. If ‘÷’ means ‘+’ ; ‘-‘ means ‘x’ ; ‘x’ means ‘÷’ and ‘+’ means ‘-‘; then ________ 15-8 x 6 ÷12+ 4 = ?

A. 20 B. 28 C. 8 4/7 D.2 2/3 E. None of these

9. Town D is toward East of town F. Town B is towards North of town D. Town H is towards South of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F ?

A. East B. South-East C. North-East D. Data inadequate E. None of these

10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

IBPS Bank PO CWE Logical Deductions Questions

Directions (Qs. 11-15) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Your have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11.Statements :
All cups are bottles
Some bottles are jugs
No jug is plate
Some Plates are tables

Conclusions :
I. Some tables are bottles.
II. Some plates are cups.
III. No table is bottle.
IV. Some jugs are cups.

A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Only IV follows
E. Only either I or III follows

12. Statements :
Some Chairs are handles.
All Handles are pots
All pots are mats.
Some mats are buses.

Conclusions :
I. Some buses are handles.
II. Some mats are chairs.
III. No bus is Handle.
IV. Some mats are handles

A. Only I, II and IV follow
B. Only II, III and IV follow
C. Only either I or III and II follow
D. Only either I or III and IV follow
E. Only either I or III and II and IV follow

13. Statements:
All birds are horses.
All horses are tigers.
Some tigers are lions.
Some lions are monkeys.

Conclusions :
I. Some tigers are horses.
II. Some monkeys are birds.
III. Some tigers are birds.
IV. Some monkeys are horses.
A. Only I and III follow
B. Only I, II and IV follow
C. Only II, III and IV follow
D. All I, II, III and IV follow
E. None of these

14. Statements :
Some benches are walls.
All walls are houses.
Some houses are jungles.
All jungles are roads.

Conclusions :
I. Some roads are benches.
II. Some jungles are walls.
III. Some houses are benches.
IV. Some roads are houses.

A. Only I and II follow
B. Only I and III follow
C. Only III and IV follow
D. Only II, III and IV follow
E. None of these

15. Statements :
Some sticks are lamps.
Some flowers are lamps.
Some lamps are dresses.
All dresses are shirts.

Conclusions :
I. Some shirts are sticks
II. Some shirts are flowers
III. Some flowers are sticks
IV. Some dresses are sticks.

A. None of follows
B. Only I follows
C. Only II follows
D. Only III follows
E. Only IV follows

Directions (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below;

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization working in three departments viz, personnel, Administration and Marketing with not more than three of them in any department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from football, cricket, volleyball, badminton, lawn tennis, basketball, hockey and table tennis None of these necessarily in the same order.

D works in Administration and does not like either football or cricket. F works in Personnel with only A who likes table tennis. E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes hockey and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in Administration and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who work in Administration likes football. The one who likes volleyball works in Personnel. None of those who work in Administration likes either badminton or lawn tennis. H does not like cricket.

16. Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department?

A. EGH B. AF C. BCD D. BGD E. Data inadequate

17. In which department does E work ?
A. Personnel
B. Marketing
C. Administration
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these

18. Which of the following combinations of employee –department-favourite sport is correct ?

A. E- Administration –Cricket
B. F-Personnel-Lawn Tennis
C. H-Marketing-Lawn Tennis
D. B-Administration –Table Tennis
E. None of these

19. What is E’s favourite sport ?
A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Basketball D. Lawn Tennis E. None of these

20. What is G’s favourite sport ?
A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Basketball D. Lawn Tennis E. None of these

IBPS Bank PO CWE Symbols and Notations Blood Relationship Questions

Directions (Qs. 21-25) : In the following questions, the symbols @, $, *, # and & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below;

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P& Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P 8 Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

21. Statements : H @T, T#F, F&E, E*V

Conclusions : I. V $F
II. E @ T
III . H @ V
IV. T # V

A. Only I, II and III are true
B. Only I, II and IV are true
C. Only II, III and IV are true
D. Only I, III and IV are true
E. All I, II, III and IV are true.

22. Statements : D # R, R * K, K @ F, F $ J
Conclusions : I. J # R
II. J # K
III. R # F
IV. K @ D

A. Only I, II and III are true
B. Only II, III and IV are true.
C. Only I, III and IV are true.
D. All I, II, III and IV are true.
E. None of these.

23. Statements : N & B, B $ W, W # H, H * M

Conclusions : I. M @ W
II. H @ N
III. W & N
IV. W # N

A. Only I is true
B. Only III is true.
C. Only IV is true.
D. Only either III or IV true.
E. Only either III or IV and I are true.

24. Statements : R * D , D $ J, J #M, M @ K
Conclusions : I. K # J
II. D @ M
III. R # M
IV. D @ K

A. None is true
B. Only I is true
C. Only II is true
D. Only III is true
E. Only IV is true.

25.Statements : M $ K, K @ N, N * R, R #W
Conclusion : I. W @ K
II. M $ R
III. K @ W
IV. M @ N

A. Only I and II are true.
B. Only I, II and III are true.
C. Only III and IV are true.
D. Only II, III and IV are true.
E. None of these.

Directions (Qs. 26-30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-Credit in a bank.
The candidate must ————–
(i) be a graduate in any discipline with atleast 60 per cent marks.
(ii) Have post qualification work experience of at least ten years in the Advances Section of a bank.
(iii) Be at least 30 years and not more than 40 years as on 01.04.2010.
(iv) Have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the group of discussion.
(v) Have secured at least 50 per cent marks in interview.

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT________
I. at (i) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in graduation and at least 60 percent marks in post graduation in any discipline the case is to be referred to the General Manger-Advance.

II. at (ii) above but has total post qualification work experience of at least seven years out of which at least three years as Manager-Credit in a bank, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

In each question below details of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.04.2010.

Give answer (A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

Give answer (B) if the case is to be referred to General Manager-Advances.

Give answer (C) if the data are in adequate to take a decision.

Give answer (D) if the candidate is not to be selected.

Give answer (E) if the candidate is to be selected.

26. Shobaha Gupta has secured 50 per cent marks in the Interview and 40 per cent marks in the Group Discussion. She has been working for the past eight years out of which four years as Manager-Credit in a bank after completing her B.A degree with 60 per cent marks. She was born on 12th September 1978.

27. Rohan Maskare was born on 8th March 1974. He has been working in a bank for the past twelve years after completing his B.Com. degree with 70 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in both the Group Discussion and the Interview.

28. Prakash Gokhale was born on 4th August 1977. He has secured 65 per cent marks in post graduation and 58 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working for the past ten years in the Advances Department of a Bank after completion his post graduation. He has secured 45 per cent marks in the Group Discussion and 50 per cent marks in the Interview.

29. Sudha Mehrotra has been working in the Advance department of a bank for the past twelve years after completing her B. Com. Degree with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 50 per cent marks in the Group Discussion and 40 per cent marks in the Interview. She was born on 15th February, 1972.

30. Amit Narayan was born on 28th May 1974. He has been working in the Advances department of a bank for the past eleven years after completing his B.Sc degree with 65 per cent marks. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the Group discussion and 50 per cent marks in the interview.

Directions (Qs 31-35) : In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (1), (2) and (3). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

31. Statement :

A heavy unseasonal downpour during the last two days has paralysed the normal life in the state in which five person were killed but this has provided a huge relief to the problem of acute water crisis in the state.

Courses of Action :
(1) The state government should set up a committee to review the alarming situation.

(2) The state government should immediately remove all the restrictions on use of potable water in all the major cities in the state.

(3) The state government should send relief supplies to all the affected areas in the state.

A. None
B. Only (1)
C. Only (2) and (3)
D. Only (3)
E. All (1), (2), (3)
32. Statement :

A large private bank has decided to retrench one-third of its employee in view of the huge losses incurred by it during the past three quarters.

Course of Action :

a. The Govt. should issue a notification to general public to immediately stop all trancsactions with the bank.

b. The Govt. should direct the bank to refrain from retrenching its employees.

c. The Govt. should ask the central bank of the country to initiate an enquiry into the bank’s activities and submit its report.

A. None
B. Only (1)
C. Only (2)
D. Only (3)
E. Only (1) and (3)

33. Statement :

Many political activists have decided to stage demonstrations and block traffic movement in the city during peak hours to protest against the steep rise in prices of essential commodities.

Course of Action :

(1) The Govt. should immediately ban all forms of agitations in the country.

(2) The police authority of the city should deploy additional forces all over the city to help traffic movement in the city.

(3) The State administration should carry out preventive arrests of the known criminals staying in the city.

A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (1) and (2)
E. None of these.
34. Statement :

The school dropout rate in many districts in the state has increased sharply during the last few years as the parents of these children make them work in the field owned by others to earn enough for them to get at least one meal a day.

Course of Action :

(1) The Govt. should put up a mechanism to provide food grains to the poor people in these districts through public distribution system to encourage the parents to send their wards to school.

(2) The Govt. should close down some of these schools in the district and deploy the teachers of these schools to nearby schools and also ask remaining students to join these schools.

(3) Govt. should issue arrest warrants for all the parents who force their children to work in fields instead of attending classes.

A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (1) and (2)
E. None of these

35. Statement :

One aspirant was killed due to stampede while participating in a recruitment drive of police constables.

Course of Action :

(1) Official incharge of the recruitment process should immediately be suspended.

(2) A team of officials should be asked to find out the circumstances which led to the death of the aspirant and submit its report within a week.

(3) The Govt. should ask the home department to stagger the number of aspirants over more number of days to avoid such incidents in future.

A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (2) and (3)
E. None of these

36. Effect : Majority of the employees of the ailing organization opted for voluntary retirement scheme and left the organization with all their retirement benefits within a fortnight of launching the scheme.

Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect ?

A. The company has been making huge losses for the past five years and is unable to pay salary to its employees in time.

B. The management of the company made huge personal gains through unlawful activities.

C. One of the competitors of the company went bankrupt last year.

D. The Company owns large tracts of land in the state which will fetch huge sum to its owners.

E. None of these.

37. Statement : Most of the companies in IT and ITES sectors in India have started hiring from engineering college campuses this year and are likely to recruit much more than yearly recruitment of the earlier years.

Which of the following substantiates the facts stated in the above statement ?

A. IT and ITES are the only sectors in India which are hiring from engineering college campuses.
B. Govt. has stepped up recruitment activities after a gap of five years.
C. The IT and ITES companies have now decided to visit the engineering college campuses for tier –II cities in India as well.
D. Availability of qualified engineers will substantially increase in the near future.
E. None of these

38. Cause : The Govt. has recently increased its taxes on petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent.

Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause ?

A. The Petroleum companies will reduce the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent.

B. The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent .

C. The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about 5 per cent.

D. The petroleum pumps will stop selling petrol and diesel till the taxes are rolled back by the govt.

E. None of these.

39. Statement : The Govt. has decided to instruct the banks to open new branches in such a way that there is one branch of any of the banks in every village of population 1000 and above or a cluster of villages with population less than 1000 to provide banking services to all the citizens.

Which of the following will weaken the step taken by the Govt. ?

A. The Private sector banks in India have stepped up their branch expansion activities in rural India.

B. Many Govt. owned banks have surplus manpower in it urban brances.

C. All the banks including those in private sector will follow the govt. directive.

D. Large number of branches of many Govt. owned banks in the rural areas are making huge losses every year due to lack of adequate business activities.

E. None of these.

Directions (Qs. 40-42) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below;

The center reportedly wants to continue providing subsidy to consumers for cooking gas and kerosene for five more years. This is not good news from the point of view of reining in the fiscal deficit. Mounting subventions for subsidies means diversion of savings by the government from investment to consumption, raising the cost of capital in the process. The government must cut expenditure on subsidies to create more fiscal space for investments in both physical and social infrastructure. It should outline a plan for comprehensive reform in major subsidies including petroleum, food and fertilizers and set goal posts.
40. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph?

A. Subsidy provided by the government under various heads to the citizen increases the cost of capital.

B. Govt. is unable to withdraw subsidies provided to various items.

C. Govt. subsidy on kerosene is purely a political decision.

D. Govt. does not have enough resources to continue providing subsidy on petroleum products.

E. None of these.

41. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

A. India’s fiscal deficit is negligible in comparison to other emerging economies in the world.

B. Subsidy on food and fertilizers are essential for growth of Indian economy.

C. Reform in financial sector will weaken India’s position in the international arena.

D. Gradual withdrawal of subsidy is essential for effectively managing fiscal deficit in India.

E. None of these.

42. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

A. People in India may not be able to pay more for petroleum products.
B. Many people in India are rich enough to buy petroleum products at market cost.
C. Govt. may not be able to create more infrastructural facilities if the present level of subsidy continues for a longer time.
D. Govt. of India has sought assistance from International financial organizations for its infrastructural projects.
E. None of these.

Directions (Qs. 43-45) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below;

Poverty measurement in an unsettled issue, both conceptually and methodologically. Since poverty is a process as well as an outcome; many come out of it while others may be falling into it. The net effect of these two parallel processes is a proportion commonly identified as the ‘head count ratio’, but these ratios hide the fundamental dynamism that characterizes poverty in practice. The most recent poverty reestimates by an expert group has also missed that crucial dynamism. In a study conducted on 13,000 house holds which represented the entire country in 1993-94 and again on 2004-05, it was found that in the ten-year period 18.2% rural population moved out of poverty whereas another 22.1 % fell into it over this period. This net increase of about four percentage point was seen to have a considerable variation across states and regions.

43. Which of the following is conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

A. Accurate estimates of number of people living below poverty line in India is possible to be made.
B. Many expert groups in India are not interested to measure poverty objectively.
C. Process of poverty measurement needs to take into account various factors to tackle its dynamic nature.
D. People living below poverty line remain in that position for a very long time.
E. None of these.

44. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the stated in the above paragraph ?

A. It may not be possible to have an accurate poverty measurement in India.
B. Level of poverty in India is static over the years.
C. Researchers avoid making conclusions on poverty measurement data in India.
D. Govt. of India has a mechanism to measure level of poverty effectively and accurately.
E. None of these.

45. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above Paragraph ?

A. Poverty measurement tools in India are outdated.
B. Increase in number of person falling into poverty varies considerably across the country over a period of time.
C. Govt. of India has stopped measuring poverty related studies.
D. People living in rural areas are more susceptible to fall into poverty over the time.
E. None of these.

IBPS Bank PO CWE Non Verbal Reasoning Questions
Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Ans –C In each step, element at the upper-right position gets enlarged, inverts vertically and reaches the lower-left corner; the existing element at the lower-left position, is lost and a new small element appears at the upper-right position.
One, two, three, one, two, three…..arcs get inverted sequentially. This inversion takes place in an ACW direction.

Complete preparation kit for Bank P O and Common Written Examination
IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Reasoning Question Paper
IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions

REASONING

IBPS Bank PO CWE Coding and Decoding Questions

1. In a certain code language ‘how many goals scored’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7’ : ‘many more matches’ is written as ‘9 8 2’ and ‘he scored five’ is written as ‘1 6 3’. How is ‘goals’ written in that code language ?

A. 5 B. 7 C.5 or 7 D. Data Inadequate E. None of these

2. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONDENSER written in that code ?

A. RMNBSFEJ B. BNMRSFEJ C.RMNBJEFS D. TOPDQDCH C. RMNBJEFS D.TOPDQDCH E. None of these

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter only once in each word ?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

4. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest ?

A. B B. E C. C D. Data Inadequate E. None of these

5. Each odd digit in the number 6263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the third digit from the left and after the rearrangement ?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. None of these

6. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before twenty third April but after Nineteenth April, whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is not on or after twenty second April. On which day in April is definitely their mother’s birthday ?

A. Twentieth B. Twenty –first C. Twentieth or Twenty –first D. Cannot be determined E. None of

these

7. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 meters he took a right turn and walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and walked 100 meters. He again took a right turn and walked 30 meters and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the starting point ?

A. 50 meters South B. 150 meters North C. 180 meters East D. 50 meters North E. None of these
8. If ‘÷’ means ‘+’ ; ‘-‘ means ‘x’ ; ‘x’ means ‘÷’ and ‘+’ means ‘-‘; then ________ 15-8 x 6 ÷12+ 4 = ?

A. 20 B. 28 C. 8 4/7 D.2 2/3 E. None of these

9. Town D is toward East of town F. Town B is towards North of town D. Town H is towards South of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F ?

A. East B. South-East C. North-East D. Data inadequate E. None of these

10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

IBPS Bank PO CWE Logical Deductions Questions

Directions (Qs. 11-15) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Your have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11.Statements :
All cups are bottles
Some bottles are jugs
No jug is plate
Some Plates are tables

Conclusions :
I. Some tables are bottles.
II. Some plates are cups.
III. No table is bottle.
IV. Some jugs are cups.

A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Only IV follows
E. Only either I or III follows

12. Statements :
Some Chairs are handles.
All Handles are pots
All pots are mats.
Some mats are buses.

Conclusions :
I. Some buses are handles.
II. Some mats are chairs.
III. No bus is Handle.
IV. Some mats are handles

A. Only I, II and IV follow
B. Only II, III and IV follow
C. Only either I or III and II follow
D. Only either I or III and IV follow
E. Only either I or III and II and IV follow

13. Statements:
All birds are horses.
All horses are tigers.
Some tigers are lions.
Some lions are monkeys.

Conclusions :
I. Some tigers are horses.
II. Some monkeys are birds.
III. Some tigers are birds.
IV. Some monkeys are horses.
A. Only I and III follow
B. Only I, II and IV follow
C. Only II, III and IV follow
D. All I, II, III and IV follow
E. None of these

14. Statements :
Some benches are walls.
All walls are houses.
Some houses are jungles.
All jungles are roads.

Conclusions :
I. Some roads are benches.
II. Some jungles are walls.
III. Some houses are benches.
IV. Some roads are houses.

A. Only I and II follow
B. Only I and III follow
C. Only III and IV follow
D. Only II, III and IV follow
E. None of these

15. Statements :
Some sticks are lamps.
Some flowers are lamps.
Some lamps are dresses.
All dresses are shirts.

Conclusions :
I. Some shirts are sticks
II. Some shirts are flowers
III. Some flowers are sticks
IV. Some dresses are sticks.

A. None of follows
B. Only I follows
C. Only II follows
D. Only III follows
E. Only IV follows

Directions (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below;

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization working in three departments viz, personnel, Administration and Marketing with not more than three of them in any department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from football, cricket, volleyball, badminton, lawn tennis, basketball, hockey and table tennis None of these necessarily in the same order.

D works in Administration and does not like either football or cricket. F works in Personnel with only A who likes table tennis. E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes hockey and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in Administration and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who work in Administration likes football. The one who likes volleyball works in Personnel. None of those who work in Administration likes either badminton or lawn tennis. H does not like cricket.

16. Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department?

A. EGH B. AF C. BCD D. BGD E. Data inadequate

17. In which department does E work ?
A. Personnel
B. Marketing
C. Administration
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these

18. Which of the following combinations of employee –department-favourite sport is correct ?

A. E- Administration –Cricket
B. F-Personnel-Lawn Tennis
C. H-Marketing-Lawn Tennis
D. B-Administration –Table Tennis
E. None of these

19. What is E’s favourite sport ?
A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Basketball D. Lawn Tennis E. None of these

20. What is G’s favourite sport ?
A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Basketball D. Lawn Tennis E. None of these

IBPS Bank PO CWE Symbols and Notations Blood Relationship Questions

Directions (Qs. 21-25) : In the following questions, the symbols @, $, *, # and & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below;

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P& Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P 8 Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

21. Statements : H @T, T#F, F&E, E*V

Conclusions : I. V $F
II. E @ T
III . H @ V
IV. T # V

A. Only I, II and III are true
B. Only I, II and IV are true
C. Only II, III and IV are true
D. Only I, III and IV are true
E. All I, II, III and IV are true.

22. Statements : D # R, R * K, K @ F, F $ J
Conclusions : I. J # R
II. J # K
III. R # F
IV. K @ D

A. Only I, II and III are true
B. Only II, III and IV are true.
C. Only I, III and IV are true.
D. All I, II, III and IV are true.
E. None of these.

23. Statements : N & B, B $ W, W # H, H * M

Conclusions : I. M @ W
II. H @ N
III. W & N
IV. W # N

A. Only I is true
B. Only III is true.
C. Only IV is true.
D. Only either III or IV true.
E. Only either III or IV and I are true.

24. Statements : R * D , D $ J, J #M, M @ K
Conclusions : I. K # J
II. D @ M
III. R # M
IV. D @ K

A. None is true
B. Only I is true
C. Only II is true
D. Only III is true
E. Only IV is true.

25.Statements : M $ K, K @ N, N * R, R #W
Conclusion : I. W @ K
II. M $ R
III. K @ W
IV. M @ N

A. Only I and II are true.
B. Only I, II and III are true.
C. Only III and IV are true.
D. Only II, III and IV are true.
E. None of these.

Directions (Qs. 26-30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-Credit in a bank.
The candidate must ————–
(i) be a graduate in any discipline with atleast 60 per cent marks.
(ii) Have post qualification work experience of at least ten years in the Advances Section of a bank.
(iii) Be at least 30 years and not more than 40 years as on 01.04.2010.
(iv) Have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the group of discussion.
(v) Have secured at least 50 per cent marks in interview.

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT________
I. at (i) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in graduation and at least 60 percent marks in post graduation in any discipline the case is to be referred to the General Manger-Advance.

II. at (ii) above but has total post qualification work experience of at least seven years out of which at least three years as Manager-Credit in a bank, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

In each question below details of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.04.2010.

Give answer (A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

Give answer (B) if the case is to be referred to General Manager-Advances.

Give answer (C) if the data are in adequate to take a decision.

Give answer (D) if the candidate is not to be selected.

Give answer (E) if the candidate is to be selected.

26. Shobaha Gupta has secured 50 per cent marks in the Interview and 40 per cent marks in the Group Discussion. She has been working for the past eight years out of which four years as Manager-Credit in a bank after completing her B.A degree with 60 per cent marks. She was born on 12th September 1978.

27. Rohan Maskare was born on 8th March 1974. He has been working in a bank for the past twelve years after completing his B.Com. degree with 70 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in both the Group Discussion and the Interview.

28. Prakash Gokhale was born on 4th August 1977. He has secured 65 per cent marks in post graduation and 58 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working for the past ten years in the Advances Department of a Bank after completion his post graduation. He has secured 45 per cent marks in the Group Discussion and 50 per cent marks in the Interview.

29. Sudha Mehrotra has been working in the Advance department of a bank for the past twelve years after completing her B. Com. Degree with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 50 per cent marks in the Group Discussion and 40 per cent marks in the Interview. She was born on 15th February, 1972.

30. Amit Narayan was born on 28th May 1974. He has been working in the Advances department of a bank for the past eleven years after completing his B.Sc degree with 65 per cent marks. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the Group discussion and 50 per cent marks in the interview.

Directions (Qs 31-35) : In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (1), (2) and (3). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

31. Statement :

A heavy unseasonal downpour during the last two days has paralysed the normal life in the state in which five person were killed but this has provided a huge relief to the problem of acute water crisis in the state.

Courses of Action :
(1) The state government should set up a committee to review the alarming situation.

(2) The state government should immediately remove all the restrictions on use of potable water in all the major cities in the state.

(3) The state government should send relief supplies to all the affected areas in the state.

A. None
B. Only (1)
C. Only (2) and (3)
D. Only (3)
E. All (1), (2), (3)
32. Statement :

A large private bank has decided to retrench one-third of its employee in view of the huge losses incurred by it during the past three quarters.

Course of Action :

a. The Govt. should issue a notification to general public to immediately stop all trancsactions with the bank.

b. The Govt. should direct the bank to refrain from retrenching its employees.

c. The Govt. should ask the central bank of the country to initiate an enquiry into the bank’s activities and submit its report.

A. None
B. Only (1)
C. Only (2)
D. Only (3)
E. Only (1) and (3)

33. Statement :

Many political activists have decided to stage demonstrations and block traffic movement in the city during peak hours to protest against the steep rise in prices of essential commodities.

Course of Action :

(1) The Govt. should immediately ban all forms of agitations in the country.

(2) The police authority of the city should deploy additional forces all over the city to help traffic movement in the city.

(3) The State administration should carry out preventive arrests of the known criminals staying in the city.

A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (1) and (2)
E. None of these.
34. Statement :

The school dropout rate in many districts in the state has increased sharply during the last few years as the parents of these children make them work in the field owned by others to earn enough for them to get at least one meal a day.

Course of Action :

(1) The Govt. should put up a mechanism to provide food grains to the poor people in these districts through public distribution system to encourage the parents to send their wards to school.

(2) The Govt. should close down some of these schools in the district and deploy the teachers of these schools to nearby schools and also ask remaining students to join these schools.

(3) Govt. should issue arrest warrants for all the parents who force their children to work in fields instead of attending classes.

A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (1) and (2)
E. None of these

35. Statement :

One aspirant was killed due to stampede while participating in a recruitment drive of police constables.

Course of Action :

(1) Official incharge of the recruitment process should immediately be suspended.

(2) A team of officials should be asked to find out the circumstances which led to the death of the aspirant and submit its report within a week.

(3) The Govt. should ask the home department to stagger the number of aspirants over more number of days to avoid such incidents in future.

A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (2) and (3)
E. None of these

36. Effect : Majority of the employees of the ailing organization opted for voluntary retirement scheme and left the organization with all their retirement benefits within a fortnight of launching the scheme.

Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect ?

A. The company has been making huge losses for the past five years and is unable to pay salary to its employees in time.

B. The management of the company made huge personal gains through unlawful activities.

C. One of the competitors of the company went bankrupt last year.

D. The Company owns large tracts of land in the state which will fetch huge sum to its owners.

E. None of these.

37. Statement : Most of the companies in IT and ITES sectors in India have started hiring from engineering college campuses this year and are likely to recruit much more than yearly recruitment of the earlier years.

Which of the following substantiates the facts stated in the above statement ?

A. IT and ITES are the only sectors in India which are hiring from engineering college campuses.
B. Govt. has stepped up recruitment activities after a gap of five years.
C. The IT and ITES companies have now decided to visit the engineering college campuses for tier –II cities in India as well.
D. Availability of qualified engineers will substantially increase in the near future.
E. None of these

38. Cause : The Govt. has recently increased its taxes on petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent.

Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause ?

A. The Petroleum companies will reduce the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent.

B. The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent .

C. The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about 5 per cent.

D. The petroleum pumps will stop selling petrol and diesel till the taxes are rolled back by the govt.

E. None of these.

39. Statement : The Govt. has decided to instruct the banks to open new branches in such a way that there is one branch of any of the banks in every village of population 1000 and above or a cluster of villages with population less than 1000 to provide banking services to all the citizens.

Which of the following will weaken the step taken by the Govt. ?

A. The Private sector banks in India have stepped up their branch expansion activities in rural India.

B. Many Govt. owned banks have surplus manpower in it urban brances.

C. All the banks including those in private sector will follow the govt. directive.

D. Large number of branches of many Govt. owned banks in the rural areas are making huge losses every year due to lack of adequate business activities.

E. None of these.

Directions (Qs. 40-42) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below;

The center reportedly wants to continue providing subsidy to consumers for cooking gas and kerosene for five more years. This is not good news from the point of view of reining in the fiscal deficit. Mounting subventions for subsidies means diversion of savings by the government from investment to consumption, raising the cost of capital in the process. The government must cut expenditure on subsidies to create more fiscal space for investments in both physical and social infrastructure. It should outline a plan for comprehensive reform in major subsidies including petroleum, food and fertilizers and set goal posts.
40. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph?

A. Subsidy provided by the government under various heads to the citizen increases the cost of capital.

B. Govt. is unable to withdraw subsidies provided to various items.

C. Govt. subsidy on kerosene is purely a political decision.

D. Govt. does not have enough resources to continue providing subsidy on petroleum products.

E. None of these.

41. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

A. India’s fiscal deficit is negligible in comparison to other emerging economies in the world.

B. Subsidy on food and fertilizers are essential for growth of Indian economy.

C. Reform in financial sector will weaken India’s position in the international arena.

D. Gradual withdrawal of subsidy is essential for effectively managing fiscal deficit in India.

E. None of these.

42. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

A. People in India may not be able to pay more for petroleum products.
B. Many people in India are rich enough to buy petroleum products at market cost.
C. Govt. may not be able to create more infrastructural facilities if the present level of subsidy continues for a longer time.
D. Govt. of India has sought assistance from International financial organizations for its infrastructural projects.
E. None of these.

Directions (Qs. 43-45) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below;

Poverty measurement in an unsettled issue, both conceptually and methodologically. Since poverty is a process as well as an outcome; many come out of it while others may be falling into it. The net effect of these two parallel processes is a proportion commonly identified as the ‘head count ratio’, but these ratios hide the fundamental dynamism that characterizes poverty in practice. The most recent poverty reestimates by an expert group has also missed that crucial dynamism. In a study conducted on 13,000 house holds which represented the entire country in 1993-94 and again on 2004-05, it was found that in the ten-year period 18.2% rural population moved out of poverty whereas another 22.1 % fell into it over this period. This net increase of about four percentage point was seen to have a considerable variation across states and regions.

43. Which of the following is conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph ?

A. Accurate estimates of number of people living below poverty line in India is possible to be made.
B. Many expert groups in India are not interested to measure poverty objectively.
C. Process of poverty measurement needs to take into account various factors to tackle its dynamic nature.
D. People living below poverty line remain in that position for a very long time.
E. None of these.

44. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the stated in the above paragraph ?

A. It may not be possible to have an accurate poverty measurement in India.
B. Level of poverty in India is static over the years.
C. Researchers avoid making conclusions on poverty measurement data in India.
D. Govt. of India has a mechanism to measure level of poverty effectively and accurately.
E. None of these.

45. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above Paragraph ?

A. Poverty measurement tools in India are outdated.
B. Increase in number of person falling into poverty varies considerably across the country over a period of time.
C. Govt. of India has stopped measuring poverty related studies.
D. People living in rural areas are more susceptible to fall into poverty over the time.
E. None of these.

IBPS Bank PO CWE Non Verbal Reasoning Questions
Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Ans –C In each step, element at the upper-right position gets enlarged, inverts vertically and reaches the lower-left corner; the existing element at the lower-left position, is lost and a new small element appears at the upper-right position.
One, two, three, one, two, three…..arcs get inverted sequentially. This inversion takes place in an ACW direction.

Complete preparation kit for Bank P O and Common Written Examination

IBPS Reasoning and aptitude Paper
IBPS previous question papers
APTITUDE SECTION
1.Find the average of 38,64,27,76 & 40
a) 54 b)49 c) 78 d)45
ans: b
2.Find the average of 8,16,9,24,36,7,71 &37
a)62 b)46 c)36 d)52
ans: c
3.Find the average of 1 ½,2 ¾, &3 2/5
a)147/30 b)119/30 c)151/60 d)51/20
ans: d
4.find the average of 2/3,2 ½.,3 & 4 ¾.
a)2 25/48 b)4 3/16 c)2 17/24 d)2 35/48
ans: d
5.Average of quantities is 22 and average of 36 quantities is 25. What is the average of all the 50 quantities?
a)28.32 b)23.16 c)24.16 d)22.08
ans:c
6.The average of 42 observations is 36 and average of 18 observations is 24. What is the a average of all the 60 observations?
a)28.5 b)37.6 c)32.4 d)21.52
ans: c
7.Average marks of a candidate in 6 subjects are 52.His marks in 5 subjects are 6o,48,36,55 and 51.Find his marks in the 6th subject.
a)12 b)48 c)62 d)data inadequate
ans:c
8)The average marks of five friends in English are 61.Four of them got 48,72,59 &38.Find the marks of the fifth friend ?
a)18 b)88 c)84 d)66
ans:b
9. The average marks obtained by Raghu in Hindi & science were 30 less than his marks in Hindi .he got 62 marks in science .Find his marks in Hindi?
a)122 b)120 c)124 d)102
ans:a
10.The average marks obtained by Ramesh in hindi ,English science were 15 more than his marks in English .he got a total of 102 marks in hindi &science .How many marks did he get in English?
a)26.5 b)29 c)30.5 d)28.5
ans:d
11.what percent of 72 is 6?
a)8 1/3 b)3 1/3 c)6 1/3 d)9 1/3
ans:a
12.What percent of 40 minutes is 24 seconds ?
a)1 b)10 c)100 d)0.1
ans:a
13.what percent of 20 quintals is 100 kgs?
a)2 b)0.5 c)20 d)5
ans:d
14.What percent is 45 praise of rs.90?
a)0.5 b)2 c)10 d)20
15.What percent is 40 kgs of 2 tones?
a)2 b)20 c)10 d)25
ans:a
16.A’s salary is 50% more than B’s ,How much percent is B’s salary less thanA’s?
a)33 ¼% b)33 1/3% c)33 ½% d)33%
ans:b
17.If the are of a son is 25% less than the age of his father ,how much percent is the age of father more than that of his son?
a)25% b)50% c)33 1/3% d)50%
ans:c
18.The salary of A is 10% more than the salary of B .By what percent is the salary of B lessthan that of A?
a)10% b)1% c)11 1/9% d)9 1/11%
ans:d
19.If A’s income is 40% less than that of B,how much percent B’s income is more than that of A?
A)60% B)40% C)66.66% D)33.33%
Ans:c
20.The price of an article is increased by 20% & afterwards it is decreased by 20% find the overll% change .a)40% b)no change c)4%dec d)4% inc
ans:c
21.Find the simple interest on Rs.7,500 in 4 years at 15% per annum?
a)Rs.2,750 b)Rs.2,500 c)Rs.4,500 d)Rs. 5,000
ans:c
22.Find the s.i on Rs.8,000 in 3 ½ years 12% per annum?
a)Rs.2,760 b)Rs3,760 c)Rs.4,250 d)Rs.3,360
ans:d
23.On what sum of money will be the S.I be Rs.2,000 in 5 years at 8% per annum?
a)Rs.4,500 b)Rs.5,000 c)Rs.5,200 d)Rs.5,300
ans:b
24. On what sum if money will the S.I be Rs.2,400 in 2 ½ year at 12% per annum?
a)Rs.8,000 b)Rs.6,000 c)Rs.7,500 d)Rs.8,500
ans:a
25.The S.I on Rs.6,000 in 3 years and 4 months is Rs.3,00 Find the r% per annum?
a)10 b)12 c)15 d)18
ans:c
Reasoning
1.If TAP is coded as SZO ,then how is FREEZE coded?
a)EQDFYG b)ESDFYF c)GQFDYF d)EQDDYD
ans:d
2.In a certain code. SIKKIM is written as THLJJL .How is TRAINING written in that code?
a)SQBHOHOH b)UQBHOHOF c)UQBJOHHO d)UQBJOHOH
ans:b
3.In a certain code, MENTION is written as LNEITNO. How is PATTERN written in that code?
a)APTTREM b)PTAETNR c)OTAETNR d)OTAETRN
ans:c
4.In a certain code, FORGE is written as FPTJI .How is CULPRIT written in that code?
a)CSJNPGR b)CVMQSTU c)CVNSVNZ d)CXOSULW
ans:c
5.If in a code , ALTERED is written as ZOGNINW, then in the same code , RELATED would be written ?
a)IVOZGVW b)IVOZGWV c)IVOGZVW d)VIOZGVW
ans:a
If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 and NAKED is coded as 84123 , how are the following words coded ?
6.DISTANT
a)3765485 b)4798165 c)3697185 d)4768296
7.NEMISES
a)7598656 b)8597656 c)8297626 d)7689565
8.ASSIST
a)166762 b)466765 c)488976 d)435985
9.INTIMATE
a)89786145 b)79438163 c)78579452 d)78698365
10.STAIN
a)98175 b)89483 c)68194 d)65478
6.ans:a 7. ans:c 8.ans:b 9. ans:c 10. ans:d
LETTER ANALOGY
11.AB:ZY:CD:?
a)XY b)EF c)XW d)AB
ans:c
12.AEGK:MQ:?
a)ST b)SW c)UV d)WS
ans:b
13.BC:GH:ST:?
a)YZ b)UV c)XY d)WX
ans:c
14.PS:DG:QT:?
a)EH b)GH c)FF d)EG
ans:a
15.V:X:G?
a)Y b)T c)I d)J
ans:c
16.GT:HS:KP:?
a)PQ b)RS c)LO d)LM
ans:c
17.CDF:GHJ:KLN:?
a)ORP b)PQR c)OPR d)RSU
ans:c
18.ABC:CBA:DEF:?
a)FED b)EFD c)DEF d)GHI
ans:a
19.ZWT:SM:LIF:?
a)EBY b)EAZ c)EBX d)EAX
ans:a
20.ABZ:CDY:EFW:?
a)FGU b)VHG c)GHK d)GHV
ans:d
LETTER SERIES
21.U,O,I,?,A
a)E b)C c)S d)G
ans:a
22.A,B,D,G,?
a)M b)L c)k d)h
ans:c
23:Z,U,Q,?,L
a)I b)K c)M d)N
ans:c
24.A,C,F,H,?,M
a)L b)K c)J d)I
ans:b
25.Z,L,X,J,V,H,T,F,?,?
a)R,D b)R,E c)S,E d)Q,D
ans:a
26.Z,S,W,O,T,K,Q,G,?
a)N,C b)N,D c)O,C d)O,D
ans:a
27.W,V,T,S,Q,P,N,M,?,?
a)I,J b)J,I c)J,K d)K,J
ans:d
REPEATED LETTER SERIES
1_ _aba_ _ ba_ab
a)abbba b)bbab c)baabb d)bbaba
ans:b
2.ab _ _ _ b _bbaa
a)abaab b)abbab c)baaab d)babba
ans:c
3._baa _aab _a _a
a)aabb b)aaba c)abab d)baab
ans:c
4_ _ babbba _a_ _
a)ababb b)baaab c)bbaba d)babbb
ans:d
5.aa_ ab_ aaa _a
a)aaab b)aabb c)abab d)baaa
ans:a
6.a _bbc _aab _cca _bbcc_
a)bacb b)acba c)abba d)caba
ans:b
7ab _aa _bbb _aaa _bbba _
a)abba b)baab c)aaab d)abab
ans:b
8.bc _b _c _b _ ccb_
a)cbcb b)bbcb c)cbbc d)bcbc
ans:a
9.abb _baa _a _bab _aba
a)abba b)abab c)ccac d)aabb
ans:a
10.abca _bcaab _ca _bbc _ a
a)ccaa b)bbaa c)abac d)abba
ans:c

IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Reasoning Paper
Reasoning
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these
5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK
(E) None of these
6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you
may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code language
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9
12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.
21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T I 6 * W 3 P # K 7 $ Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) © T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbolsfollowed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer.If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4 % 3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d
Letter Code :
P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these
31. $1896©
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these
32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these
33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these
34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these
35. 931%©d
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these
36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
P a g e | 8
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find outwhich of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R d K
Conclusions : I. K d J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H © N
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M © F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H
P a g e | 9
43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E d B
II. D @ V
Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions givenbelow—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to theleft of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.
44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate
47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate
48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the
P a g e | 10
third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers aregiven. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on thefollowing rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtractedfrom the first number.
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these
51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these
52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these
53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these
54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these
55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. Thesestatements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or acommon cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Readboth the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts therelationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than theprevious year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.
58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.
60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food habits.
Directions—(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the fiveanswer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if thesequence were continued ?
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B # A R E % M F J U @ H © T I * W P # K $ Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)
P a g e | 14
56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)
IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Latest sample Question Papers
Reasoning
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these
5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK
(E) None of these
6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you
may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code language
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9
12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.
21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T I 6 * W 3 P # K 7 $ Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) © T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbolsfollowed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer.If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4 % 3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d
Letter Code :
P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these
31. $1896©
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these
32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these
33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these
34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these
35. 931%©d
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these
36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
P a g e | 8
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find outwhich of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R d K
Conclusions : I. K d J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H © N
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M © F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H
P a g e | 9
43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E d B
II. D @ V
Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions givenbelow—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to theleft of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.
44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate
47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate
48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the
P a g e | 10
third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers aregiven. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on thefollowing rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtractedfrom the first number.
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these
51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these
52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these
53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these
54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these
55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. Thesestatements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or acommon cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Readboth the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts therelationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than theprevious year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.
58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.
60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food habits.
Directions—(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the fiveanswer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if thesequence were continued ?
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B # A R E % M F J U @ H © T I * W P # K $ Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)
56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)
Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
3. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)
16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park
17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question
22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
Directions (questions 1 to 5):Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
3. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)
16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park
17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question
22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
At the start of game, A and B between them had four times as much money as C while B & C together had three times as much as A. At the end, A & B between them had three times as much as C, while B & C together had twice as much as A. B finished Rs. 200 poorer at the end. A, B, C are the only players.
1. What fraction of the total money did C have at the beginning of the game ?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/8
(c) 2/9
(d) 1/5
2. What fraction of the total money did A win (or lose)?
(a) won 1/12
(b) lost 1/6
(c) lost 1/3
(d) won 1/5
3. What amount did B start with ?
(a) Rs. 575
(b) Rs. 375
(c) Rs. 825
(d) Rs. 275
4. What amount did C win (lose)?
(a) lost Rs. 50
(b) won Rs. 75
(c) lost Rs. 125
(d) won Rs. 175
5. How much money did A have at the end of the game?
(a) Rs. 375
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 325
(d) Rs. 1100
Quantitative Aptitude Model Paper Questions Test – 1
1. By what number less than 1000 must 43259 be multiplied So that the last three figures to the right of the product may be 437?
(a) 743 (b) 658 (c) 701 (d) None of these
2. By what least number must 217800 be multiplied in order to make it a perfect square?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these
3. Find the least number by which 19404 must be multiplied or divided so as to make it a perfect square.
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) None of these
4. Find the smallest number which is a perfect square and contains 1400 as a factor.
(a) 8670 (b) 9600 (c) 9000 (d) None of these
5. Find in the blank indicated by a star in the number 456 so as to make it divisible by 33
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) None of these
6. By what least number must 6796 by multiplied or divided in order that the resulting number may be a perfect square?
(a) 17 (b) 39 (c) 43 (d) None of these
7. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238 and 1400 leaving remainders 41,31 and 51 respectively.
(a) 71 (b) 64 (c) 67 (d) None of these
8. Find the greatest number that will divide 19409 and 43037 leaving remainders 17 and 29 respectively.
(a) 178 (b) 192 (c) 194 (d) None of these
9. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238, 1400 leaving remainders 41, 31 and 51 respectively.
(a) 64 (b) 71 (c) 69 (d) None of these
10. Find the greatest number which will divide 12288, 28200, and 44333 so as to leave the same remainder in each case.
(a) 221 (b) 120 (c) 272 (d) None of these
ANSWERS:
01.(a) 06.(b)
02.(a) 07.(a)
03.(c) 08.(b)
04.(b) 09.(b)
05.(a) 10.(a)
IBPS Question Papers
IBPS Banking Question papers based on Test of Reasoning-Made Simple -Easy methods to crack verbal reasoning questions in Bank Test, Verbal Classification Notes,types of verbal classification Choose the odd word out,Choose the odd pair out ,Choose the odd number out ,Choose the odd numeral-pair group and Analogy – Tips and tricks to crack bank test,IBPS CWE analogy questions ‘Analogy’ means ‘correspondence’. Verbal analogical tests use words,Alphabet Analogy,Number Analogy, Completing the analogous pair

IBPS and Bank PO Clerical -Verbal Classification Questions and Tips :-

‘Classification’ means to assort the items of a given group on the basis of a certain common quality they possess and then spot the odd one out. Different types of questions that can be asked are as follows :-

(1) Choose the odd word out : In these questions, you are given a group of certain items out of which all except one are similar to one another in some manner. You have to identify the item which does not fit into the given group.

(2) Choose the odd pair out : In these type of questions, you are given certain pairs of words out of which the words in all the pairs except one bear a certain common relationship. You have to decipher the relationship and choose the pair in which the words are differently related than the remaining pairs.

(3) Choose the odd number out : In these type of questions certain numbers are given, out of which all except one are alike in some manner while one is different and this number is to be chosen as the answer.

(4) Choose the odd numeral-pair group : In these type of questions, certain pairs or groups of numbers are given out of which all except one are similar in some manner while one is different. The numbers in these similar pairs may have the same property or may be related to each other according to the same rule. You have to choose the odd pair/group.

IBPS and Bank PO Clerical ANALOGY Questions and Tips

‘Analogy’ means ‘correspondence’. Verbal analogical tests use words, letters and digits and require logical common sense reasoning to solve questions based on these. In these questions, a particular relationship is given and another similar relationship has to be identified from the alternatives provided. These analogical questions test the candidate’s overall knowledge and ability to think concisely and accurately.

Different types of questions that can be asked on Analogy are as follows :-

(1) Completing the analogous pair : In this, two words which are related to each other are given along with a third word. You have to find the relationship between the first two words and choose the word from the given options that bears the same relationship with the third word as the first two words.

(2) Choose the analogous pair : In these type of questions, a pair of words is given, followed by four pairs of words as options. You have to choose the pair in which the words have the same relationship to each other as the words in the given pair.

(3) Three word Analogy : In these types of questions, a group of three inter-related words is given. You have to trace the relationship among these three words and choose another group with similar analogy from the alternatives that are provided.

(1) Number Analogy : Two types of questions are asked on this.

(i) Choosing a similarly related pair as the given number pair on the basis of the relation between the numbers in each pair.

(ii) Choosing a number similar to a group of numbers on the basis of certain common properties they possess.

(5) Alphabet Analogy : In these type of questions, two groups of alphabets related to each other in some way are given. You have to find out his relationship and choose a group of alphabets that is related in the same way to the third group in the question.

Illustrative Questions

Directions (Q.Nos. 1-5) : – Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

1.

(1) Pear

(2) Mango

(3) Orange

(4) Apple

(5) Radish

Ans : Radish – Except radish, all others are fruits. Radish is a modified root.

2.

(1) Sun

(2) Moon

(3) Star

(4) Mars

(5) Universe

Ans : Universe – All except Universe form part of the Universe.

3.

(1) Tailor

(2) Barber

(3) Engineer

(4) Carpenter

(5) Blacksmith

Ans : Barber – All except barber require raw material to work.

4.

(1) X-ray

(2) Radio

(3) Telephone

(4) Computer

(5) Television

Ans : X-ray – All except X-ray are media instruments.

5.

(1) Arc

(2) Diagonal

(3) Tangent

(4) Radius

(5) Diameter

Ans : Diagonal – All except diagonal are terms associated with circle.

Directions (Q.Nos. 1-11) : – Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

1.

(1) IJK

(2) ABC

(3) OPQ

(4) EFG

(5) VWX

Ans : VWX – In all the other groups, the first letters is the odd-numbered letter in the English alphabet.

9 10 11 1 2 3 15 16 17 5 6 7
I J K A B C O P Q E F G

But

22 23 24
V W X

2.

(1) Tiger

(2) Cow

(3) Bitch

(4) Mare

(5) Lioness

Ans : Tiger – Except tiger, all others are of feminine gender.

3.

(1) 13

(2) 17

(3) 19

(4) 27

(5) 23

Ans : 27 – Except 27, all others are prime numbers.
4.

(1) Pound

(2) Yen

(3) Ounce

(4) Franc

(5) Dollar

Ans : Ounce – All except ounce are names of currencies of different countries, while ounce is a unit of weight.

5

(1) Lemon

(2) Orange

(3) Malta

(4) Banana

(5) Pineapple

Ans : Banana – All except banana are juicy fruits.

6.

(1) Lake

(2) Tank

(3) River

(4) Pool

(5) Pond

Ans : River – All except river contain stagnant water.

7.

(1) Carrot

(2) Guava

(3) Tomato

(4) Pear

(5) Brinjal

Ans : Brinjal – All except brinjal can be eaten raw.

8.

(1) Sit

(2) Hit

(3) Kit

(4) Fit

(5) Knit

Ans : Kit – Except kit, the rest all are verbs. Kit is a noun.

9.

(1) Tab

(2) Pot

(3) Reed

(4) Level

(5) Hold

Ans : Hold – Other words when read backwards give meaningful words.

10.

(1) CFI

(2) UXA

(3) RUX

(4) SVZ

(5) LOR

Ans : SVZ

+3 +3
C ? F ? I

+3 +3
U ? X ? A

+3 +3
R ? U ? X

+3 +3
L ? O ? R

But,

+3 +4
S ? V ? Z

Therefore, ‘SVZ’ does not belong to the group.

11.

(1) 117

(2) 74

(3) 153

(4) 108

(5) 99

Ans : 74 – Except 74, all other numbers are completely divisible by 3.

Directions (Q.Nos. 12-16) : – The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship with each other, followed by five pairs of words. Select the pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

12. Escape : Abscond

(1) Endless : Eternal

(2) Flee : Surrender

(3) Exult : Jubilate

(4) Escalate : Weaken

(5) Confront : Submit

Ans : Endless : Eternal – Escape and abscond are nearly similar in meaning like endless and eternal.

13. Host : Hospitable

(1) Artist : Imitative

(2) Guest : Rude

(3) Humanitarian : Altruistic

(4) Idealist : Cynical

(5) Pollyanna : Pessimistic

Ans : Humanitarian : Altruistic – As a host is supposed to be hospitable, in the same way, a humanitarian is expected to be altruistic.

14. Editor : Magazine

(1) Director : Film

(2) Novel : Writer

(3) Psychiatrist : Neurotic

(4) Librarian : Library

(5) Poem : Poet

Ans : Director : Film – Like all actions of a magazine are interpreted by the editor, in the same way, all the actions of a film are interpreted by the director.

15. Pain : Misery

(1) Disease : poverty

(2) Despair : loneliness

(3) Ignorance : confusion

(4) Superstition : peasants

(5) Ignore : greet

Ans : Ignorance : Confusion – Pain causes misery and ignorance causes confusion.

16. ABD : EJL

(1) GFH : IPR

(2) IPR : URT

(3) IPR : OTY

(4) IPR : ORT

(5) GHI : PRT

Ans : IPR : ORT – This is a vowel-consonant based relationship. In the question pair, the first letters of each term are ‘A’ and ‘E’ which are first two vowels (AEIOU). In the same manner, the first term of the answer pair will begin with ‘I’ and the second term of the answer pair will begin with ‘O’. In the question pair, we have ABD i.e. the third letter in first term is obtained by skipping ‘C’. In the second term, ‘EJL’, ‘L’ is obtained by skipping ‘K’. So, the answer is (4) IPR : ORT.
Placement Paper
IBPS clerical CWE PO free solved question paper s with detailed explanations All IT and Non IT (PSU) companies IBPS,Banks CAT,GATE,UPSC IES previous years solved question papers IBPS aptitude questions for practice
1 The closest meaning of the word EXHORT is
Urge
restrain
condemn
scold

Answer Urge :Exhort means to urge or to advise.

Qn.2 PREAMBLE: CONSTITUTION

Amendment: Law
Prologue: Play
Episode: Serial
plot: story

Answer:
Prologue: Play
Explanation:
Preamble is the introductory statement of the constitution and Prologue is the introductory part of a play, therefore B is the right answer option.

Qn.3 Fill in the blanks
The committee wrote a ……………report extolling only the strength of the proposal

reasonable
supportive
biased
fragmented

Answer:
biased
Explanation:
In the statement it is given “extolling only the strength of the proposal” which means “praising only the strength of the proposal”. Since the word ‘only’ is used, we can conclude that the report was biased and hence option C is the answer

Qn.4 If the country has to achieve real prosperity, it is …………. that the fruits of progress reach all in equal measures.

Inevitable
Contingent
Oblivious
Imperative

Answer:
Imperative
Explanation:
In the first part of the statement, “If the country has to achieve real prosperity”, note the word ‘If’, which implies that the blank after ‘it is’ has to be filled with a word meaning ‘required’ or ‘necessary’ and the only word among the options with a similar meaning is ‘Imperative

Qn.5 A bank pays interest @ 8 percent p.a. on a deposit for half a quarter as well as on a deposit for one quarter. A makes a deposit of Rs.25 lakhs for a quarter. B makes a deposit of Rs.25 lakhs for half a quarter, and after maturity reinvests the entire amount for half a quarter. What is B’s gain over A?

Rs.200
Rs.225
Rs.250
Rs.275

Answer:
Rs.250
Explanation:
A’s interest =25 lakhs*2/100 = 50,000
B’s interest = 25 lakhs * (101/100) * (101/100) – 25 lakhs = 50,250
:. B’s gain over A = 250.
Qn.6 “The ban on smoking in designated public places can save a large number of well known effects of environmental tobacco smoke, and the passive smokers are the worst affected from it”. Which of the following sentences sums up the meaning of the above passage.
Effects of tobacco are well known
The ban of smoking in public places protects the non smokers
Passive smoking is bad for your health.
The ban of smoking in public places excludes passive smokers.

Answer:
The ban of smoking in public places protects the non smokers
Explanation:
In the paragraph, the author speaks about the effects of environmental tobacco some including the effect on passive smokers and mentions that the ban can reduce these effects. The options A, B and C can be concluded from the paragraph but only option B sums up the meaning of the entire paragraph.
Qn.7 Consider the set of integers (1,2,3…………..,5000) the number of integers that is divisible by neither 3 nor 4 is :

1668
2084
2500
2916

Answer:
2500
Explanation:
The integers that are divisible by 3 are 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18…… 4998 i.e. a total of 1666 numbers The integers that are divisible by 4 are 4, 8, 12, 16, 20,…………….., 5000 i.e. a total of 1250 numbers The integers that are divisible by 3 and 4 are 12, 24, 36,…………….., 4992 i.e. a total of 416 numbers The number of integers that are divisible by either 3 or 4 =1666+1250-416 = 2500 The number of integers that are divisible by neither 3 nor 4 = 5000-2500=2500

Qn.8 Given the sequence A, BB, CCC, DDDD………..and so on , the 240th letter in the sequence will be:
V
U
T
W

Qn.9 A positive integer m in base 10 when represented in base 2 has the representation p and the base 3 has the representation q , We get p-q= 990, where the subtraction is done in base 10 , Which of the following is necessarily true:
m >= 14
9<m<13
6<m<8
m<6

Answer:
9<m<13
Explanation:
Let us plug-in the options to answer this question. Now we know that in binary system the digits are 0 and 1. If we convert the numbers less than 8 into binary system we obtain only three digits i.e. we get the numbers in 100’s.So the subtraction cannot be 990.Hence we can eliminate the Options C and D. Now, 12 will satisfy the conditions given in the problem.

Qn.10 (165)2 – (164)2 =
1
100
229
329

Answer:
329
Explanation:
(165+164) (165-164) = 329*1 = 329

Qn.11 If 1/x = 3.5. then 1/(x+2) =
7/9
16/7
7/16
9/7

Qn.12 A store owner is packing small radios into larger boxes that measure 25 in. by 42 in. by 60 in. If the measurement of each radio is 7 in. by 6 in. by 5 in., then how many radios can be placed in the box?

300
325
400
420
Answer:
300
Explanation:
(25*42*60)/2*6*5 = 300
Qn.13 Frank is 15 years younger than John. In 5 years John will be twice as old as Frank. How old will Frank be in four years?

8
10
12
14
Answer:
14
Explanation:
Frank is 15 years younger then John –> F+15=J;
In 5 years John will be twice as old as Frank (in 5 year John will be J+5 years old and Frank will be F+5 years old) –> J+5=2*(F+5) –> (F+15)+5=2*(F+5) –> F=10;
In 4 years Frank will be 10+4=14 years old.

Qn.14 A store owner decided to raise the price of a particular item by exactly 10%. Of the following which is NOT the new price?

$1.10

$8.80

$11.00

$57.30
Qn.15 The price of a candy bar is $1.00. The price of a ten pack of the same candy bar is $7.40. The ten pack of candy bars is what percentage cheaper then purchasing ten candy bars individually?

18%

26%

32%

48%
Qn.16 In a certain department store, which has four sizes of a specific shirt, there are 1/3 as many small shirts as medium shirts, and 1/2 as many large shirts as small shirts. If there are as many x-large shirts as large shirts, what percent of the shirts in the store are medium?

25%

33%

50%

60%

Answer:
60%
Explanation:
total shirts are 1 part
1/3M+m+1/6m+1/6m=1
5/3m=1
m=3/5*100
so m=60%

Qn.17 A new apartment complex purchased 60 toilets and 20 shower heads. If the price of a toilet is three times the price of a shower head, what percent of the total cost was the cost of all the shower heads?

9%
10%
11%
13%
Answer:
10%
Explanation:
Let is take the price of a shower head = Rs.10.
Then, the price of the toilet = Rs.30 (3 X 10).
Items purchased = 60 toilets and 20 shower heads
Total cost = (60 toilets * Rs.30) + (20 shower heads * Rs.10) = Rs.1800 + Rs.200 ==> Rs.2000
Total Cost = Rs.2000
Cost of Shower heads = Rs. 200
% = 10%

Qn.18 A car averages 55 mph for the first 4 hours of a trip and averages 70 mph for each additional hour. The average speed for the entire trip was 60 mph. How many hours long is the trip?

6
8
11
12
Answer:
6
Explanation:
Start with the equation
(55(4) + 70x) / 4+x = 60
= (220 + 70x) / 4+x = 60
Multiply both sides by 4+x
220 + 70x = 240 + 60x
Which gives you
10x = 20, so x = 2.
Add this to the 4 hours and you have 6.

Qn.19 The owner of a hobby store needed to calculate the percentage of customers who purchase wood glue. Upon completing his survey, he noticed that 60% of the people that entered his store purchased an item. Of those customers, 15 percent purchased wood glue. What percent of the people that entered the store purchased wood glue?

7%
9%
12%
15%
Answer:
9%
Explanation:
For every 100 people entering the store, 60 purchase.
For every 60 purchasing, (15% of 60) purchase wood glue =15/100 x 60 = 9 people purchase glue.
Hence ..for every 100 entering the store ..9 purchase glue.
hence 9 %.
Qn.20 From 7:00 AM to 11:00 AM it rained 2.25 inches. At 11:00 AM the rain increased to fall at a rate of 1.25 in. every two hours. How many inches of rain landed on the ground by 5:00 PM?
7
9.75
6
3.25

Answer:
6
Explanation:
2.25 + (3 x 1.25) = 6

Qn.21 If x and y are the two digits of the number 653xy such that this number is divisible by 80, then x+y is equal to:

2

3

4

6
Qn.22 A man can row 5 kmph in still water. If the river is running at 1kmph, it takes him 75 minutes to row to a place and back. How far is the place?

3km
Answer:
3km
2.5 km
4 km
5 km
Explanation:
Speed downstream = (5+1)km/hr = 6 km/hr Speed upstream = (5-1)km/hr = 4 km/hr
Let the required distance be x km x/6 + x/4 = 75/60 2x+3x = 15 x = 3km
Qn.23 If log 0.317=0.3332 and log 0.318=0.3364 then find log 0.319 ?

0.3396

0.3369

0.3368

0.3338

Answer:
0.3396
0.317=0.3332

0.318=0.3364

Then for 0.319 = 0.3396

Qn.24 A box of 150 packets consists of 1kg packets and 2kg packets. Total weight of box is 264kg. How many 2kg packets are there ?

36

114

120

50

Answer:
114
Explanation:
Let the number of 1 kg packets be x.
then the number of 2 kg packets is (150-x)
now x * 1 + (150-x) 2 = 264
=> x + 300 -2x=264
=> -x=264-300= -36
=> x=36(no. of 1 kg packets)
no. of 2 kg packets = 150 -36= 114
Qn.25 A hat vendor bought hats at Rs 5 per 3 hats. He sold them at Rs 10 per 4 hats. What was his profit percentage?

25

50

30

45

Qn.26 Find by how much percentage the average of first 10 odd numbers (starting from 1) is greater than the last term.

900/19 %
800/66 %
700/124 %
Cannot be determined

Qn.27 In a classroom the average height of all the boys was 170 cm. Rahim recently join the class which originally had 20 boys increased the average to 171cm. Then find the height of Rahim.

167

176

186

191
Answer:
191
Explanation:
Before Rahim joined the total height of all the boys = 170 X 20 = 3400.
New average = (Total height of all students + height of rahim)/21 = 180
Therefore (3400 + height of rahim)/21 = 171
Therefore height of Rahim = 3780 – 3400 = 191 cms.

Qn.28 Find the sum of all terms in the series 1, 1/2, 1/4 …..

1/6

2/7

1/18

2

Qn.29 X alone can do a piece of work in 15 days and Y alone can do it in 10 days. X and Y undertook to do it for Rs. 720. With the help of Z they finished it in 5 days. How much is paid to Z?

90

70

120
Cannot be determined

Answer:
120
Explanation:
In one day X can finish 1/15th of the work.
In one day Y can finish 1/10th of the work.
Let us say that in one day Z can finish 1/Zth of the work.
When all the three work together in one day they can finish 1/15 + 1/10 + 1/Z = 1/5th of the work.
Therefore, 1/Z = 1/30.
Ratio of their efficiencies = 1/15: 1/10: 1/30 = 2: 3: 1.
Therefore Z receives 1/6th of the total money.
Hence, the share of Z = Rs. 120.

Qn.30 A plane moves from 9°N40°E to 9°N40°W. If the plane starts at 10 am and takes 8 hours to reach the destination, find the local arrival time ?
11:00

11:30

12:30
Answer:
12:30
Explanation:
Since it is moving from east to west longitide we need to add both
ie,40+40=80
multiply the ans by 4
=>80*4=320min
convert this min to hours ie, 5hrs 33min
It takes 8hrs totally . So 8-5hr 30 min=2hr 30min
So the ans is 10am+2hr 30 min
=>ans is 1
Six boys are standing in such a manner that they form a circle facing the centre. Anand is to the left of Ravi shakar is in between Ajay and Vivek Iswar is between Anada and Ajay who is to the left of vivek?
a.Ravi -Answer
b.Iswar
c.Ajay
d.Shankar
31 In the following series how many R are preceded by P and followed by D?
MPDRNOPRDUXRDPRDMNDRD
a.4
b.3
c.2
d.1

32 If EARN is written as GCTP,how NEAR can be written in that code?

a.CTGP
b.GPTC
c.PGCT-Answer
d.PCGT

33 If 5 X 4 =15,7×8 =49 and 6×5=24,what will 8×4 be?
a.64
b.36
c.28
d.24

34 The given three equations follow some common property. Select the right option.
98-64=14,86-23=27,40-11=?
a.6
b.7
c.8
d.9

35 IF AMPLIFY is written as YFILPMA in a certain, how would NATIONAL be written in that code?
a.LANONATI
b.LANOITAN-Answer
c.LANTANIO
d.LANTION

36 The population of a developing country is increasing year by year. find out the current year population from the following information

a.390
b.450
c.480–Answer
d.510

37 Gokul traveled 16kms west ward, then he turned and traveled 10kms Then he turned left and traveled 16 kms How far was Gokul from the starting point ?
16kms
b.26kms
c.10kms-Answer
d.6kms

Directions : In Question Nos .38 to 40,some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval [] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A,B,C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D)

37 While we love nature in its peaceful and pleasant moments(A) /we find it hardly(B)-Answer/to love its furies and wildness(C)/No error(D)

38 Umbrella is(A)/ of no avail(B) -Answer against a thunderstorm (C)/No error(D)

39 I shall return the book(A)/when you will arrive(B)/here(C)-Answer/No error(D)

40 The old man saw (A)/that the bird (B)/is circling again (C)/No error(D)-Answer
IBPS-Bank-CWE-PO-Clerical Aptitude-Reasoning Questions with answers
IBPS CWE PO Celrical question papers of aptitude reasoning solved questions with detailed explnations IBPS PO clerical practice and model questions for referring these largest collection of previous years bank ibps solved question papers of quantitiative aptitude,reasoning ability,english language computer and current affairs questions with answers

IBPS CWE Clerical -REASONING ABILITY Questions with answers -Model papers
1. ‘Players’ are related to ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Books’ are related to
1. Exams
2. Library -Ans
3. Reading
4. Writer
5. Chapter

2. Shreya started from Point P and walked 2 m towards West. She then took a right turn and walked 3m before taking a left turn and walking 5m. She finally took a left turn, walked 3m and stopped a Point Q. How far is point
Q from point P?
1. 2m
2. 6m
3. 7m -Ans
4. 8m
5. 12m

3. In a certain code ‘where have you been’ is written as ‘been 4 have 3 where 2 you 1’ and ‘visiting London this summer’ is written as ‘London 4 summer 3 this 2 visiting 1’. How will ‘repair may computer yesterday’ be
written in the same code?
1. computer 4 repair 3 may 2 yesterday 1
2. yesterday 4 repair 3 may 2 computer 1
3. computer 1 may 2 repair 3 yesterday 4
4. yesterday 4 may 3 repair 2 computer 1
5. computer 4 may 3 repair 2 yesterday 1-Ans

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series and so form a group.Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. MLJ
2. WVT
3. OMK -Ans
4. JIG
5. TSQ

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belongto that group?
1. Diameter
2. Circumference
3. Centre
4. Circle -Ans
5. Radius

Direction (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
a. G sits third to the right of F. b. G sits second to the left of H.
c. H is not an immediate neighbour of E and C. d. F and A are immediate neighbours of each other.
e. Only one person sits between F and B. f. E and G sit opposite each other.
6. Four of the following five are similar in a certain way based on their position in the seating arrangement. Whichof the following does not belong to that group?
1. EH
2. CF
3. AG -Ans
4. BD
5. HG

7. Who amongst the following represent immediate neighbours of D?
1. E, H
2. C, G
3. F, B
4. H, G -Ans
5. C, B

8. What is the position of A with respect to G in the above arrangement?
1. Third to the right
2. Second to the left -Ans
3. Fifth to the right
4. Immediate right
5. Third to the left

9. What will come in place of the question mark (?) according to the above seating arrangement? EF CG HB FA ?
1. GD -Ans
2. CG
3. GH
4. BH
5. CD

Directions(10-13): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
6 4 2 5 2 8 5 2 6 4 1 3 9 1 8 1 2 5 8 6 3 5 1 4 9 4 7 3 2 7 2 5 9
10. How many 4s, are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value of more than four?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three-Ans
5. More than three

11. Which of the following is seventh to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement?
1. 3
2. 9 -Ans
3. 2
4. 7
5. 1

12. If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be tenth from the right end of the arrangement?
1. 9
2. 5 -Ans
3. 1
4. 3
5. 7
13. How many such 5s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and immediately followed by an even digit?
1. None -Ans
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three
Directions (14-16): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code ‘ring a bell’ is written as ‘5 8 2’, ‘did not ring’ is written as ‘3 5 9’ and ‘not a reason’ is written as ‘7 2 9’.

14. Which of the following represents ‘did not’?
1. 2 3
2. 2 9
3. 3 5
4. 5 2
5. 9 3-Ans

15. What is the code for ‘bell’?
1. 5
2. 8 -Ans
3. 2
4. 7
5. Cannot be determined

16. What does ‘2’ stand for?
1. ring
2. a -Ans
3. bell
4. reason
5. not

Directions (17-20): Following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:
219 742 936 587 853

17. If all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, which of the following will be the product of the first and the second digits of the number which is exactly in the middle of the new arrangement?
1. 18
2. 28 -Ans
3. 54
4. 21
5. 45

18. One is subtracted from the first digit and two is subtracted from third the digit of each of the numbers. What will be the difference between the first digit of the highest number and the third digit of the lowest number?
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 2
5. 1-Ans

19. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is divided by the first digit of the lowest number?
1. 3 -Ans
2. 4
3. 5
4. 2
5. 1

20. If the positions of the first and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, what will be sum of all the digits of the second highest number thus formed?
1. 20 -Ans
2. 16
3. 18
4. 13
5. 12

Directions (21-23): Read the information given in each question carefully and answer the questions.
21. Which of the following expressions will not be true if the expression ‘A ? C ? B ? D’ is definitely true?
1. B > A -Ans
2. D < C
3. A >- B
4. D < -A
5. All are true

22. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘L > M’ be definitely true?
1. M >- N > P > L
2. L > N <M > P
3. M<- N = P L
4. L > N >M < P -Ans
5. None of these

23. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression ‘Z < Y ? W = V’ is definitely true?
1. V > Y
2. Z < W
3. V >-Z
4. W <-Z
5. None is true-Ans

Directions (24-25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the son of B’.
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

24. How is C related to F if ‘C + D – E × F’?
1. Daughter – in – law
2. Father – in – law
3. Grand daughter -Ans
4. Grandson
5. Mother

25. Which of the following means ‘P is the father of K’?
1. K × L ÷ P – R
2. K ÷ L + R – P -Ans
3. K + R – L × P
4. R – P ÷ L + K
5. None of these

Directions (26-30): In the following questions, the symbol ?, $, ??? © and % are used with the following
meanings as illustrated below:
‘P &Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller nor greater than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is greter than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either greater or equal to Q’

Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is / are definitely true. Give answer.
1. if only conclusion I is true.
2. if only conclusion II is true.
3. if either conclusion I or II is true.
4. if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5. if both conclusions I and II are true.

26. Statements : H * K, K & N, N $ W
Conclusions :
I. N $ H
II. W & H
1-Ans
27. Statements : H © K, K % R, R & N
Conclusions :
I. N © K
II. R % H
4-Ans
28. Statements : R $ T, T © M, M % J
Conclusions :
I. J % T
II. J & T

3–Ans
29. Statements : B % A, A * M, W © M
Conclusions :
I. W $ B
II. A * W

5-Ans
30. Statements : B % T, T © M, M *D
Conclusions :
I. D © B
II. M * B

2-Ans
Placement Paper

IBPS Specialists officers IT -Computer based questions, IBPS Specialists officers Professional Knowledge questions with answers

1. This machine can replace the mainframes very soon
a) Application servers (Ans)
b) Workstations
c) Pentium
d) Power PC
e) All of the above

2. What is the architecture that is used in PS/2 range of IBM computers ?
a) ISA
b) EISA
c) MCA (Ans)
d) Local Bus

3. MCA means
a) Main Computer Architecture
b) Micro Channel Architecture (Ans)
c) Micro Chip Architecture
d) Micro Computer Architecture

4. Compared to CISC processors, RISC processors contain
a) more registers and smaller instruction set (Ans)
b) larger instruction set and less registers
c) less registers and smaller instruction set
d) more transistor elements

5. What is an application server ?
a) Network node that stores applications
b) Software that allows interchange application
c) Multitasking operating system
d) Network server currently available for use with large client-server systems. (Ans)

6. Choose the one which is coprocessor :
a) 80287 (Ans)
b) Graphic Accelerator
c) Video Graphics Array
d) Network adapter

7. Choose the one which is not necessary for a multimedia PC :
a) Video Card
b) Scanner
c) CD-ROM
d) Sound card
e) All the above (Ans)

8. 80386 SX processor from Intel has
a) 16 bit address bus and 32 bit data bus (Ans)
b) 16 bit address bus and 16 bit data bus
c) 16 bit address bus and 64 bit data bus
d) 8 bit data bus and 16 bit address bus

9. DIP switches are used to store system setup information in
a) PC/AT 286 (Ans)
b) PC/XT
c) PC/AT 386
d) Pentium
e) Power PC

10. Power PC is the latest in the PC market. it is
a) a less power consumption PC
b) a microprocessor with Intel and Motorola compatible (Ans)
c) the latest model microprocessor from Intel
d) a PC which can work both on Intel based (DOS and Unix) and Apple operating systems.
11. What is data highway ?
a) A road New York
b) A network of on-line database
c) A network into which subscriber machines can plug-in and communicate between one another
d) An integrated network of communica-tion supporting data transfer, TV, cable, Telephone, Video Conferencing, Video on Demand and other communication services in one. (Ans)

12. Choose the company that does not use Motorola chips in their computers :
a) APPLE
b) HEWLETT-PACKED
c) ATARI
d) COMPAQ (Ans)

13. Till recently all processors produced were complex instruction set computing (CISC) processors. The important reason for this was :
a) memory was costly and access times were large (Ans)
b) all problems required complex instructions
c) software technology was not advances to do without complex instructions
d) RISC processor technology was not available

14. When RISC processors are used, this is true :
a) compilers are complex (Ans)
b) large number of processor instructions are used
c) programs are more complicated than in CISC processors
d) RISC cannot be used in high performance machines like graphic workstations and network servers.

15. Choose the one which is not a property of RISC processor
a) implements only instructions most used by programmers
b) timing constraints are eased since circuitry is simplified
c) complex operations are implemented by software
d) provides more registers for use by programs
e) All of the above are properties (Ans)

16. Choose the company which manufactures the multimedia accessory cards for :
a) IBM
b) Creative labs (Ans)
c) Combaq
d) Dell

17. Frame Grabber cards are basically used for :
a) capturing single frames from a video output (Ans)
b) showing video in a window inside Windows
c) used to download a single screen//frame from computer to a video
d) capturing single screens in the computer while any display is on the screen.

18. Video capture can be done presently with a Video card, using the following program :
a) Video for Windows (Ans)
b) Windows Media Player
c) CI Manager
d) Microsoft Reader

19. The following programs in Windows is used for recording sound using a sound card :
a) Media Player
b) Sounder (Ans)
c) Multimedia Extensions
d) Recorder

20. In any windows program, the video clips recorded as AVI files can be directly played using the following features :
a) GUI functions
b) Kernel functions
c) MCI functions (Ans)
d) Video functions

21. The register which keeps track of the execution of a program and which contains the memory address of the instruction currently being executed is known as
a) Index register
b) Memory address register
c) Program counter (Ans)
d) Instruction register

22. The register which holds the address of the location to or from which data are to be transferred is known as
a) index register
b) instruction register
c) memory address register (Ans)
d) memory data register

23. If some device requires urgent service, normal execution or programs may sometimes by preempted using.
a) an interrupt signal (Ans)
b) a request to memory modules
c) DMA
d) All of the above

24. The register which contains the data to be written into or readout of the addressed location is known as
a) index register (Ans)
b) memory address register
c) memory data register
d) program counter

25. A single bus structure is primarily found in
a) Main frames
b) Super computers
c) High performance machines (Ans)
d) Mini and micro computers

26. In which of the following terminals the screen is regarded as an array of pixels, where each pixel is either on or off.
a) Character map terminal
b) bit map terminal (Ans)
c) RS-232 terminal
d) All of the above

27. On of the main feature that distinguish microprocessors from micro-computers is
a) Words are usually larger in micro-processor
b) Words are shorter in micro-processors
c) Microprocessors does not contain I/O devices (Ans)
d) Computer are not fully integrated

28. Microprocessor can be used to make
a) Computers
b) Digital Systems
c) Calculators
d) All the above (Ans)

29. In a generic microprocessor, instruction cycle time is
a) shorter than machine cycle time
b) larger than machine cycle time (Ans)
c) exactly double the machine cycle time
d) exactly the same as the machine cycle time.

30. What tape of control pins are needed in a microprocessor to regulate traffic on the bus, in order to prevent two devices from trying to use it at the same time.
a) Bus control
b) Interrupts
c) Bus arbitration (Ans)
d) Status

Placement Paper

IBPS specialists officers computer questions for practice, IBPS cwe po clerical ribs Gramin banks and specialists officers aptitude reasoning general awareness,english and professional knowledge questions with answers, common synonyms and antonyms, paragrpah questions etc..,IBPS bank IT and Non IT PSU companies sample and model questions and answers
1. Buffer is device/storage area–
1. Where data are temporarily stored-Answer
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above
5. None of these

2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–
1. Car Topology
2. Bus Topology-Answer
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

3. An error in a computer program is referred as–
1. Bug-Answer
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

4. Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–
1. Car
2. Bus-Answer
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–
1. Byte-Answer
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

6. Cache memory is a–
1. Small buffer storage-Answer
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–
1. Number system
2. Base-Answer
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

8. Cache memory is–
1. Smaller and faster than main storage-Answer
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

9. Cache memory–
1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both 1. and 2. are true .-Answer
4. Both 1. and 2. are false
5. None of these

10. Following is false for BASIC–
1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language-Answer
5. None of these

11. A unit for measuring data transmission speed that describes the capacity of a carrier is referred as–
1. Baud-Answer
2. Bit
3. Bond
4. All of the above
5. Batch

12. A process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally manufactured/developed–
1. Alpha test
2. Beta Test-Answer
3. Gamma test
4. All of the above
5. None of these

13. A selection, choice, or condition involving two possibilities is referred as–
1. Unary
2. Binary-Answer
3. Octal
4. All of the above
5. None of these

14. Base band System is–
1. A networking system
2. Where the channel support a single digital signal
3. Both 1. and 2. are true-Answer
4. All of the above
5. None is true

15. One of the early coding systems, based on the idea of converting each digit of a decimal number into its binary equivalent rather than converting the entire decimal value into a pure binary form is–
1. ASCII code
2. BCD-Answer
3. ASCII-8
4. All of the above
5. None of these

16. In Batch processing–
1. Several computer programs runs one after another without human interaction to run each program individually-Answer
2. Several computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
3. Selected computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
4. All of the above
5. None is true

17. BISYNC is–
1. Binary synchronous
2. A process of transmitting data
3. A half-duplex, character oriented, synchronous data communication transmission method
4. All of the above
5. None of these-Answer

18. A device that is used to transmit data from one location to another is referred as–
1. Storage
2. Memory
3. Carrier-Answer
4. All of the above
5. None of these

19. Programs developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine readable form is known as–
1. Canned programs-Answer
2. Beta program
3. Alpha program
4. All of the above
5. None of these

20. A binary numbers are represented by–
1. Digits 0 and 1-Answer
2. Digits 0, 1, …, 8
3. Digits AB, C,…
4. All of the above
5. None of these

21. BIOS is responsible for
1. Handling the particulars of input/output operations-Answer
2. Output operations
3. Input operations
4. All of the above
5. None of these

22. BIOS is an abbreviation for–
1. Binary Input/Binary Output-Answer
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above
5. None of these

23. BISYNC is an abbreviation for–
1. Binary Input/Binary Output-Answer
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above
5. None of these

24. The overall design, construction, organiz-ation and interconnecting of the various components of a computer system is referred as–
1. Computer Architecture-Answer
2. Computer Flowchart
3. Computer Algorithm
4. All of the above
5. None of these

25. A number system with a base of two is referred as–
1. Unary number system
2. Binary number system-Answer
3. Octal number system
4. All of the above
5. None of these
Placement Paper
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English Language
Directions—(Q. 1–5) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

There was a famous temple on a high hill in Assam. The priest of this temple was widely respected and was known to be a great scholar. When he grew old, he started searching for a younger priest who could take charge of the temple after his death. But, much to his dismay, he could not find any suitable person. As the priest lay on his deathbed, he called the trustee of the temple and told him, “After my death, make sure that only a ‘human being’ replaces me as the priest of this temple”. As soon as he said these words, he died. Information travelled far and wide that the head priest of the famous temple had died and now there was an urgent need for a replacement. A day was set for the selection of the successor. That day, starting at dawn, aspirants started trekking the steep and torturous climb to the temple. The route to the temple was indeed difficult; it was full of thorns, and stones. By the time most people managed to reach the temple, they had received minor cuts and bruises on their feet and hands.

After breakfast, the selection process started. The trustee asked all the aspirants to recite difficult shlokas, or verses from the sacred texts, and explain various procedures of priesthood. By afternoon, as the selection process was about to end, one young man walked slowly into the temple. The trustee noticed him and said, “Young man, you are very late. What took you so long ? And what happened to your clothes, why are they torn ? Your feet and hands are bleeding so badly.” The man replied, “I know sir, I am late, so I will not participate in the competition. If I have your permission, I will just get my wounds treated, rest for a while and then go back to my village.” But the trustee was curious to know about this man. He asked again, “But how did you manage to hurt yourself so badly, did you not follow the same route as the others ?” “Yes sir, I did,” replied the man,“But I thought I must remove the thorns and other sharp, stones from the path so that when people come to pray in this temple they must not get hurt. That is why I got late and that is how I hurt myself. I apologize for the delay, but as I said, I know I am late and hence I don’t wish to participate in the competition. It will not be fair to the others if I participated.” Hearing this, the trustee smiled and said, “Congratulations, you have been chosen. I am sure that when our noble priest was dying and he said that he wanted a “human being” to be his successor, he meant that he wanted someone like you. “This statement infuriated the other participants. “What do you mean ?” they demanded. “Are we not humans ? This man just said that he did not wish to participate. How can you choose him as he has not gone through any of the tests ?” The trustee replied, “Our old priest used to say that even animals know how to watch for their self interest; they know how to avoid danger, search food and so on. Only a ‘human being’ knows how to watch for other people’s interests and well being. All of you climbed the same torturous path. But only this man thought about the others and cleared the path so that no one would get hurt. By this definition, only he qualifies as a ‘human being’ and hence only he should be the successor of the great old priest.”

1. What happened immediately after the old priest died ?
1. The trustee shut the temple and started mourning for the old priest
2. The trustee took the old priest’s position and appointed a younger trustee
3. Word spread that there was an urgent need for the old priest’s successor-Answer
4. Everyone started searching for younger priests
5. Everyone refused to become the old priest’s successor

2. Why was the old priest looking for a younger priest ?
1. So that the younger priest became his successor 2. So that the old priest had a student
3. So that the younger priest searched for a successor
4. Because in those days younger priests were more educated than older priests
5. Because the trustee wanted a younger priest to take care of the temple-Answer

3. Why was the young man late for the competition ?
1. He had forgotten his way and thus had taken a longer route to the temple
2. He was removing all the stones and thorns from the path which led to the temple-Answer
3. He was giving water to the other participants when they were on their way to the temple
4. He had some household chores to complete
5. He had forgotten all about the competition in the morning

4. What was the trustee’s decision when the young man gave his explanation for being late ?
1. He immediately selected the young man as the successor to the old priest-Answer
2. He scolded him and said that he should have been careful
3. He asked the young man to go and get his wounds treated
4. He asked the other participants to leave the temple premises
5. He gave a huge sum of money to the young man

5. What was the old priest’s definition of a ‘human being’ ?
1. Those who succeed in life and earn a lot of money are human beings
2. Those who watch for other people’s interests and well being are human beings-Answer
3. Those who put stones and thorns in other people’s path are human beings
4. Those who know how to make other people laugh are human beings
5. Those who know how to recite shlokas are human beings

6. How did the other participants react to the trustee’s decision ?
1. They took it sportingly and learnt a lesson from the incident
2. They congratulated the trustee for being so wise and fair
3. They got angry and objected to the trustee’s decision-Answer
4. They decided to get even with the trustee and the young man
5. They cursed the trustee and stomped out of the temple premises

7. What did the trustee ask during the selection process ?
1. He asked the aspirants to recite shlokas and verses from sacred texts
2. He asked the aspirants to explain the various procedures of priesthood
3. He asked the aspirants to give an introduction of themselves
4. He asked the aspirants to tell him the qualities of an ideal priest
5. Both 1. and 2.-Answer

8. What would be an appropriate title for this passage ?
1. The famous temple
2. The old priest
3. The torturous path
4. The true successor -Answer
5. The unjust trustee

9. Why did the young man say that he didn’t wish to participate in the competition ?
1. He was scared of losing the competition
2. He was not sure about the duties of priesthood
3. His parents forbade him from becoming a priest
4. He wanted to become the priest of some other temple
5. He was late and did not want to be unfair to others-Answer

10. When did the aspirants get cuts and bruises on their hands and feet ?
1. While they were reciting difficult shlokas and verses
2. While they were going through the selection process
3. While they were talking about the old priest
4. While they were climbing the torturous path that led to the temple-Answer
5. While the trustee was torturing them during the selection process

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word / group of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. Qualifies
1. Is trained in 2. Meets the criteria-Answer 3. Excels in 4. Is impressive 5. Is dynamic

12. Noticed
1. Recognised 2. Liked 3. Saw -Answer 4. Informed 5. Accepted

13. Demanded
1. Claimed 2. Questioned-Answer 3. Stated 4. Requested 5. Inquired

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word / group of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. Minor
1. Chief 2. Main 3. Complete 4. Distinct 5. Severe-Answer

15. Torturous
1. Trouble-free-Answer 2. Liberating 3. Exciting 4. Demanding 5. Boring

Directions (Q. 16–20)—Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. If there is no error the answer is 5.. (Ignore errors of punctuation if any.)

16. They did not follow the 1. / directions properly so 2. / they had difficult 3. -Answer/ in reaching my house. 4. No Error 5.

7. The group members 1. / had to suffer a 2. / lot of problems as 3. / their leader were biased. 4.-Answer No Error 5.

18. He was supposed 1. / to pick them 2. / up from the airport 3. / but he reaches late. 4-Answer. No Error 5.

19. He gained admission 1. / to one of the 2-Answer. / best commerce colleges 3. / in the city. 4. No Error 5.

20. His friends tried 1. / to convince him to 2. / participate in the competition 3. / but he refused. 4. No Error 5.-Answer

21. The judges were so 1. / impressed by her perform 2.-Answer / that they gave her3. / a standing ovation. 4. No Error 5.

22. They win the 1-Answer . / match but they 2. / did not play 3. / a fair game. 4. No Error 5.

23. The servant not only 1. / robbed them house 2-Answer . / but also betrayed 3. / their trust. 4. No Error 5.

24. He have to 1.-Answer / leave on a very 2. / short notice as 3. / it was an emergency. 4. No Error 5.

25. No one is allowed to go 1. / out of the hostel after 9 p.m. 2. / but still some students 3. / sneaks out last night. 4.-Answer No Error 5.

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below, four words print in bold type are given. These are lettered 1., 2., 3. and 4.. One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark 5. i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

26. All the officers 1. were asked 2. to report to duty 3. at sharp 4. 7 a.m. All Correct 5.-Answer

27. She fell ill due 1. to anxiety just 2. one week 3. before the ecsam. 4-Answer . All Correct 5.

28. They requested 1. everyone to take their 2. seats-Answer 3. and maintain silence.4. All Correct 5.

29. They spoke 1. in such a laud 2. -Answer voice that even their neighbours 3. could hear them. 4. All Correct 5.

30. Manish accused 1. his rival 2. of steeling 3-Answer . his designs. 4. All Correct 5.

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following 6 sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.
1. “I can’t bear it !” he screamed, “I’II pay the fine.”

2. After he had received a few strokes he began to turn and twist to avoid the whip.

3. So he paid the fine and was let off, but he became the laughing-stock of the city for having taken three punishments for one crime.

4. A man was caught stealing a bag of onions and was taken to the court where the judge gave him a choice of three punishments : eat the stolen onions in one sitting; submit to a hundred lashes of the whip or pay a fine.

5. “I can’t eat the onions so give me the lashes instead,” he said.

6. The man said he would eat the onions and began confidently, but after eating a few, his eyes began to burn, his nose started running and his mouth felt as if it was on fire.

31. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence in the rearrangement ?
1. 4 2. 2 3. 1 -Answer 4. 6 5. 5

32. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence in the rearrangement ?
1. 4-Answer 2. 2 3. 3 4. 1 5. 6

33. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence in the rearrangement?
1. 2 2. 5 3. 4 4. 1 5.3-Answer

34. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence in the rearrangement?
1. 1 2. 3-Answer 3. 2 4. 6 5. 4

35. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence in the rearrangement?
1. 2 2. 6-Answer 3. 4 4. 5 5. 1

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Each sentence below has a blank/s, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word/s that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
36. We……decided……buy a new car.
1. have, to-Answer 2. has, is 3. are, in 4. is, to 5. can, are

37. Rohan……asleep while watching the film.
1. is 2. found 3. fall 4. fell -Answer 5. find

38. Priti passed her exams with ………colours.
1. falling 2. seeing 3. different 4. flying-Answer 5. single

39. She translated an English ……… passage to Hindi without using a………
1. meaning 2. dictionary -Answer 3. symbols 4. language 5. adjective

40. Tina finds it difficult to talk to people as she…………introvert.
1. was a 2. can the 3. is an -Answer 4. being a 5. thought an
Placement Paper
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English Language

Directions (1-10) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain word have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
During the reign of King Veer, there lived a wise magistrate. Haripant’s verdict were always just and people from all over vast kingdom came to him in order to settle their disputes. In the city where Haripant lived, there was a greedy ghee merchant named Niranjan. He always kept twenty barrels of ghee. Of these, fifteen would contain good quality ghee and the remaining would be adulterated. He would mix the two and sell it. This went on for a long time, till finally the people fed up of being cheated, complained to Haripant.

Haripant had the ghee examined and found to it be adulterated. He gave Niranjan a choice of punishment-drink the five barrels of adulterated ghee from his shop, or receive a hundred lashings, or pay a thousand gold coins to the treasury. Niranjan thought for a while. Losing a thousand gold coins was too much and hundred lashings too painful. So he decided to drink the five barrels of ghee. Though Niranjan sold adulterated goods in his shop, he made sure his own food was of the best quality. So after drinking one barrel of ghee he began to feel sick. By the second barrel, he was vomiting. At this point he decided to opt for the lashings instead. But he was pampered and his body was unused to any harsh treatment. After ten lashes, he started trembling and by twenty he was giddy. ‘Stop! he screamed. ‘I will pay the thousand gold coins !’ And he handed them over.

So he ended up suffering all three punishments, something he did not forget in a hurry and the people of the city got to use only the best quality ghee in their food from then on
1. Why did Niranjan Keep five barrels of adulterated ghee ?
a) To sell to customers who could not afford high quality ghee
b) To make a profit by cheating people
c) Being a miser he kept the low quality ghee for his family
d) Demand for this ghee was low so he kept only a small quantity
e) None of these
Ans : (b)

2. Why did the people decide to go to Haripant with their complaint ?
a) He was close to the King and would get justice for them.
b) They knew Niranjan who punished people severely
c) They were confident that he would listen to their complaint and give a fair judgement
d) He was the only magistrate in the entire kingdom
e) None of these
Ans : (c)

3. Why did Haripant allow Niranjan to choose his own punishment ?
a) He felt sorry for Niranjan
b) Niranjan’s offence was minor
c) He did not want Niranjan to appeal to the King for leniency .
d) He did not want to give the wrong punishment
e) None of these
Ans : (e)

4. Which of the following can be said about Niranjan ?
i) He took a lot of time to make any decision
ii) He only cheated those who would not dare complain against him
iii) He was allergic to ghee and fell sick whenever he consumed it.
a) None
b) Only A
c) Both A and B
d) All A, B and C
e) None of these
Ans : (e)

5. Why did Niranjan decide to drink adulterated ghee for his punishment ?
a) Since the barrels were from his shop he thought he could substitute the adulterated ghee with good ghee
b) He wanted to prove that the quality of ghee he sold was good
c) He was greedy and had a big appetite so he thought he would easily drink the ghee
d) He considered it the easiest of the punishments as he did not realise what effect the ghee would have on him
e) None of these
Ans : (d)

6. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ?
i) Niranjan’s customers were so angry that they beat him mercilessly
ii) King Veer’s kingdom was large
iii) Niranjan had a very good memory
a) Only (i)
b) Only (ii)
c) Both (i) and (iii)
d) All(i), (ii) and (iii)
e) None of these
Ans : (c)

Directions (7-8) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage
7. SETTLE
a) Resolve
b) Occupy
c) Compromise
d) Arrange
e) Quiet
Ans : (a)

8. CHEATED
a) Unfaithful
b) Blamed
c) Exploited
d) Prevented
e) Dodged
Ans : (e)

Directions (9-10) : Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. BEST
a) Damaged
b) Inferior
c) Spoiled
d) Defective
e) Cheap
Ans : (b)

10. UNUSED
a) Accustomed
b) Routine
c) Often
d) Normal
e) Repeated
Ans : (a)

Directions (11-15) : Which of the phrase (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.

11. Since books are quite expensive that many children do not have access to them.
a) more expensive than
b) so expensive that
c) very expensive
d) too expensive for
e) No correction required
Ans : (b)

12. At the meeting they told us what kind of difficulties we may likely to face while establishing a rural branch.
a) may like to face
b) were being faced
c) could be likely face
d) would be likely to face
e) No correction required
Ans : (d)

13. What response you get to the proposal that you circulated among our investors ?
a) response have you
b) response did you
c) were your responses
d) did you respond
e) No correction required
Ans : (b)

14. One of our representatives will meet you at the airport and accompanies you to our office
a) and accompany you
b) to accompany
c) accompanying by you
d) will be accompanies by you
e) No correction required
Ans : (a)

15. I knew that because I refused to accept the old man’s gift I would hurt his feelings.
a) not to refuse
b) by refusal
c) if I refused
d) should I refused
e) No correction required
Ans : (c)

Direction (16 – 20) : In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, If any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

16. It is better to seek (1)/advice (2)/ from a financial consultant (3)/on how to safe (4)/ your business. All correct (5)
Ans : (4)

17. This is the list (1)/ of people who should be insisted (2)/ to participate (3)/ in the conference (4)/ All correct (5)
Ans : (2)

18. The impact (1)/ of those schemes (2)/ was visible (3)/ after a decade (4)/ All correct (5)
Ans : (5)

19. Since this offer is available (1)/ for a limited (2) / period alone (3)/you should register (4)/immediately. All correct (5)
Ans : (3)

20. I patently(1)/ explained (2)/to the customer that it was not possible (3)/ to fulfill his request (4). All correct (5)
Ans : (1)

Directions (21-25) : Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer the questions given below them.
a) Thus they teach us that no matter how insignificant you think you are, you can accomplish extraordinary things
b) During the course of its life it was struck by lightning fourteen times.
c) But one day it was attacked by an army of beetles
d) The tree stood at the foot of the Himalayas for over four hundred years.
e) The tiny insects ate their way through the tree and destroyed it.
f) If even survived innumerable storms and avalanches

21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Ans : (d)

22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
Ans : (b)

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
Ans : (e)

24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Ans : (e)

25. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Ans : (a)

Directions (26-30) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error it it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’/ (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
26. My cousin’s wedding provided (1)/ me with the chance (2)/ to meet which relatives I (3)/had not met for a long time. (4)/No error(5).
Ans : (3)

27. There are floods in this (1)/ region last year but (2)/ many of the victims have (3)/ not yet been compensated. (4) / No error (5)
Ans : (1)

28. We must ensure that (1)/ all our records (2)/ are computerised (3)/ for next year. (4)/ No error (5)
Ans : (4)

29. In order to impart (1) / training to bank employees (2)/ we are setting up (3)/ centres at various location . (4) / No error (5).
Ans : (4)

30. When Rahul reached (1)/the office there was (2)/ nobody there so (3)/ he sat down to wait (4)/No error (5)
Ans : (5)

Directions (31-40) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A Professor was (31) the Indian Independence Movement and the idea of non-violence (32) by Mahatma Gandhi. “Although others like Nelson Mandela followed this idea and (33) the Nobel prize for peace Mahatma Gandhi did not.” she said. one student spoke up, “It is good that he didn’t (34) it was an award started by Alfred Nobel who invented dynamic, which causes (35). The professor (36) ” In fact the world should be (37) to Nobel because he invented dynamite. It was very useful to build tunnels (38) mountains for trains to pass. If we choose to use it for war it is not his fault. Furthermore he (39) all his wealth into instituting prizes for literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, peace, etc. His (40) was that anything which would benefit the human race deserved recognition so that the person who had started it would have no financial difficulties in achieving his goal”.

31. a) lecturing
b) talking
c) discussing
d) speaking
e) arguing
Ans : (c)

32. a) originate
b) specialised
c) start
d) conceived
e) thought
Ans : (d)

33. a) awarded
b) given
c) presented
d) win
e) received
Ans : (e)

34. a) that
b) get
c) accept
d) though
e) since
Ans : (e)

35. a) blast
b) ruins
c) destruction
d) bombs
e) damages
Ans : (c)

36. a) disagreed
b) answers
c) shouted
d) upset
e) agreed
Ans : (a)

37. a) dedicated
b) grateful
c) appreciated
d) thanking
e) cursing
Ans : (b)
38. a) from
b) through
c) over
d) under
e) within
Ans : (d)

39. a) put
b) left
c) gave
d) donated
e) contributed
Ans : (d)

40. a) decision
b) logic
c) cause
d) excuse
e) discovery
Ans : (b)

Placement Paper
IBPS Probationary officers English Language questions with answers,IBPS previous years solved placement papers

IBPS Test of English language

Directions for questions 1 to 30 : An expression followed by four words is given in each of the following questions. The expression carries the meaning of one of the words. Identify the word and mark its number as your answer.

1. People or animals of a place that have been the earliest there from known times
a) ancestors
b) immigrants
c) aboriginals (Ans)
d) natives

2. A person who is very good at something
a) adept
b) popular
c) talented
d) virtuoso (Ans)

3. An anxious and eager concern for someone
a) solicitude (Ans)
b) worry
c) elation
d) good will

4. A cowardly and unfaithful person
a) miscreant
b) mendicant
c) pervert
d) recreant (Ans)

5. A fixed plan of food, sleep, etc. in order to improve one’s health
a) custom
b) regimen (Ans)
c) resolution
d) encompassment

6. An introduction that comes before something we say/write
a) prologue (Ans)
b) prediction
c) review
d) premonition

7. A steep or almost upright side of a high rock mountain or cliff
a) nadir
b) zenith
c) precipice (Ans)
d) abyss

8. Characteristic of children or young people
a) Juvenile (Ans)
b) mature
c) puerile
d) experienced

9. Causing damage to both parties involved
a) mutual
b) internecine (Ans)
c) interdict
d) interstitial

10. a large and impressive building
a) mansion
b) colossal
c) ciadel
d) edifice (Ans)

11. Next to each other
a) simultaneous
b) vicinity
c) succession
d) contiguous (Ans)

12. A place of scene of great disorder
a) chaotic (Ans)
b) repulsive
c) shamble
d) unpleasant

13. Connected with or relevant to something
a) perspective
b) invalid
c) significant
d) pertinent (Ans)

14. To hold the attention and interest completely
a) enthral (Ans)
b) yield
c) entice
d) charm

15. Showing great knowledge or insight
a) profane
b) fantastic
c) nostalgic
d) profound (Ans)

16. A long meaningless set of actions
a) modicum
b) vicissitudes
c) tidings
d) rigmarole (Ans)

17. To defeat completely in a battle or competition
a) vanquish (Ans)
b) imbroglio
c) forfeit
d) tryst

18. Most typical example of something
a) idol
b) epitome (Ans)
c) moron
d) penchant

19. Ability to speak well and easily
a) loquaciousness
b) temerity
c) eloquence (Ans)
d) glibness

20. One who is famous or an expert
a) chartlatan
b) paragon
c) toady
d) luminary (Ans)

21. A speech or piece of writing praising somebody or something
a) paean
b) transcription
c) panegyric (Ans)
d) verbatim

22. A place where everything is perfect
a) Utpia (Ans)
b) Cosmos
c) heaven
d) artifice

23. Voluntary relinquishing of something valued
a) nihilism
b) scrimmage
c) sabotage
d) sacrifice (Ans)

24. Asking everyone for an opinion
a) jeremiad
b) encomium
c) referendum (Ans)
d) similitude

25. A sign of shame
a) Snide
b) probity
c) pride
d) stigma (Ans)

26. Great disaster such as flood
a) cataclysm (Ans)
b) genocide
c) conflagration
d) waterloo

27. Extreme greed for money and possessions
a) chicanery
b) avarice (Ans)
c) rectitude
d) clemency

28. Firm and lasting courage in bearing trouble
a) strength
b) fortitude (Ans)
c) prayer
d) endurance

29. an object that is neat/pretty/small delicate
a) dainty (Ans)
b) artistic
c) categorical
d) brail

30. an attitude/habit/behaviour not genuine or natural
a) deception
b) imitation
c) protection
d) affectation (Ans)

Direction : Questions 31-60 : Each question has a word followed by four choices. From among the choices, identify the word which is opposite in meaning (antonym) to the main word and mark its number as your answer.
31. VIVIDLY
a) unimpressively (Ans)
b) plain
c) amalgamated
d) distinct

32. CHURLISH
a) agitated
b) cultured (Ans)
c) young
d) unique

33. TRADUCE
a) criticise
b) admonish
c) praise (Ans)
d) altercate

34. PLUMMET
a) pester
b) copy
c) praise
d) soar (Ans)

35. NIGGARDLY
a) softly
b) generously
c) plesantly
d) miserly

36. JUBILANT
a) lethargic
b) inebriated (Ans)
c) refreshed
d) morose

37. ENSUE
a) follow
b) instigate
c) precede (Ans)
d) cease

38. BILIOUS
a) pleasant (Ans)
b) malevolent
c) succulent
d) impure

39. GARRULOUS
a) laconic (Ans)
b) boastful
c) bashful
d) resonant

40. SCOFF
a) entertain
b) belittle
c) applaud (Ans)
d) castigate

41. TEMPORAL
a) devious
b) immaculate
c) didactic
d) celestial (Ans)

42. TRUNCATE
a) lengthen (Ans)
b) split
c) digress
d) enervate

43. WASPISH
a) berserk
b) imperious
c) amiable (Ans)
d) ingeuous

44. LIBERTINE
a) perfect
b) chaste (Ans)
c) ignominious
d) dubious

45. IMPUGN
a) invoke
b) contradict
c) defend (Ans)
d) pacify

46. INDELIBLE
a) temporary (Ans)
b) decorous
c) surprising
d) concerted

47. EXPEDIENT
a) beneficial
b) necessary
c) harmful (Ans)
d) relevant

48. DUCTILE
a) opaque
b) brittle (Ans)
c) coarse
d) soft

49. ADEPT
a) skilled
b) inept (Ans)
c) ugly
d) serene

50. CATALYST
a) promoter
b) obstacle
c) destroyer
d) deterrent (Ans)

51. BOLSTER
a) undermine (Ans)
b) interdict
c) support
d) contradict

52. FORLORN
a) sorrowful
b) encouraging
c) cheerful (Ans)
d) careless

53. OSTENSIBLE
a) external
b) real (Ans)
c) internal
d) unreal

54. RAZE
a) raise
b) disperse
c) split
d) foster (Ans)

55. NONCHALANCE
a) Pollution
b) Confusion
c) Suppression
d) tension (Ans)

56. APOCRYPHAL
a) reliable
b) authentic (Ans)
c) incredible
d) unreal

57. DECREPIT
a) Sturdy (Ans)
b) feeble
c) attractive
d) repulsive

58. SKIMPY
a) glaring
b) generous (Ans)
c) affluent
d) miserly

59. PREPOSTEROUS
a) unpleasant
b) pertinent
c) reasonable (Ans)
d) interesting

60. GORGE
a) starve (Ans)
b) crave
c) relish
d) dislike

Directions for questions 61 to 80 : In each question, four words identified as a, b, c and d are given. Two of them are opposite in meaning to each other. Identify this pair and marks as your answer the combination from the choices that matches your selection.

61. (i) Fume, (ii) Aroma, (iii) stench, (iv) Filth
a) (ii) – (iii) (Ans)
b) (i)- (iv)
c) (i)-(ii)
d) (iv)-(ii)

62. (i) Shallow, (ii) Vital, (iii) Ostensible, (iv) Profound
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (i) – (iv) (Ans)
c) (i)-(iii)
d) (ii)-(iii)

63. (ii) Deteriorate, (ii) Wane, (iii) Zoom, (iv) Flourish
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (ii) – (iii)
c) (ii)-(iv) (Ans)
d) (iii)-(iv)

64. (i) Emphasise, (ii) Delay, (iii) Help, (iv) Hamper
a) (i)-(iii)
b) (i)-(ii)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (iii)-(iv) (Ans)

65. (i) Timid, (ii) Audacious, (iii) Powerful, (iv) Violent
a) (i)-(ii) (Ans)
b) (ii)-(iii)
c) (i)-(iv)
d) (iii)-(iv)

66. (i) Repent, (ii) Flaunt, (iii) Hide, (iv) Fulfil
a) (i)-(iii)
b) (ii)-(iii) (Ans)
c) (iii)-(iv)
d) (i)- (iv)

67. (i) Sleep, (ii) Toil, (iii) Repose, (iv) Labour
a) (iii)-(iv) (Ans)
b) (i)-(iv)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (ii)-(iii)

68. (i) Mundane, (ii) Unique, (iii) Exciting, (iv) Emotional o
a) (i)-(iv)
b) (i)-(iii) (Ans)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (ii)-(iii)

69. (i) Serene, (ii) Moody, (iii) Blithe, (iv) Emotional
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (ii)-(iv)
c) (ii)-(iii)
d) (i)-(iv) (Ans)

70. (i) Eclipse, (ii) Discreet, (iii) Increase, (iv) Reveal
a) (i)-(iv) (Ans)
b) (ii)-(iv)
c) (iii)-iv)
d) (i)-(ii)

71. (i) More, (ii) Bit, (iii) Superfluous, (iv) Lot
a) (i)-(ii)
b) ((ii)-(iii)
c) (ii-(iv) (Ans)
d) (i)-(iv)

72. (i) Lewd, (ii) Dignified, (iii) Decent, (iv) Ribald
a) (iii)-(iv) (Ans)
b) (i)-(ii)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (ii)-(iii)

73. (i) Aver, (ii) Contradict, (iii) Deny, (iv) Repeat
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (i)-(iii) (Ans)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (iii)-(iv)

74. (i) Oppose, (ii) Incite, (iii) Defer, (iv) Quell
a) (i)-(iv)
b) (iii)-(iv)
c) (ii)-(iii)
d) (ii)-(iv) (Ans)

75. (i) Amiable, (ii) Angry, (iii) Active, (iv) Curt
a) (i) – (ii)
b) (ii)-(iv)
c) (i)-(iv) (Ans)
d) (ii)-(iii)

76. (i) Stubborn, (ii) Amorous, (iii) Frigid, (iv) Chaste
a) (ii)-(iii) (Ans)
b) (i)-(ii)
c) (iii)-(iv)
d) (i)- (iv)

77. (i) Clear, (ii) Suppressed, (iii) Notorious, (iv) Famous
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (iii)-(iv) (Ans)
c) (i)-(iii)
d) (ii)- (iii)

78. (i) Actual, (ii) Alleged, (iii) Obvious, (iv) Blamed
a) (i)-(iv)
b) (i)-(iii)
c) (i)-(ii) (Ans)
d) (ii)-(iii)

79. (i) Renege, (ii) Break, (iii) Fulfil, (iv) Complete
a) (i)-(ii)
b) (i)-(iv)
c) (ii)-(iii)
d) (i)-(iii) (Ans)

80. (i) Terse, (ii) Verbose, (iii) Short, (iv) Detailed
a) (i)-(iii)
b) (ii)-(iii)
c) (ii)-(iv)
d) (i)-(iv) (Ans)

Directions for questions 81-100: An idiom and four possible meanings are given. Identity the meaning of the idiom from among the answer choices and mark its number as your answer.
81. Child’s play
a) to handle a situation calmly
b) to dispute over petty points
c) an easy task (Ans)
d) to treat lightly

82. On thin Ice
a) on the verge of ruins
b) unbounded
c) to undergo risks
d) in a precarious situation (Ans)

83. Bury the hatchet
a) decide to end hostility (Ans)
b) to keep under control
c) to retire from active life
d) to turn pale

84. Cut no ice
a) unable to perform
b) make no impression (Ans)
c) come to nothing
d) to fail

85. It makes no odds
a) come to a compromise
b) quite certain
c) to cause no interest
d) it is not important (Ans)

86. Sign on the dotted line
a) agree to do something unconditionally (Ans)
b) take the blame or punishment
c) without any delay
d) left with no choice

87. The bottom line
a) the trick
b) the most important factor (Ans)
c) the secret
d) ignorance

88. Read between the line
a) have a reason to suspect
b) consulted one another
c) have insight into a situation (Ans)
d) under consideration

89. Turn down
a) to reject or refuse (Ans)
b) to dominate
c) to run away
d) to disappoint

90. Lie low
a) to cease fighting
b) destructively active
c) hide and wait (Ans)
d) lethargic

91. On cloud nine
a) beyond control
b) in excellent spirits (Ans)
c) fortune in favour
d) at a distance

92. See eye to eye
a) well thought of
b) continuously
c) to fix the limit
d) have same opinion (Ans)

93. Count one’s chickens
a) be overoptimistic (Ans)
b) to make money rapidly
c) with all one’s power
d) wholly or entirely

94. A bird’s eye view
a) without care
b) within the walls
c) an overall survey (Ans)
d) out of place

95. Be in two minds
a) be burdened
b) be indifferent
c) be mischievous
d) be undecided (Ans)

96. A shot in the arm
a) to have his revenge
b) to stimulate a situation/person (Ans)
c) to show strength
d) to behave in an agitated manner

97. Make no bones
a) without offence
b) to be frank (Ans)
c) undaunted by anything
d) practically

98. Turn one’s back
a) object to
b) retain aversion
c) refuse help (Ans)
d) run off

99. Be hand in glove
a) remain faithful
b) spread rapidly
c) in ignorance
d) in close association (Ans)

100. Head to toe
a) thoroughly (Ans)
b) continuously
c) nothing
d) completely

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