CISF Placement Paper

1. The temperatures in degree Fahrenheit at 4: 00 p.m. for a one-week period in a certaincity are 47, 68, 58, 73, 42, 43, 68. How many days are of greater temperature than mean temperature ?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

2. ‘X’ eats 1/3 of an apple. His friend ‘Y’ eats 3/4 of the remaining apple. What part of the apple is left behind ?
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/6

3. If the product of four consecutive integers is equal to one of the integers, then what is the largest possible value of one of the integers ?
(a) – 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) None of the above

4. What. is ‘X’ in the sequence 7, 13, 24, 45, X,167 ?
(a) 66
(b) 73
(c) 86
(d) 98

5. Out of 320 students,200 students take tea and 80 students take coffee only. The number of students who take both tea and coffee is equal to the number of students who thke neither tea nor coffee. What is the number of students who take both tea and coffee ?
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) None of the above

6. How many pairs containing a man and a woman can be formed out of 5 men and 5 women ?
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 20
(d) 10

7. Consider the following analogy :If `Spoon’ is to `Fork’, then `Spade’ is to
(a) Basket
(b) Scissors
(c) Hoe
(d) Sickle

8. A bell rings every 18 seconds. A second bell rings every 24 seconds and a third bell rings every 32 seconds. If all the three bells ring at the same time at 8 o’clock in the morning, at what other time will they all ring together ?
(a) 12: 40 hrs
(b) 12: 48 hrs
(c) 12 :56 hrs
(d) 13: 04 hrs

9. In a row ‘A’ is in the 11th position from the left and ‘B’ is in the 10th position from the right. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ interchange, then ‘A’ becomes 18th from the left. How many persons are there in the row other than ‘A’ and ‘B’ ?
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28

Direction : For the next four (10-13) items that follow :
There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F.
A has 3 items more than C.
D has 4 items less than B.
E has 6 items less than F.
C has 2 items more than E.
F has 3 items more than D

10. Which one of the following cannot be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the six persons ?
(a) 41
(b) 47
(c) 53
(d) 58

11. Consider the following statements :
1. The total number of items possessed by both A and E is equal to the total number of items possessed by both C and D.
2. The total number of items possessed by both A and C is equal to the total number of items possessed by both B and E.Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. The difference in the number of items possessed by a pair of persons is 1. How many such pairs of persons are possible ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) None of the above

13. Consider the following statements :
1. The total number of items possessed by B and D together is twice the number of items possessed by A.
2. The total number of items possessed by E and F together is twice the number of items possessed by D.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. What is the time taken by a 240 m long train running at 80 km/hr to cross a bridge 160 m long ?
(a) 12 s
(b) 18 s
(c) 30 s
(d) 60 s

15. A sum of money doubles itself at a compound interest in 12 years. The number of years it will take to become eight times is
(a) 24
(b) 36
(c) 42
(d) 48

16. Consider the following
P is shorter than Q but taller than R.
S is shorter than P but taller than R.
T-is shorter than Q but taller than P.
Who is the shortest person ?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

17. A number consists of 3 digits whose sum is 10. The middle number is equal to the sum of the other two digits. The number will be increased by 99 if its digits are reversed.What is the number ?
(a) 370
(b) 253
(c) 406
(d) 442

18. How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with2?
(a) 109
(b) 110
(c) 111
(d) None of the above

19. A person who lives exclusively on milk, egg and bread is likely to become a victim of
(a) Rickets
(b) Scurvy
(c) Beri-Beri
(d) None of the above

20. In SONAR, which one of the following waves is used ?
(a) Ultrasonic waves
(b) Infrasonic waves
(c) Radio waves
(d) Micro waves

21. The duration of day is the highest on
(a) Earth
(b) Mercury
(c) Venus
(d) Mars

22. When we see an object, the image formed on the retina of our eye is
(a) real and erect
(b) virtual and erect
(c) real and inverted
(d) virtual and inverted

23. The gas usually filled in the electric bulb is
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Argon

24. The harmful ozone in the troposphere is associated with
(a) smog formed in cities
(b) smoke of forest fire
(c) late night fog
(d) marshy land

25. Mixed fertilizers are those that contain
(a) urea
(b) ammonium sulphate
(c) calcium dihydrogen phosphate
(d) sodium nitrate

26. Which one of the following is not an element ?
(a) Gold
(b) Brass
(c) Copper
(d) Tin

27. Which one of the following is a `true fruit’ ?
(a) Apple
(b) Pear
(c) Banana
(d) Fig

28. In which one,among the following languages was the ancient Sangam literature composed ?
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Prakrit
(c) Pali
(d) Tamil

29. `Neel Darpan’ was authored by
(a) Derozio
(b) Bankim Chandra
(c) Dinabandhu Mitra
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

30. Sido and Kanhu were tribal rebels of
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) Chotanagpur
(d) Rajasthan
Placement Paper
CISF Elementary Mathematics and General intelligence, General awareness questions and answers detailed explanations,CISF previous years solved question papers. CISF free solved sample placement papers, CISF On line mock test for aptitude,reasoning,general awareness questions with answers, timer analytics
CISF aptitude

1. What is the number of ways of arranging, the letters of the word ‘BANANA’ so that no two N’s appear together ?

(a) 40 (Ans)

(b) 60

(c) 80

(d) 100

2. Consider the equation (x – p) (x + 6) + 1 = 0 having integral co efficient. If the equation has integral roots, then what values can P have ?

(a) 4 or 8 (Ans)

(b) 5 or 10

(c) 6 or 12

(d) 3 or 6

3. What is the equivalent binary number of the decimal number 13.625 ?

(a) 1101.111

(b) 1111.101

(c) 1101.101 (Ans)

(d) 1111.111

4. What is the value of (i + v3 / – i + v3)200 + (i – v3 / i + v3)200 + 1 ?

(a) -1

(b) 0 (Ans)

(c) 1

(d) 2

5. The order of a set A is 3 and that of a set B is 2. What is the number of relations from A to B ?

(a) 4

(b) 6

(c) 32

(d) 64 (Ans)

6. What is the value of logvaß(H) / logvaß g(H) ?

(a) logaß (a)

(b) logaßg (aß)

(c) logaß (aß g) (Ans)

(d) logaß (ß)

7. The 59th term of an AP is 449 and the 449th term is 59. Which term is equal to 0 (zero) ?

(a) 501st term

(b) 502nd term

(c) 508th term (Ans)

(d) 509th term

8. For a set A, consider the following statements :

1. A È P (A) = P (A)

2. {A} Ç P (A) = A

3. P (A) – {A} = P (A)

Where P denotes power set. Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only (Ans)

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. If the AM and HM of two numbers are 27 and 12 respectively, the what is their GM equal to ?

(a) 12

(b) 18 (Ans)

(c) 24

(d) 27

10. If A = 1/2 and tan B = 1/3 then what is the value of (A + B) ?

(a) 0

(b) p/4 (Ans)

(c) p/2

(d) p

11. What is ? x4 + 1 / x2 + 1 dx equal to ?

(a) x3 / 3 – x + 4 tan-1 x + c

(b) x3 / 3 + x + 4 tan-1 x + c

(c) x3 / 3 – x + 2 tan-1 x + c (Ans)

(d) x3 / 3 – x – 4 tan-1 x + c

Where is a constant of integration.

12. What is the value of lim (x + 6 / x + 1)x+4 ?
1® ¥

(a) e

(b) e2

(c) e4

(d) e5 (Ans)

13. What is the area of the triangle with vertices (0, 2, 2), (2, 0, -1) and (3, 4, 0) ?

(a) 15/2 square units (Ans)

(b) 15 square units

(c) 7/2 square units

(d) 7 square units

14. If 1/2 – v-2 is one of the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 where, a, b, c are real, then what are the values of a, b, c respectively ?

(a) 6, -4, 1 (Ans)

(b) 4, 6, -1

(c) 3, -2, 1

(d) 6, 4, 1

15. If w is a complex cube root of unity and x = w2 – w – 2 then what is the value of x2 + 4x + 7 ?

(a) -2

(b) -1

(c) 0 (Ans)

(d) 1

16. If cos x ? -1, then what is sinx / 1 + cos x equal to ?

(a) cot x/2

(b) cot x/2

(c) tan x/2 (Ans)

(d) -tan x/2

17. The angle of elevation of the tip of a flag post from a point 5 m away from its base is 750. What is the approximate height of the flag post ?

(a) 15 m

(b) 17 m

(c) 19 m (Ans)

(d) 21 m

18. If A = P {1, 2} where P denotes the power set, then which one of the following is correct ?

(a) {1, 2} Ì A

(b) 1 Î A

(c) f Ï A

(d) {1, 2} Î A (Ans)

19. Let O (0, 0, 0), P(3, 4, 5), Q (m, n, r) and R (1, 1, 1) be the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order. What is the value of m + n + r?

(a) 6

(b) 12

(c) 15 (Ans)

(d) More than 15

20. What is the solution of the differential equation 3ex tan y dx + (1 + ex) sec2 y dy = 0 ?

(a) (1 + ex) tan y = c

(b) (1 + ex)3 tan y = c

(c) (1 + ex)2 tan y = c

(d) (1 + ex) sec2 y = c (Ans)

Where c is a constant of integration

21. What is the locus of points, the difference of whose distance from two points being constant ?

(a) Pair of straight lines

(b) An ellipse

(c) A hyperbola (Ans)

(d) A parabola

22. What is the differential equation for y2 = 4a (x – a) ?

(a) yy’ – 2xyy’ + y2 = 0

(b) yy’ (yy’ + 2x) + y2 = 0

(c) yy’ (yy’ – 2x) + y2 = 0 (Ans)

(d) yy’ – 2xyy’ + y = 0

23. If (4, 0) and (-4, 0) are the foci of ellipse and the semi-minor axis is 3, then the ellipse passes through which one of the following points ?

(a) (2, 0)

(b) (0, 5)

(c) (0, 0)

(d) (5, 0) (Ans)

24. Under what condition do the planes bx – ay = n, cy – bz = l, az – cx = m intersect in a linev ?

(a) a + b + c = 0

(b) a = b = c

(c) al + bm + cn = 0 (Ans)

(d) l + m + n =

25. What is their maximum point on their curve x = exy ?

(a) (1, e)

(b) (1, e-1) (Ans)

(c) (e, 1)

(d) (e-1, 1)

26. The function f (x) = ex, x Î R is

(a) Onto but not one-one

(b) One-one onto

(c) One-one but not onto (Ans)

(d) Neither one-one not onto

27. If y sin-1 (4x / 1 + 4×2) , then what is dy/dx equal to ?

(a) 1/1+ 4×2

(b) 1/1+ 4×2

(c) 4/1+ 4×2 (Ans)

(d) 4x/1+ 4×2

Directions : for the next 3 (three) questions to follow :

The table below gives an incomplete frequency distribution with two missing frequencies f1 and f2.

Value of X Frequency 0 f1 1 f2 2 4 3 4 4 3
The total frequency is 18 and the arithmetic mean of X is 2.

28. What is the value of f2 ?

(a) 4 (Ans)

(b) 3

(c) 2

(d) 1

29. What is the standard deviation ?

(a) v5/2

(b) v5/3

(c) 4/3 (Ans)

(d) 16/9

30. What is the coefficient of variance ?

(a) 200/3 (Ans)

(b) 50v5/9

(c) 600/v5

(d) 150

31. What is the sum of all natural numbers between 200 and 400 which are divisible by 7 ?

(a) 6729

(b) 8712

(c) 8729 (Ans)

(d) 9276

32. The mean and variance of a binomial distribution are 8 and 4 respectively. What is P(X = 1) equal to ?

(a) 1/212 (Ans)

(b) 1/28

(c) 1/26

(d) 1/24

33. What is ?eIn x sin x dx equal to ?

(a) eIn x (sin x – cos x) + c

(b) (sin x – x cos x) + c (Ans)

(c) (x sin x + cos x) + c

(d) (sin x + x cos x) + c

Where c is a constant of integration.

34. An observed event B can occur after one of the three events A1, A2, A3. If P (A1) = P (A2) = 0.4, P(A3) = 0.2 and P(B|A1) = 0.25, P(B|A2) = 0.4, P(B|A3) = 0.125, What is the probability of A1 after observing B ?

(a) 1/3

(b) 6/19

(c) 20/57 (Ans)

(d) 2/5

35. Let X be the set of all graduates in India. Elements x and y in X are said to be related if they are graduates of the same university. Which one of the following statement is correct ?

(a) Relation is symmetric and transitive only

(b) Relation is reflexive and transitive only

(c) Relation is reflexive and symmetric only (Ans)

(d) Relation is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.

36. If x2 + y2 = 1, then what is 1 + x + iy equal to ?
1 + x – iy

(a) x – iy

(b) x + iy

(c) 2x

(d) -2iy

(Ans : )

37. Consider the following statements :

® ® ®
1. for any three vectors a, b, c ;

® ® ® ® ®
a. {(b + a) * (a + b + c)} = 0

2. For any three coplanar unit vectors

® ® ® ® ® ®
d, e, f ; (d * e). f = 1

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(Ans : )

Direction : For the next 3 (three) questions to follow : Consider the following lists : Each item under List I is associated with one or more items under List II.

List I List II

(Function) (Prperty)

(a) sin x 1. Periodic function

(b) cos x 2. None-periodic function

(c) tan x 3. Continuous at every point on (-¥, ¥)

4. Discontinuous function

5. Differentiable at every point on (-¥, ¥)

6. Not differentiable at every point on (-¥, ¥)

7. has period p

8. has period 2p

9. increase on (0, p/2)

10. decrease on (0, p/2)

11. increase on (p/2, p)

12. decrease on (p/2, p)

38. A is associated with

(a) 1, 3, 5, 8, 9, 12 (Ans)

(b) 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 11

(c) 1, 3, 5, 7, 10, 11

(d) None of these

39. B is associated with

(a) 2, 3, 5, 8, 9, 12

(b) 1, 3, 5, 8, 10, 12 (Ans)

(c) 1, 3, 5, 8, 9, 12

(d) None of these

40. C is assciated with

(a) 1, 4, 6, 7, 9, 11 (Ans)

(b) 2, 4, 6, 8, 9

(c) 1, 4, 6, 7, 9

(d) None of these

41. If p and q are positive integers, then which one of the following equations has p – vq as one of its roots ?

(a) x2 – 2px – (p2 – q) = 0

(b) x2 – 2px + (p2 – q) = 0 (Ans)

(c) x2 + 2px – (p2 – q) = 0

(d) x2 + 2px + (p2 – q) = 0

42. Given two squares of sides x and y such that y = x + x2. What is the rate of change of area of the second square with respect to the area of the first square ?

(a) 1 + 3x + 2×2 (Ans)

(b) 1 + 2x + 3×2

(c) 1 – 2x + 3×2

(d) 1 – 2x – 3×2

43. The planes px + 2y + 2z – 3 = 0 and 2x – y + z + 2 = 0 intersect at an angle p/4. What is the value of p2 ?

(a) 24 (Ans)

(b) 12

(c) 6

(d) 3

® ® ® ®
44. If the angle between the vectors a and b is p/3, what is the angle between – 5 a and 6 b ?

(a) p/6

(b) 2p/3 (Ans)

(c) 2p/5

(d) 3p/7

45. What is the degree of the differential equation d2y / dx2 – v1 + (dy/dx)3 = 0 ?

(a) 1 (Ans)

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 6

Where c is a constant of integration.

46. If ?x2/nxdx = x3/m /nx + x3/n + c, then what are the values of m and n respectively ?

(a) 1/3, -1/9

(b) 3, -9 (Ans)

(c) 3, 9

(d) 3, 3

47. What is the principal value of cosec-1 (-v2) ?

(a) p/4

(b) p/2

(c) p/-4 (Ans)

(d) 0

48. If f : R ® R, g : R ® R and g (x) = x + 3 and (fog) (x) = (x + 3)2, then what is the value of f(-3) ?

(a) -9

(b) 0

(c) 9 (Ans)

(d) 3

49. What is the value of lim (x – 1)2 /|x – 1| ?
x ® 1

(a) 0 (Ans)

(b) 1

(c) -1

(d) The limit does not exist

50. A ballon is pumped at the rate of 4 cm3 per second. What is the rate at which its surface area increases when its radius is 4 cm ?

(a) 1 cm2/sec

(b) 2 cm2/sec (Ans)

(c) 3 cm2/sec

(d) 4 cm2/sec

51. What is the value of 1 + tan 150/1 – tan 150 ?

(a) 1

(b) 1/v2

(c) 1/v3

(d) v3 (Ans)

52. If f (x) = kx3 – 9×2 + 9x + 3 is monotonically increasing in every interval, then which one of the following is correct ?

(a) k < 3

(b) k = 3

(c) k > 3

(d) k = 3 (Ans)

CISF General Ability Question Paper
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) 2012 recruitment Exam Question Papers with Answers

Directions—(Q. 1–5) The President of a club is appointing nine officials A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I to serve on three committees to study three different aspects of activities of the club. There will be a Games Committee, a Food Service Committee and an Entertainment Committee. The appointments must respect the following—
>> Each committee must have exactly three members.
>> No person can serve on more than one committee.
>> H must serve on the Entertainment Committee.
>> C and D must serve on the same committee.
>> A and B cannot serve on the same committee.
>> E cannot serve on the same committee as I.
>> F must serve on the same committee as B or H or both B and H.
1. If B and G serve on the Games Committee, which of the following must serve on the Food Service Committee ?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) E
(D) F
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following groups could constitute the Games Committee ?
(A) A, B, E
(B) A, D, G
(C) C, H, E
(D) F, I, B
Ans : (D)

3. If A is assigned to the Food Service Committee and C is appointed to Entertainment Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
1. G is appointed to the Food Service Committee.
2. E is appointed to the Games Committee.
3. I is appointed to the Entertainment Committee.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (A)

4. If F serves on the Food Service Committee and C serves on the same committee as H, then which of the following must serve on the Games Committee ?
1. A
2. G
3. I
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (C)

5. If I is on the Entertainment Committee and B is on the Food Service Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
(A) F is on the Entertainment Committee
(B) C is on the Games Committee
(C) G is on the Food Service Committee
(D) F is on the Games Committee
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) Letters of certain words have been rearranged and the jumbled spellings have been given below. Out of the choices given below each question, choose the last letter of the correct word—
6. AYDOT
(A) A
(B) D
(C) T
(D) Y
Ans : (D)

7. ILCEOP
(A) C
(B) E
(C) L
(D) O
Ans : (B)

8. CAPCET
(A) A
(B) C
(C) P
(D) T
Ans : (D)

9. VISERL
(A) E
(B) L
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (C)

10. ERVSECI
(A) E
(B) I
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Find out the correct answer out of the four alternatives given below each question and then mark it in your answer sheet.
11. Ice : Coolness : : Earth : ?
(A) Forest
(B) Weight
(C) Gravitation
(D) Ocean
Ans : (C)

12. Coconut : Shell : : Letter : ?
(A) Mail
(B) Letter-box
(C) Stamp
(D) Envelope
Ans : (D)

13. Income is related to profit in the same way as expenditure is related to—
(A) Loss
(B) Surplus
(C) Balance
(D) Sale
Ans : (A)

14. Much is related to many in the same way as measure is related to—
(A) Calculate
(B) Count
(C) Weigh
(D) Measurement
Ans : (B)

15. Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as warning is related to—
(A) Precaution
(B) Disaster
(C) Risk
(D) Danger
Ans : (D)

16. Find the oddman out—
(A) MOndAy
(B) tUESdAy
(C) WEdNESdAy
(D) thUrSdAy
Ans : (B)

17. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) CUSTOMER : SGPSYYBK
(B) INTEREST : UUHVJYUQ
(C) OVERSEAS : TCHWWKCW
(D) BANKING : HPLOSGI
Ans : (B)

18. Three of the following four have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?
(A) PROFIT : RPQCKR
(B) OTHERS : QRJCTQ
(C) LEGUME : NCISOC
(D) CANKER : EYPIGP
Ans : (A)

19. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) GWOURV
(B) LZKMSU
(C) JOEHNP
(D) SFXPMG
Ans : (D)

20. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) IW
(B) MS
(C) FT
(D) JU
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Find out the missing term in the following letternumber series—
21. H 4 W, I 18 V, K 48 T, N 100 Q, ?, W 294 H
(A) P 1485 S
(B) R 180 M
(C) S 198 I
(D) T 206 K
Ans : (B)

22. 1 ED, 2 FD, 3 KH, ?, 15 KG, 48 KF
(A) 12 PX
(B) 6 RI
(C) 9 LV
(D) 8 TQ
Ans : (B)

23. M 4, T 7, P 7, Q 10, S 10, N 13, ?, K 16
(A) V 4
(B) K 7
(C) T 13
(D) G 15
Ans : (C)

24. R 5 P, T 6 M, V 9 J, X 15 G, ?
(A) A 12 L
(B) I 18 X
(C) Z 25 D
(D) U 20 Q
Ans : (C)

25. DGK 0, GKP 3, ?, PVC 15
(A) GKV 5
(B) KPV 8
(C) PVZ 9
(D) KPU 11
Ans : (B)

26. If the first 6 letters of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letters are written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged by Z, then which letter is fourth letter to the right of 13th letter from the left ?
(A) M
(B) N
(C) Q
(D) P
Ans : (B)

27. If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the Alphabet series ?
(A) L
(B) O
(C) M
(D) N
Ans : (D)

28. If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rearranged as in a dictionary, which letter group would have its group of letters in the MIDDLE among the five letter-groups ?
MEET, DEAF, ROAD, CODE, LACK
(A) LACK
(B) MEET
(C) ROAD
(D) DEAF
Ans : (C)

29. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) HKNGSW
(B) EIMQVZ
(C) SUXADF
(D) RVZDHL
Ans : (D)

30. Select the series in which the letters skipped in between adjacent letters do not decrease in order—
(A) MGVFK
(B) PJXHM
(C) EQZFI
(D) GWIQU
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) These questions are based on code language which utilizes letters in the English Alphabet. In each question, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), or (D), not in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The letter of the that code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently.
31. D U E L
(A) g
(B) i
(C) p
(D) j
Ans : (C)

32. P I T Y
(A) g
(B) b
(C) r
(D) k
Ans : (B)

33. R I N G
(A) it
(B) rk
(C) mp
(D) ti
Ans : (A)

34. G O A L
(A) c
(B) q
(C) e
(D) j
Ans : (C)

35. S L A P
(A) dx
(B) ms
(C) vp
(D) io
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Study the following arrangements carefully and answer the questions given below—
Series I. MNLqd fuw2UFOKP6hs (14) SHV 7gc8RIE(13)xtk
Series II. azj14GJBopir5v9TQY(10) emn(11) DACby(12)xWZ
36. How many capital letters are in Series I and in Series II each of which is either followed by or preceded by the same positioned capital letter of English alphabet from the other end ?
(A) 4, 3
(B) 6, 2
(C) 8, 1
(D) 10, 0
Ans : (A)

37. If the positions of the first twelve elements of Series I are reversed, and similarly the positions of the last twelve elements of Series II are reversed, then the third element to the right of the seventh element from the left end of Series I will be ……, whereas the third element to the left of the seventh element from the right end of Series II will be ……
(A) L, x
(B) j, x
(C) U, (11)
(D) x, L
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following pairs of elements shows the elements of Series I and Series II respectively, which are exactly in the middle of the seventh element from the left end and the sixth element from the right end in Series I and II ?
(A) hy
(B) Hy
(C) sQ
(D) Sq
Ans : (C)

39. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above series. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) azj
(B) emb
(C) qdf
(D) xtk
Ans : (B)

40. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangements, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41– 44) In the following coded arithmetic equations certain symbols are used with the following meaning—
I. P @ Q means add P to Q;
II. P & Q means subtract Q from P;
III. P # Q means multiply P with Q; and
IV. P $ Q means divide P by Q.
Now study the given information and answer the question following it—
Three persons A, B and C complete a work in 20 days. B and C together are 4/3 times as efficient as A and B together. On the other hand A and C together are 5/4 times as efficient as B and C together.
41. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A alone can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # 20 $ (24 & 20)
(B) 30 # 20 & (30 @ 20)
(C) 30 # 20 $ (30 & 20)
(D) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (C)

42. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which B and C together can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
(C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(D) 30 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and B working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(B) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
(C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)

44. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and C working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
(B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(C) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)
45. A travel towards East. B travels towards North. C and D travel in opposite directions. D travels towards right of A. Which of the following is definitely true ?
(A) B and C travel in opposite directions
(B) C travels towards West
(C) D travels towards North
(D) B and C travel in the same direction
Ans : (D)

46. A cow runs 20 metres towards East and turns to right, runs 10 metres and turns to right, runs 9 metres and again turns to left, runs 5 metres and then turns to left, runs 12 metres and finally turns to left and runs 6 metres. Now which direction is the cow facing ?
(A) North
(B) East
(C) South
(D) West
Ans : (A)

47. A boy started walking positioning his back towards the sun. After sometimes, he turned left, then turned right and then towards the left again. In which direction is he going now ?
(A) East or West
(B) North or West
(C) South or West
(D) North or South
Ans : (D)
48. If Thursday was the day after the day before yesterday five days ago, what is the least number of days ago when Sunday was three days before the day after tomorrow ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (D)

49. In a row of boys facing North, a boy is thirteen from the left. When shifted to his right by three places, he becomes seventeenth from right end of the row. How many boys are there in the row ?
(A) 32
(B) 31
(C) 33
(D) 30
Ans : (A)

50. 136 vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car there is one scooter. After the second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out the number of scooters in the second half of the row—
(A) 61
(B) 62
(C) 63
(D) 64
Ans : (C)

51. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group ?
(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 17
(D) 33
Ans : (B)

52. Choose the odd numeral pair in the following—
(A) 140 – 45
(B) 120 – 35
(C) 110 – 35
(D) 80 – 25
Ans : (B)

53. Choose that set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set—
Given set — (246, 257, 358)
(A) (145, 235, 325)
(B) (143, 253, 246)
(C) (273, 365, 367)
(D) (233, 343, 345)
Ans : (A)

54. Choose the one which is different from the rest—
(A) 248
(B) 326
(C) 392
(D) 414
Ans : (C)

55. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 156
(B) 152
(C) 72
(D) 42
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) In each question below, is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer—
(A) If only assumption I is implicit;
(B) If only assumption II is implicit;
(C) If neither I nor II is implicit; and
(D) If both I and II are implicit.

56. Statement—To achieve economic development, people should work hard.
Assumptions :
I. Achieving economic development is desirable.
II. Working hard is not impossible.
Ans : (D)

57. Statement—He is too industrious to be poor.
Assumptions :I. Very industrious people also can be poor.
II. Very lazy people also can be rich.
Ans : (C)

58. Statement—Visitors may use lift at their own risk.
Assumptions :I. Using lift is not always safe.
II. Visitors do not want to use lift.
Ans : (A)

59. Statement—This book is so designed that even a layman can easily learn science in the absence of a teacher.
Assumptions :I. Learning science by everybody is desirable.
II. A layman generally finds it difficult to learn science on his own.
Ans : (B)

60. Statement—Although the rates of this hotel are comparable with other hotels, the amenities provided here are far superior.
Assumptions :I. Rates are independent of amenities provided.
II. Rates are dependent on amenities provided.
Ans : (C)

CISF Question-Paper
CISF Previous Year Solved Question Paper

General Knowledge:

1. The maximum number of goals scored by India in the history of international hockey tournaments were in 1932 Olympics in Los Angeles when it beat USA by?
(A) 26?0
(B) 24?1
(C) 22?0
(D) 20?0

2. When was the Jawahar Rozgar Yojna launched ?
(A) 1985
(B) 1987
(C) 1989
(D) 1991

3. The cause for the Tsunami, as deduced by the seismologists, is?
(A) gravitational pull of the moon
(B) low pressure trough in the ocean
(C) deformation of sea floor and vertical displacement of water
(D) sudden change in the monsoon wind

4. Eden Garden (Kolkata) is associated with?
(A) Basket Ball
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey

5. Which one of the following states of India records the highest sexratio ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Tamilnadu

6. Major fishing grounds are found in?
(A) Northern Hemisphere
(B) Southern Hemisphere
(C) Eastern Hemisphere
(D) Western Hemisphere

7. When was the first National Forest Policy issued by the Government of India ?
(A) 1952
(B) 1940
(C) 1942
(D) 1999

8. Which one of the following is not a HYV of wheat ?
(A) Sonalika
(B) Ratna
(C) Kalyan Sona
(D) Girija

9. What is the maximum Water Vapour content in the atmosphere ?
(A) 2 to 3 per cent
(B) 3 to 4 per cent
(C) 4 to 5 per cent
(D) 5 to 6 per cent

10. Who is the first Asian to become the Head of the prestigious Trinity College of Cambridge University ?
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) Mahendra Chaudhary
(C) Nirod C. Chaudhary
(D) Ketaki Mushari Dyson

11. Who gave the concept of ?Total Revolution? ?
(A) Jayaprakash Narayan
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Lenin

12. The first mid-term elections for Lok Sabha were held in?
(A) 1962
(B) 1971
(C) 1977
(D) 1980

13. Who declared as his ultimate aim the wiping of every tear from every eye ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Sardar Patel

14. Japan?s Parliament is known as?
(A) Diet
(B) Dail
(C) Yuan
(D) Shora

15. The convention that ?once a speaker always a speaker? is followed in?
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) India

16. The headquarters of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is at?
(A) New York
(B) Paris
(C) Geneva
(D) Rome

17. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the former Indian President, received the prestigious Bharat Ratna award in the year?
(A) 1992
(B) 1995
(C) 1997
(D) 1998

18. The Indian actor who played a prominent role in the Hollywood production : ?The Ghost and The Darkness? is?
(A) Om Puri
(B) Naseeruddin Shah
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Anil Kapoor

19. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in?
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1951

20. PSLV stands for?
(A) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(B) Polish Satellite Launch Vehicle
(C) Perfect Satellite Launching Verifier
(D) Preparatory Satellite Launching Vehicle

21. Indira Gandhi Cup is associated with?
(A) Basketball
(B) Football
(C) Boxing
(D) Cricket

22. Who is the author of the novel ?DEVDAS? ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(C) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
(D) Munshi Premchand

23. Nano technology deals with objects with dimensions in the range of?
(A) 10?3 m
(B) 10?6 m
(C) 10?9 m
(D) 10?12 m

24. The moon is showing its same face to the earth because?
(A) It is not rotating about its own axis
(B) Its rotation and revolution are opposite
(C) Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same
(D) Its rotation is faster than its revolution

25. Devaluation of currency leads to?
(A) expansion of export trade
(B) contraction of import trade
(C) expansion of import substitution
(D) All of the above

26. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of?
(A) Commercial bills
(B) Foreign exchange
(C) Gold
(D) Government bonds

27. Which is not the objective of Public Procurement and Distribution system followed by Indian Government ?
(A) Maintain price stability through creation of butter stocks
(B) Protect the interests of both consumers and poor farmers
(C) Control the production of food grains
(D) Reduce personal and regional inequality in the distribution

28. Where is the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade located ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad

29. The National Institute for Agricultural Marketing is located at?
(A) Jaipur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Nagpur
(D) Hyderabad

30. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by?
(A) Total population of the country
(B) Total working population
(C) Area of the country
(D) Volume of capital used

31. The currency of Thailand is?
(A) Bhat
(B) Rupiah
(C) Yuan
(D) Yen

32. World Bank helps countries with loans for the purpose of?
(A) reconstruction and development
(B) stimulating private investment
(C) tackling foreign exchange crisis
(D) meeting deficits in government budget

33. In Indian agriculture, the period from July to October-November is called?
(A) Rabi season
(B) Kharif season
(C) Pre-kharif season
(D) Slack season

34. Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of public sector units occur when the government sells?
(A) 5% of shares
(B) 10% of shares
(C) 15% of shares
(D) 20% of shares

35. The Narasimham Committee (1991) on financial reforms proposed for establishment of a?
(A) Four tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(B) Three tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(C) Two tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(D) Unified control by the apex institutions

36. The Planning Commission of India was constituted in the year?
(A) 1942
(B) 1947
(C) 1950
(D) 1955

37. Who is the guardian of Fundamental Rights enumerated in Indian Constitution ?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) Constitution
(D) President

38. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the question of?
(A) Centre/state relations
(B) Legislative problems
(C) Union territories? problems
(D) Tribal areas

39. The Judges of the High Court hold office?
(A) during the pleasure of the Chief Justice of India
(B) till they have attained 62 years of age
(C) till they have attained 65 years of age
(D) as long as they desire

40. The United Nations officially came into existence on?
(A) January 1, 1942
(B) October 3, 1944
(C) October 24, 1945
(D) June 26, 1945

41. The English Crown is an example of?
(A) Real executive
(B) Quasi-real executive
(C) Nominal executive
(D) Nominated executive

42. The annual report of the UPSC is submitted to?
(A) The President
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

43. In ends and means relationship, Gandhiji believed?
(A) Means become good if they serve the end
(B) Means and ends are watertight compartments
(C) Means determine the end
(D) End is everything, no matter what or how the means are

44. The ?Speaker?s vote? in the Lok Sabha is called?
(A) Casting vote
(B) Sound vote
(C) Direct vote
(D) Indirect vote

45. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ?Fundamental Rights? ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV

46. Which is the Greek classic that Gandhi translated into Gujarati ?
(A) Plato?s Republic
(B) Dialogues of Plato
(C) Aristotle?s Politics
(D) Aristotle?s Nicomachian Ethics

47. To be a regional party, the minimum percentage of votes, that a party needs to secure in any election is?
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%

48. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Eleven
(B) Nine
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve

49. Indian Penal Code came into operation in?
(A) 1858
(B) 1860
(C) 1859
(D) 1862

50. The First Viceroy and Governor-General of British India was?
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Sir John Lawrence
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Lord Canning
Directions?(Q. 1?10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in boldto help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Politicians and generals talk of military strategies and manoeuvers but something completely different is needed. Stability will come only when economic opportunities exist, when youth can find jobs and support families rather than seeking their livelihood in violence. Peace can only be achieved with a withdrawal of foreign troops, sanctions and peace-keepers and the arrival of jobs, productive farms and factories, healthcare and schools. Repeatedly the fragile peace in impoverished countries has broken down because of the lack of economic follow-up. Despite promises of aid, the actual record of international aid to post war reconstruction is deficient.

Once the war ends agencies involved in post war relief efforts fail to understand how to start or restart economic development in a low income setting. They squander time, surplus aid funds and opportunities because they are not familiar with local conditions and do not under-stand their point of view. There are distinct phases of outside help to end a conflict. In the first phase focus is on providing food, water, shelter and medicine to refugees i.e., humani-tarian. In the second, emphasis is on the refugees returning home while in the last phase long term investments and strengthening of courts is the main focus.

However once a conflict is over aid agencies sanctioned by the World Bank send study groups instead of requisite personnel. There is a gap of several years before moving from humanitarian relief to economic deve-lopment. By the time such help arrives the war has restarted. It is possible to restart economic develop-ment through targeted ?quick impact? initiatives. Most economies in post conflict countries are based on agri-culture. Providing free packages of seeds, fertilizers and low cost equip-ment quickly will ensure that former soldiers will return to their farms and establish their livelihood. But the window of opportunity closes quickly and one has to implement these measures almost immediately.

1. Which of the following is a reason, post conflict reconstruc-tion efforts have failed ?
(A) Aid organizations do not understand issues from the pers-pective of the poor
(B) Rapid economic develop-ment in low income countries
(C) World Bank studies are not valid
(D) International aid organiza-tions become too involved in reconstruction efforts
(E) None of these

2. Where does the problem lie in implementing post war relief measures ?
(A) Aid agencies fail to study the situation
(B) Economic development measures are too rapid
(C) Focus on economic deve-lopment not humanitarian aid
(D) Lack of funds to implement programmes
(E) Lack of essential and quali-fied personnel

3. According to the author how can political stability be achieved ?
(A) Increasing the number of foreign troops in areas of conflict
(B) Depending more on foreign aid
(C) Following recommendations given by the World Bank
(D) Providing economic oppor-tunities
(E) None of these

4. Which of the following is not true in the context of the pas-sage ?
(A) Focus in the first phase of a war is on providing humani-tarian aid
(B) Sanctions are not a means to ensure peace
(C) Adequate time must be taken to plan and implement quick impact strategies
(D) Providing employment to the younger generation will prevent wars
(E) Focus on delivering justice through courts should be in the last phase of conflict aid

5. How can economic development be restarted in an impoverished country ?
(A) Long term studies should be commissioned
(B) Retaining soldiers in the army to ensure law and order
(C) Restrict number of aid agencies to avoid waste
(D) Focusing on agricultural ini-tiatives
(E) Deploying peace keepers in the country

6. What is the benefit of ?quick impact? aid ?
(A) Soldiers earn income from the army and their farms
(B) Providing alternate liveli-hood to soldiers before war can restart
(C) Free land is given to soldiers
(D) Price of equipment is low
(E) None of these

Directions?(Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

7. exist
(A) live
(B) fit
(C) create
(D) occur
(E) survive

8. squander
(A) lavish
(B) spend
(C) displace
(D) lose
(E) misuse

Directions?(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. fragile
(A) weak
(B) lasting
(C) long
(D) strong
(E) unstable

10. deficient
(A) surplus
(B) valued
(C) short
(D) secure
(E) repaired

Directions?(Q. 11?15) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it?
A. Strict obedience to these rules is called discipline.
B. In the same way, a society where rules are not followed cannot survive for long.
C. Only then a society can be run in an orderly fashion.
D. A society can exist properly only when men living in it agree upon certain rules of conduct.
E. For example, if the people on the road do not obey traffic rules there will be complete disorder and con-fusion.
F. Students must obey their teachers, children their parents, citizens the laws and so on and so forth.

11. Which of the following is the fifth sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
(E) F

12. Which of the following is the sixth (Last) sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

13. Which of the following is the second sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

14. Which of the following is the first sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

15. Which of the following is the third sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
(E) F

Directions?(Q. 16?20) Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully com-plete.

16. She did not like to????her decision like a dictator on her subordinates.
(A) divulge
(B) prompt
(C) enforce
(D) deploy
(E) make

17. People unfortunately???that money brings happiness.
(A) assume
(B) deny
(C) object
(D) rely
(E) conscious

18. The public have???a protest against the new rules of the budget.
(A) organize
(B) demonstrated
(C) compiled
(D) pursued
(E) launched

19. Sarojini Naidu will always be remembered for her??? to the national cause.
(A) blessing
(B) involvement
(C) pursuit
(D) dedication
(E) command

20. Poverty has to be???and the basic necessities of life should be made available to everyone.
(A) destroyed
(B) eliminated
(C) finished
(D) magnified
(E) considered

 

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