HPSC Solved Question Paper

HPSC Solved Question Paper

1. The Mountbatten Plan (June 3, 1947) was about:
a) Guidelines for the formation of a Constitution for India by the Constituent Assembly
b) Creation of fedral government
c) A plan for controlling communal riots raising all over India at the same time
d) The method by which power was to be transferred from British to Indian hands

2. The first Muslim to be elected as President of the Indian National Congress was :
a) M A Jinnah
b) Maulana Azad
c) Baddrudin Tyabji
d) Whooping cough

3. The Non-Cooperation Movement was adopted by the Congress at a Special Session held at ________ in September 1920.
a) Bombay
b) Calcutta
c) Wardha
d) Allahabad

4. The Non-Cooperation Movement was called off by Mahatma Gandhi because :
a) of Gandhi-Irwin Pact
b) of mob-violence at Chauri-Chaura
c) the Khilafat issue fizzled out with abolition of the office of the Caliph in Turkey
d) the government accepted the demand in tow

5. Which of the following Fundamental Rights have been deleted from the Constitution through the Constitutional Amendment?
a) Right against expolitation
b) Right of freedom of religion
c) Right of property
d) Freedom of speech and expression

6. How many Fundamental Rights are enjoyed by the Indians?
a) Nine
b) Ten
c) Seven
d) Six

7. The basic difference between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is:
a) Fundamental Rights are Positive while Directive Principles are Negative
b) Directive Principles are given precedence over the Fundamental Rights by the Court in all the cases
c) Fundamental Rights are justifiable while Directive Principles are not
d) None of the above

8. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India has been described as the friend, philosopher and guide of :
a) the Estimate Committee
b) the committee of the public Undertaking
c) the Public Account Committee
d) all the Parliamentary committees

9. Part -V of the Constitution deals with
a) Union executives
b) Parliamnet
c) Supreme Court and High Court
d) Comptroller and Auditor General

10. If there is a vacancy in the offices of both President and Vice-President, who has been empowered to function as President:
a) Chief Justice of India
b) Chief of Army Staff
c) A person appointed by Parliament
d) None of these

11. If president returns the bill to the legislature for reconsideration
a) a re-passage of the bill by the two-thirds majority will compel him to give his assent
b) a re-passage of the bill by the simple majority will compel him to give his assent
c) a joint sitting will have to be called to pass it again
d) the legislature must accept amendments proposed by the President

12. To whom does the President address the letter of resignation?
a) the Prime Minister
b) the Vice President
c) the Speaker
d) the Chief justice

13. Two houses of the Parliament enjoy co-equal power in all spheres except:
1. Financial matters
2. Responsibilities of the Council of Ministers
3. Amendment Procedure
4. Election of President

a) 3 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2

14. Impeachment proceedings against the President of Indian can be initiated
a) by the Supreme Court
b) only in the Lok Sabha
c) in either House of the Parliament
d) only in the joint sitting of the two Houses

15. Gulf Stream the most important current of the Atlantic Ocean takes its birth from the Gulf of Mexico. Its importance lies in :
a) Cooling effect
b) Warming effect
c) Area of influence
d) Influence on travel

16. Which of the following sub-races belong to Mongoloids?
a) Bantu
b) Eskimoid
c) Nordic
d) Alpine

17. Consider the following statements:
1. The Masai is a tribe of settled cultivators who once wondered with their herds with the cattle in the central highlands of East Africa.
2. The cattle kept by the Masaiare the ?Zebu? cattle with the humps and long horns

Which of the statement is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Neither 1 or 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 2

18. Which of the following are not the Pastoral Nomads?
a) Pygmies
b) Kazaks
c) Masai
d) Lapps

19. The world?s most commercial fishing grounds are located in:
a) Cool waters of the Northern Hemisphere in comparatively higher latitudes
b) Cool waters of the Northern Hemisphere in comparatively lower latitudes
c) Both above mentioned areas
d) A widespread area near the Poles

20. Which of the following used to be considered a buffer state?
a) France
b) Switzerland
c) Belgium
d) West Germany

21. The Australian trans-continental railway joins
a) Perth to Darwin
b) Hobart to Perth
c) Sydney to Perth
d) Adelaide to Perth

22. When did the EEC( European Economic Community) change into EU(European Union)
a) 1992
b) 1995
c) 1996
d) 1991

23. Territorial waters of India extends up to
a) 5 Nautical Miles
b) 12 Nautical Miles
c) 15 Nautical Miles
d) 2 Nautical Miles

24. Which of the following river lies in the Rift Valley?
a) Luni
b) Chambal
c) Son
d) Tapti

25. Khaddar soils are found in:
a) Piedmont Plains
b) Flood Plains
c) Over low Palteaux
d) Over Steep Slopes
HPSC Placement Paper

HPSC Solved Exam Paper

1. Which of the following statement is NOT true for soap?
a) Soaps are bio-degradbale
b) Soaps cannot be used in acidic medium
c) Soaps form a white curdy precipitate with hard water
d) Soaps are relatively stronger in their cleaning action than synthetic detergents

2. Which one is a viral disease:
a) Cholera
b) Typhoid
c) Rabbies
d) Whooping cough

3. Rubella virus cause:
a) Chicken pox
b) Measles
c) Small pox
d) Mumps

4. I?m tired. I?d rather __________ out this evening, if you don?t mind.
a) don?t go
b) not go
c) not going
d) not to go

5. Anthropologists are of the view that Haryana was known by his name because in Post-Mahabharta period lived:
a) Abhiras
b) Aryans
c) Haryanvis
d) None of the above

6. According to Delhi Museum Hariana ?the Heaven on the Earth? dates back to:
a) 1126 AD
b) 1328 AD
c) 1500 AD
d) 1750 AD

7. Haryana state was formed on 1 November 1966 on recommendation of:
a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
b) Indira Gandhi
c) Sardar Hukam Singh
d) Sir Chottu Ram

8. Haryana is a landlocked state lies between:
a) 28 Degree 37 Minutes to 31 Degree 35 Minutes North
b) 24 Degree 26 Minutes to 27 Degree 28 Minutes North
c) 29 Degree 20 Minutes to 31 Degree 30 Minutes North
d) 27 Degree 37 Minutes to 30 Degree 35 Minutes North

9. Population density according to 2011 census is
a) 1002 people/per sqkm
b) 642 people/per sqkm
c) 573 people/per sqkm
d) 945 people/per sqkm

10. Haryana has
a) 5682 villages
b) 6759 villages
c) 4890 villages
d) None of the above

11. How many divisions the state is divided for Administrative purpose?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 4
d) None

12. Which of the District is not part of the Gurgaon Division?
a) Faridabad
b) Palwal
c) Hisar
d) Rewari

13. Haryana Board of School Education established in Sept. 1969 and shifted in 1981 to
a) Sonepat
b) Chandigarh
c) Bhiwani
d) Rohtak

14. Haryana has adopted New Sports Policy on:
a) 15th August 2008
b) 21st August 2009
c) 26th january 2009
d) 2nd October 2008

15. KMP stands for
a) Kurukshetra ? Manesar ? Panipat Expressway
b) Kundli ? Manesar ? Palwal Expressway
c) Kurukshetra ? Manesar ? Pautodi Expressway
d) Kurukshetra ? Mahendragarh ? Panipat Expressway

16. Haryana Industrial and Investment Policy ? 2011 became effective in:
a) 1-1-2011
b) 26-1-2011
c) 15-8-2011
d) None of the above

17. Haryana Special Economic Zones Act came in existence in:
a) 2006
b) 2008
c) 2009
d) None of the above

18. Literacy rate (%) in Haryana is:
a) 70.75 percent
b) 68.60 percent
c) 62.50 percent
d) 58.25 percent

19. Arrange the sectoral growth in Haryana
a) Service ? Agriculture ? Industry
b) Industry ? Service ? Agriculture
c) Agriculture ? Industry ? Service
d) Service ? Industry ? Agriculture

20. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has been extended in the entire Haryana from:
a) 1st January 2008
b) 1st July 2009
c) 1st January 2010
d) None of the above

21. Average Yield per hectare of Wheat and Rice during 2010-11 in Haryana is estimated at:
a) 4560kg for Wheat and 2750 kg for rice
b) 4500kg for Wheat and 2700 kg for rice
c) 4250kg for Wheat and 2750 kg for rice
d) None of the above

22. Haryana State Annual Plan for 2011-12 approved by Planning Commision, Govt. of India is:
a) Rs. 20158 Crore
b) Rs. 20258 Crore
c) Rs. 20358 Crore
d) Rs. 20458 Crore

23. Which buffalo is called as Black Gold in Haryana?
a) Bhadavari
b) Niti-Ravi
c) Mehsana
d) Murrah

24. The Haryana Special Economic Zone came in the year
a) 2005
b) 2006
c) 2007
d) 2008

25. The Haryana Government?s Land Acquisation Policy,
a) has decided to double, even higher in some areas, the minimum floor rate (MFR) payable for acquisition of land
b) increase both the annuity amount payable over 33 years as well as its incremental annual hike and give bigger-size plots in case one?s residential property is acquired
c) the affected farmers would alsobe offered Government jobs, industrial and commercial plots
d) All the above\

HPSC Placement Paper

HPSC Previous Year Paper

1. Barents Sea in the Arctic Ocean has been controversial over the maritime boundary for 40 years between which of the following two countries? The issue was resolved recently.
a) Russia and Norway
b) Norway and Finland
c) Finland and Russia
d) Russia and Denmark

2. Navanentham Pillay, a South African national of India origin was the first non-white women of the High Court of South Africa. What is her current profession?
a) Judge of the International Criminal Court
b) International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
c) United Nation High Commissioner for Human Rights
d) United Nation High Commissioner for Refugees

3. Consider the following statement:
1. India and Japan agreed to a ?sweeping? liberalization of their bilateral tax regime during PM Manmohan Singh visit to Tokyo on 27th October 2010
2. This is the first in releasing the Indo-Japanese comprehensive Economic partnership Agreement

Which of the above statement are true?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above

4. Consider the following statements about the Ayodhya verdict:
1. 60 years the matter first went in to Litigation Luknow Bench of the High Court of Allahabad ruled in majority judgement on 30th September 2010
2. Disputed sites to be divided into three equal parts: one part goes to Suni Wakf Board, one to Nirmohi in Akhara and one part representing ?Ramlalla Virajman?
3. Status quo to be maintained at disputed sites for three month
4. The bench which deleivered the much awaited verdict consisted of Justice Dharam Vir Sharma, Justice S U Khan and Justice Sudhir Agarwal

Which of the above statement are true?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Only 3
d) All the above

5. Parliament has passed SBI (Amendment) Bill 2010 which changes the minimum level of share of the government in SBI?s equity
a) from 51% to 55%
b) from 55% to 51%
c) from 74% to 51%
d) from 55% to 49%

6. The Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Sonia Gandhi have launched the Adhar Project under Unique Identification Authority of India at tembli in Nandurbar District. Nandurbar is in which of the following states?
a) Gujarat
b) Maharashtra
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Tamilnadu

7. Recently UNO celebrated its 65th Anniversary on date:
a) 20th Oct 2010
b) 24th Oct 2010
c) 29th Oct 2010
d) 27th Oct 2010

8. The governement has recently announced a Rs.1052 crore incentive package for critical export sectors including
1. Textile
2. Handicraft
3. Leather

Choose the correct answer from the below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

9. Who will be heading the National Inovation Council which will give shape to the government?s decision to observe the current decades ( 2000 ? 2020 ) as the decade of the innovation?
a) M S Swaminathan
b) C Rangarajan
c) Narayanamurthy
d) Sam Pitroda

10. Who among the following has been honoured the United Nation?s Millennium Development Goals Award for 2010 for their work in using innovative approaches for poverty and hunger alleviation?
a) BRIC
b) WHO
c) IBSA
d) G-20

11. Harappan people had a common burial system which is proved by:
a) The earth burial head of the dead normally laid towards the north
b) The burial of commonly used items with the dead
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) The burial of the dead body in the sitting posture

12. In Vedic Period, the people called panis, were:
a) Those who controlled trade
b) Cattle-breeders
c) Cowherds
d) Ploughmen

13. In the Vedic Age:
a) Polygamy was unknown
b) Child marriage became prominent
c) Widow could remarry
d) Hypergamy was allowed

14. Bring the correct statement regarding the first Buddhist Council:
1. Ananda and Upali laid down the Sutta Pataka and Vinaya Pitaka respectively
2. Its proceedings were conducted in Sanskrit
3. It was held during the life time of Buddha
4. Its main purpose was to maintain the purity of Buddha?s teachings

a) 1 and 4
b) All of them
c) 1 and 2
d) 2, 3 and 4

15. The sacred books of Jains are called:
a) Agama Sidhanta
b) Angas
c) Parvas
d) Upangas

16. Who founded the Lingayat Movement?
a) Basava
b) Ramanuja
c) Shankracharya
d) Kamban

17. What was Abwab?
a) Toll tax
b) religion tax such as Zakat
c) Tax on merchandise and custom duties
d) Miscellaneous kinds of taxes like the house tax, grazing tax, irrigation tax etc.

18. The term used for measurement of land in the Delgi Sutanate Period was:
a) Kismat-i-ghalla
b) Ghalla-bakshi
c) Masahat
d) Ghazi

19. The earlier Vaishnava Bhakti saints from the South were:
a) Alvars
b) Nayanars
c) Bhagavats
d) Virshaivites

20. Identify the Vijayanagar coin which were in the circulation and were the most widely recognized currency all over:
a) Dinnar
b) Huna
c) Panam
d) Pagoda

21. Akbar did not construct:
a) Purana Quila
b) Agra Fort
c) Allahabad Fort
d) Lahore Fort

22. The main programme of the Red Sirts (Khudai Khidmatgars of Servants of God) organized by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement was
a) To proceed on the lines of terrorist and revolutionary activities
b) To propagate the Congress programme
c) To resist the military operations of the government in the north-western frontier portion
d) To setup an para-military organization

23. The result of the Poona Pact was that the number of the seats reserved for the depressed classes out of general electorate seats were:
a) Abolished
b) Increased
c) Retained in the same level
d) Decreased

24. Cripps proposal were rejected because:
a) It refused to release all the arrested national leaders
b) of the intention to partition India
c) It suggested the formation of an interim government
d) it refused to hand over effective power to the Indians

25. Who presided over the Cabinet Mission?
a) Clement Attlee
b) Sir P Lawrence
c) Strafford Cripps
d) A V Alexander

HPSC Sample papers

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy as embodied in Chapter IV of the Constitution were derived by us from:-
a. The Constitution of Ireland
b. The Constitution of U.S.S.R.
c. The Constitution of Switzerland
d. The Gandhian Constitution for Free India

2. State which of the following statements is correct:
a. Preamble is not part of the Constitution
b. Preamble is part of the Constitution and relates to its basic structure.
c. Preamble is not part of the Constitution but a sort of introduction to the Constitution.
d. Preamble is like a prologue to the Constitution

3. State which of the following statements is correct:-
a. The American doctrine of waiver of fundamental rights is part of the Indian Constitution. .
b. No person can waive his fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution as they are sacrosanct and no individual can tinker with them.
c. A non-citizen can waive his fundamental rights.
d. A citizen can waive his fundamental rights which are for his individual benefit.

4. The right to equality means that no person is above law. To this rule, certain exceptions are recognized. State which of the following come under the exception:
a. President of India
b. Ambassador of USA.
c..Judges of the High Courts.
d. All the above

5. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities?
a. Mandamus
b. Habeas Corpus
c. Certiorari
d. Quo Warranto

6. State which of the following statements is incorrect:
a. A writ can be issued against the High Court.
b. Government of India and State Governments.
c. Any authority under the power and control of the Government of India.
d. Parliament or a State Legislature.

7. The Directive Principles are:-
a. justiciable the same way as the fundamental rights.
b. justiciable though not the same way as the fundamental rights.
c. decorative portions of the Indian Constitution.
d. not justiciable, yet fundamental in the governance of the country

8.Which coin out of the following has been withdrawn by RBI in 2011:
a. 20Paisa
b. 10 paisa
c. 25Paisa
d. 5 paisa

9. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister in the Council of Minister should not exceed:-
a. 20%of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
b. 15%of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
c. 20%of the total number of members of Rajya Sabha.
d. 15%of the total number of members of both the Houses.

10. Whohas been conferred with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in the year 2011.
a. Abhinav Bindra
b. Gagan Narang
c. Kapil Dev
d. Sachin Tendulkar

11. Vast powers and functions vested in the Indian President make him:
a. Almosta dictator
b.A benevolent ruler
c. Real head of the Government
d.A nominal Constitution Head

12. Only that person can be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court who is a citizen of Indiaand:
a. judge of the High Court for at least five years.
b. advocate of the Supreme Court for at least 10 years? standing.
c. judge of the High Court for at least ten years.
d. advocate of the High Court for at least fifteen years.

13. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the State Government:-
a. Cannot legislate.
b. Can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List.
c. Can legislate on the subject in the State List.
d. Is suspended.

14. ?What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly?. This statement epitomises the doctrine of:-
a. Pith and substance.
b. Implied powers.
c. Ancillary powers
d. Colourable legislation.

15. Residuary powers are vested in:
a. executive
b. judiciary
c. parliament
d. state legislatures

16. Who said that the Supreme Court in India has the highest powers which no other court in the world possess?
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Jawahar Lal Nehru
c. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
d. Alladi Krishna Swamy Iyyer

17. The Constitution of India is:-
a. Highly federal
c. Neither federal nor unitary
b. Highly unitary
d. Partly federal and partly unitary

18. Who amongst the following is not a ?public officer? within the meaning of Section 2 (17) of CPC.
a. a Judge
b. a person in service under the pay of Government
c. sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat
d. all of the above

19. Give response to the statement Equality before law under Article 14 of the Constitution is with reference to
a. laws enacted by legislature
b. orders passed by the executive
c. notifications issued by the Government only
d. laws enacted by legislature, executive order etc.

20. A change of nature of obligation of a contract is known as
a. repudiation
b. rescission
c. alteration
d. none of the above

21.1ndira Swahney V. Union of India is a case popularly known as:
a. Ayodhya judgment
b. Mandai judgment
c. Suicide judgment
d. Election Commission judgment

22.The Advisory opinion tendered by the Supreme Court:
a. is binding on the President
b. is not binding on the President
c. is binding on the President only if it is unanimously made
d. is not made public at all

23.Among the following States, which one sends the highest number of members to Lok Sabha?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Bihar
c. Kamataka
d. Madhya Pradesh

24. A contract, which is formed without the free consent of the parties, is
a. void ab initio
b. void
c. illegal
d. void ableat the instance of the party whose consent was not free.

25. Which of the following legal pleas need not be pleaded
a. estoppel
b. limitation
c. res-judicata
d. none of the above

26. At present the Vice President of India is:-
a. Meera Kumari
b. Bhairon SinghShekhawat
c. Dr.KaranSingh
d. A.H.Ansari

27. Thesmallestmilitary outfit is called a
a. Division
b. Brigade
c. Section
d. Platoon

28. India?s largest and most sophisticated indigenously built warship which was commissioned in 1994-95 is:
a. INS Delhi
b. INS Mysore
c. INS Satpura
d. INS Kulish

29. The Battle of Longewala took place in the year:
a. 1965
b. 1967
c. 1969
d. 1971

30. The National Anthem was first sung at this session of the Indian National Congress in 1911:-
a. Pune
b. Calcutta
c. Lucknow
d. Ahmedabad

31. Goodwill of a partnership business is the property of the partnership
a. under Section14
b.under Section13
c. under Section12
d. underSection11

32. The State with the highest population density in India is:
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. West Bengal
c. Gujarat
d. Maharashtra

33.The Indian State with the highest female sex ratio is:
a. Punjab
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Maharashtra
d. Kerata

34. Thefirst recipient of the Bharat Ratna after it was revived in 1980was:
a. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
b. Mother Teresa
c. M.G.Ramachandran
d. V.V.Giri

35. Compulsory dissolution of a firm has been provided under
a. Section 39 of the Act
b. Section 41 of the Act
c. Section 40 of the Act
d. Section 44 of the Act

36. An act done by a partner on behalf of the firm beyond the implied authority
a. can be ratified expressly
b. can be ratified impliedly by conduct
c. either (a) or (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)

37. After dismissal of a complaint under Section 203, a fresh similar complaint on the same facts
a. is banned
b. is not banned but will be entertained only in exceptional circumstances
c. is not banned and will be entertained in all circumstances
d. either (a) or (c)

38. A new person can be introduced into a firm as a partner under Section 31 of the Act by
a. unanimous consent of all the partners
b. majority consent amongst the partners
c. with the consent of the managing partner
d. none of the above

39. Complaint may relate to:
a. a cognizable offence
b. a non cognizable offence
c. both (a) & (b) are correct
d. must be for a non-cognizable offence as the police has no power to investigate such an offence.

40. If the, person who is competent to compound offence is dead, thecompounding
a. cannot be done
b. can be done by the legal representative of the deceased without the permission of the court
c. can be done by the legal representative of the deceased only with the permission of the court.
d. both (b) & (c)

41. In a bailable offence:
a. conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer
b.conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the court
c. no condition can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer or by the court
d. only mild conditions can be imposed by the court only

42. In case where an inquiry, trial or other proceedings have been conducted in a wrong place:
a. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings shall be void ab initio
b. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings cannot be set aside as void unless it has occasioned in failure of justice
c. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings, cannot be set aside even if it has occasioned in failure of justice
d. either (a) or (c)

43. In computing the period of limitation the time during which
a. the accused avoided arrest by absconding has to be excluded
b. the accused remained absent from India has to be excluded
c. both (a) & (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

44. Irregularities which do not vitiate trial have been stated in
a. Section 460 of Cr.P.C
b. Section 461 of Cr.P.C
c. Section 462 of Cr.P.C
d. Section 466 of Cr.P.C

45. Objection as to the lack of territorial jurisdiction of the criminal court:
a. can be taken before or at the time of commencement of trial
b. can be taken at any time after the commencement of trial
c. can be taken in appeal for the first time
d. all the above.

46. power to recall any witness(es) under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. can be exercised:
a. even after the evidence of both the sides is closed
b. after the evidence of the prosecution is closed, but before the evidence of defence is closed
c. before the evidence of the prosecution is closed, if the witness is to be calledon the motion of the prosecution
d. after the evidence of the prosecution is closed if the witness is called on themotion of the defence

47. Words ?competent jurisdiction? under Section 39 of CPC refers to
a. pecuniary jurisdiction of transferee court
b. territorial jurisdiction of the transferee court
c. pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction of the transferee court
d. none of the above

48. Section 428 Cr.P.C provides for concession to the effect that period of detention undergone by accused be set off
a. against the substantive periodof imprisonment awarded;
b. against the periodof imprisonment in default of payment offine.
c. (a) & (b) above. .
d. none of the above.

49. Under Section 167 of Cr.P.C, the Magistrate can authorise detention for a total period of 90 days during investigation, in cases of offences punishable
a. with death
b.with imprisonment for life
c. with imprisonment for a term not less than 10 years
d. all the above

50. Under Section 216 of Cr.P.C, the Court has the power to:
a. add to the charge(s) already framed
b. alter the charge(s) already framed
c. neither to alter nor to add to the charge already framed
d. add to and alter the charge both

51. Under Order VI, Rule 17 of CPC, an application for amendment of pleadingscan be allowed .
a. before the commencement of trial
b. after the commencement of trial
c. either before or after the commencement of trial
d. none of the above

52. Under .Section 315 of Cr.PC
a. an accused cannot be a witness
b. an accused can be compelled to give his own evidence generally
c. an accused can be called as a witness only on his own request in writing
d. either (a) or (b)

53. Under Section 439 of Cr.PC, the jurisdiction to cancel the bail vests with:
a. The Court of Sessions
b. The High Court
c. The Court of Magistrate
d. Only(a) &(b)

54. With reference to Crime response the following:
a. it is a state wrong
b. it is a civilwrong
c. it is a private wrong
d. none of the above

55. Actus reus includes:
a. positive (intentional doing) as well as negative (intentional non-doing. ie.omission) acts.
b. only positive acts.
c. external (bodily) as well as internal (mind) acts
d. both (a) and (c)

56. Section 34 of IPC
a. creates a substantive offence
b. is a rule of evidence
c. both (a) and (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)

57. Preparation and attempt are two stages of commission of crime. Preparation isnot punishable generally but attempt is. One basic reason as to why preparation is not punishable is that there:
a. is no nexus between preparation and attempt.
b. can be chances of change of mind before commission of offence
c. is absence of intention.
d. is absence of attempt.

58. Illegal signifies:
a. everything which is an offence
b. everything which is prohibited by law
c. everything which furnishes ground for civil action
d. all the above

59. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code:
a. three
b. six
c. five
d. four

60. Second appeal under Section 100 of CPC lies
a. on question off acts
b. on substantial questions of law
c. on mixed question of law & fact
d. none ofthe above
HPSC Question-Paper
HPSC Previous Year Solved Question Paper

1. During which decade did the population record a negative growth rate in India
a) 1921-31
b) 1911-21
c) 1941-51
d) 1931-41

2. Which Central Government Agency is responsible for the mapping and exploration of minerals?
a) The Geological Survey of India
b) Surveyor General of India
c) National Mineral Development Corporation Ltd.
d) Indian Bureau of Mines

3. What is Gomia in Bihar famous for:
a) Coal Fields
b) Manganese Mines
c) Fertilizer Plant
d) Explosive Factory

4. SEBI is a
a) Statutory body
b) Advisory body
c) Constitutional body
d) Non-statutory body

5. Economic Planning is in :
a) Union List
b) State List
c) Concurrent List
d) Not any specific list

6. Lahiri Commission was associated with
a) Indsutrial sickness
b) Minimum support prices of agriculture products
c) Price structure of edible oils
d) Handicraft export

7. ?Open Market Operation? is a part of
a) Income Policy
b) Fiscal Policy
c) Credit Policy
d) Labour Policy

8. Which of the following is used for the measurement of distribution of income?
a) Laffer Cureve
b) Engel?s Law
c) Gini Lorenz Curve
d) Phillip Curve

9. Automatic route to FDI implies that a foreign investor bring in his capital
1. Without the approval of the FIPB
2. By informing the RBI within one month of bringing in his investments
3. By informing both the FIPB and RBI within one month of bringing in his/her investment
4. By prior permission of the RBI

Select the correct answer from the above
a) 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3 4

10. In the context of the Indian Economy consider the following pairs:
Term Most appropriate description
1. Melt Down ? Fall in Stock Prices
2. Recession ? Fall in Growth Rate
3. Slow Down ? Fall in GDP

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

11. In India which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Comission?
a) Currency future trading
b) Commodities future trading
c) Equity futures trading
d) Both Commodities futures and financial futures trading

12. Union Government has announced New Agriculture Policy in July 28, 2000. New Agriculturre
Policy has been described as ?Rainbow Revolution? which includes :
a) Green (Food Grain Production)
b) Yellow (Oil Seeds)
c) Blue (Fisheries)
d) It would cover all aspects of the farm sector

13. Sensitive sector as defined by RBI includes:
a) Capital market
b) Real Estate
c) Commodities
d) All the above

14. The RBI is the apex body of Indian Financial System, which of the following functions are performed by the RBI?
1. Monitoring money supply in the Economy
2. Issues currency other than coins and one Rupees note.
3. Functions as Bankers Bank
4. Works as banker to the Government

Select the Code:
a) 1 & 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
c) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
d) All of above are correct

15. Aam Admi Bima Yojana is an insurance scheme for rural landless household introduced by:
a) National Insurance
b) Life Insurance Co.
c) UTI
d) ICICI Life Prudential Co.

16. In India those farmers are called ?Marginal Farmers? who hold land upto:
a) 1 hectare
b) 2 hectare
c) 3 hectare
d) 4 hectare

17. Which one of the following is a measurement of central tendency?
a) Median
b) Standard Deviation
c) Mean Deviation
d) Variance

18. Which one of the following is NOT a measurement of location?
a) Median
b) Mode
c) Range
d) Mean

19. Combustion of a candle is
a) Physical change
b) Reduction reaction
c) Endothermic reaction
d) Exothermic reaction

20. Pure water is obtained from the sea water by :
a) Filteration
b) Distillation
c) Evaporation
d) All the above

21. The method that cannot be used for removing permanent hardness of water is:
a) Adding Sodium Carbonate
b) Disitillation
c) Adding caustic soda
d) Boiling

22. Heavy Water :
a) Contains more dissolved air
b) Contains more dissolved minerals
c) Contains deuterium in place of hydrogen
d) Contains organic impurities

23. ?Fixation of Nitrogen? implies
a) The liquification of nitrogen
b) The conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into usefull compounds
c) The conversion of nitrogen into amines
d) The solidification of nitrogen gas into the atmosphere

24. The pH value of the solution obtained by complete neutralization of hydrochloric and sodium hydroxide solution will be :
a) Exactly 7
b) Zero
c) More than 7
d) Less than 7

25. Coloured glasses for goggles contain:
a) Ferrous oxide
b) Lanthanide oxide
c) Nickel oxide
d) Ferric oxide
Jharkhand PSC Previous Exam Paper

1. 20% of total volume of blood is stored up in the :
(A) Liver
(B) Heart
(C) Lungs
(D) Spleen

2. Indian sovereignty in sea extends upto ………………. nautical miles.
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14

3. What is the name of the highest summit of Nilgiri Hills ?
(A) Coonoor-betta
(B) Anaimudi
(C) Doda-betta
(D) Vellangiri

4. Miss India Australia …………………….. has clinched the title of Miss India Worldwide 2011.
(A) Ankita Cheryl
(B) Anuradha Devika Priya
(C) Natasha Arora
(D) Ankita Bali

5. Soil can best be conserved on the hills by which of the cultivating methods ?
(A) Strip cropping
(B) Crop rotation
(C) Contour ploughing
(D) Terracing

6. Which Article of the Constitution of India confers special status to the state of J & K ?
(A) 370
(B) 326
(C) 368
(D) 372

7. B.S. Gopinath who passed away recently was a famous _________ .
(A) Golfer
(B) Politician
(C) Footballer
(D) Cricketer

8. In which one ?of the following five year plans the actual growth performance in India in respect of GDP (at factor cost) was less than the target set ?
(A) Sixth five year plan
(B) Seventh five year plan
(C) Eighth five year plan
(D) Ninth five year plan

9. ………….. is the ex-officio chairman of Planning Commission Development Council.
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Commerce Minister

10. The functions of the Reserve Bank of India are :
1. issuing all notes and coins
2. distributing all notes and coins
3. formulating monetary policy
4. acting as agent of Government in respect of India?s membership of the IMF
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

11. The Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) is an, extension of :
(A) Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
(B) National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
(C) Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
(D) Minimum Needs Programme (MNP)

12. Swarn Jayanti Gram Seva-Rozgar Yojna came into being in :
(A) April 1995
(B) April 1997
(C) April 1999
(D) July 2001

13. Which Committee?s recommendations are being followed for estimating Poverty Line in India ?
(A) Dutt Committee
(B) Cheiliah Committee
(C) Chakravorty Committee
(D) Lakdawala Committee

14. Hard Currency is defined as currency :
(A) which can hardly be used for international transactions
(B) which is used in times of war
(C) which losses its value very fast
(D) traded in foreign exchange market for which demand is persistently relative to the supply

15. Ten rupee notes bear the signature of :
(A) President
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Secretary,Ministry of Finance
(D) Governor,Reserve Bank of India

16. Monetary policy is regulated by :
(A) money lenders
(B) Central Bank
(C) Private entrepreneurs
(D) Government policy

17. Black money is :
(A) counterfeit currency
(B) illegally earned money
(C) money earned through underhand deals
(D) income on which payment of tax is usually evaded

18. The number of Banks nationalised since 1969 is :
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 19

19. Railway Budget in India was separated from general budget in :
(A) 1924-25
(B) 1941-42
(C) 1947-48
(D) 1950-51

20. VAT is alternate of :
(A) state tax
(B) central tax
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)

21. ?Sunrise Industries? are industries :
(A) which are well-developed and have ample scope for further development
(B) which improve export performance of the country
(C) which are small-scale industries
(D) which have high growth potential and meet further requirements of the economy

22. With reference to ?Union Government, which one of the following undertake the country-wide Economic Census ?
(A) Department of Expenditure
(B) The National Sample Survey Organization
(C) Planning Commission
(D) The Central Statistical Organization

23. World Bank is a body :
(A) of non-official, generous individuals
(B) that controls world wide foreign exchange operations
(C) of major banks operating in different countries
(D) that gives aid to developing countries

24. What is Green Gold ?
(A) Tea
(B) Coffee
(C) Gold
(D) Rice

25. In India the co-operative movement was initiated in the sector of :
(A) farming
(B) consumer goods production
(C) agricultural credit
(D) marketing of agricultural products

26. Nuclear fission is caused by the impact of :
(A) proton
(B) electron
(C) neutron
(D) none of these

27. Which of the following is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors ?
(A) Heavy water
(B) Cadmium
(C) Liquid sodium
(D) Graphite

28. What is the title of A.P.J. Abdul Kalam?s autobiography ?
(A) Me and Missile
(B) My Memories
(C) Sky is the Limit
(D) Wings of Fire

29. Optic fibres are mainly used for which of the following ?
(A) Communication
(B) Weaving
(C) Musical instruments
(D) Food industry

30. A lighted candle gets extinguished when-covered with a tumbler because of :
(A) adequate supply of air
(B) inadequate supply of air
(C) presence of non-luminous matter
(D) none of the above

 

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