Indian-Navy Aptitude-Reasoning Indian Navy Model Questions-Reasoning

1. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ?
(A) WUY
(B) UTY
(C) VUZ
(D) WUZ

2.12, 26, 54, 110, ?
(A) 223
(B) 222
(C) 220
(D) 225

3.2, 3, 10, 15, ?
(A) 25
(B) 26
(C) 24
(D) 30

4.Jamal was born on Feb. 29, 1988.How many birthdays will be celebrated up to 29-2-2004 ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 8 (D) 16

5.Ram is elder than Shyam. Lakshman is elder than Shyam, but younger than Ram. Hanuman is younger than both Hari and Shyam. Shyam is elder than Hari. Who is the youngest ?
(A) Ram
(B) Lakshman
(C) Hanuman
(D) Hari

6. If FAITH is coded as 82731, HABITis coded as 12573 and HEALTH is coded as 192431, how can BELIEF be coded as ?
(A) 594598
(B) 594789
(C) 594978
(D) 594798

7.Vikash said, “That boy is the grandson of my mother’s husband. I have no brother and sister.” How is the boy related to Vikash ?
(A) Uncle
(B) Son
(C) Nephew
(D) Cousin

8. In a class, Karthik’s rank is 17th from the top and 28th from the bottom. How many students are there in the class ?
(A) 45 (B) 41
(C) 40 (D) 44

9. If 228 = 12 and 337 = 16, then 569 = ?
(A) 42
(B) 39
(C) 36
(D) 26

10.Raju is facing North. He goes 35 metres ahead, turns left and walk 20 metres.He turns right and covers 25 metres,then turns right to cover 30 metres. In which direction is he heading ?
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West

Indian Navy -Logarithm Questions for Practice
Indian Navy Exam Paper

logarithm and number series questions for practice

Logarithm:

If a is a positive real number, other than 1 and am = x, then we write:
m = logax and we say that the value of log x to the base a is m.

Examples:

(i). 103 1000 log10 1000 = 3.

(ii). 34 = 81 log3 81 = 4.

(iii). 2-3 ,1/8 log2 1/8 = -3.

(iv). (.1)2 = .01 log(.1) .01 = 2.

Properties of Logarithms:

1. loga (xy) = loga x + loga y

2. loga (x/y)= loga x – loga y

3. logx x = 1

4. loga 1 = 0

5. loga (xn) = n(loga x)

6. loga x = 1/logx a
7. loga x = logb x/logb a = log x ./ log a
Common Logarithms:

Logarithms to the base 10 are known as common logarithms.

The logarithm of a number contains two parts, namely ‘characteristic’ and ‘mantissa’.

Characteristic: The internal part of the logarithm of a number is called its characteristic.

Case I: When the number is greater than 1.

In this case, the characteristic is one less than the number of digits in the left of the decimal point in the given number.

Case II: When the number is less than 1.

In this case, the characteristic is one more than the number of zeros between the decimal point and the first significant digit of the number and it is negative.

Instead of -1, -2 etc. we write 1 (one bar), 2 (two bar), etc.

Examples:-

Number Characteristic Number Characteristic 654.24 2 0.6453 1 26.649 1 0.06134 2 8.3547 0 0.00123 3

Mantissa:

The decimal part of the logarithm of a number is known is its mantissa. For mantissa, we look through log table.
1. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. log10 10 = 1
B. log (2 + 3) = log (2 x 3)
C. log10 1 = 0
D. log (1 + 2 + 3) = log 1 + log 2 + log 3

Explanation:

(a) Since loga a = 1, so log10 10 = 1.

(b) log (2 + 3) = log 5 and log (2 x 3) = log 6 = log 2 + log 3

log (2 + 3) log (2 x 3)

(c) Since loga 1 = 0, so log10 1 = 0.

(d) log (1 + 2 + 3) = log 6 = log (1 x 2 x 3) = log 1 + log 2 + log 3.

So, (b) is incorrect.

2 If log 2 = 0.3010 and log 3 = 0.4771, the value of log5 512 is:

A. 2.870

B. 2.967
C. 3.876

D. 3.912

Explanation:

3 If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is:
Explanation:

log 27 = 1.431

log (33 ) = 1.431

3 log 3 = 1.431

log 3 = 0.477

log 9 = log(32 ) = 2 log 3 = (2 x 0.477) = 0.954.

4 If log10 5 + log10 (5x + 1) = log10 (x + 5) + 1, then x is equal to:
log10 5 + log10 (5x + 1) = log10 (x + 5) + log10 10

log10 [5 (5x + 1)] = log10 [10(x + 5)]

5(5x + 1) = 10(x + 5)

5x + 1 = 2x + 10

3x = 9

x = 3

5 The value of log2 16 is:

Explanation:

Let log2 16 = n.

Then, 2n = 16 = 24 n = 4.

log2 16 = 4.

Directions : In each of the following questions, a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces.

1. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, (…)

(a) 35

(b) 36 (Ans)

(c) 48

(d) 49

Ans : The numbers are 12, 22, 32, 42, 52.

? Missing number = 62 = 36.

2. 20, 19, 17, (…), 10, 5,

(a) 12

(b) 13

(c) 14 (Ans)

(d) 15

Ans : The Pattern is -1, -2, …

? Missing number = 17 – 3 = 14.

3. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, (…), 17

(a) 12

(b) 13 (Ans)

(c) 14

(d) 15

Ans : Clearly, the given series consists of prime numbers starting from 2. The prime number after 11 is 13. So, 13 is the missing number.

4. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, (…)

(a) 42

(b) 51

(c) 81 (Ans)

(d) 91

Ans : The pattern is + 5, + 10, + 15, + 20, …..

? Missing number = 56 + 25 = 81.

5. 1, 6, 13, 22, 33, (…)

(a) 44

(b) 45

(c) 46 (Ans)

(d) 47

Ans : The pattern is + 5, + 7, + 9, + 11, ….

? Missing number = 33 + 13 = 46.

6. 3, 9, 27, 81, (…)

(a) 324

(b) 243 (Ans)

(c) 210

(d) 162

Ans : Each term of the given series is obtained by multiplying its preceding term by 3.

? Missing number = 81 x 3 = 243.

7. 1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73, (…)

(a) 97 (Ans)

(b) 98

(c) 99

(d) 100

Ans : The pattern is + 8, + 8, + 16, + 16, + 24, …

? Missing number = 73 + 24 = 97.

8. 2, 5, 9, (…), 20, 27,

(a) 14 (Ans)

(b) 16

(c) 18

(d) 24

Ans : The pattern is + 3, + 4, …

? Missing number = 9 + 5 = 14.

9. 5, 9, 17, 29, 45, (…)

(a) 60

(b) 65 (Ans)

(c) 68

(d) 70

Ans : The pattern is + 4, + 8, + 12, + 16, …

? Missing number = 45 + 20 = 65.

10. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, (…)

(a) 92

(b) 115

(c) 127 (Ans)

(d) 131

Ans : Each number in the series is the preceding number multiplied by 2 and then increased by 1.

Thus, (3 x 2) + 1 = 7, (7 x 2) + 1 = 15, (15 x 2) 1 = 31 and so on.

? Missing number = (63 x 2) + 1 = 127.
Indian-Navy
SSB Test Model Questions-Indian Navy-Candidates Experience

Day 1 of SSB has 2 rounds to be cleared.

1. Officer Intelligence Rating Test(OIR)
2. Picture Perception and Discussion Test(PPDT)

1. Officer Intelligence Rating Test(OIR):

In Officer Intelligence Rating test a set of both verbal and nonverbal reasoning is given. Here the time is less and the candidate has to solve more number of questions.First there will be a teaching session followed by a practice session. During this session of time candidates can raise their doubts to know how to solve a particular model. This session will be for around 20 to 30 minutes. After this session candidates have to write 2 tests. One of the papers is little bit hard when compared to others, overall the questions are easy to answer but the main factor is time.For each question paper there will be 50 questions. Candidates have to complete in 20 minutes. On a whole 100 questions 40 minutes.Some Questions which I faced:

1. Chocolate is to factory as milk is to….. write the second letter of your answer.
ANS: a
Exp: Dairy. Its not diary(be careful)

2. Find X

44)353(1?
44
—————
3?9
??8
—————-
00X
ANS: 1

2. Picture Perception and Discussion Test(PPDT)

Picture Perception:
In this test candidates are required to write a story to a picture shown to them. The story must contain the past action that led to the situation shown in figure, what was going on at present and what will happen in the future.Candidates will be given a A4 sheet having a square box as shown in figure:
Picture will be shown for 30 seconds and 1 minute is allotted for the candidate to fill the following details:
1. Action : write the name of the story

2. Identify the characters in the square box. The first character seen by the candidate is to be encircled in the square box provided.
3. Provide the details of all the characters seen in the fig. Age, Mood (positive(+), negative(-), neutral(0)), Sex(male, female, person)
4. Write the approximate age, mood of the person in the figure; if you can identify the sex of the person write male (m) or female (f) else note it as person (p).

After filling the above details start writing the story you can name the characters if required. The time to complete writing the story is 4 minutes.Keep your story positive and as short as possible. Don?t write a story having terrorist attacks, fire accidents, military operations, police firings etc., maintain the theme that you have come across in your life and must be realistic. The hero?s character in the story must reflect your character and behavior

Indian-Navy Pattern
Indian Navy Recruitment Pattern

Indian Navy conducts recruitment for the following posts – Artificer apprenctice,Senior Secondary Recruits,Matric Recruit And Non Matric Recruit,Musicians. Recruitment pattern for various posts are given below.

I.Post Name: Artificer Apprentice

1. Age.
The applicant should be of the age between 17-20 years (ie. he should not be less than 17 or more than 20 years on the date of enrolment).

2. Nationality.
Applicant should be a resident Indian. The Gorkhas, subjects of Nepal, are also eligible for applying for AA recruitment.

3. Marital Status.
Applicant should be an Unmarried male.

4. Minimum Educational Qualification.
(a) 1st Condition. Applicant should have passed Class 12th or equivalent with subjects of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.

(b) 2nd Condition. Minimum qualification marks required for applying for a particular type of entry into Indian Navy may vary and the same would be promulgated in the advertisement in Newspapers and this website on as required basis.

5. Physical Standards.
The candidate should be physically fit for enrolement into Indian Navy. This capability is tested at the examination venue on qualifying in written examination and is termed as Physical Fitness Test (PFT). Qualifying in Physical Fitness Test is mandatory. PFT will consist of 1.6 km run which is to be completed in 07 minutes, 20 Squats (Utthak Baithak) and 10 Push ups.

6. Medical Standards.

(a) Medical examination will be conducted by authorized Military Doctors as per medical standard prescribed under current regulations applicable to the sailors of Indian Navy on entry. The detailed guidelines for medical standards are laid down in the Navy Orders (SPL) 01/1999 by IHQ MOD (Navy).
(b) Physical traits include minimum height of 157 cm with proportionate body weight depending on the age and height of the candidate. He should also have proportionate chest with minimum expansion capability of 05 cms.
(c) Candidate should possess good mental and physical health, should be free from any disease / disability and have no cardio vascular disease, surgical deformities like Knock-Knees, Flat-Foot. Candidate should not have a past history of fits or psychiatric ailments Vericose-vein etc. He should not have any type of infection in the ears. Candidates are advised to get their ears cleaned for wax and tartar removed from teeth before appearing for the written test followed by PFT and Medical examination.
(d) Candidate should possess Colour perception standard of CP II and Eyes Visual standards should meet the under mentioned prescribed standards for both the conditions that is with glasses AND without glasses.

Without glasses
Better Eye:6/12
Worse Eye:6/12

With glasses
Better Eye:6/9
Worse Eye:6/12

NOTE: Applicants declared permanent medically unfit by any Armed Forces Hospital in previous recruitment for the same entry in Navy need not apply.

7.Training.
The training for Artificer Apprentice will generally be for 09 weeks Basic Training at INS Chilka followed by 08 weeks sea training . Thereafter four years training in technical training establishments of the Navy. On completion, candidates will have qualification equivalent to Diploma in Electrical/Mechanical/Aeronautical Engineering which is recognised by the Govt of India for purposes of employment in Central /State Govt.

8. Initial Engagement.
The beginning of engagement of sailor with the Indian Navy is subject to successful completion of training. The period of the initial engagement of Artificer Apprentice sailor is 20 years. However, engagement (ie service) period is extendable with maximum limit being till the attainment of 57 yrs of age, which, in turn, depends on the rank attained and satisfactory performance by the sailor while in the service.

9. Exam Pattern:

The written exam shall be an objective type test having multiple choice based questions on the following main sections:

Section I: English
Section II: Science
Section III: Mathematics and
Section IV: General Knowledge

Duration of Exam: 1 Hour
Syllabus for Written Exam: It will be equivalent to the Intermediate/ Class 12th standard.
Language of Questions: Both English as well as Hindi

II.Post Name:Senior Secondary Recruits

1. Age.
The applicant should be of the age between 17-21 years (ie. he should not be less than 17 or more than 21 years on the date of enrolment).

NOTE: Relaxation of Age. Against sports quota entry, the upper age relaxation for outstanding sportsmen, who have played at International / National / State level may be considered up to a period of 12 months.

2. Nationality.
Applicant should be a resident Indian. The Gorkhas, subjects of Nepal, are also eligible for applying for SSR recruitment.

3. Marital Status.
Applicant should be an Unmarried male.

4. Minimum Educational Qualification.
(a) 1st condition . Applicant should have passed Class 12th(Intermediate) with Science stream with compulsory subjects of Physics and Mathematics and Optional subjects of Chemistry or Biology or Computers.

(b) 2nd condition . Minimum qualification marks required for applying for a particular type of entry into Indian Navy may vary and the same would be promulgated in the advertisement in Newspapers and this website on as required basis.

5. Physical Standards.
The candidate should be physically fit for enrolement into Indian Navy. This capability is tested at the examination venue on qualifying in written examination and is termed as Physical Fitness Test (PFT). Qualifying in Physical Fitness Test is mandatory. PFT will consist of 1.6 km run which is to be completed in 07 minutes, 20 Squats (Utthak Baithak) and 10 Push ups.

6. Medical Standards.

(a) Medical examination will be conducted by authorized Military Doctors as per medical standard prescribed under current regulations applicable to the sailors of Indian Navy on entry. The detailed guidelines for medical standards are laid down in the Navy Orders (SPL) 01/1999 by IHQ MOD (Navy).
(b) Physical traits include minimum height of 157 cm with proportionate body weight depending on the age and height of the candidate. He should also have proportionate chest with minimum expansion capability of 05 cms.
(c) Candidate should possess good mental and physical health, should be free from any disease / disability and have no cardio vascular disease, surgical deformities like Knock-Knees, Flat-Foot. Candidate should not have a past history of fits or psychiatric ailments Vericose-vein etc. He should not have any type of infection in the ears. Candidates are advised to get their ears cleaned for wax and tartar removed from teeth before appearing for the written test followed by PFT and Medical examination.
(d) Candidate should possess Colour perception standard of CP II and Eyes Visual standards should meet the under mentioned prescribed standards for both the conditions that is with glasses AND without glasses.

Without glasses
Better Eye:6/6
Worse Eye:6/9

With glasses
Better Eye:6/6
Worse Eye:6/6

NOTE: Applicants declared permanent medically unfit by any Armed Forces Hospital in previous recruitment for the same entry in Navy need not apply.

7.Training.
The training for Senior Secondary Recruit will generally be 24 weeks Basic Training at INS Chilka followed by 24 weeks professional training in the allotted trade in Naval Establishments all over the country. Branch/Trade will be allocated as per requirement of service.

8.Initial Engagement.
The beginning of engagement of sailor with the Indian Navy is subject to successful completion of training. The period of the initial engagement for Senior Secondary Recruit sailor is 15 years. However, engagement (ie service) period is extendable with maximum limit being till the attainment of 57 yrs of age, which, in turn, depends on the rank attained and satisfactory performance by the sailor while in the service.

III.Post Name:Matric Recruit And Non Matric Recruit

1.Branches.
The following branches form part of the under mentioned Entries:-

(a) MRs ? Steward, Cooks
(b) NMRs ? Topass

2. Age.
The applicant should be of the age between 17-21 years (ie. he should not be less than 17 or more than 21 years on the date of enrolment).

NOTE: Relaxation of age Against sports quota entry, the upper age relaxation for oustanding sportsmen, who have played at International / National / State level may be considered upto a period of 12 months.

3. Nationality.
Applicant should be a resident Indian. The Gorkhas, subjects of Nepal, are also eligible for applying for the recruitment.

4. Marital Status.
Applicant should be an Unmarried male.

5. Minimum Educational Qualification.

(a) MR Steward/ Cook. Applicant should have passed 10th class examination.
(b) NMRs Topass. Applicant should have passed 6th class examination.

6. Physical Standards.
The candidate should be physically fit for enrolement into Indian Navy. This capability is tested at the examination venue on qualifying in written examination and is termed as Physical Fitness Test (PFT). Qualifying in Physical Fitness Test is mandatory. PFT will consist of 1.6 km run which is to be completed in 07 minutes, 20 Squats (Utthak Baithak) and 10 Push ups.

7. Medical Standards.

(a) Medical examination will be conducted by authorized Military Doctors as per medical standard prescribed under current regulations applicable to the sailors of Indian Navy on entry. The detailed guidelines for medical standards are laid down in the Navy Orders (SPL) 01/1999 by IHQ MOD (Navy).
(b) Physical traits include minimum height of 157 cm with proportionate body weight depending on the age and height of the candidate. He should also have proportionate chest with minimum expansion capability of 05 cms.
(c) Candidate should possess good mental and physical health, should be free from any disease / disability and have no cardio vascular disease, surgical deformities like Knock-Knees, Flat-Foot. Candidate should not have a past history of fits or psychiatric ailments Vericose-vein etc. He should not have any type of infection in the ears. Candidates are advised to get their ears cleaned for wax and tartar removed from teeth before appearing for the written test followed by PFT and Medical examination.
(d) Candidate should possess Colour perception standard of CP II and Eyes Visual standards should meet the under mentioned prescribed standards for both the conditions that is with glasses AND without glasses.

MRs:
Without glasses
Better Eye:6/36
Worse Eye:6/36

With glasses
Better Eye:6/9
Worse Eye:6/12

NMRs:
Without glasses
Better Eye:6/60
Worse Eye:6/60

With glasses
Better Eye:6/9
Worse Eye:6/24

NOTE: Applicants declared permanent medically unfit by any Armed Forces Hospital in previous recruitment for the same entry in Navy need not apply.

7.Training.
The training for Matric Recruit and Non Matric Recruit will generally be 15 weeks basic training at INS Chilka followed by professional training at respective Naval establishments as per trade.

8.Initial Engagement.
The beginning of engagement of sailor with the Indian Navy is subject to successful completion of training. The period of the initial engagement for Matric Recruit and Non Matric Recruit sailor is 15 years. However, engagement (ie service) period is extendable with maximum limit being till the attainment of 57 yrs of age, which, in turn, depends on the rank attained and satisfactory performance by the sailor while in the service.

IV.Post Name:Musicians

1. Musical Ability .
The candidates applying should have proficiency in western notation, aural aptitude, knowledge of Theory of Music and actual practical skill on any Musical Instrument.

2. Type of Instruments.
The candidates applying should have proficiency in playing String, Key-board, Woodwind, Brass and Percussion Instruments both of Western and Indian Origin.

3. Age.
The applicant should be of the age between 17-21 years (ie. he should not be less than 17 or more than 21 years on the date of enrolment).

4. Nationality.
Applicant should be a resident Indian. The Gorkhas, subjects of Nepal, are also eligible for applying for the recruitment.

5. Marital Status.
Applicant should be an Unmarried male.

6. Minimum Educational Qualification.
Applicant should have passed 10th class examination and should be able to exhibit an aptitude for music.
br /> 7. Physical Standards.
The candidate should be physically fit for enrolment into Indian Navy. This capability is tested at the examination venue on qualifying in written examination and is termed as Physical Fitness Test (PFT). Qualifying in Physical Fitness Test is mandatory. PFT will consist of 1.6 km run which is to be completed in 07 minutes, 20 Squats (Utthak Baithak) and 10 Push ups.

8. Medical Standards.

(a) Medical examination will be conducted by authorized Military Doctors as per medical standard prescribed under current regulations applicable to the sailors of Indian Navy on entry. The detailed guidelines for medical standards are laid down in the Navy Orders (SPL) 01/1999 by IHQ MOD (Navy).
(b) Physical traits include minimum height of 157 cm with proportionate body weight depending on the age and height of the candidate. He should also have proportionate chest with minimum expansion capability of 05 cms.
(c) Candidate should possess good mental and physical health, should be free from any disease / disability and have no cardio vascular disease, surgical deformities like Knock-Knees, Flat-Foot. Candidate should not have a past history of fits or psychiatric ailments Vericose-vein etc. He should not have any type of infection in the ears. Candidates are advised to get their ears cleaned for wax and tartar removed from teeth before appearing for the written test followed by PFT and Medical examination.
(d) Candidate should possess Colour perception standard of CP II and Eyes Visual standards should meet the under mentioned prescribed standards for both the conditions that is with glasses AND without glasses.

Without glasses
Better Eye:6/60
Worse Eye:6/60

With glasses
Better Eye:6/9
Worse Eye:6/24

NOTE: Applicants declared permanent medically unfit by any Armed Forces Hospital in previous recruitment for the same entry in Navy need not apply.

9. Responsibility for Conduct of Recruitment for Musicians.
The Director of Music (DOM) at INS Kunjali, Mumbai-400005 will be responsible for conduct of recruitment for Musician sailors as per schedule promulgated by IHQ MOD (Navy). The preliminary screening and Medical examination would be carried out at following Naval Recruitment Establishments (NREs) by a team nominated by DOM.

(a) INS Kunjali, Mumbai
(a) INS Netaji Subhash, Kolkata
(a) INS Venduruthy, Kochi
(a) INS Circars, Visakhapatnam
(a) INS India, New Delhi
Indian-Navy Placement Paper

Indian Navy Sailors for Senior Secondary Recruits (SSR) Model Question Paper

English Language:

Select the correct verb
Q1. Besides his parents, he _________also present at the function.
(A) is
(B)was
(C)has
(D) has been
Ans :B

Identify the correct preposition
Q2. The thunder was accompanied ______a heavy rain.
(A)from
(B)by
(C)up
(D)through
Ans :B

Choose the misspelt word.
Q3. (A) disparity
(B)illusion
(C)inevitable
(D)middle
Ans :A

Fill in the blank with correct article.
Q4. _____things of beauty is a joy forever.
(A)the
(B)a
(C)an
(D)none of these
Ans :A

Identify the antonym of the given word
Q.5 Embellish
(A)Sacrifice
(B)Disfigure
(C)Foreit
(D)Indict
Ans :B

Give one word substitute
Q6. A well experienced person.
(A)wise man
(B) Intelligent
(C) Old man
(D) Veteran
Ans: D

Q7. An accident which results in death
(A) Injurious
(B) Dangerous
(C)Fatal
(D) Terrible
Ans : C

Identify the correct choice
Q8. He has purchased a bag of ____________
(A)floor
(B)flour
(C)flower
(D)flaur
Ans :B

Identify the synonym of the given word
Q9. Zest
(A)pleasure
(B)distaste
(C)flop
(D)encircles
Ans :A

Fill in the blank with suitable conjunction
Q10. He will never pass,______hard he may try
(A) However
(B) Whatever
(C) Never
(D) Whenever
Ans :A

Form an adjective from the given word
Q11. Gold
(A)The Gold
(B)Golder
(C) Golden
(D)Goldest
Ans : C

Give the plural of the given word
Q12. Hero
(A) Heroine
(B) Heros
(C) Heroies
(D) Heroes
Ans

Fill in the blank with suitable word
Q13. Barking dogs____bite
(A) regularly
(B)rarely
(C)seldom
(D)frequently
Ans :C

Identify the incorrect part
Q14. No boy(A)/ in his son’s class(B)/ is as bright (C)/as his son is(D)
Ans: D

Identify the meaning of the given idioms/phrases
Q15. To live in fool’s paradise
(A)to have an absolutely false conception
(B)to create a stir
(C)to be clear
(D)to get fairly involved
Ans :A

Identify the indirect speech
Q16. The teacher said to me, “Be regular and learn your lesson daily” The teacher:
(A) told me that to be regular and learn my lesson daily
(B) said to me regular and learn my lesson daily
(C)advised me to be regular and learn my lesson daily
(D) request me to be regular and learn lesson daily
Ans :C

Change the voice
Q17. It is time to buy books.
It is time__________
(A) all the books to be bought
(B) for the books to be bought
(C) for books have been bought
(D) for books are being bought
Ans :B

?A man who has no sense of history?, Hitler declared, ?is like a man who has no ears or eyes?. He himself claimed to have had a passionate interest in history since his school days and he displayed considerable familiarity with the course of European history. His conversation was studied with historical references and historical parallels. More than that, Hitler’s whole cast of thought was historical, and his sense of mission was derived from his sense of history. Like his contemporary Spangler, Hitler was fascinated by the rise and fall of civilisations. He was himself born at a critical moment in European history when the liberal bourgeois world of the nineteenth century was disintegrating. What would take its place? The future lays with the ‘Jew-Bolshevik’ ideology of the masses unless Europe could be saved by the Nazi racist ideology of the elite.

Q18. Who has no ears or eyes?
(A)A man having sense of history
(B)A man who has no sense of history
(C)A man who has extra knowledge
(D)A man having passionate interest in history
Ans :B

Q19. Hitler displayed familiarity with:
(A)Scientific facts
(B)Indian history
(C)European history
(D)None of these
Ans :C

Q20. Hitler’s sense of mission was derived from :
(A)His love of mankind
(B) his sense of history
(C) Nowhere
(D) contemporary society
Ans :B

Physics:

Q1. Which of the following is the fundamental quantity ?
(A)Volume
(B) Velocity
(C) Time
(D) Force
Ans : C

Q2. A ball is projected with a velocity of 15 m/s making an angle of 300 with the horizontal. Calculate the time of flight of the ball ( Give g= 10m/s2 )
(A) 1.5 Second
(B) 3.5 Second
(C) 2 Second
(D) 5 Second
Ans: A

Q3. The dimension formulas for impulse is same as the dimensional formula for
(A) Momentum
(B) Force
(C) Torque
(D) Rate of change of momentum
Ans : A

Q4. For a common base amplifier, V is the collector base battery, Ic the current in the collector circuit, Rl the resistance connected is collector circuit and Vcb the voltage across collector & base, then
(A) Vcb =Vcc + IcRL
(B) Vcb = Vcc -IcRL
(C) Vcc = Vcb – IcRL
(D) None of these
Ans : A

Q5. The SI unit of Universal Gas constant (R) is :
(A) Watt k-1mol-1
(B) NK-1mol-1
(C) JK-1mol-1
(D) erg K-1 mol -1
Ans : C

Q6 . A force of 70N gives an object of unknown mass an acceleration of 20m/s2. The mass of unknown object is________.
(A) 7 Kg
(B) 0.3 Kg
(C) 3.5 Kg
(D) 35 Kg
Ans : C

Q7. Zener- diode is used as :
(A) An amplifier
(B) An rectifier
(C) An oscillator
(D) A Voltage regulator
Ans : D

Q8. The magnetic flux through a 50- turn coil increase at the rate of 0.05 Wb/s. What is the induced emf between the ends of the coil?
(A) 2.5V
(B) 5V
(C) 3V
(D) 7V
Ans : A

Q9. The focal length of objective of a telescope is 60 c.m. To obtain a magnification of 20, the focal length of the eye-piece should be
(A) 2cm
(B) 5cm
(C) 4cm
(D) 3cm
Ans : D

Q10.Which of the following is a derived unit?
(A) Mass
(B) Length
(C)Time
(D)Velocity
Ans : D

Q11.Atomic bomb is based on the principle of
(A) Nuclear Fission
(B) Nuclear Fusion
(C) Nuclear Transition
Ans: A

Q12.A weightless rubber balloon has 100gm of water in it. Its weight in water will be
(A) 100gm
(B) 200gm
(C) 50gm
(D) Zero
Ans : D

Q13. If a force ?f? action on a mass ?m? produces acceleration ?a? then as per Newton?s second law of motion :
(A) f = ma
(B) f = a/m
(C) f = m/a
(D) m = af
Ans : A

Q14. The alternating current in LCR circuit is maximum when
(A) XL =0
(B) XC=0
(C) XL = XC
(D) XL
Ans : C

Q15.The efficiency of a Cornot engine working between the steam point and ice point is
(A) 28.8 %
(B) 27.8 %
(C) 26.8 %
(D) 23.8 %
Ans : C

Q16. Railway tracks are banked on curves so that
(A) No frictional force may be produced between the tracks and wheels
(B) The train may not fall down inward
(C) Necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the horizontal component of normal reaction due to the track
(D) None of the above
Ans : C

Q17. The electromagnetic waves used in the telecommunication are_____.
(A) Ultraviolet
(B) Infra-red
(C) Visible
(D) Microwave
Ans : D

Q18. The momentum of a boy of 60 Kg weight running at 10 m/s is
(A) 500 Kg m/s
(B) 600 Kg m/s
(C) 550 Kg m/s
(D) 450 Kg m/s
Ans : B

Q19. When an aero plane is making a loop, pilot does not fall down because his weight provides the necessary
(A) Force against gravity
(B) Centripetal force
(C) Centrifugal force
(D) Viscous force
Ans : B

Q20. A net force of 350 N acts on a body of mass 70 Kg which is initially at rest. Its acceleration is ______ m/s2.
(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : C

Q21. Two sources of sound are said to be in resonance, when
(A) They look like similar
(B) They produce sound of same frequency
(C) They are situated at a particular distance from each other
(D) They are produced by same source
Ans : B

Q22.Acceleration due to gravity decreases as we go up from the surface of the earth. Then in going below the surface of the earth it
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
(D) Decreases then increases
Ans : B

Q23. Ozone layer above earth?s atmosphere will
(A) Prevent infra-red radiation from sun
(B) Infra-red rays reflected from earth from escaping earth?s atmosphere
(C) Prevent ultraviolet rays from sun