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Category: SSC CGL Solved Paper

SSC CGL Solved Paper

SSC CGL Solved Paper

Reasoning

1. What Should Come In The Place Of (?) In The Given Series? Ace, Fgh, ?, Pon
(A) Kkk
(B) Jki
(C) Hjh
(D) Ikl
Ans. (A)

2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)

3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)

4. Acme : Mace :: Alga: ?
(A) Glaa
(B) Gaal
(C) Laga
(D) Gala
Ans. (D)

5. Eighty : Gieyth : : Output:?
(A) Utoptu
(B) Uotupt
(C) Tuoutp
(D) Tuotup
Ans. (D)

6. ?medicine? Is Related To ?patient? In The Same Way As ?education? Is Related To?
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)

7. Fill In The Missing Letter In The Following Series?S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)

8. What Should Come In The Place Of Question Mark In The Following Series? 3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)

9. Select The Correct Option In Place Of The Question Mark. Aop, Cqr, Est, Guv, ?
(A) Iyz
(B) Hwx
(C) Iwx
(D) Jwx
Ans. (C)

10. What Should Come In The Place Of Question Mark In The Following Series? 1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)

Directions?(Q. 11 To 14): Select The One Which Is Different From The Other Three.

11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)

12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)

13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)

14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)

Directions?(Q. 15 To 17): Based On Alphabets.

15. If The Sequence Of The Alphabets Is Reversed Which Of The Following Would Be The 14th Letter From Your Left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None Of These
Ans. (D)

16. Which Letter Is The 8th Letter To The Right Of The Letter, Which Is 12th From The Left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)

17. Which Letter Is The 8th Letter To The Right Of The Letter Which Is 10th To The Left Of The Last But One Letter From The Right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)

Directions?(Q. 18 To 23) Three Of The Following Four Are Alike In A Certain Way And So Form A Group. Which Is The One That Does Not Belong To That Group?

18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)

19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)

20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)

21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)

22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)

23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)

24. In A Certain Code ?contributor? Is Written As ?rtnocirotub?. How Is ?prohibition? Written In That Code?
(A) Noitibihorp
(B) Ihorpbition
(C) Itionbihotp
(D) Ihorpbnoiti
Ans. (D)

25. If ?cat? And ?boat? Are Written As Xzg And ?ylzg? Respectively In A Code Language How Is ?egg? To Be Written In The Same Language?
(A) Vss
(B) Urr
(C) Vtt
(D) Utf
Ans. (C)

26. In A Code Language Singer Is Written As Aibced Then Ginger Will Be Written In The Same Code As?
(A) Cbiecd
(B) Cibced
(C) Cbiced
(D) Cibecd
Ans. (B)

27. If Bat Is Coded As 283, Cat Is Coded As 383 And Are Is Coded As 801,Then The Code For Better Is?
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)

28. If Water Is Called Black, Black Is Called Tree, Tree Is Called Blue, Blue Is Called Rain, Rain Is Called Pink And Pink Is Called Fish In A Certain Language Then What Is The Colour Of Sky Called In That Language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)

29. A Man Walks 3 Km Northwards And Then Turns Left And Goes 2 Km. He Again Turns Left And Goes 3 Km. He Turns Right And Walks Straight. In Which Direction He Is Walking Now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)

30. One Morning After Sunrise Vikram And Shailesh Were Standing In A Lawn With Their Back Towards Each Other. Vikram?s Shadow Fell Exactly Towards Left-hand Side. Which Direction Shailesh Was Facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)

31. Nageena Is Taller Than Pushpa But Not As Tall As Manish. Rama Is Taller Than Namita But Not As Tall As Pushpa. Who Among Them Is The Tallest?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)

32. In An Examination Raj Got More Marks Than Moti But Not As Many As Meena. Meena Got More Marks Than Ganesh And Rupali. Ganesh Got Less Marks Than Moti But His Marks Are Not The Lowest In The Group. Who Is Second In The Descending Order Of Marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None Of These
Ans. (C)

33. Pointing To A Photograph Of A Girl, Rajan Said ?she Has No Sister Or Daughter But Her Mother Is The Only Daughter Of My Mother.? How Is The Girl In The Photograph Related With Rajan?s Mother?
(A) Sister In Law
(B) Grand Daughter
(C) Daughter In Law
(D) None Of These
Ans. (B)

34. If Amit? S Father Is Billoo? S Father?s Only Son And Billoo Has Neither A Brother Nor A Daughter. What Is The Relationship Between Amit And Billoo?
(A) Uncle?nephew
(B) Father?daughter
(C) Father?son
(D) Grandfather?grandson
Ans. (C)

35. An Application Was Received By Inward Clerk In The Afternoon Of A Weekday. Next Day He Forwarded It To The Table Of The Senior Clerk, Who Was On Leave That Day. The Senior Clerk Next Day Evening Put Up The Application To The Desk Officer. Desk Officer Studied The Application And Disposed Off The Matter On The Same Day, I.E., Friday. Which Day The Application Was Received By The Inward Clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier Week?s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)

36. Flight To Mumbai Leaves Every 5 Hours. At The Information Counter I Learnt That The Flight Took Off 25 Minutes Before. If The Time Now Is 10 : 45 A.M., What Is The Time For The Next Flight?
(A) 2 : 20 A.M.
(B) 3 : 30 A.M.
(C) 3 : 55 P.M.
(D) 3 : 20 P.M.
Ans. (D)

37. Babloo Ranked 16th From The Top And 29th From The Bottom Among Those Who Passed An Examination. 6 Boys Did Not Participate In The Competition and 5 Failed In The Examination. How Many Boys Were There In The Class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)

38. Indra Is 7th From The Left And Jaya Is 5th From The Right. When They Interchange Their Position Jaya Becomes 19th From The Right. What Is Indra?s Position From The Left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)

39. How Many 5?s Are In The Following Sequence Of Numbers Which Are Immediately Preceded By 7? 8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)

40. How Many 8?s Are There In The Following Sequence Which Are Immediately Preceded By 6 But Not Immediately Followed By 5? 6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)

41. If Earthquake Is Coded As Mogpenjosm Then Equate Will Be Coded As?
(A) Menopm
(B) Menomp
(C) Njogpm
(D) Mnjopm
Ans. (D)

42. If Country Is Coded In Certain Way As Emwlvpa, Electorate Will Be Coded In The Same Manner As?
(A) Cjcefqpywc
(B) Cjgerqtyvg
(C) Cncerqpcrg
(D) Gjgavmtyvc
Ans. (D)

43. ?air? Is To ?bird? As ?water? Is To ??..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)

44. ?pencil? Is To ?write? As ?knife? Is To ???
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)

45. Mohan Is 18th From Either End Of A Row Of Boys ? How Many Boys Are There In That Row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)

46. In A Class Of 60 Where Boys Are Twice That Of Girls, Ramya Ranked 17th From The Top. If There Are 9 Boys Ahead Of Ramya, How Many Girls Are After Her In The Rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)

47. ?soldier? Is Related To ?army? In The Same Way As ?pupil? Is Related To ??.
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)

48. ?kilogram? Is Related To ?quintal? In The Same Way As ?paisa? Is Related To???
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)

49. ?stammering? Is To ?speech? As Deafness Is To ????
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)

50. ?guilt? Is To ?past? As ?hope? Is To ????
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)

SSC Placement Paper

SSC CGL Previous Year Question Paper

Quantitative Aptitude

1. The next term of the series 1, 5, 12 24, 43 is
(a) 51
(b) 62
(c) 71
(d) 78

2. The least multiple of 13 which when divided by 4, 5, 6, 7 leaves remainder 3 in each case is
(a) 3780
(b) 3783
(c) 2520
(d) 2522

3. A and B are partners in a business. A contributes 1/4 of the capital for 15 months and B received 2/3 of the profit. Find for how long B?s money was used?
(a) 6 months
(b) 8 months
(c) 10 months
(d) 12 months

4. If 21 is added to a number, it becomes 7 less than thrice of the number. Then the number is
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 19

5. Two men A and B started a job in which A was thrice as good as B and therefore took 60 days less than B to finish the job. How many days will they take to finish the job, if they take to finish the job, if they start working together?
(a) 15 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 45/2 days
(d) 25 days

6. A rectangle garden is 100 m × 80 m. There is a path along the garden and just outside it. Width of the path is 10m. The area of the path is
(a) 1900 sq m
(b) 2400 sq m
(c) 3660 sq m
(d) 4000 sq m

7. A dealer offered a machines for sale for Rs. 27,500 but even if he had charge 10% less, the would have made a profit of 10%. The actual cost of the machine is
(a) Rs. 22000
(b) Rs. 24500
(c) Rs. 22500
(d) Rs. 22275

8. An employer reduces the number of employees in the ratio 8 : 5 and increases their wages in the ratio 7 : 9. As a result, the overall wages bill is
(a) Increased in the ration 56 : 69
(b) Decreased in the ratio 56 : 45
(c) Increased in the ratio 13 : 17
(d) Decreased in the ratio 17 : 13

9. The average age of a jury of 5 is 40. If a member aged 35 resigns and man aged 35 resigns and a man aged becomes a member, then the average age of the new jury is
(a) 30
(b) 38
(c) 40
(d) 42

10. With average speed of 40 km/hour, a train reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an average speed of 35 km hour, it is late by 15 minutes. The total journey is
(a) 30 km
(b) 40 km
(c) 70 km
(d) 80 km

11. A man makes a profit of 20% on the sale by selling 20 articles for Rs. 1. The number of articles he bought by Rs. 1 is
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 25
(d) 30

12. The number of seats in an auditorium is increased by 25%. The price of a ticket is also increased by 12%. Then the increase in revenue collection will be
(a) 40%
(b) 35%
(c) 45%
(d) 48%

13. A person takes a loan of Rs. 10,0000 partly from a bank at 8% p.a. and remaining from another bank at 10% p.a. He pays a total interest of Rs. 950 per annum. Amount of loan taken from the first bank (in Rs.) is
(a) 2500
(b) 5200
(c) 2050
(d) 5020

14. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 2 (a ? b ? c) ? 3 then the value of 2a ? 3b + 4c is
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4

15. If an obtuse-angled triangle ABC, is the obtuse angle and O is the orthocenter. If = 54°, then is
(a) 108°
(b) 126°
(c) 136°
(d) 116°

16. If the ratio of areas of two similar triangles is 9 : 16, then the ratio of their corresponding sides is
(a) 3 : 5
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 4 : 3

17. Let BE and CF be the two medians of a and G be their intersection. Also let EF cut AG at O. Then AO : OG is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 3 : 1

18. If S is the circumcentre of and = 50°, then the value of is
(a) 20°
(b) 40°
(c) 60°
(d) 80°

19. AC and BC are two equal cords of a circle. BA is produced to any point P and CP, when joined cuts the circle at T. Then
(a) CT : TP = AB : CA
(b) CT : TP = CA : AB
(c) CT : CB = CA : CP
(d) CT : CB =CP : CA

20. Two circles with radii 5cm and 8 cm touch each other externally at a point A. If a straight line through the point A cuts the circles at points P and Q respectively, the AP : AQ is
(a) 8 : 5
(b) 5 : 8
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 4 : 5

21. If I is the In-centre of and <A = 60°, then the value of is
(a) 100°
(b) 120°
(c) 150°
(d) 110°

22. The external bisectors of and of meet at point P. If = 80°, the is
(a) 50°
(b) 40°
(c) 80°
(d) 100°

23. When a pendulum of length 50 cm oscillates, it produces an arc of 16 cm. The angle so formed in degree measure so formed in degree measure is (approx)
(a) 18°25?
(b) 18°35?
(c) 18°20?
(d) 18°08?

24. A rail road curve is to be laid out on a circle. What radius should be used if the track is to change direction by 25° in a distance of 40 metres?
(a) 91.64 metres
(b) 90.46 metres
(c) 89.64 metres
(d) 93.64 metres
SSC Aptitude Questions
SSC CGL Solved Question Paper

Quantitative Aptitude

1.X is thrice as good a workman as Y and together they finish a piece of work in 21 days. In how many days will X alone finish the work?
(a)29 days
(b)31 days
(c)28 days
(d)27 days

2.A can do a certain work in 45 days. B is 80% more efficient than A. How many days does B alone take to do the same work?
(a)24 days
(b)23 days
(c)28 days
(d)25 days

3.A sum of money is sufficient to pay A? salary for 12 days and B?s salary for 24days. The same money is sufficient to pay the salaries of both for:
(a)8 days
(b)9 days
(c)10 days
(d)12 days

4.A takes thrice as much time as B or twice as much time as C to finish a piece of work. Working together, they can finish the work in 4 days. C can do the work alone in:
(a)14 days
(b)12 days
(c)10 days
(d)8 days

5.The ratio of two numbers is 5 : 7 and their H.C.F, is 9. then their L.C.M. is
(a)35
(b)315
(c)63
(d)81

6.A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days. B and C can do it in 12 days. C can do it in 20 days. How long will A take to do it alone?
(a)12
(b)15
(c)20
(d)30

7.A does one-third as much work as B in half of the time taken by B. If together they take 15 days to complete a work, then the time taken by B alone to do it would have been
(a)20
(b)25
(c)30
(d)35

8.A single discount equivalent to discount series 10%, 20% and 30% is
(a)60%
(b)50%
(c)49.6%
(d)44.6%

9.If a shopkeeper marks the price of goods 50% more than their cost price and allows a discount of 30%, what is his gain or loss percent?
(a)Gain of 5%
(b)Gain of 10%
(c)Gain of 20%
(d)Loss of 20%

10.By selling 12 oranges for 40, a man loses 20%. The number of oranges he has to sell for Rs.100, so as to gain 20% is
(a)12
(b)18
(c)21
(d)24

11.40 litres of salt solution contains 10% salt. How many litres of water must be added so as to get a resultant solution containing 8% salt?
(a)10
(b)20
(c)30
(d)40

12.The current of a stream runs at the rate of 3 km an hour. A bout goes 6 km and comes back to the starting point in 8 hours. The speed of the boat in still water is
(a)12 km/hour
(b)15 km/hour
(c)18 km/hour
(d)21 km/hour

13.Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 135°. The number of sides of the polygon is
(a)6
(b)7
(c)8
(d)9

14.The ratio of radii of two cylinders is 3 : 4 and the ratio of their heights is 4 : 3. Then the ratio of their volumes will be
(a)3 : 4
(b)4 : 3
(c)9 : 16
(d)16 : 9

15.The area of the four walls of a room is 208 m2 and its length is thrice of its breadth. If the height of the room is 13 m, then the area of its floor (in m2) is
(a)12
(b)13
(c)16
(d)208

16.The circumcentre of a triangle ABC is O, If BAC = 55° and BCA = 75°, then the value of OAC is
(a)20°
(b)25°
(c)30°
(d)40°

17.AB = 24 cm and CD = 10 cm are two parallel chords on the same side of the centre or a circle. The distance between them is 7 cm. The radius of the circle is
(a)10 cm
(b)12 cm
(c)13 cm
(d)25 cm

18.49 have been divided among 150 children. If each girl gets 50 paise and each boy gets 25 paise, then the number of boys is
(a)100
(b)102
(c)104
(d)106

19.The number of proper sub sets of the set {3, 4, 5, 6, 7} is
(a)32
(b)31
(c)30
(d)25

20.If the 8th term of an A.P is 15 then the sum of first 15 terms is
(a)15
(b)0
(c)225
(d)225/2

21.Which of the following are not in proportion
(a)6, 8, 5, 7
(b)7,3, 14, 6
(c)18, 27, 12, 18
(d)8, 6, 12, 9

22.The S.I on Rs. 2000 for 5 months at the rate of 16% per annum is_____
(a)133.33
(b)133.26
(c)134.00
(d)132.09

23.A square garden has fourteen posts along each side at equal interval. Find how many posts are there in all four sides:
(a)56
(b)52
(c)44
(d)60

24.Average age of students of an adult school is 40 years. 120 new students whose average age is 32 years joined the school. As a result the average age is decreased by 4 years. Find the number of
students of the school after joining of the new students:
(a)1200
(b)120
(c)360
(d)240

25.Find the least number of candidates in an examination so that the percentage of successful candidates should be 76.8%:
(a)500
(b)250
(c)125
(d)1000

26.The ratio of daily wages of two workers is 4 : 3 and one gets daily Rs 9 more than the other, what are their daily wages?
(a)Rs 32 and Rs 24
(b)Rs 60 and Rs 45
(c)Rs 80 and Rs 60
(d)Rs 36 and Rs 27

27.Ratio of the principal and the amount after 1 yr is 10 :12. Then the rate of interest per annum is
(a)12%
(b)16%
(c)18%
(d)20%

28.In ?ABC, ?BAC = 90° and AB = /BC. Then the measure of ?ABC is
(a)60°
(b)30°
(c)45°
(d)15°

29.The average of 5 numbers is 140. If one number is excluded, the average of the remaining 4 numbers is 130. The excluded number is
(a)135
(b)134
(c)180
(d)150

30.A straight line parallel to BC of ? ABC intersects AB and AC at points P and Q, respectively. AP = QC, PB = 4 units and AQ = 9 units, then the length of AP is
(a)2.5 units
(b)3 units
(c)6 units
(d)6.5 units

31.From a right circular cylinder of radius 10 cm and height 21 cm, a right circular cone of same base-radius is removed. If the volume of the remaining portion is 4400 cm3, then the height of the removed cone (taking ? = 22/7) is
(a)15 cm
(b)18 cm
(c)21 cm
(d)24 cm

32.I is the incentre of ? ABC, ABC = 60° and ACB = 50°. Then, BIC is
(a)55°
(b)1250
(c)700
(d)650

33.A trader marks his goods 45% above the cost price and gives a discount of 20% on the marked price. The gain percentage on goods he makes, is
(a)15
(b)14
(c)29
(d)16

34.Speed of a boat is 5km/h in still water and the speed of the stream is 3 km/h. If the boat takes 3 hr to go to a place and come back, the distance of the place is
(a)3.75 km
(b)4 km
(c)4.8 km
(d)4.25 km

35.Two vessels A and B contain acid and water mixed in the ratio 2 : 3 and 4 : 3. In what ratio must these mixtures be mixed to form a new mixture containing half acid and half water?
(a)5 : 7
(b)1 : 2
(c)2 : 1
(d)7 : 5

36.Each internal angle of regular polygon is two times its external angle. Then, the number of sides of the polygon is
(a)8
(b)6
(c)5
(d)7

37.The ratio of the areas of the incircle and the circumcircle of a square is
(a)1 : 2
(b)2 : 3
(c)3 : 4
(d)4 : 5

38.Both the end digits of a 99 digit number N are 2. N is divisible by 11, then all the middle digits are
(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

39.A solid wooden toy is in the shape of a right circular cone mounted on a hemisphere. If the radius of the hemisphere is 4.2 cm and the total height of the toy is 10.2 cm, find the volume of the wooden toy (nearly)
(a)104cm3
(b)162 cm3
(c)427 cm3
(d)266 cm3

40.The true discount on a sum of money during 2 yr hence at 5% is Rs 15. Find the sum.
(a)150
(b)165
(c)170
(d)160

SSC Aptitude question paper
SSC CGL Arithmetic Aptitude Question Paper free Sample Model Question Paper with answer and solution
1. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 158.25 x 4.6 + 21% of 847+?= 950.93 50 45
* 35
* 40
* 25
* 53.25
* Answer: 45

2. The average of the first and the second of three numbers is 15 more than the average of the second and the third of these numbers. What is the difference between the first and the third of these three numbers?
* 15
* 45
* 60
* Data inadequate
* Answer: None of these

Difference is 30 ? The difference between the simple and the compound interest compounded every six rnonths at the rate of 10 %.p.a. at the end of two years is Rs. 124.05. What is the sum?
* Rs 10,000
* Rs 6,000
* Rs 12,000
* Answer: Rs 8,000
* None of these

4. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 85.147 + 34.912 x 6.2 + ? = 802.293
* 400
* 450
* 550
* 600
* Answer: 500

5. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 9548+7314=8362+?
* 8230
* Answer: 8500
* 8410
* 8600
* None of these

6. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 248.251 ÷ 12.62 x 20.52 =?* Answer: 400
* 450
* 600
* 375
* 350

7. When a number is added to another number the total becomes 333.333 per cent of the second number. What is the ratio between the first and the second number?
* 3:7
* 7:4
* Answer: 7:3
* Data inadequate
* None of these

8. There are 11 members in a family out of which there are 4 males and remaining females. The family has hired three cars for a trip to zoo. The members are to be seated in the cars in such a way that there are not more than four members in one car and there is at least one male in each car. How many different ways can the members travel?
* 610
* 126
* 140
* 532
* Answer: None of these

9. 657 Ways 9:- The sum of four numbers is 64.If you add 3 to the first number, 3 is subtracted from second number, the third is multiplied by 3 and the sum is divided by 3, then all the results are equal. What is the difference between the largest and the smallest of the original numbers?
* Answer: 32
* 27
* 21
* Cannot be determined
* None of these

10. The Numbers are 9,15,4,36 10. In a recent Survey 40% homes contained two or more People. Of those houses containing only one person 25% were having only a male. What is the percentage of all houses which contain exactly one female and no males?
* 75
* 40
* 15
* Cannot be determined
* Answer: None of these

11. 45 percent 11. Sumitra has an average of 56% on her first 7 examinations. How much should she make on her eighth examination to obtain an average of 60% on 8 examinations?
* 88%
* 78%
* 98%
* Answer: Cannot be determined
* None of these

12. Since Total marks are not given So Can not be Determined 12. A classroom has equal number of boys and girls. Eight girls left to play Kho-kho, leaving twice as many boys as girls in the classroom. What was the total number of girls boys present initially? –
* Cannot be Determined
* 16
* 24
* Answer: 32
* None of these

13. 16 boys 16 Girls 13. An amount of money is to be distributed among P, Q and R in the ratio of 6:19:7 respectively. If R gives Rs. 200/- of his share to Q, the ratio among P, Q and R becomes 3:10:3 respectively .What was the total amount?
* Answer: Rs. 6,400/-
* Rs 12800/-
* Rs 3,200/-
* Data inadequate
* None of these

14. A man in his will distributed his money in such a way that half of it is for his wife, two-thirds of the remaining equally to three of his sons and the remaining amount equally to four of his daughters. If each of the daughters receives Rs. 20,000/-, how much money will each of his sons receive?
* Rs. 50,333.33
* Rs 48333.33
* Answer: Rs 53,333.33
* Data inadequate
* None of these

15. Arun thinks his weight is more than 65 kg but less than 72 . His brother does not agree with him and thinks Arun?s Weight is more than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. Arun ?s Mother thinks Arun?s weight cannot be more than 68kg. If all of them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of the probable values of Arun?s weight?
* 69 kg
* Answer: 67 kg
* 68kg
* Data inadequate
* None of these

16. The length and the breadth of the floor of a room is 20 ft. and 10 ft respectively. Square tiles of 2 ft. dimension having three different colours are placed on the floor. The first row of tiles on all sides is of black colour, out of the remaining one-third is of white colour and the remaining are of blue colour. How many blue Coloured tiles are there?
* Answer: 16
* 32
* 48
* 24
* None of these

17. If the arithmetic mean of 6, 8, 10. x, 7 is 8.the value of x will be
* 7
* Answer: 9
* 10
* 8
* none of these

18. A train is moving with an uniform speed. It crosses a railway platform 120 metres long in 12 seconds and another platform 170 meires long in 16 seconds. The speed of the train per second is?
* Answer: 12.5 m/sec
* 10 m/sec
* 10.22 m/sec
* 14 m/sec
* None of these

19.The median of the data 30. 25, 27, 25-8, 29, 35,38. 28 is
* Answer: 28.5
* 29.5
* 28
* 29
* None of these

20. If the sum of the two radii of two circles is 7 cm and the difference of their circumference is 8 cm, the two circumferences will be?
* 34cm and 26cm
* 28cm and 20cm
* Answer: 26 cm and 18 cm
* 20cm and 12cm
* None of these

SSC CHSL Question Papers
SSC CHSL Arithmetic Aptitude Question Paper free Sample Model Question Paper with answer and solution

1. 3/5th of a number is more than 40% of the same number by 35. What is 80% of that number ?
a) 175
b) 105
c) 150
d) 140 (Ans)

2. The sum of two digits of a number is less than the number by 54. What is the difference between two digits of the number ?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) Data inadequate (Ans)

3. In the equation given below which number (approx.) will replace the question mark ? 6.59 x 149.36 + 159% of 1642 = 10000 – ?
a) 6800
b) 7500
c) 6500 (Ans)
d) 5500

4. The inequality of b2 + 8b > 9b + 14 can be removed if —–
a) b> 5, b< -5
b) b> 5, b< – 4 (Ans)
c) b > 6, b< -6
d) b > 4, b < -4

Explanation : b2 + 8b – 9b – 14 > 0
b2 -b – 14 > 0
b2 – b + 1/4 > 14 +1/4
(b-1/2) > + v57/2
b> 1 + 7.55
2
> 4.28 or – 3.28
:. b > 5 or b < – 4

5. If the radius of the base and the height of a right circular cone are increased by 20%, then what is the approximate percentage increase in volume ?
a) 60
b) 68
c) 73 (Ans)
d) 75

Explanation : 2a + b + a2 +2ab + a2b (Here a = 20=b)
100 10000
= 2 x 20 + 20+ (20)2 + 2 x 20 x 20 + (20)2 x 20
100 10000
= 40 + 20 + 1200 + 8000
100 10000
= 72.8 = 73 (Approx.)
6.

PQRS is a diameter of a circle of radius 6 cm as shown in the figure above. The lengths PQ, QR and RS are equal. Semi-circles are drawn on PQ and QS as diameters. What is the perimeter of the shaded region ?
a) 12 ? (Ans)
b) 14 ?
c) 16 ?
d) 18 ?

7. In the equation given below, what (approx.) number will replace the question mark ?
162 v7+18068 – 2 and 1/7 of 5162 = ?
a) 7200
b) 8700
c) 9200
d) 7600 (Ans)

8. In the equation given below what will come in place of question mark ? 5672 + 3805 = ? + 39846
a) 21615
b) 20031
c) 219751
d) 20751 (Ans)

9. When 40% of a certain number is added in an other number, then the second number is increased by its 60%. What is the ratio between the two numbers ?
a) 3:2 (Ans)
b) 2:3
c) 3:4
d) Data inadequate

10. The average marks of 55 students of a class is 60. The average marks of passed students is 70 and the average marks of failed students is 45. What is the number of failed students ?
a) 33
b) 22 (Ans)
c) 28
d) Data inadequate

Directions (Q.11-15) Each of the question below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
11. What will be difference between the ages of P and Q after 6 years ?
(i) The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 3:5
(ii) The ratio between the present age of P and his age after 6 years is 3:4
(iii) The ratio between the present age of Q and his age after 6 years is 5:6
a) Any two of the above statements together are necessary (Ans)
b) All the three statements together are necessary
c) Only (i) and (ii) together are necessary
d) Only (i) and (iii) together are necessary

Explanation : The equations from the three given statements are :
P = 3
Q 5 —-(i)
P = 3
P + 6 4 —-(ii)
and Q = 5
Q+ 67 6 —-(iii)
:. From any two equations the value of P and Q can be determined and then their difference can be calculated .

12. What is the speed of moving train ?
(i) This train crosses another train coming from opposite direction in 72 seconds
(ii) The length of the first train is 100 metres
(iii) The length of the second train is 180 metres
a) All the three statements together are necessary
b) All the three statements together are not sufficient (Ans)
c) Only (ii) and (iii) together are necessary
d) Only (i) and (ii) together are necessary

Explanation : As the speed of first train is not given, so the speed of second train cannot be found

13. What was Q’s share in the money ?
a) P received Rs.1200 more than R
b) Q received Rs.800 more than P
c) R received Rs.1600
a) Only statements (i) and (ii) together are necessary
b) Statements (i) and (ii) or (iii) are necessary
c) All the three statements together are necessary (Ans)
d) All the three statements together are not sufficient

Explanation : The equations from the given statements are : R = 1600
P-R = 1200
and Q-P = 800
:. In order to find the value of Q, all the equations are necessary.

14. What sum of money did Prakash borrow from Arun ?
(i) Arun received Rs.6400 from Prakash after 8 years as S.I.
(ii) Prakash invested 50% of the borrowed money and received Rs.8000 in return of this investment
(iii) Total S.I. after 4 years was 20% of the total sum of money
a) Only statements (i) and (ii) together are necessary
b) Only statements (i) and (iii) together are necessary (Ans)
c) All the three statements together are necessary
d) All the three statements together are not sufficient

Explanation : From statement (i) 6400 = X x 8 x r
100
Hence, the value x can be obtained from statements (i) and (iii)

15. What profit per cent did Arun earn by selling his car ?
(i) Instead of purchasing a motor cycle Arun purchased a car and paid Rs.60000
(ii) Arun has purchased his motor cycle for Rs.25000
(iii) Arun sold his car for Rs.1,10,000
a) Only (i) and (ii) are necessary
b) Only (ii) and (iii) are necessary
c) All the three statements together are necessary (Ans)
d) All the three statements together are not sufficient
SSC Aptitude-Analytical solved question papers

SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination. Staff Selection Commission SSC CGL examinations sample placement papers questions with detailed explanations. SSC previous years solved question papers SSC previous years solved question papers of aptitude,anlytical,reasoning verbal ability and others

SSC CGL Model Test Paper – Aptitude, analytical reasoning

1. If a = 5 + 2 ?6, the value of ?a – 1/?a is ?
(A) 2 ?2 (Ans)
(B) 2 ?3
(C) 3 – ?2
(D) 1 + ?5

Explanation : a = 5 + 2 ?6
= (?3)2 + 2 (?3) * (?2) + (?2)2
= (?3 + ?2)2\
? ?a = ?3 + ?2
? ?a – 1/?a = (?3 + ?2) – (1/?3 + ?2)
= (?3 + ?2)2 – 1 / (?3 + ?2) = 5 + 2 ?6 – 1 / ?3 + ?2
= 4 + 2 ?6 / ?3 + ?2 = 2 ?2 (?2 + ?3) / ?3 + ?2
= 2 ?2

2. Simplify ??[(12.1)2 – (8.1)2 ÷ [(0.25)2 + (0.25) (19.95)]
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4 (Ans)

Explanation : ?[(12.1)2 – (8.1)2 ÷ [(0.25)2 + (0.25) (19.95)]
= ?[(12.1 + 8.1) (12.1 – 8.1)] ÷ [0.25 (0.25 + 19.95)]
= ?(20.2 * 4) ÷ (0.25 * 20.2)
= ?20.2 * 4 / 0.25 * 20.2 = ?16 = 4

3. Simplify ?
(2.3)3 – 0.027 / (2.3)2 + 0.69 + 0.09
(A) 0
(B) 1.6
(C) 2 (Ans)
(D) 3.4

4. On simplification of ?
1/30 + 1/42 + 1/56 + 1/72 + 1/90 + 1/100 we get ?
(A) 2/27
(B) 1/9
(C) 5/27
(D) 6/55 (Ans)

5. If 0 < a < 1, then the value of a + 1/a is ?
(A) Greater than 2 (Ans)
(B) Less than 2
(C) Greater than 4
(D) Less than 4

Explanation : a + 1/a – 2 = (?a – 1/?a)2 = positive
? a + 1/a > 2

6. The simplification of 2.002 + 7.9 {2.8 – 6.3 (3.6 – 1.5) + 15.6} yields ?
(A) 2.002
(B) 4.2845
(C) 40.843
(D) 42.845 (Ans)

7. The arrangement of rational numbers -7/10, 5/-8, 2/-3 in ascending order is ?
(A) -7/10, 5/-8, 2/-3
(B) -7/10, 2/-3, 5/-8 (Ans)
(C) 2/-3, 5/-8, -7/10
(D) 5/-8, -7/10, 2/-3

Explanation : -7/10 = -0.7
-5/8 = – 0.625
and 2/-3 = – 0.667
On writing these numbers in ascending order, we get
-7/10, 2/-3, and -5/8

8. Given that log10 2 = 0.3010, then log2 10 is equal to ?
(A) 0.3010
(B) 0.6990
(C) 1000/301 (Ans)
(D) 699/301

Explanation : log2 10 = 1/log10 2
= 1/0.3010 = 1000/301
_ _
9. 3.9 + 5.7 is equal to ?
_
(A) 9.6
_
(B) 8.6
_
(C) 7.6 (Ans)
_
(D) 1.6
_ _
Explanation : 3.9 + 5.7 = – 3 + .9 – 5 + .7
_
= – 8 + 1.6 = 7.6

10. If 1/6.198 = 0.16134, then the value of 1/0.0006198 is ?
(A) 16134
(B) 1613.4 (Ans)
(C) 0.16134
(D) 0.016134

Explanation : 1/6.198 = 0.16134
? 1/0.0006198 = 1/6.198 * 10-4
= 1 * 104 / 6.198 = 1/6.198 * 10,000
= 0.16134 * 10,000
= 1613.4

11. Square root of 0.081/0.0064 * 0.484/6.25 * 2.5/12.1 is ?
(A) 0.45 (Ans)
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.95
(D) 0.99

Explanation : ?0.081/0.0064 * 0.484/6.25 * 2.5/12.1
= ?810/64 * 484/6250 * 25/121
= ?81/64 * 484/625 * 25/121
= 9/8 * 22/25 * 5/11 = 0.45

12. If xy = yx, then (x/y)x/y is equal to ?
(A) xx/y
(B) xx/y -1 (Ans)
(C) xy/x
(D) xy/x -1

Explanation : xy = yx
or xy/x = y
? x/y = x/xy/x = x1-y/x = xx-y/x
? (x/y)x/y = (xx-y/x)x/y = xx-y/y = xx/y-1

13. Which is the greatest out of the following ?
(i) 3?1.728
(ii) ?3 – 1 / ?3 + 1
(iii) (1/2)-2
(iv) 17/8

(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii) (Ans)
(D) (iv)

Explanation : (i) 3?1.728 = 1.2
(ii) ?3 – 1 / ?3 + 1 = (?3 – 1)(?3 + 1)
(?3 + 1)(?3 – 1)

= 3 + 1 – 2 ?3
3 – 1

= 2 – ?3 = 0.26

(iii) (1/2)-2 = (2/1)2 = 4
(iv) 17/8 = 2.125
? (iii) is the greatest.

14. If (a + b = 3), then what is the value of ?(a3 + b3 + 9ab) ?
(A) 18
(B) 27 (Ans)
(C) 81
(D) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Explanation : Given,a + b = 3
? a3 + b3 = (a + b) (a2 + b2 – ab)
= (a + b) [(a + b)2 – 3ab]
= 3 [9 – 3ab]
= 27 – 9ab
? a3 + b3 + 9ab = 27 – 9ab + 9ab = 27

15. A vertical stick 10 cm long casts a shadow 8 cm long. At the same time a tower casts a shadow 30 m long. What is the height of the tower ?
(A) 37.5 m (Ans)
(B) 36 m
(C) 32.5 m
(D) 32 m

Explanation : Let the height of the tower = h metre and angle of elevation of sun = ?

tan ? = 10/8 = h/30
? h = 10 * 30/8 = 75/2 = 37.5 metres
SSC Aptitude-English
SSC Model Question Paper

English Language

Directions?(Q. 1?15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a small hill town there lived a thief. He was very smart and before breaking into houses for theft he used to enquire about the lifestyles of the people staying in that house. Then at the dead of night he used to commit theft.

Dhanpatrai was a moneylender living in the same town. He was thrifty and never wasted money. He had a daughter named Laxmi. The thief knew that Dhanpatrai was rich and he had a lot of jewellery with him. Smartly the thief found out the location of the house and designed the theft. One night, getting up to the roof of the house he started removing the roof-covering made of earthen tiles.

The moneylender heard the sound and was sure that a thief was on the roof of the house. Now he had to create some ploy. He hit upon a plan. ?Laxmi,Laxmi? he called out to his daughter who was sleeping. ?Laxmi, I hope our money-box and jewellery are kept in the ceiling,? he asked cleverly. Generally, in hill area, to keep house warm in winter, houses have a thatched roofing and below that, a wooden ceiling. Certain things used to be kept in the space between the roofing and wooden ceiling. So when the thief heard the question put by Dhanpatrai, he thought that there was a ceiling below the thatched roof. So he jumped down. But actually in the house there was no wooden ceiling. So the thief fell to the floor of the house which was about fifteen feet below and broke his leg.

Immediately the moneylender called all the neighbours and they handed over the thief to the police. He saved his house from being burgled, with his ingenuity.

1. What was the role of Laxmi in this episode ?
(A) She called people and scared the thief.
(B) Laxmi sent the people for police.
(C) She asked Dhanpatrai to call the people.
(D) Her name was used to misguide the thief.
(E) She got the idea of fooling the thief.
Ans : (D)

2. How did the thief enter the house of Dhanpatrai ?
(a) By removing the tiled top of the house.
(b) By removing the wooden ceiling.
(c) By opening the door with duplicate key.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Where was the jewellery actually kept ?
(A) Inside the bed on which Laxmi was sleeping
(B) On the thatched roof top
(C) Below the pillow of Dhanpatrai
(D) There is no mention of jewellery?s location
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. What was the quality of the thief ?
(A) He was expert in removing roof tops
(B) Before theft he used to study the lifestyles of residents
(C) He was accurate in identifying his victim
(D) He was liked by the people and the police
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. Who was Dhanpatrai ?
(A) The father of the thief
(B) The moneylender who used to keep valuables on the roof
(C) A cunning and crafty man
(D) The father of Laxmi
(E) The thief
Ans : (D)

6. Who called the police ?
(A) The son of Dhanpatrai
(B) The daughter of Dhanpatrai
(C) Dhanpatrai himself
(D) Some one who provoked the thief for the act
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

7. Which quality of Dhanpatrai protected his house ?
(A) His thrifty behaviour
(B) His deep affection for the daughter
(C) The cleverness with which he handled the situation
(D) His past decision of not thatching the roof top
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Why did the thief choose Dhanpatrai?s house for the act ?
(A) There was hardly any house left in the town for theft
(B) Dhanpatrai was living with his daughter
(C) The house did not have wooden ceiling
(D) He had the information that Dhanpatrai was rich
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The daughter of Dhanpatrai was too weak to handle the thief
(B) The people of the town did not like Dhanpatrai
(C) Dhanpatrai played a trick with the thief
(D) Dhanpatrai did not have money for wastage
(E) Laxmi rushed out and gathered the people
Ans : (C)

10. The thief would have escaped unhurt had there been ……….
(A) a dog in the house
(B) a wooden ceiling below the thatched roof
(C) very few policemen to catch him
(D) no alertness on the part of Dhanpatrai?s son
(E) jewellery kept in the house
Ans : (B)

Directions?(Q. 11?15) Which of the following word/phrase has the SAME meaning as the word/phrase printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. Thrifty
(A) Miser
(B) Spendthrift
(C) Shameful
(D) Prolific
(E) Extravagant
Ans : (A)

12. Broke his leg
(A) Fell unconscious
(B) Was shocked
(C) Fracture at the back
(D) Broke the thorn
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

13. At the dead of
(A) On death of
(B) At deep
(C) In the dawn
(D) Early evening
(E) Every day
Ans : (B)

14. Hit upon a plan
(A) Got an idea
(B) Quashed the plan
(C) Lacked planning
(D) Without plan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. Enquire about
(A) Keep pace with
(B) Write
(C) Investigate into
(D) Keep others informed
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions?(Q. 16?20) Rearrange the following five sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the questions given below them.
(a) To her surprise, she found the baby quite safe in the cradle.
(b) It had blood all over its mouth
(c) She then entered the house, expecting to find her baby dead
(d) Malathi discovered the mongoose seated on the doorstep.
(e) Thinking that it had killed her son, she struck the mongoose so hard that it laid still.

16. Which of the sentences should come LAST (FIFTH) in the paragraph after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the sentences should come FOURTH in the paragraph after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (C)

18. Which of the sentences should come FIRST in the paragraph after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (D)

19. Which of the sentences should come THIRD in the paragraph after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (E)

20. Which of the sentences should come SECOND in the paragraph after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (B)

Directions?(Q. 21?25) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C), (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct mark (E) i.e. ?No correction required? as the answer.

21. Newspapers have great power because their enormous circulation.
(A) on account
(B) because of
(C) as a result
(D) owing
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

22. The crowd which has gather to protest against the decision slowly returned to their homes.
(A) which had gathered
(B) which have gather
(C) gathering up
(D) which gathers around
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

23. He will be handling the next project since he has vastly experience in this business.
(A) vast experience
(B) vastly experienced
(C) a vast experiencing
(D) the vast experience
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

24. Children nowadays are watching too much television.
(A) to much of
(B) more of
(C) very much of
(D) much on
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

25. The bridge in connection with the two cities will remain closed for security reasons.
(A) connects between
(B) in connection to
(C) being connected from
(D) connecting
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions?(Q. 26?35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ?No error?. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

26. Mr. Gupta insisted (A) / that he was (B) / fully prepare (C) / to present the proposal. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

27. All this document (A) / have been destroyed (B) / in the fire (C) / which occurred last month. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

28. On his next (A) / official visit to Delhi (B) / he plans to (C) / visit his old colleagues. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

29. Sunil refused to admit that (A) / he did not know (B) / what to operate (C) / the new machine. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

30. He has refused (A) / not to take (B) / the promotion although (C) / he is eligible. (D) No error (E) /Ans : (B)

31. There has been (A) / a fall from (B) / the profits of (C) / our company recently. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

32. The decision to open (A) / offices in Shimla (B) / were taken at (C) / the last Board meeting. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

33. We were so late (A) / than the meeting (B) / was almost over v/ when we arrived. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

34. They waited patient (A) / for the Chairman?s speech (B) / to end in order (C) / to begin the discussion. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

35. Arjun was (A) / not selected (B) / for the post (C) / inspite his hard work. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions?(Q. 36?40) Pick out the most effective word/group of words from those given to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

36. Although he appears to be very ……… in his speech, he is very good at heart.
(A) strong
(B) fine
(C) rude
(D) innocent
(E) talkative
Ans : (C)

37. He was wrongly punished although he was not ……….
(A) fault
(B) mistaken
(C) erroneous
(D) guilty
(E) accused
Ans : (D)

38. ……… you complete the assignment in time, you will not be allowed to proceed on leave.
(A) If
(B) Unless
(C) Before
(D) When
(E) After
Ans : (B)

39. In the ……… two months, we will not be able to meet him.
(A) past
(B) last
(C) farther
(D) next
(E) future
Ans : (A)

40. The festival of Deepawali was ……… by all of us.
(A) performed
(B) enjoyed
(C) spent
(D) engaged
(E) rejoicing
Ans : (B)

Directions?(Q. 41?50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day a jackal fell into an old well. There was not much water in the well. There was only knee-deep water and the jackal didn?t die. But he couldn?t climb up …(41)… of his best efforts. A goat came that way. It peeped into the well and saw the jackal. The goat asked, ?What are you …(42)… there ?? The jackal replied, ?Oh ! This well …(43)… sweet, jaggery water, I have had my fill. I can?t drink more. It is very sweet. Do you want to …(44)… it ?? ?Yes, of course,? the goat replied. ?Then jump in?, advised the jackal.? The goat jumped in. In a second the jackal jumped on the goat?s back and jumped out of the well. The goat …(45)… its mistake. It called for help from the jackal to get out of the well. But the jackal ran away smiling and with the pride of having …(46)… the poor goat. On the way he met a cat. Most sarcastically he told the cat, ?Oh ! You lot is really pitiable. For food you have to …(47)… on left-overs. You have to go to the backside of houses, hotels or garbage dumps for your food. I catch fouls, kill and eat them.? When he was …(48)… like this some hunting dogs came that way. The cat was clever. It jumped up on a tree. But the jackal had …(49)… to go. Even though it tried to run, the hunting dogs …(50)… it and killed it. All his slyness, could not save him, from his doom.

41. (A) instead
(B) inspite
(C) because
(D) better
(E) despite
Ans : (B)

42. (A) doing
(B) studying
(C) examining
(D) searching
(E) wandering
Ans : (A)

43. (A) stone
(B) made
(C) smells
(D) contains
(E) carried
Ans : (D)

44. (A) eat
(B) examine
(C) prove
(D) avoid
(E) taste
Ans : (E)

45. (A) suffers
(B) done
(C) realized
(D) makes
(E) punished
Ans : (C)

46. (A) won
(B) gained
(C) ditch
(D) cheated
(E) helped
Ans : (D)

47. (A) depend
(B) hunt
(C) wait
(D) bent
(E) relied
Ans : (A)

48. (A) whispering
(B) moaning
(C) boasting
(D) crying
(E) yelling
Ans : (C)

49. (A) everywhere
(B) nowhere
(C) not
(D) place
(E) where
Ans : (B)

50. (A) avoided
(B) catch
(C) powered
(D) hold
(E) overpowered
Ans : (E)

SSC Aptitude Numerical
SSC Mental aptitude,general ability and aptitude reasoning questions for learn and practice,

Directions (1-10) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
1. 47.7 x 12.4 x 8.6
a) 5708.423
b) 5218.665
c) 6180.656
d) 5086.728
e) None of these
Ans : (d)

2. 4 and 4/5 ÷ 6 and 2/5
a) 3/4
b) 5/7
c) 7/11
d) 5/8
e) None of these
Ans : (d)
24/5 ÷ 32/5
= 24/5 x 5/32 = 3/4

3. 1193.85 ÷ (42 x 1.5) = ?
a) 18.95
b) 16.25
c) 19.18
d) 14.64
e) None of these
Ans : (a)

4. 7719 + 8725 + 9124 = ?
a) 21911
b) 28388
c) 20578
d) 24964
e) None of these
Ans : (e)

5. 8.7 x ? = 46.98
a) 5.3
b) 6.9
c) 4.7
d) 7.8
e) None of these
Ans : (e)

6. ? ÷ 48 x 12 = 171
a) 684
b) 566
c) 698
d) 596
e) None of these
Ans : (a)

7. 1311.2 x 133.6 = ?
a) 1312.3
b) 137.6
c) 1314.8
d) 1310.3
e) None of these
Ans : (c)

8. 11.11 + 111.1 + 1111.11 = ?
a) 1323.23
b) 1233.32
c) 1322.33
d) 1232.22
e) None of these
Ans : (b)

9. 5 x ? = 9884 ÷ 16
a) 123.55
b) 91.25
c) 103.18
d) 115.65
e) None of these
Ans : (a)

10. 26.5 % of 488 = ?
a) 205.65
b) 211.72
c) 145.67
d) 129.32
e) None of these
Ans : (e)

Directions (11-15) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?
11. 1548 516 129 43 ?
a) 11
b) 10.75
c) 9.5
d) 12
e) None of these
Ans : (b)
The given number series is based on the following pattern :
1548 516 129 43 10.75
I_____Î I_____Î I_____Î I_____Î
÷3 ÷4 ÷3 ÷4
Hence , 10.75 will replace the question mark

12. 949 189.8 ? 22.776 11.388 6.8328
a) 48.24
b) 53.86
c) 74.26
d) 56.94
e) None of these
Ans : (d)
The given number series is based on the following pattern
949 189.8 56.94 22.776 11.388 6.8328
I_____Î I_____Î I_____Î I_____Î I_____Î
x0.2 x0.3 x0.4 x0.5 x0.6

13. 121 144 190 259 ? 466
a) 351
b) 349
c) 374
d) 328
e) None of these
Ans : (a)
The given number series is based on the following pattern :
121 + 23 x1 = 144
144 +23 x 2 = 190
190+23×3 = 259
:. ? = 259 + 23 x 4 = 259 + 92=351
Hence, 351 will replace the question mark.

14. 14 43.5 264 ? 76188
a) 3168
b) 3176
c) 1587
d) 1590
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
The given number series is based on the following pattern :
14×3 + 1.5 = 43.5
43.5 x 6 + 1.5 x 2 = 264
264 x 12+1.5 x4 = 3174
3174 x 24 +1.5 x 8 = 76188
Hence, 3174 will replace the question mark

15. 41 164 2624 ? 6045696
a) 104244
b) 94644
c) 94464
d) 102444
e) None of these
Ans : (c)
The given number series is based on the following pattern :
41 x 22 = 164
164 x 42 = 2624
2624×62 = 94464
94464 x 82 = 6045696
Hence , 94464 will replace the question mark.
Directions (16-20): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
16. v 99999 = ?
a) 217
b) 384
c) 316
d) 296
e) 255
Ans : (c)
? = v 99999
= v100000 = 100v10 = 316

17. (v 100)3 = ? x 0.14
a) 1000
b) 7200
c) 1400
d) 625
e) 8500
Ans : (b)
(v 100)3 = ? x 0.14
==> ? x 0.14 = 100 x 10
==> ? = 100 x 10 = 7200
0.14

18. 87.999 x 6413.012 = 8?
a) 21
b) 27
c) 6
d) 34
e) 18
Ans : (d)
= 88 x (82)13
= 88 x 826 = 834

19. 18.499 % of ? = 97.125
a) 485
b) 615
c) 705
d) 345
e) 500
Ans : (e)
=> 18.5 x ?/100 = 97
=> 19 x ?/100 = 97
=> ? = 97 x 100 = 510 = 500
19

20. 841.952 x 1.999 ÷ 7.014 = ?
a) 241
b) 304
c) 214
d) 186
e) 316
Ans : (a)

21. What is the least number to be added to 2600 to make it a perfect square ?
a) 1
b) 5
c) 3
d) 9
e) None of these
Ans : (a)
50 x 50 = 2500
51 x 51 = 2601
:. Least number to be added = 2601 – 2600 = 1

22. The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers A, B, C, D and E respectively in ascending order is 37. What is the product of B and D ?
a) 1365
b) 2035
c) 1935
d) 1585
e) None of these
Ans : (a)
Let the consecutive odd numbers be x, x+2, x+4, x+6 and x+8 respectively.
According to the question, x+x+2+x+4+x+6+ x+8
= 5×37 => 5x + 20 = 185
=> 5x = 185 -20 = 165
=> x = 165/5 = 33
:. A = 33; B = 33+2 = 35; D=x+6= 33+6 = 39
B x D = 35 x 39 = 1365

23. What should be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs.4800 at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. after 3 years
a) Rs. 623.5
b) Rs.756.6
c) Rs.817.8
d) Rs.448.7
e) None of these
Ans : (b)
CI = P [(1+R/100)T -1]
= 4800 [(1+5/100)3 -1]
= 4800 [(21/20)3 -1]
= 4800 [9261/8000 -1]
= 4800 x (9261-8000)
8000
= 4800 x 1261 = Rs.756.6
8000

24. The product of two consecutive even numbers is 45368. What is the greater number ?
a) 212
b) 216
c) 210
d) 208
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
Of the given alternatives, 212 x 214 = 45368
:. Required greater number = 214

25. A car covers a distance of 576kms. in 12 hours. What is the speed of the car ?
a) 54 kmph
b) 62 kmph
c) 46 kmph
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
Speed of the car = Distance covered = 576 = 48 kmph
Time taken 12

26. What is 304 times 141 ?
a) 39640
b) 45942
c) 38760
d) 42864
e) None of these
Ans : (d)

27. The cost of 4 rings and 2 bangles is Rs.57200. What is the cost of 6 rings and 3 bangles ?
a) Rs.95340
b) Rs.85800
c) Rs.76600
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Ans : (b)
Let the CP of 1 ring and 1 bangle be Rs. x and y respectively
According to the question , 4x + 2Y -= 57200
Multiplying both sides by 1.5, we have 6x + 3y = 1.5 x 57200 = 85800

28. The difference between 54% of a number and 26% of the same number is 22526. What is 66% of that number ?
a) 53097
b) 48372
c) 51218
d) 49124
e) None of these
Ans : (a)
Let the number be x, According to the question
(54-26)% of x = 22526
=> 28/100 * x= 22526
=> x = 22526 * 100 = 80450
28
:. 66% of 80450
= 66 * 80450 = 53097
100

29. Priya deposits an amount of Rs.65800 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 14 p.c.p.a. for 4 years. What total amount will Priya get at the end of 4 years ?
a) Rs. 1,02,648
b) Rs.1,15,246
c) Rs.1,25,578
d) Rs. 1,10,324
e) None of these
Ans : (a)
SI = P x R x T
100
= Rs. (65800 x 14 x 4)
100
= Rs. 368.48 :. Amount = Principal + SI
= Rs. (65800 + 36848)
= Rs.102648

30. The owner of a cell phone shop charges his customer 28% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs.8960 for the cell phone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone ?
a) Rs.7800
b) Rs.7100
c) Rs.6900
d) Rs.6850
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
CP of the cell phone = Rs.(100/128 x 8960) = Rs.7000

31. In an annual examination Anish scores a total of 724 marks out of 1025. What is his approximate percentage in the annual examination ?
a) 79
b) 67
c) 71
d) 88
e) 62
Ans : (c)
Percentage of mark = 724/1025 * 100 = 71

32. A canteen requires 651 bananas for a week. Totally how many bananas will it require for the months of April, May and June 2009 ?
a) 9086
b) 8547
c) 9284
d) 8463
e) None of these
Ans : (d)
Number of days in April, May and June 2009 = 30 + 31 + 30 = 91
:. Requirement of bananas for 7 days = 651
:. Requirement of bananas for 91 days = 651/7 * 91 = 8463

33. If an amount of Rs.4,36,563 is distributed equally amongst 69 persons, how much amount would each person get ?
a) Rs.5943
b) Rs.6327
c) Rs.6148
d) Rs.5876
e) None of these
Ans : (b)
Amount received by each person = Rs. (436563/69) = Rs.6327

34. There are 1825 employees in an organization, out of which 64% got transferred to different places. How many such employees are there who got transferred ?
a) 1054
b) 1490
c) 1263
d) 1168
e) None of these
Ans : (d)
Number of employees transferred = 64% of 1825
64 x 1825 = 1168
100

35. 64% of a number is 2592. What is 88% of that number ?
a) 3458
b) 3202
c) 3826
d) 3564
e) None of these
Ans : (d)
Let the number be x
:. 64% of x = 2592
=> 64x = 2592
100
=>x = 2592 x 100 = 4050
64
:. 88% of4050
= 88 x 4050 = 3564
100

36. If the fractions
3/5, 2/3, 1/4, 5/7 and 6/11 are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
a) 3/5
b) 1/4
c) 5/7
d) 6/11
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
Decimal equivalents of each fraction :
3/5 = 0.6; 2/3 = 0.67; 1/4 = 0.25 ; 5/7 = 0.71; 6/11 = 0.545
clearly, 0.25<0.545<0.6<0.67<0.71
:. The fourth fraction = 2/3

37. In an examination it is required to get 1050 of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 924 marks and is declared failed by 9% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get ?
a) 1250
b) 1525
c) 1400
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Ans : (c)
Let the maximum marks be x
:. 9% of x = 1050 – 924
=> 9x/100 = 126
=> x=126 x 100 = 1400
9
38. The total number of students in a school is 2140. If the number of girls in the school is 1200, then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school ?
a) 26:25
b) 47:60
c) 18:13
d) 31:79
e) None of these
Ans : (b)
Total number of students = 2140
Number of girls = 1200
:. Number of boys = 2140 – 1200 = 940
:. Required ratio = 940:1200: = 47 : 60

39. Find the average of the following set of numbers :
354, 281, 623, 518, 447, 702, 876
a) 538
b) 555
c) 568
d) 513
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
354+281+623+518+447+702+876 = 3801 = 543
7 7
40. Veena invests Rs.72318, which is 17% of her annual income, in mutual funds. What is her monthly income ?
a) Rs.33,600
b) Rs.32,990
c) Rs.35,450
d) Rs.28,980
e) None of these
Ans : (c)
Let Veena’s annual income be Rs.x
According to the question , 17% of x = 72318
=> x = 72318 x 100 = Rs.425400
17
:. Veena’s monthly income
= Rs. (425400) = Rs.35450
12
SSC Aptitude-Numerical
SSC Aptitude Paper

1. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 158.25 x 4.6 + 21% of 847+?= 950.93 50 45
* 35
* 40
* 25
* Answer: 45
* 53.25

2. The average of the first and the second of three numbers is 15 more than the average of the second and the third of these numbers. What is the difference between the first and the third of these three numbers?
* 15
* 45
* 60
* Data inadequate
* Answer: None of these

3. Difference is 30 ? The difference between the simple and the compound interest compounded every six rnonths at the rate of 10 %.p.a. at the end of two years is Rs. 124.05. What is the sum?
* Rs 10,000
* Rs 6,000
* Rs 12,000
* Answer: Rs 8,000
* None of these

4. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 85.147 + 34.912 x 6.2 + ? = 802.293
* 400
* 450
* 550
* 600
* Answer: 500

5. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 9548+7314=8362+?
* 8230
* Answer: 8500
* 8410
* 8600
* None of these

6. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 248.251 ÷ 12.62 x 20.52 =?
* Answer: 400
* 450
* 600
* 375
* 350

7. When a number is added to another number the total becomes 333.333 per cent of the second number. What is the ratio between the first and the second number?
* 3:7
* 7:4
* Answer: 7:3
* Data inadequate
* None of these

8. There are 11 members in a family out of which there are 4 males and remaining females. The family has hired three cars for a trip to zoo. The members are to be seated in the cars in such a way that there are not more than four members in one car and there is at least one male in each car. How many different ways can the members travel?
* 610
* 126
* 140
* 532
* Answer: None of these

9. 657 Ways 9:- The sum of four numbers is 64.If you add 3 to the first number, 3 is subtracted from second number, the third is multiplied by 3 and the sum is divided by 3, then all the results are equal. What is the difference between the largest and the smallest of the original numbers?
* Answer: 32
* 27
* 21
* Cannot be determined
* None of these

10. The Numbers are 9,15,4,36 10. In a recent Survey 40% homes contained two or more People. Of those houses containing only one person 25% were having only a male. What is the percentage of all houses which contain exactly one female and no males?
* 75
* 40
* 15
* Cannot be determined
* Answer: None of these

11. 45 percent 11. Sumitra has an average of 56% on her first 7 examinations. How much should she make on her eighth examination to obtain an average of 60% on 8 examinations?
* 88%
* 78%
* 98%
* Answer: Cannot be determined
* None of these

12. Since Total marks are not given So Can not be Determined 12. A classroom has equal number of boys and girls. Eight girls left to play Kho-kho, leaving twice as many boys as girls in the classroom. What was the total number of girls boys present initially? ?
* Cannot be Determined
* 16
* 24
* Answer: 32
* None of these

13. 16 boys 16 Girls 13. An amount of money is to be distributed among P, Q and R in the ratio of 6:19:7 respectively. If R gives Rs. 200/- of his share to Q, the ratio among P, Q and R becomes 3:10:3 respectively .What was the total amount?
* Answer: Rs. 6,400/-
* Rs 12800/-
* Rs 3,200/-
* Data inadequate
* None of these

14. A man in his will distributed his money in such a way that half of it is for his wife, two-thirds of the remaining equally to three of his sons and the remaining amount equally to four of his daughters. If each of the daughters receives Rs. 20,000/-, how much money will each of his sons receive?
* Rs. 50,333.33
* Rs 48333.33
* Answer: Rs 53,333.33
* Data inadequate
* None of these

15. Arun thinks his weight is more than 65 kg but less than 72 . His brother does not agree with him and thinks Arun?s Weight is more than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. Arun ?s Mother thinks Arun?s weight cannot be more than 68kg. If all of them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of the probable values of Arun?s weight?
* 69 kg
* Answer: 67 kg
* 68kg
* Data inadequate
* None of these

16. The length and the breadth of the floor of a room is 20 ft. and 10 ft respectively. Square tiles of 2 ft. dimension having three different colours are placed on the floor. The first row of tiles on all sides is of black colour, out of the remaining one-third is of white colour and the remaining are of blue colour. How many blue Coloured tiles are there?
* Answer: 16
* 32
* 48
* 24
* None of these

17. If the arithmetic mean of 6, 8, 10. x, 7 is 8.the value of x will be
* 7
* Answer: 9
* 10
* 8
* none of these

18. A train is moving with an uniform speed. It crosses a railway platform 120 metres long in 12 seconds and another platform 170 meires long in 16 seconds. The speed of the train per second is?
* Answer: 12.5 m/sec
* 10 m/sec
* 10.22 m/sec
* 14 m/sec
* None of these

19.The median of the data 30. 25, 27, 25-8, 29, 35,38. 28 is
* Answer: 28.5
* 29.5
* 28
* 29
* None of these

20. If the sum of the two radii of two circles is 7 cm and the difference of their circumference is 8 cm, the two circumferences will be?
* 34cm and 26cm
* 28cm and 20cm
* Answer: 26 cm and 18 cm
* 20cm and 12cm
* None of these

SSC CGL Tier
SSC CGL General ability Questions with answers.Staff Selection commission SSC Combined Graduate level Tier-1 previous years solved questions papers with detailed explnations

SSC CGL Previous Yera solved question papers

Directions (Question. 1-3) For each of the following questions, there exists a certain relation between the first two words. The same relation also exists in third and fourth words. Out of these four words, one word is missing. The place of the missing word is shown by question-mark. Find out the missing word from the five words given below in each question.

1. Air : Atmosphere : : Water : ?
a) Island
b) Earth
c) Ocean
d) Drop
e) Dew
Ans : (c) Since ‘Atmosphere’ is the biggest unit which contains ‘Air’ in the same way ‘Ocean’ is the biggest unit which contains ‘Water’.

2. Mother : Daughter : : Father : ?
a) Son
b) Brother
c) Boy
d) Sister
e) Grandfather
Ans : (a) As ‘Father’ is the masculine of ‘Mother’ in the same way ‘Son’ is the masculine of ‘Daughter’.

3. Fossils : Creatures :: Mummies : ?
a) Mothers
b) Human beings
c) Dried up dead bodies
d) Dead bodies
e) Egypt
Ans : (b) As ‘Fossils’ are the remains of ‘Creatures’ dug up from earth in the same way ‘Mummies’ are the remains of the ‘Human -beings’.

Directions (Question. 4-6) For each of the following questions there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of : : and the same relationship exists between the two terms to its right. In each of these questions the fourth terms is missing. This term is one of the alternatives among the five terms given below. Find out this term.
4. ABC : ZYX ::CBA : ?
a) XYZ
b) BCA
c) YZX
d) ZXY
e) XZY
Ans : (a) CBA is the reverse of ABC, so ZYX is the reverse of XYZ.

5. JLN : SQO :: PRT 😕
a) UYW
b) UTV
c) YWU
d) VUT
e) TUV
Ans : (c) In first term one letter is missing between two consecutive letters in alphabetical order while in second term same is repeated but in reverse order.

6. NUMBER : UNBMRE : : GHOST : ?
a) HOGST
b) HOGTS
c) HGOST
d) HGSOT
e) HGOTS
Ans : (d) First two letters of the first term are in reverse order in the second term and so are the next two letters

Directions (Question. 6-7) For each of the following questions one term is missing which is shown by the question-mark. The missing terms is one from the five alternatives given below in such a way that the relation between the first two terms is the same as the relation between the last two terms. Find out the missing term.
6. 6 : 35 :: 11: ?
a) 120
b) 115
c) 122
d) 121
e) 124
Ans : (a) Second term = (First term)2 -1
:.Fourth term = (Third term)2-1

7. 1/4 : 1/8: : 1/3 : ?
a) 1/7
b) 1/4
c) 1/6
d) 2/6
e) 1/2
Ans : (c) First term double of the second term. Hence , fourth term will be = 1/3 x 1/2 i.e., 1/6

Directions (Question. 8-9) For each of the following questions, there are two words and five alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. The candidates has to find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in beginning.
8. Resignation : Office : :
a) Competition : Game
b) Illness : Hospital
c) Abdication : Throne
d) Moisture : Rain
e) Appointment : Interview
Ans : (c) As in the resignation the office is to be left in the same manner when abdication is done, throne is to be left.

9. Sapling : Tree ::
a) Horse : Mare
b) Student : Teacher
c) Bud : Flower
d) Tree : Furniture
e) River : Brook
Ans : (c) As sapling is a young tree in the same way bud is the young flower

Directions (Question. 10-11) For each of the following questions, there are two words and eight alternative answers. The candidates have to find out two such alternatives the relation in which is the same as in the two words given in the beginning.
10. Trees and Forest
a) Ocean
b) Page
c) Books
d) Study
e) Library
f) Ship
g) Boys
h) Classes
Ans : (c, e) As number of tree together make ‘Forest’ in the same manner number of books together make ‘ Library’

11. Constable and Police
a) Clerk
b) Hospital
c) Medicine
d) Mother
e) Girl
f) Doctor
g) File
h) House
Ans : (f, b) As ‘constable’ comes under the ‘Police’ department, in the same way ‘Doctor’ comes under the Hospital

Directions (Question. 11-12) For each of the questions., there is a design at the left hand side and four designs at the right hand side. Find out the design from the right hand side, which resembles most to the design at left hand side.

Ans : 11(c) Only in figure (c), the line has one arrow at the one end and two arrows in the middle.
ans : 12(b) If the given figure is rotated through 180o figure (b) is obtained.

Ans : (b) From (fig 1 to 2) the whole design moves through 180o in which the arc at the end reverses at its own place while the small line moves through 90 o.

Ans : (a) From fig.(1) to (2) the whole design moves through 90o clockwise.

15. ‘Skirmish’ is related to ‘War’ in the same way as ‘Disease’ is related to ——-
a) Infection
b) Epidemic
c) Patient
d) Medicine
e) Death
Ans : (b) As Skirmish leads to war in the same way disease leads to epidemic .

16. Accommodation is related to ‘Rent’ in the same way as ‘Journey’ is related to —–
a) Luggage
b) Expense
c) Tax
d) Octroi
e) Fare
Ans : (e) As money given for accommodation is known as rent in the same manner money given for journey is known as fare.

17. ? is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to ?
a) Columbo, India
b) Kathmandu, Capital
c) India, Paris
d) Island, Harbour
Ans : (a)

18. ? is to Ivory as Deer is to ?
a) White, Hunt
b) Elephant, Horn
c) Huge, Rare
d) Costly, Scarce
Ans : (b)

Directions (Question. 19-20) For each of the questions, out of five words given, four have one quality or concept common which is not applicable to the fifth. Choose the odd one out.
19.
a) Square
b) Rectangle
c) Triangle
d) Circle
e) Area
Ans : (e)

20.
a) Hut
b) Building
c) Cottage
d) Accommodation
e) Villa
Ans : (d)

21. Which number will come next in the given series ? 17, 13, 11, 7, 5, 1, ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) -1
Ans : (d) Each odd term is less by 2 than its previous term.

22. -aba – cabc – dcba – bab – a
a) abdca
b) bcadc
c) abcdd
d) cbdaa
Ans : (a) The series formed is : a a b a b c a b c d d c b a c b a b a a in which the letter equi-distant from the beginning and end are the same.

23. If in a certain language, KNOWLEDGE is coded as 256535475, how is ‘GENERAL’ coded in that code ?
a) 7545993
b) 7969393
c) 7555913
d) 755591
e) None of these
Ans : (c) K is in the 11th place according to alphabetic order
:. K = 11 = 1 + 1 = 2
N = 14= 1+4 = 5
Like this O = 15 = 1+5 = 6
W= 23 = 2+3 = 5 and so on.
:. GENERAL = 7555913

24. In a certain code language —-
1. ‘po ki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’.
2. ‘kob ja ki ma’ means ‘Asha is playing tennis’.
3. ‘ki top sop ho’ means ‘they are playing football’.
4. ‘po sur kob’ means ‘Cards and tennis’.
Which word in that language means ‘Asha’ ?
a) ja
b) ma
c) kob
d) top
e) ki
Ans : (a) ‘po ki top ma’ = Usha is playing cards
‘po sur kob’ = Cards and tennis,
:. po= cards,
but kob ja ki ma=Asha is playing tennis
:. kob = tennis and ‘ki ma’= is playing
Hence, ‘ja’ = Asha

25. Mohan was facing East. He walked 4 km forward and then after turning to his right walked 3 km. Again he turned to his right and walked 4 km. After this he turned back. Which direction was he facing at that time ?
a) East
b) West
c) North
d) South
e) North-West
Ans : (a)
Movements of Mohan are as follow :

If Mohan turned back from the final position he must be facing in the direction of East.

26. Six students are sitting in a row, K is sitting between V and R. V is sitting next to M. M is sitting next to B, who is sitting on the extreme left and Q is sitting next to R. Who are sitting adjacent to V ?
a) R and Q
b) B and M
c) Q and K
d) K and R
e) M and K
Ans : (e) The positions of the six students are as given below : o ——–o——-o——–o——o——-o
B M V K R Q

27. Leela, who is Sohan’s daughter, says to Latika “Your mother Alka is the younger sister of my father who is the third child of Gajanan. ” What is the relation of Gajanan to Latika ?
a) Father
b) Uncle
c) Grand father
d) Father in-law
e) None of these
Ans : (c) As Alka is the sister of Sohan and Sohan is the third child of Gajanan, therefore, Alka will be the daughter of Gajanan. But Latika is the daughter of Alka, therefore, Gajanan will be grandfather of Latika.

28. If the first and second letters of the word ‘ D E P R E S S I O N ‘ were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which of the following would be the seventh letter from the right ?
a) R
b) O
c) P
d) S
e) I
Ans : (c) After making the required changes, the word formed is ‘E D R P S E I S N O’. The seventh letter of this word from the right is ‘P’.

29. My brother is 562 days older to me while my sister is 75 weeks older to him. If my sister was born on Tuesday, on which day was I born.
a) Sunday
b) Monday
c) Thursday
d) Tuesday
e) Wednesday
Ans : (c) Difference of No. of days of my sister’s age 75 x 7 + 562 ie., 1087 days. After dividing 1087 by 7, we get 2 as remainder. Therefore, 2 days after Tuesday is Thursday

Directions : Each of the following questions has four alternative responses. Select the correct response
30. India is the largest democracy of the world. After independence, there have been a great industrial development. The production of food grains also increased. On the contrary, the purchasing power of the common man has decreased and very small proportion of the gains of industrial and agricultural development have reached him.
Conclusions :
(I) The democracy is not suitable for India
(II) The democracy is being misused by the corrupt businessmen and politicians.
(III) The poor and the illiterate people can be easily purchased .
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) I, II and III
Ans : (b)
Directions : In each of the following questions two statements are given. Which are followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements .
31. Statements : All the goats are tigers. All the tigers are lions.
Conclusion :
I. All the goats are lions
II. All the lions are goats
III. Some lions are goats
IV. Some tigers are goats
a) All the four
b) Only I, II and III
c) Only I, III and IV
d) Only II, III and IV
e) None of these
Ans : (c)
Directions : In each of these questions below given a statement is followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and then decide which of the assumptions is/ are implicit
32. The Central Government has directed the State Government to reduce government expenditure in view of the serious resource crunch and it may not be able to sanction any additional grant to the states for the next months.
Assumptions :
I. The State Governments are totally dependent on Central Government for its expenditures
II. The central Government has reviewed the expenditure account of the State Government
III. The State Governments will abide by the directive
a) None is implicit
b) Only II and III are implicit
c) Only III is implicit
d) All are implicit
e) None of these
Ans : (b) I is not implicit because in the statement nothing is said about the source of income of State Government while II and III are directly related to the statement so II and III are implicit.

Directions (Question 33-34): Each of the following question consists of a statement followed by two arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Give answer
a) If only argument I is strong
b) If only argument II is strong
c) If either I or II is strong
d) If neither I nor II is strong
e) If both I and II are strong
33. Statement – Should number of holidays of government employees be reduced ?
Arguments –
I. Yes, our government employees are having maximum number of holidays among the other countries of the world.
II. Yes, it will lead to increased productivity of government offices.
Ans : (b) argument I is not strong because we should copy with other country. But II is strong because on reducing the number of holidays, the working time will be increased and so productivity will also increase.

34. Statement – Should election expenses to Central and State legislatures be met by the government ?
Arguments – I. Yes, it will put an end to political corruption
II. No, it is not used in any country
Ans : (a)

Directions : In each of the following questions, two statements I and II are given followed by and inference drawn from the statements. Mark your answer as :
a) If the inference is correct
b) If the inference is wrong
c) If the inference may be correct or wrong
d) If the inference is irrelevant

35. Statements —-
I. Hydrogen is a gas
II. This cylinder contains gas
Inference —— This cylinder contains Hydrogen
Ans : (c)
SSC EEE Question Paper

SSC Examination ECE,Computer

1. Find the z-transform of an cos nq.

(a) (z-a cos q) / z2 – 2za cos q

(b) z(z – a) / z2 – 2za + a2

(c) z(z – a cos q) / z2 – 2za cos q + a2 (Ans)

(d) None of these

_
Explanations : Since, z(cos nq) = z(z – cos q) / z2 – 2z cos q + 1 = u(z)

? By change of scale property, we have

__
z(an cos nq) = u (z/a)

= z/a (z/a – cos q) / z2/a2 – 2z/a cos q + 1

= z(z – a cos q) / z2 – 2za cos q + a2

2. Matrix will become singular, if value of x is

(a) 4 (Ans)

(b) 6

(c) 8

(d) 12

Explanations : The given matrix will become singular, if

? 8(-12) – x (-24) = 0

? -96 + 24x = 0

? x = 4

3. The number of vertices of odd degree is always

(a) even number (Ans)

(b) odd number

(c) prime number

(d) zero

Explanations : We know that the graph of even number of vertices always have even degree.

i.e., ? d(v) = even (integer) …..(i)
v ?veven

Also know that,

Sum of all degrees is twice the number of edges,

? ? d(v) = 2e (? e number o edges)

? ? d(v) + ? d(v) = 2e
v ?vodd v ?veven

? ? d(v) = 2e (even integer)
v ?vodd

– ? d(v) (even integer)
v ?veven

? ? d(v) = even integer
v ?vodd

(?as x-y is even when x,y ? even)

Hence, G has even number of odd degree vertices.
4. There are 9 objects and 9 boxes. Out of 9,5 objects cannot fit to be put in 3 small boxes. How many arrangements can be made, such that each object can be put in one box only?

(a) 17280 (Ans)

(b) 17820

(c) 17208

(d) 17028

Explanations : Since, 5 objects cannot fit to be put 3 small boxes, these 5 objects can be put in the remaining 6 boxes in 6P5 ways.

The remaining 4 objects can be put in 4P4 ways.

? Total number of arrangements = 6P5 x 4P4

= (6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2) x (4 x 3 x 2 x 1)

= 720 x 24

= 17280
5. What values of A, B, C and D satisfy the following simultaneous Boolean equations?

__
A + AB = 0, AB = AC

_ ___
AB + AC + CD = CD
(a) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0, D = 1

(b) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0, D = 0

(c) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1, D = 1

(d) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0, D = 0 (Ans)

__
Explanations : Given, A + AB = 0 and AB = AC

Let A = 1 and B = 0

__ __
Then, A + BA = 1 + 1.0 = 0 + 0 = 0

And also, AB = 1.0 = 0

AC = 1.0 = 0, then C = 0

We have, also given

_ _
AB + AC + CD = 1.0 + 1.0 + 0. D

= 0 + 1.1 + 0

= 0 + 1 + 0 = 1

___
So, CD should be 1.

For this, let D = 0

__ __
? CD = 0.0

_
= 0 = 1

Hence, A = 1, B = 0, C = 0, D = 0

6. The functionally complete set is

(a) {?,^,v}

(b) {?^}

(c) {?} (Ans)

(d) {?,^}

Explanations : We know that, {^,?} and {v,?} are functionally complete.

For NAND (?)

P ? Q = 7 (P ^ Q)

7P = P ? P

P v Q = (P ? P)?(Q ? Q)

P v Q = (P ? Q)?(P ? Q)

So {?} are functionally complete.

7. The function C(t) = eat u(t)* ebt u(t) is

(a) 1/a – b (eat – ebt) u(t) (Ans)

(b) 1/a + b (aat – ebt) u(t)

(c) 1/a – b (e-at – e-bt) u(t)

(d) 1/a + b (e-at + e-bt) u(t)

Explanations : Given, C(t) = eat u(t)* ebt u(t)

Taking Laplace transform,

C(s) = 1/(s-a) . 1/(s-b)

[From time convolution property]

C(s) = 1/a – b [1/(s – a) – 1/(s – b)]

Taking inverse Laplace transform,

C(t) = 1/a – b [eat – ebt] u(t)

8. For a distortionless transmission,

1. amplitude response is constant.

2. phase response is linear with frequency.

Which of the following is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (Ans)

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanations :
Frequency response of distortionless transmission.

9. Hilbert transform is known as

(a) – p phase shifter

(b) – p/2 phase shifter (Ans)

(c) p phase shifter

(d) 2p phase shifter

Explanations :
Transfer function of Hilbert transform, i.e., every frequency component is shifted by – p/2.

10. The VSWR can have any value between

(a) 0 and 1

(b) -1 and + 1

(c) 0 and ¥

(d) 1 and ¥ (Ans)

Explanations : The VSWR

s = 1 + t
1 – t

where t is reflection coefficient value between 0 and 1.

Hence, s varies from 1 to ¥.

11. If the closed-loop transfer function of a control system is given as T(s) = (s – 5) , then it is
(s + 2)(s + 3)

(a) an unstable system

(b) an uncontrollable system

(c) a minimum phase system

(d) a non-minimum phase system (Ans)

Explanations : If closed-loop transfer function has any zero in the right half of s-plane, then the system is non-minimum phase system.

12. The open-loop DC gain of a unity negative feedback system with closed-loop transfer function s + 4 is
s2 + 7s + 13

(a) 4/13

(b) 4/9 (Ans)

(c) 4

(d) 13

Explanations : We know that for unity feedback system, closed transfer fuction

T(s) = G(s)/ 1 + G(s) = s + 4 / s2 + 7s + 13

1 + G(s)/ G(s) = s2 + 7s + 13 / s + 4

1/ G(s) = s2 + 7s + 13 / s + 4 – 1 = s2 + 6s + 9 / s + 4

G(s) = s + 4 / s2 + 6s + 9

For DC gain; s = 0, thus

G(0) = 4/9

13. The equivalent inductive reactance of the circuit is

(a) j 15 O

(b) j 20 O

(c) j 10 O

(d) j 12 O (Ans)

Hence, the equivalent inductive reactance

Z = j (3 + 5 + 6) – j2 – j3 + j4

= j 12 O

14. In series R-L-C circuit at resonance frequency, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Voltage across capacity is greater than voltage across inductor

(b) Voltage across inductor is greater than voltage across capacitor

(c) Voltage across inductor is equal to voltage across capacitor (Ans)

(d) Current is minimum

15. The Fourier transform of a function is equal to its two sided Laplace transform evaluated

(a) on the real axis of the s-plane

(b) on a line parallel to the real axis of the s-plane

(c) on the imaginary axis of s-plane (Ans)

(d) on a line parallel to the imaginary axis of the s-plane

Explanations : The Fourier transform is the continuous sum of exponential of the form ejwt, where frequencies re restricted to the imaginary axis.

The Laplace transform is more generalized, where the frequency variable is s = s + jw.

If we evaluate the Laplace transform in the imaginary axis of the s-plane (s = 0).

16. A 220 V three-phase, two pole, 50Hz induction motor is running at a slip of 5%. Then speed of rotor in revolution per min, is

(a) 3000 rev/min

(b) 150 rev/min

(c) 285 rev/min

(d) 2850 rev/min (Ans)

Explanations : The speed of magnetic field is

nsync = 120 fe / P = 120(50 Hz) / 2 = 3000 rev/min) = 2850 rev/min

17. The polar plot is shown below. The type of system is
(a) type 0

(b) type 1

(c) type 2 (Ans)

(d) type 3

18. The polar plot of G(j w) for different damping ratio for the system is shown below.

Which of the following is correct ?

(a) x1 > x2

(b) x1 > x2 (Ans)

(c) x1 = x2

(d) Can’t be determined

19. The root locus of the system G(s) H(s) = K
s(s + 2)(s + 3)

has the breakaway point located at

(a) (-0.5, 0)

(b) (-2.548, 0)

(c) (-4, 0)

(d) (-0.784, 0) (Ans)

Explanations : We have,

1 + G(s) H(s) = 0

or 1 + K
s(s + 2)(s + 3)

or K = -s (s2 + 5s2 + 6s)

dK / ds = -(3s2 + 10s + 6) = 0

which gives, s = – 10 ± v100 – 72
6

= – 0.784, -2.548

The location of poles on s-plane is
Since, breakpoint must lie on root locus. So, s = – 0.784 is possible.

20. Convolution of x(t + 5) with impulse function d(t -7) is equal to

(a) x(t – 12)

(b) x(t + 12)

(c) x(t – 2) (Ans)

(d) x(t + 2)

Explanations : If x(t)* h(t) = y(t)

Then, x(t – T1)* h(t – T2) = y(t – T1 – T2)

Thus, x(t + 5)* d(t – 7) = x(t + 5 – 7) = x(t – 2)

SSC Electrical Engineering
SSC junior engineers free solved sample placement papers,SSCElectrical and electronics basics objective type questions with answers,SSC engineering model questions for practice

1. Resistance is measured in

henries
ohms
hertz
watts
Ans:B

2. A sine wave voltage is applied across an inductor. When the frequency of the voltage is decreased, the current

is increased
is decreased
does not change
momentarily goes to zero
Ans:A

3. The winding resistance of a coil can be increased by

increasing the number of turns
using a thinner wire
changing the core material
increasing the number of turns or using thinner wire
Ans:D

4. When the current through an inductor is cut in half, the amount of energy stored in the electromagnetic field

is halved
quadruples
doubles
does not change

Ans:A
5. In the complex plane, the number 14 – j5 is located in the

first quadrant
second quadrant
third quadrant
fourth quadrant
Ans:D

6. When the frequency of the source voltage decreases, the impedance of a parallel RC circuit

Increases
decreases
does not change
does not change
Ans:A

7. In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by

45°
90°
120°
180°
Ans:C

8. A constant load power means a uniform conversion of

mechanical to electrical energy
electrical to mechanical energy
current to voltage
voltage to current
Ans:B

9. Polyphase generators produce simultaneous multiple sinusoidal voltages that are separated by

certain constant phase angles
certain constant frequencies
certain constant voltages
certain constant currents
Ans:A

10. Materials with lots of free electrons are called

Conductors
insulators
semiconductors
filters
Ans:A

11. Electrons in the outer orbit are called

nuclei
valences
waves
shells
Ans:B

12. A multimeter measures

current
voltage
resistance
current, voltage, and resistance
Ans:D

13. A wiper is the sliding contact in a

Switch
photoconductive cell
thermistor
potentiometer
Ans:D

14. A circuit breaker is a

Fuse
switch
resettable protective device
resistor
Ans:C

15. An ohmmeter is an instrument for measuring

current
voltage
resistance
wattage
Ans:C

16. The atomic number is the number of neutrons in the nucleus.

A.True
B.False
Answer: Option B

17. Resistance limits the current.
A.True
B.False
Answer: Option A

18 The voltage at one point in a circuit is always measured relative to another point.
A.True
B.False
Answer: Option A

19 .If a sine wave goes through 10 cycles in 20 s, the period is
A.20 s
B.4 s
C.2 s
D.100 s
Answer: Option C

20 At a certain frequency, the output voltage of a filter is 6 V and the input is 12 V. The voltage ratio in decibels is

A.6.02 d
B.–6.02 dB
C.12.04 dB
D.–12.04 dB
Answer: Option B
SSC english questions
SSC verbal ability questions and answers,SSC,UPSC previous years questions with answers,SSC,UPSC English language questions for practice Tips and Tricks.UPSC,SSC,Common errors,Sentence completion,Verb, Infinitive, Verbal noun, Gerund, Participle,some important rules,excercise to practice

Common Errors

Exercise for Practice

1. Many a man / have / been working / under me. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘have’ to ‘has’ to make the verb singular. ‘Many a’ is always followed by a singular noun and a singular verb.

2. Cattles / were grazing / in the meadows / near our farm. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Change ‘cattles’ to ‘cattle’. ‘Cattle’ is one of those collective nouns which though singular in form are always used as plurals.

3. I told him / the story / in details / to make him understand it fully. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C – Change ‘details’ to ‘detail’.

4. I have / two sister-in-laws / whose husands / are all well settled in Delhi. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘sister-in-laws’ to ‘sister-in-law’. Plural of such compound words is formed by adding ‘s’ in the first constituent of the compound word.

5. Many a person / have lost / their life / and property in the riots. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘have’ to ‘has’. Refer to answer to Q.No. 1

6. As he stood / below the shower / the sharp jets of / ice cold water revived his spirit. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Change ‘spirit’ to ‘spirits’, as it is always used in plural form.

7. The man / who I have / often mentioned is one whose friendship / I could wish to acquire, because he is a respectable man. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘who’ to ‘whom’. Subjective form should not be used for the word functioning as object.

8. In my youth / I used to / visit / Sharma’s and Chawla’s company. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Delete ‘s from Sharma’s. When two nouns are closely connected the apostrophe’s is added only to the second.

9. The doctor said / the patient / should not have wasted / a whole week before coming for help. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Insert ‘the’ before ‘patient’ since there is emphasis on the word ‘patient’.

10. This girl / wrote an essay / so well that / her teacher was exceedingly pleased with her. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Substitute ‘an’ by ‘the’ before ‘essay’. The sentence lays emphasis on ‘essay’.

11. The old man told / his son that / there was no such thing / for luck. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Substitute ‘for’ by ‘as’. ‘Such’ is generally followed by ‘as’.

12. Bacteria is / probably the most / common form / of life on earth. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Change ‘Bacteria’ to ‘Bacterium’, since the singular form of ‘Bacteria’ is ‘Bacterium’.

13. Different / authorities defines / intelligence in / different ways. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘defines’ to define’ to make it plural in order to get it to agree with the plural subject ‘authorities’.

14. The classical / systems of dance has / many features / in common. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘has’ to ‘have’ to make it plural in order to get it to agree with the plural subject ‘systems’.

15. Everyone of the students / has brought / his / identity card. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Where the number is limited or is implied to be limited ‘each one’ will be a better usage than ‘everyone’.

16. On Friday evening / Mamta and me / took a coach / for Patna and arrived at Jamal’s house. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Substitute ‘me’ by ‘I’. Objective form of pronoun should not be used for one functioning as subject.

17. The conference was / attended / by more than / one hundred delegates. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

18. There are / no conducted tours / for tourist to visit all the / important places. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Change ‘tourist’ to ‘tourists’.

19. He neglects / attending lecutres / regularly / though college is only a few yards away from his house. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Put ‘the’ before ‘college’, since ‘college’ here has been particularized.

20. If you saw / the amount of Samosas / he consumed at breakfast this morning, / you would understand why he is so over-weight / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Replace ‘amount’ by ‘unmber’.

21. In my opinion / the balance sheet exhibits / a true and fair / view of the state of affairs of the bank. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

22. Everyman, woman and child / is now aware / of the terrible consequences of / habit of smoking. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Put ‘the’ before ‘habit’ since ‘habit’ here has been particularized, the habit of smoking.

23. The crowd at the stadium / clapped jubilantly / when the champion / received his trophy. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

24. Our state will / not be divided / into two parts / at any cost. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

25. This is one of / the most interesting book / I have / ever read. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘book’ to ‘books’.

(Verb, Infinitive, Verbal noun, Gerund, Participle)

Some Important Rules

Exercise for Practice

1. In her hour of distress / she requested Mohan to lend / her some money / but he refused to do so. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

2. Since the day the strike was declared / by the factory employees / over 20 workers have been / dismissed and 10 resigned. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Insert ‘have’ before ‘resigned’ to make it present perfect tense in sequence to the preceding clause.

3. The students were officially / told that they / are not to cross / the road against the red light. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C – Change ‘are’ to ‘were’. The verb in the reported part must agree in tense with the verb of the reporting verb.

4. On my way to office, I shall / generally come across / many children / wearing blue uniforms. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Delete ‘shall’ before ‘generally come across’ . The sentence speaks of a present activity, hence ‘shall’ is redundant.

5. The well clad servant lays / the table / while the lady of the house was busy / with her guests. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Change ‘lays’ to ‘laid’ to make it past indefinite tense to agree with the tense of the clause following.

6. The tutor cautioned/the girl’s guardian / that she would not / be able to get through the examination until she did not work hard. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Change ‘did not work hard’ to ‘worked hard’. ‘Until’ itself is negative, hence double negative is not required.

7. She said / that / she will help me / whenver I was in difficulty. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C – Change ‘will’ to ‘would’ in order to get it to agree with the past tense of the reporting verb.

8. Being a / fine day / we went out for / picnic at Okhla. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Put ‘It’ before ‘being’. The participle should not be left without agreement or with no agreement at all.

9. My friend being unwilling to attend /the court at an early hour of the morning, / sent a letter / explaining why could he not obey. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Change ‘could he’ to ‘he could’. The interrogative becomes assertive on the statement being converted from direct into indirect form.

10. Being a hot day / I shall not be able to / do any / more work. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Add ‘It’ before ‘being’. Refer to rule mentioned in answer to question no. 8 above.

11. The apples / he gave me are / too expensive / to be bad. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

12. We have been learning / our lessons regularly / since / the beginning of the term. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

13. I have been knowing / him for the last / four years, yet I haven’t been able / to establish friendship with him. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Change ‘had been knowing’, to ‘have known’. Verbs of perception are not normally used in continuous or perfect continuous tense.

14. We must not complain / that roses have thorns / but rather grateful / that thorns bear flowers. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C – put ‘be’ before ‘grateful’, the verb which is missing.

15. Did I not told / you that it was quite / necessary / to be in time ? / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Change ‘told’ to ‘tell’. The verb is used in first form with the helping verb ‘did’.

16. Day in and day out / he keep telling / his friends that / he wants to go abroad. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Chang ‘keep’ to ‘keeps on’.

17. He found the house / without any difficulty / and knocked / at the door. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

18. The fact is / that Mr. Joshi did fell / and was / injured. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Remove ‘did’ which is redundant here.

19. As he stood / under the shower / the sharp jet of ice cold water / revived his spirits. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

20. It is in 1929 / that we first flew / to / the United States. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C – Change ‘is’ to ‘was’.

21. The gentleman together with his fife / and daughter / were / drowned. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C – Substitute ‘were’ by ‘was’ to get it to agree with its singular subject ‘the gentleman’.

22. People have / ideas about / aeroplanes in / ancient times. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Change ‘have’ to ‘had’ to make it a past tense.

23. My elder brother and sister / helps me / in / my home work. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘helps’ to ‘help’. The two separate nouns joned by ‘and’ take plural verb.

24. He was looking for / an opportunity to / come out of / the meeting room. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

25. Jagan said / that he was sorry / for having / keep me waiting for sometime. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Change ‘keep’ to ‘kept’. In perfect participle the verb has third form.

Chapter 4

Sentence Completion

(Effective words, Phrases, Prepositions, Conjuctions etc.)

Direction – Each of the following questions has a word or group of words missing. Four or five alternative words are given. You have to find out which one of them would make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

1. Some of the luggage ………. not yet arrived.

(A) has (Ans)

(B) have

(C) is

(D) are

2. One of the ……… injured.

(A) player was

(B) players were

(C) players was (Ans)

(D) players are

3. We should always be careful in the choice of ………

(A) our friend

(B) our friends (Ans)

(C) ours friend

(D) ours friends

4. He talks as if he ……. a fool.

(A) is

(B) was

(C) were (Ans)

(D) has been

5. He …….. since morning.

(A) is playing

(B) has been playing (Ans)

(C) has played

(D) will be playing

6. When the meeting began, everybody took …….

(A) his seat (Ans)

(B) their seat

(C) their seats

(D) one’s seat

7. I wonder whether I …….. ever see him again.

(A) shall

(B) will

(C) should

(D) would (Ans)

8. I …… sing well when I was younger.

(A) could (Ans)

(B) might

(C) would

(D) did

9. No sooner …… than the police handcuffed him.

(A) he came

(B) did he came

(C) did he come (Ans)

(D) had he come

10. We …… some friends in for dinner tomorrow night.

(A) have

(B) are having (Ans)

(C) do have

(D) will have

11. “What exactly does he want?”

“He would like to see you ……. a good job on the project.”

(A) got (Ans)

(B) get

(C) to get

(D) will get

12. “She was sorry she didn’t attend her friend’s wedding.”

“Yes, she ……. ”

(A) regretted she can’t have gone

(B) was regretting she does not go

(C) will regret she didn’t go

(D) was regretting that she couldn’t go (Ans)

13. “Sujata is late in he office”.

“She rarely comes in time ……?”

(A) don’t she

(B) does she (Ans)

(C) doesn’t she

(D) won’t she

14. “There is a visitor here”

“All right man I …….”

(A) shall be expecting this man

(B) am expecting this man (Ans)

(C) was to expect this man

(D) had to expect this man

15. “Can we start our match?

“No, we can’t unless the referee ……..”

(A) will not give the signal

(B) gives the signal (Ans)

(C) did not give the signal

(D) does not give the signal

16. “Why is he breathing so fast”?

“The teacher made him ….. a ;mile as measure of punishment for his coming late”.

(A) running

(B) to run

(C) ran

(D) run (Ans)

17. He behaves as if he ……. a king.

(A) was

(B) were (Ans)

(C) has

(D) had

18. Do not look ……. the poor.

(A) down

(B) up

(C) upon

(D) down upon (Ans)

19. The dog has been ….. by the car.

(A) run out

(B) run over (Ans)

(C) run into

(D) run for

20. …… you apologize I shall punish you.

(A) until

(B) unless (Ans)

(C) till

(D) none of these

21. I spoke to the chairman …………. he was sitting alone in the cabin.

(A) where

(B) when (Ans)

(C) whereas

(D) whenever

22. I went directly to my boss to …….. his approval.

(A) order

(B) restore

(C) seek (Ans)

(D) collect

(E) gain

23. It was an unhappy life …….. I lived, full of many anxieties.

(A) that (Ans)

(B) which

(C) as

(D) where

(E) though

24. My concern for Jugal’s future was very ….. as he was not in job then.

(A) strong (Ans)

(B) big

(C) good

(D) powerful

(E) much

25. She remained there for hours after Jayant ……….. gone.

(A) had (Ans)

(B) did

(C) have

(D) has

(E) was

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PRACTICE SET 1

Directions : In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

1. EAGER

(a) Clever

(b) Enthusiastic

(c) Curious (Ans)

(d) Devoted

2. PLACID

(a) Clear

(b) Calm (Ans)

(c) Enjoyable

(d) Dull

3. COMMEMORATE

(a) Boast

(b) Remember (Ans)

(c) Manipulate

(d) Harmonise

(C.G.L 1995)

4. DEIFY

(a) Face

(b) Worship (Ans)

(c) Flatter

(d) Challenge

5. AMENITIES

(a) Pageantries

(b) Privileges (Ans)

(c) Facilities

(d) Courtesies

6. DISPARITY

(a) Injustice

(b) Unlikeness (Ans)

(c) Partiality

(d) Distortion

7. BARBARIAN

(a) Arrogant

(b) Impolite

(c) Uncivilized (Ans)

(d) Unkind

(CGL, 1992)

8. LETHAL

(a) Unlawful

(b) Deadly (Ans)

(c) Sluggish

(d) Smooth

9. SERENE

(a) Solemn

(b) Meak

(c) Delicate

(d) Calm (Ans)

10. GRUESOME

(a) Hateful

(b) Painful

(c) Tragic

(d) Frightful (Ans)

11. SECURE

(a) Secret

(b) Comfortable

(c) Safe (Ans)

(d) Independent

(Railways, 1991)

12. TYRANNY

(a) Misrule

(b) Power

(c) Madness

(d) Cruelty (Ans)

13. OBLIGATORY

(a) Useful

(b) Required (Ans)

(c) Stubborn

(d) Agreeable

14. CONNOISSEUR

(a) Ignorant

(b) Interpreter (Ans)

(c) Delinquent

(d) Lover of art

15. IMPETUOUS

(a) Violent

(b) Resourceful

(c) Pleasing

(d) Rash (Ans)

16. NEBULOUS

(a) Tiny

(b) Vague (Ans)

(c) Insignificant

(d) Inadequate

(SSC Assistant Grade, 1995)

17. WRATH

(a) Jealousy

(b) Hatred

(c) Anger (Ans)

(d) Violence

18. ABANDON

(a) Abscond

(b) Discontinue (Ans)

(c) Neglect

(d) Condense

19. BASHFUL

(a) Vigilant

(b) Confident

(c) Shy (Ans)

(d) Hopeful

20. GARNER

(a) Distribute

(b) Decorate

(c) Preserve

(d) Collect (Ans)

21. LETHARGY

(a) Laxity (Ans)

(b) Impassivity

(c) Serenity

(d) Listlessness

22. VERATE

(a) Scold (Ans)

(b) Judge

(c) Downgrade

(d) Deny

23. MORIBUND

(a) Stagnant

(b) Gloomy

(c) Dying (Ans)

(d) Superfluous

(S.S.C. 1991)

24. REBATE

(a) Loss

(b) Refund

(c) Compensation

(d) Discount (Ans)

25. BEMOAN

(a) Lament (Ans)

(b) Soothe

(c) Denounce

(d) Loathe
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Section 2 – Verbal Ability

Directions for Questions 1·2:
Identify the CORRECT sentence(s) in the following questions

1)

a) We have finally solved the problem with the means of a device invented by ISRO.

b) Is it possible for you to tackle the current situation?

c) They know me with my name individually.

d) The salary will be given depending on the experience you have.
A) a and b

B) c (Ans)

C) a and d

D) b

2)

A) They were. annoyed with us at charging them.

B) The expected cut in interest will be good for industry.

C) The Export Manager is responsible about the Sales Director.

D) He said he was sorry keeping me for waiting.

A) Both A and B

B) Only B (Ans)

C) Only C

D) Both C and D

Directions for Questions 3·7:

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

It is frequently assumed that the mechanization of work has a revolutionary effect on the lives of the people who operate the new machines and on the society into which the machines have been Introduced. For example, It has been suggested that the employment of women in industry took them out of the household, their traditional sphere, and fundamentally altered their position in society.

In the nineteenth century, when women began to enter factories, Jules Simon, a French politician, warned that by doing so, women would give up their femininity. Friedrich Engels, however, predicted that women would be liberated from the “social, legal, and economic subordination” of the family by technological developments that made possible the recruitment of “the whole female sex into public Industry.” Observers thus differed concerning the social desirability of mechanization’s effects, but they agreed that it would transform women’s lives. Historians, particularly those investigating the history of women, now seriously question this assumption of transforming power. They conclude that such dramatic technological innovations as the spinning jenny, the sewing machine, the typewriter, and the vacuum cleaner have not resulted in equally dramatic social changes in women’s economic position or in the prevailing evaluation of women’s work. The employment of young women in textile mills during the Industrial Revolution was largely an extension of an older pattern of employment of young, single women as domestics.

It was not the change in office technology, but rather the separation of secretarial work, previously seen as an apprenticeship for beginning managers, from administrative work that in the 1880’s created a new class of “dead· end” jobs, henceforth considered “women’s work.” The increase in the numbers of married women employed outside the home in the twentieth century had less to do with the mechanization of housework and an increase in leisure time for these women than It did with their own economic necessity and with high marriage rates that shrank the available pool of single women workers, previously, in many cases, the only women employers would hire. Women’s work has changed considerably in the past 200 years, moving from the household to the office or the factory, and later becoming mostly white· collar instead of blue-collar work. Fundamentally, however, the conditions under which women work have changed little since before the Industrial Revolution: the segregation of occupations by gender, lower pay for women as a group, jobs that require relatively low levels of skill and offer women little opportunity for advancement all persist, while women’s household labor remains demanding. Recent historical investigation has led to a major revision of the notion that technology is always inherently revolutionary In it effects on society. Mechanization may even have slowed any change in the traditional position of women both in the labor market and in the home.

3) Which of the following statements best summarizes the main idea of the passage?

A) The effects of the mechanization of women’s work have not borne out the frequently held assumption that new technology is inherently revolutionary. (Ans)

B) Recent studies have shown that mechanization revolutionizes a society’s traditional values and the customary roles of its members.

C) Mechanization has caused the nature of women’s work to change since the Industrial Revolution.

D) The mechanization of work creates whole new classes of jobs that did not previously exist.

4) The author mentions all of the following inventions as examples of dramatic technological innovations EXCEPT the:

A) Sewing machine

C) Typewriter

B) Vacuum cleaner

D) Telephone (Ans)

5) It can be inferred from the passage that, before the Industrial Revolution, the majority of women’s work was done in which of the following settings?

A) Textile mills

B) Private households (Ans)

C) Offices

D) Factories

6) It can be inferred from the passage that the author would consider which of the following to be an indication of a fundamental alteration in the conditions of women’s work?

A) Statistics showing that the majority of women now occupy white-collar positions.

B) Interviews with married men indicating that they are now doing some household tasks

C) Surveys of the labor market documenting the recent creation of a new class of jobs in electronics in which women workers outnumber men four to one.

D) Census results showing that working women’s wages and salaries are, on the average, as high as those of working men. (Ans)

7) The passages states that, before the twentieth century, which of the following was true of many employers?

A) They did not employ women in factories.

B) They tended to employ single rather than married women. (Ans)

C) They employed women in only those jobs that were related to women’s traditional household work.

D) They resisted technological innovations that would radically change women’s roles in the family.

Directions for Questions 8-12:

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

Unquestionably, a literary life is for most part an unhappy life, because, if you have genius, you must suffer the penalty of genius; and, if you have only talent, there are so many cares and worries incidental to the circumstances of men of letters, as to make life exceedingly miserable. Besides the pangs of composition, and the continuous disappointment which a true artist feels at his inability to reveal himself, there is the ever-recurring difficulty of gaining the public ear. Young writers are buoyed up by the hope and the belief that they have only to throw that poem at the world’s feet to get back in return the laurel-crown; that they have only to push that novel into print to be acknowledged at once as a new light in literature. You can never convince a young author that the editors of magazines and the publishers of books are a practical body of men, who are by no means frantically anlxlous about placing the best literature before the public. Nay, that for the most part they are mere brokers, who conduct their business on the hardest lines of a Profit and Loss account. But supposing your book fairly launches, its perils are only beginning. You have to run the gauntlet of the critics.

To a young author, again, this seems to be as terrible an ordeal as passing down the files of Sioux or Comanche Indians, each one of whom is thirsting for your scalp. When you are a little older, you will find that criticism Is not much more serious than the bye-play of clowns In a circus. when they beat around the ring. the victim with bladders slung at the end of long poles. A time comes in the life of every author when he regards critics as comical rather than formidable, and goes his way unheeding. But there are sensitive souls that yield under the chastisement and, perhaps, after suffering much silent torture, abandon the profession of the pen for ever.

Keats, perhaps, is the saddest example of a fine spirit hounded to death by savage criticism; because, whatever his biographers may aver, that furious attack of Gifford and Terry undoubtedly expedited his death. But no doubt there are hundreds who suffer keenly from hostile and unscrupulous criticism, and who have to bear that suffering in silence, because it is a cardinal principle in literature that the most unwise thing in the world for an author is to take public notice of criticism in the way of defending himself. Silence is the only safeguard, as it is the only dignified protest against insult and offence.

8) Why is the literary life mostly an unhappy one?

A) Because a genius suffers the penalty of genius, and a talented person has so many cares and worries (Ans)

B) Because it is mostly a lonely life

C) Because it does not pay much materialistically

D) Because it is difficult to get a reading public

9) What are the ambitions of a young author?

A) To be acknowledged as a new light in literature (Ans)

B) To be able to reveal himself

C) To gain a public ear

D) To get his composition published

10) Are editors and publishers sympathetic to young authors?

A) They are

B) They are not

C) They are anxious about placing only the best literature before the public

D) They are mere brokers who conduct their business on the hardest lines of a Profit and Loss account. (Ans)

11) What are the ordeals awaiting the young author from the critics?

A) The critics harass him

B) He has to run the ‘gauntlet’ oft he critics (Ans)

C) He has to save his scalp, as the critics throw stones at him

D) The critics are sympathetic towards him

12) What attitude should an author adopt in the face of bitter criticism?

A) He should defend himself

B) He should regard critics formidable and change his way of writing

C) He should suffer silently

D) He should take criticism as not more than the bye-play of clowns in a circus and go his way unheeding. (Ans)

Directions for Question 13:

Identify the CORRECT statement(s) in the following question
13)

A) He boasted about his being accomplishments.

B) I had scarcely begun to write than he entered the room.

C) He behaved cowardly in the battle-fish.

D) Nothing but books and music please him.

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D (Ans)

Directions for Question 14-16:

Identify the INCORRECT statement(s) in the following questions

14)

A) The revolution In art has not lost its steam; it rages on as fiercely as ever.

B) Each occupation have Its own jargon, bankers, lawyers and computer professionals.

C) Arrogant by nature, Jones spoke very little even to his own family members.

D) Biological clocks are of such obvious adaptive value to living organisms, that we would expect most organisms to possess them.

A) Only B (Ans)

B) Both A and B

C) Only C

D) Both C and D

15)

A) The prime Minister Vajpayee must be priding himself on an inflating rupee.

B) Stability must be perceived by Vajpayee’s team as a rock that defies laws of economics and gravity.

C) The BJP must be fuming over its loss of territory in fuming over exchange-rate fiascos.

D) I do not know what the prime minister thinks of the recent sharp decline in the exchange rate but I got the impression that the BJP is unhappy.

A) Only A

B) Both B & C

C) Both A & C

D) Only D (Ans)

16)

a) Bread & jam are the most common breakfast served in most five-star hotels.

b) Mangoes costs Rs. 40 per kilo in summer even in the villages.

c) They survives on just soup and noodles in the college hostel.

d) How much do one-and-a half dozen strawberries cost?

A) Only c

C) a, band c

B) band c

D) a, b, c and d (Ans)

Directions for Questions 17-51:

Re-arrange the following sentences to form a logical paragraph

17)

P) Technological breakthroughs (or breakdowns) create an economic upheaval.

Q) In a real revolution, civil institutions fall into crisis.

R) Other changes shake the culture and the value system.

S) Family and role structures change.

A) PSRQ

B) QPRS

C) SRPQ

D) QSRP (Ans)

18)

A) To forgive is not to forget,

B) There is no merit in loving an enemy

C) The merit lies In loving in spite of the vivid knowledge that the one that must be loved is not a friend.

D) When you forget him for a friend.

A) ABCD (Ans)

C) DCBA

B) ACBD

D) BCDA

19)

A. He felt justified in bypassing Congress altogether on a variety of moves.

B. At times he was fighting the entire Congress.

C. Bush felt he had a mission to restore power to the presidency .

D. Bush was not fighting just the democrats.

E. Representative democracy is a messy business, and a CEO of the White House does not like a legislature of second guessers and time wasters.
A) CAEDB

B) DBAEC

C) CEADB

D) ECDBA (Ans)

20)

A) Non-violence is not quality to be evolved

B) or expressed to order.

C) upon intense individual effort.

D) It Is an Inward growth depending for sustenance

A) ABCD

B) ACBD

C) ABDC (Ans)

D) CDBA

21)

P) People who had participated in the dance seemed to appreciate it very much.

Q) The dance floor was full, and my solo was the best I’d done In a long while.

R) At its end, the singer said, “Let’s give Wayne a special round of applause. That’s the first time he’S ever played that piece”.

S) One night there was magic in the air. We could do n wrong.

T) I played lead guitar in a popular weekend bar band for years.

U) My chest swelled with pride, until he added, “Properly, that is”. ?
A) TSQUPR

C) PQRSTU

B) TSQPRU (Ans)

D) PQRSUT

Directions for Question 22:

Identify the CORRECT sentence(s) in the following question

22)

A) We studied by ourselves for this lesson.

B) I have a book, it’s my book.

C) They have a truck, that’s them truck.

D) You must clean the room by itself.
A) Both A and B

B) Only B (Ans)

C) Both C and D

D) Only C

Directions for Questions 23·25:

Identify the INCORRECT statement(s) in the following questions
23)

A) Do not get tempted by these temporal pleasures.

B) He is far too sensible to have been done a fatuous thing like this.

C) The office wore a macabre look on Friday after the company downsized its staff strength.

D) The bill was passed in the parliament with a wafer thin margin.

A) Both A and B

B) Both C and 0

C) Only B (Ans)

D) Only C

24)

A) Because strict constructionists recommend fidelity to the Constitution as written, no one objects more than they do judicial reinterpretation.

B) When a candidate runs for office, he must expect to have his personal life scrutinized.

C) Einstein, who was a brilliant mathematician, used his ability with numbers to explain the universe.

D) Despite the cuts, there are services the hospital has, and will continue to provide to doctors.

A) Only A

B) Both A and C

C) Only D (Ans)

D) Both Band D

25)

A) When some of this waste came to India, this resulted in several explosions.

B) Respiratory problems, rashes, bleeding, open sores started almost immediately. ?

C) Independent India consciously continued the civil service after changing nomenclature to the Indian Administrative Service.

D) Initially, civil servant operated the Jevers of power efficiently in line with the vision of great patrlot-statesmen like Sardar Patel and Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad in a Cabinet headed by a visionary Jawaharlal Nehru.

A) A, B and C

B) B and C

C) C and D (Ans)

D) A, C and D

SSC general awareness
SSC general awareness and current affairs questions and answers
1. Design of the National Flag was adopted by the constituent Assembly of India in-
(a) July, 1948
(b) July, 1950
(c) July, 1947 -Ans
(d) Aug., 1947

2. Who among the following was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution ?

(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(c) C. Rajgopalachari
(d) B. R. Ambedkar-Ans

3. What is the special constitutional position of Jammu and Kashmir ?

(a) Indian laws are not applicable
(b) It has its own constitution-Ans
(c) It is not one of the integral part of India
(d) k is above Indian constitution

4. The Indian constitution closely follows the constitutional system of –

(a) USA
(b) U. K.-Ans
(c) Switzerland
(d) Russia

5. In a parliamentry form of government, real powers of the state are vested in the-

(a) council of ministers -Ans
(b) President
(c) Government
(d) Parliament

6. The Directive Principles of state policy included in the constitution of India have been inspired by constitution of-
(a) U. S. A. -Ans
(b) Ireland
(c) Canada
(d) Australia

7. What is the minimum permissible age for employment In any factory or mine ?

(a) 12 years
(b) 14 years -Ans
(c) 16 years
(d) 18 years

8. Total number of members in a legislative council should not exceed that of a Legislative Assembly by-

9. Who is a highest Law Officer of a state ?
(a) Attorney General
(b) Advocate General-Ans
(c) Solicitor General
(d) Secretary General

10. Which of the following is also called the “house of elders”?
(a) Rajya Sabha -Ans
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Gram Sabha
(d) Vidhan Sabha

11.Members of the Union Public Service Commission function
(a) 60 years
(b) 58 years
(c) 62 years
(d) 65 years-Ans

12. The first no confidence motion moved in the Lok Sabha After independence was in the year-
(a) 1954
(b) 1960
(c) 1963 -Ans
(d) 1975

13. The Legislative Council in a state can be created or disbanded by the-
(a)State Legislative alone -Ans
(b) Parliament alone
(c) Parliament on recommendation of the state legislative
(d) President on recommendation of the Governor

l4.The Union Territories get representation in-
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Both houses of Parliament -Ans
(d) None of these

1 5 In a case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the-
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha -Ans
(d) Member of the Lok Sabha specially selected for the purpose

16. Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament are held to-
(a) elect the President of India
(b) elect the Vice-President
(c) adopt a constitution amending Bill
(d) consider and pass a bill on which two Houses disagree-Ans

17. A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha has to be passed by Rajya Sabha within-
(a) 14 days -Ans
(b) 21 days
(c) 1 month
(d) 3 months

18.Parliament of India is composed of-

(a) Lok Sabha only
(b) Rajya Sabha only
(c) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President-Ans

19. When can the speaker exercise his right to vote In the House ?
(a) whenever he desires
(b) whenever the House desires
(c) only in the event of equality of votes -Ans
(d) whenever his party desires

20. Who presided over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President-Ans
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker

21.Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant of a member absents himself without permission from the sessions for-
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days-Ans
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days

22. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected according to
(a) cumulative vote system
(b) single non-transferable vote system
(c) single transferable vote system -Ans
(d) none of these

23. Which of the following can be abolished but not dissolved ?
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Municipal Bodies
(c) State Legislative Council -Ans
(d) None of these

24. Which of the following appointment is not made by the President of India ?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha -Ans
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief of the Air Force
(d) Chief of the Army

25. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by-
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha and chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Both Houses of Parliament-Ans

26. Under whose advice the President of India declares emergencey under Article 352 ?
(a) council of ministers
(b) cabinet-Ans
(c) Chief ministers of all states
(d) Prime Minister

27. The President of India can be removed from his office by the-
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Lok Sabha ans
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Parliament

28.Which subject was transferred from state list to concurrent list by the 42 nd amendment of the constitution ?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Education-Ans
(c) Irrigation
(d) Local self government

29.Who has the constitutional authority to decide tax share of states ?
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Finance Commission–Ans
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Union Cabinet

30. For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the Supren1 Court may issue a/an-
(a) decree
(b) ordinance
(c) notification
(d) writ-Ans

31.Which High Court has jurisdiction over the state Arunachal Pradesh ?
(a) Guwahati -Ans
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chandigarh

32. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right ?
(a) Habeas corpus -Ans
(b) Mandamus
(c)’ Prohibition
(d) Certiorari

33. Which of the following Articles deals with the Amendment to our constitution ?
(a) 356
(b) 368-Ans
(c) 370
(d) 372

34. In India, political parties are given recognization by-
(a) President
(b) Law Commission
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Election Commission-Ans

35.The Election Commission does not conduct the elections to the-
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Local bodies -Ans
(d) President’s elections

36.Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India ?
(a) President -Ans
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) Chief Justice of India

37.Who among the following is authorised to declare elections of the Lok Sabha ?
(a) President -Ans
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Union Cabinet
(d) Election Commission

38. The Panchayati Raj system was adopted to-
(a) make people aware of politics
(b) decentralise the power of democracy-Ans
(c) educate the peasants
(d) none of these

39.Which of the following is a source of income of the Gram Panchayats ?
(a) Income Tax
(b) Sales Tax
(c) Professional Tax
(d) Levy Duties-Ans

40. which of the following states was the Panchayati Raj first introduced ?
Rajasthan -Ans
(b) Gujarat
(c) U. P.
(d) Bihar

41.In 1992 in which amendment the historic Panchayati Raj bill was adopted by the Parliament ?
(a) 70th
(b) 72nd -Ans
(c) 74th
(d) 68th

42.Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the village panchayats ?
(a)Property Tax -Ans
(b) House Tax
(c)Land Tax
(d) Vehicle Tax

43.Which is at the apex of the three-tier system of Panchi Raj ?
(a) Gram Sabha
(b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Zila Parishad -Ans
(d) Panchayat Samiti

44. Special representation in Panchayati Raj Institutlo given to
(a) Women
(b) Co-operative societies
(c) Bar’ A/ard classes
(d) All of these-Ans

45.Whir.i article of the constitution directs the government to organise Village Panchayats-
(a) Art-32
(b) Art-40-Ans
(c) Art-48
(d) Art-51

46.Planning Commission is a-
(a) Statutory body -Ans
(b) Executive body
(c) Autonomous body
(d) None of these

47.Which of the following is not an essential element state-
(a) Population
(b) Territory
(c) Sovereignty
(d) Democracy-Ans

48.The only President of India who was elected unoppoi is-
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(c) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy -Ans
(d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad

49. Protection of the interests of the minorities is envisaged in which of the folic policies ?
(a) 14
(b) 19
(c) 29 -Ans
(d) 32

50.Territorial waters of India extends up to how many nautical miles ?
(a) 8
(b) 12-Ans
(c) 16
(d) 22

51Jaina HIll is located in which of the following Indian State?
1Karnataka
2Tamil Nadu
3Kerala
4Andhra Pradesh

52Which of the following telecom authority has recently given the power to act like a civil court?
Depart of Telecommunication(DoT)
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India(TRAI)Ans:
Wireless Planning & Coordination (WPC) Wing
Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL)

53Recently the Union Government of India has set up NATGRID. It is related to which one of the following?
Health
Intelligence-Ans
Education
Space

54 The Government of India has recently set up Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC). It will be headed by which of the followings –
Finance Minister
Economic Advisor to the Prime Minister
Governor of RBIAns:
Prime Minister

55 What is the main constituent of a Pearl?
Calcium carbonate only
Calcium sulphate only
Calcium oxide and calcium sulphate-Ans
Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate

56 Which one among the following will you put in to pure water in order to pass electric current through it?
Mustard oil
Sugar
Lemon JuiceAns
Kerosene

57 Gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) is added to clinker during cement manufacturing to
a decrease the rate of setting of cement-Ans
bind the particles of calcium silicate
facilitate the formation of colloidal gel
impart strength to cement

58 Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country-Ans
Freedom to move freely throughout the country
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
Freedom to practise any trade or profession

59 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a state may:
withhold his assent to a bill passed by the state legislature
reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President.
return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature
select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3-Ans

60With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term ‘closure’ refers to
the termination of a parliamentary session
suspension of debate at the termination of a day’s sitting of the Parliament
a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted-Ans
refusal on the part of the government to have the opposition look at important documents
SSC Sub Inspector exam solved question paper

SSC Sub Inspector exam solved question paper
1The common tree species in Nilgiri Hills is:
(A)Sal
(B)Pine
(C)Eucalyptus
(D)Teak
Answer: Eucalyptus.

2. Which of the following statements on Railway Budget 2011-12 is correct?
(A)There would be a 10% increase in fares for long distance train travel both by AC and NONAC classes
(B)There would be 15% increase in freight rates on all goods other than food grains
(C)There would be 15% increase in passenger fares for all classes for long distance and freights
(D)There would be no increase in fares for both suburban and long distance travel
Answer: D

3. The nuclear reactors which were damaged heavily due to strong Earthquake-cum-Tsunami that hit Japan on March 11, 2011 causing radiation leakage at:
(A)Fukushima
(B)Tokyo
(C)Kyoto
(D)None of them
Answer: Fukushima

4. First Indian Prime Minister to visit Siachen was ?
(A)Rajiv Gandhi
(B)Inder Kumar Gujaral
(C)Mammohan Singh
(D)None of them
Answer: Manmohan Singh

5. Which of the following books has been written by Kishwar Desai?
(A)The Red Devil
(B)Witness the night
(C)Tonight this Savage Rite
(D)Earth and Ashes
Answer: Witness the Night.

6. Which of the following folk / tribal dances is associated with Karnataka?
(A)Yakshagana
(B)Jatra
(C)Veedhi
(D)Jhora
Answer: Yakshagana

7. Who of the following received the Sangeet Natak Academi?s Ustad Bismillah Khan Puraskar for 2009 in theatre?
(A)Omkar Shrikant Dadarkar
(B)Ragini chander sarkar
(C)Abanti Chakraborty and Sukracharjya Rabha
(D)K Nellai Maniknandan
Answer: Abanti Chakraborty and Sukracharjya Rabha

8. Which of the following country did not win any of the FIFA cup in 2002, 2006 and 2010?
(A)Brazil
(B)Argentina
(C)Spain
(D)South Africa
Answer: South Africa

9. Who invented vaccination for small pox?
(A)Sir Frederick Grant Banting
(B)Sir Alexander Fleming
(C)Edward Jenner
(D)Loius Pasteur
Answer: Edward Jenner

10. Who was the first Indian to become the member of British parliament?
(A)Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
(B)W C Banerjee
(C)Dadabhai Naoroji
(D)None of the above
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji

11. The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called?
(A)FDI
(B)Portfolio Investment
(C)NRI Investment
(D)Foreign Indirect Investment
Answer: Investment in securities, funds, by FII is Foreign Indirect Investment

12. BT Seed is associated with which among the following?
(A)Rice
(B)Wheat
(C)Cotton
(D)Oil Seeds
Answer: Cotton

13. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is in ?
(A)Geneva
(B)Paris
(C)Vienna
(D)Washington
Answer: Vienna

14. In the Budget estimates of 2011-12, an allocation of Rs. 400 Crore has been made to bring in second green revolution in East in the rice based cropping system of ____?
(A)Assam and West Bengal
(B)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar & Jharkhand
(C)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar
(D)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand , Eastern Uttar Pradesh andChhattisgarh
Answer: Assam, West Bengal, Orissa, Bihar, Jharkhand, Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Chattisgarh.

15. In the Budget 2011-12, presented by the Finance Minister on 28.2.2011, the income tax limit for senior citizens has been increased to ?
(A)Rs. 2.50 Lakh
(B)Rs. 2.60 Lakh
(C)Rs. 2.80 Lakh
(D)Rs. 3.00 Lakh
Answer: Rs. 2.50 Lakh. Above 80, its 5 Lakh

16. If the Anglo Indian community does not get adequate representation in the Lok Sabha, two members of the community can be nominated by:
(A)Prime Minister
(B)President
(C)Speaker
(D)President in consultation with Parliament
Answer: President

17. For the election of President of India, a citizen should have completed the age of___?
(A)25 Years
(B)35 Years
(C)30 Years
(D)18 Years
Answer: 35 Years

18. Who said: ?Good citizen makes a good state and bad citizen makes a bad state??
(A)Plato
(B)Aristotle
(C)Rousseau
(D)Laski
Answer: Aristotle

19. Member of parliament will lose his membership if he is continuously absent from sessions for
(A)45 days
(B)60 days
(C)90 days
(D)365 days
Answer: 60 Days

20. In Indian , Residuary Powers are vested in ___?
(A)Union Government
(B)State Government
(C)Both Union and State Government
(D)Local Government
Answer: Union Government

21. Mention the place where Buddha attained enlightment?
(A)Sarnath
(B)Bodhgaya
(C)Kapilvastu
(D)Rajgriha
Answer: Bodhgaya

22. Coronation of Shivaji took place in which year?
(A)1627
(B)1674
(C)1680
(D)1670
Answer: 6 June 1674

23. The system of Dyarchy was introduced in ___?
(A)1909
(B)1919
(C)1935
(D)1945
Answer: 1919, Government of India Act 1919 had introduced the system of Dyarchy to govern the provinces of British India.

24. The editor of Young India and Harijan was ____?
(A)Nehru
(B)Ambedkar
(C)Mahatma Gandhi
(D)Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi

25. Who of the following attended all the three round table conferences?
(A)B R Ambedkar
(B)M M Malviya
(C)Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D)Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: B R Ambedkar.

26. Which is the largest living bird on Earth?
(A)Emu
(B)Ostrich
(C)Albatross
(D)Siberian Crane
Answer: Ostrich

27. Rihand Dam project provides irrigation to ____?
(A)Gujarat & Maharastra
(B)Odisha and West Bengal
(C)Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(D)Kerala and Karnataka
Answer: C

28. The Headquarters of MCF (Master Control Facility) is
(A)Hyderabad
(B)Thumba
(C)Sri Harikota
(D)Hassan
Answer: Hassan , Now Bhopal also.

29. Which is the longest irrigation canal in India?
(A)Sir hind Canal
(B)Yamuna Canal
(C)Indira Gandhi Canal
(D)East Kosi Canal
Answer: Indira Gandhi Canal

30. Which one of the following minerals is found in Monazite Sand?
(A)Potassium
(B)Uranium
(C)Thorium
(D)Sodium
Answer: Thorium

31. Which plant is called ?Herbal Indian Doctor? ?
(A)Amla
(B)Neem
(C)Tulsi
(D)Mango
Answer: Amla

32. In Coriander, useful parts are?
(A)Roots and leaves
(B)leaves and flowers
(C)leaves and dried fruits
(D)flowers and dried fruits
Answer: leaves and dried fruits

33. The pH of Human Blood is ___?
(A)7.2
(B)7.8
(C)6.6
(D)7.4
Answer: 7.4

34. Which among the following is the largest endocrine gland of country?
(A)Thyroid
(B)Parathyroid
(C)Adrenal
(D)Pituitary
Answer: Thyroid

35. Which amongst the following is the largest mammal?
(A)Elephant
(B)Whale
(C)Dinosaur
(D)Rhinoceros
Answer: Whale (Blue Whale).

36. Which part becomes modified as the tusk of elephant?
(A)Canine
(B)Premolar
(C)Second Incisor
(D)Molar
Answer: second upper incisors

37. Optical fibres are based upon the phenomenon of which of the following?
(A)Interference
(B)Dispersion
(C)Diffraction
(D)Total Internal Reflection
Answer: Total Internal Reflection

38. Now a days, Yellow lamps are frequently used as street lights. Which among the following gases, is used in these lamps?
(A)Sodium
(B)Neon
(C)Hydrogen
(D)Nitrogen
Answer: Sodium

39. Mirage is an example of ____?
(A)Refraction of light
(B)Total Internal Reflection of Light
(C)Refraction and Total Internal Reflection of Light
(D)Dispersion of Light
Answer: Refraction and Total Internal Reflection of Light

40. The phenomenon of light associated with the appearance of blue color of sky is?
(A)Interference
(B)Reflection
(C)Refraction
(D)Scattering
Answer: Scattering

41. In which of the following areas, spreadsheet software is more useful?
(A)Psychology
(B)Publishing
(C)Statistics
(D)Message sending
Answer: Statistics

42. A Groupware is a
(A)Hardware
(B)Software
(C)Network
(D)Firmware
Answer: Groupware is collaborative software . Correct option B

43. Lens is made up of ___?
(A)Pyrex Glass
(B)Flint Glass
(C)Ordinary Glass
(D)Cobalt Glass
Answer: Flint glass

44. The element which is used for vulcanizing rubber is?
(A)Sulfur
(B)Bromine
(C)Silicon
(D)Phosphorus
Answer: Sulfur

45. Which of the following is responsible for extra strength of Pyrex glass?
(A)Potassium carbonate
(B)Lead Oxide
(C)Borax
(D)Ferric Oxide
Answer: Borax

46. The Noble Gas used for the treatment of cancer is ___?
(A)Helium
(B)Argon
(C)Krypton
(D)Radon
Answer: Radon, in radiation therapy,

47. Vasundhara Summit was held in __?
(A)USA
(B)UK
(C)Brazil
(D)Australia
Answer: Brazil, Rio De Janeiro

48. Loktak is a ____?
(A)Valley
(B)Lake
(C)River
(D)Mountain Range
Answer: Lake, in Manipur

49. Which city receives the highest cosmic radiation amongst the following>
(A)Chennai
(B)Mumbai
(C)Kolkata
(D)Delhi
Answer: New Delhi.
50 The first computer made available for commercial use was
A)MANIAC
B)ENIAC
C)UNIVAC
D)EDSAC
Answe-UNIVAC

SSC General-Awareness
SSC Previous Year Paper

General Awareness Paper

1. Which of the following is not considered as National Debt ?
(A) National Savings Certificates
(B) Long-term Government Bonds
(C) Insurance Policies
(D) Provident Fund
Ans : (C)

2. The main determinant of real wage is?
(A) Extra earning
(B) Nature of work
(C) Promotion prospect
(D) Purchasing power of money
Ans : (D)

3. The birthrate measures the number of births during a year per?
(A) 100 population
(B) 1000 population
(C) 10000 population
(D) 100000 population
Ans : (B)

4. Which of the following is not included in the National Income ?
(A) Imputed rent of owneroccupied houses
(B) Government expenditure on making new bridges
(C) Winning a lottery
(D) Commission paid to an agent for sale of house
Ans : (C)

5. Personal disposable income is?
(A) Always equal to personal income
(B) Always more than personal income
(C) Equal to personal income minus indirect taxes
(D) Equal to personal income minus direct taxes
Ans : (D)

6. Who prepared the first estimate of National Income for the country ?
(A) Central Statistical Organisation
(B) National Income Committee
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) National Sample Survey Organisation
Ans : (C)

7. A Bill referred to a ?Joint Sitting? of the two Houses of the Parliament is required to be passed by?
(A) A simple majority of the members present
(B) Absolute majority of the total membership
(C) 2/3rd majority of the members present
(D) 3/4th majority of the members present
Ans : (A)

8. Who is the constitutional head of the Government of India ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Attorney General
Ans : (A)

9. Who certifies a Bill to be a Money Bill in India ?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) President
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
Ans : (C)

10. By which Amendment were ?Fundamental Duties? added to the Constitution ?
(A) 40th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 45th Amendment
Ans : (B)

11. The Vice-President of India is elected by?
(A) The members of the Parliament
(B) The members of the Rajya Sabha
(C) The elected members of the Parliament
(D) The members of the Parliament and State Legislatures
Ans : (A)

12. When was the comprehensive reorganisation of Indian States completed in accordance with the recommendations of States Reorganisation Commission ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1960
(D) 1966
Ans : (B)

13. When Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated, who said, ?None will believe that a man like this in body and soul ever walked on this earth? ?
(A) Bertrand Russell
(B) Leo Tolstoy
(C) Albert Einstein
(D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Ans : (C)

14. Who built the ?Tower of Victory? (Vijay Stambha) in the Chittor Fort ?
(A) Rana Sanga
(B) Rana Ratan Singh
(C) Rana Hamir Deva
(D) Rana Kumbha
Ans : (D)

15. In violation of the Salt Laws, Gandhiji started a movement called?
(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Swadeshi Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

16. In which of the following wars, were the French completely defeated by the English ?
(A) Battle of Wandiwash
(B) Battle of Buxar
(C) Battle of Plassey
(D) Battle of Adyar
Ans : (A)

17. The Cabinet Mission came to India in?
(A) 1943
(B) 1944
(C) 1945
(D) 1946
Ans : (D)

18. The first to come and the last to leave India were?
(A) The Portuguese
(B) The French
(C) The English
(D) The Dutch
Ans : (A)

19. IR 20 and Ratna are two important varieties of?
(A) Wheat
(B) Bajra
(C) Jowar
(D) Paddy
Ans : (D)

20. The Trans-Siberian Railway (9438 km) connects????..? in the West to ???..? in the East.
(A) Moscow, Tashkent
(B) St. Petersburg, Omsk
(C) Moscow, Irkutsk
(D) St. Petersburg, Vladivostok
Ans : (D)

21. Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Udan Academy is located at?
(A) Secunderabad
(B) Rae Bareilly
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Delhi
Ans : (B)

22. Which one of the following rivers of Peninsular India does not join Arabian Sea ?
(A) Periyar
(B) Cauvery
(C) Narmada
(D) Tapti
Ans : (B)

23. Which one of the following correctly describes AGNI ?
(A) A fighter plane
(B) A versatile tank
(C) A long-range missile
(D) A long-range gun
Ans : (C)

24. Instrument used for measuring area on maps is called?
(A) Planimeter
(B) Eidograph
(C) Pantograph
(D) Opisometer
Ans : (A)

25. If the blood group of one parent is AB and that of the other O, the possible blood group of their child would be?
(A) A or B
(B) A or B or O
(C) A or AB or O
(D) A or B or AB or O
Ans : (A)

26. How many bones are there in the human body ?
(A) 187
(B) 287
(C) 206
(D) 306
Ans : (C)

27. Dinosaurs were?
(A) Mammals that became extinct
(B) Large herbivorous creatures which gave rise to hippopotamus species
(C) Egg-laying mammals
(D) Reptiles that became extinct
Ans : (D)

28. Sweat glands in mammals are primarily concerned with?
(A) Removal of excess salts
(B) Excretion of nitrogenous wastes
(C) Thermoregulation
(D) Sex-attraction
Ans : (C)

29. The vitamin that helps to prevent infections in the human body is?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D
Ans : (A)

30. The normal RBC count in adult male is?
(A) 5?5 million
(B) 5?0 million
(C) 4?5 million
(D) 4?0 million
Ans : (B)

31. A storm is predicted if atmospheric pressure?
(A) Rises suddenly
(B) Rises gradually
(C) Falls suddenly
(D) Falls gradually
Ans : (C)

32. The gas which turns into liquid at the lowest temperature among the following is?
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Oxygen
(C) Helium
(D) Nitrogen
Ans : (A)

33. An egg sinks in soft water but floats in a concentrated solution of salt because?
(A) Egg absorbs salt from the solution and expands
(B) Albumin dissolves in salt solution and egg becomes lighter
(C) The density of salt solution exceeds the density of eggs
(D) Water has high surface tension
Ans : (C)

34. What should a person on a freely rotating turn table do to decrease his (angular) speed ?
(A) Bring his hands together
(B) Raise his hands up
(C) Spread his hands outwards
(D) Sit down with raised hands
Ans : (C)

35. Gunpowder consists of a mixture of?
(A) Sand and TNT
(B) TNT and charcoal
(C) Nitre, sulphur and charcoal
(D) Sulphur, sand and charcoal
Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar ?
(A) Sucrose
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (C)

37. In nuclear reactors, graphite is used as a/an?
(A) Fuel
(B) Lubricant
(C) Moderator
(D) Insulator
Ans : (C)

38. Which of the following celestial bodies contains abundant quantities of helium-3, a potential source of energy ?
(A) Earth
(B) Moon
(C) Venus
(D) Saturn
Ans : (D)

39. Which of the following International Tennis Tournaments is held on grass court ?
(A) US Open
(B) French Open
(C) Wimbledon
(D) Australian Open
Ans : (C)

40. What is the name of the writer of Indian origin whose novel, The Inheritance of Loss has bagged Man Booker Prize ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) Kiran Desai
(C) Salman Rushdie
(D) V. S. Naipaul
Ans : (B)

41. Which country from the following is a permanent member of the UN Security Council ?
(A) Switzerland
(B) People?s Republic of China
(C) Japan
(D) Ukraine
Ans : (B)

42. The Loktak Lake on which a hydroelectric project was constructed is situated in the State of?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Manipur
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (B)

43. What is the motto incorporated under our National Emblem ?
(A) Satyam Shivam
(B) Satyam Shivam Sundaram
(C) Satyameva Jayate
(D) Jai Hind
Ans : (C)

44. The H5N1 virus which causes bird flu was first discovered in?
(A) 1991
(B) 1995
(C) 1997
(D) 2001
Ans : (C)

45. The Southern tip of India is?
(A) Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari)
(B) Point Calimere
(C) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands
(D) Kovalam in Thiruvananthapuram
Ans : (A)

46. According to a resolution adopted by the United Nations General Assembly, ?International Day of Peace? is observed every year on?
(A) September 1
(B) September 14
(C) September 21
(D) September 30
Ans : (C)

47. Where was the last Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Summit held ?
(A) Sydney
(B) Auckland
(C) New York
(D) Beijing
Ans : (A)

48. According to the UN Convention on the rights of children, which of the following is not a right ?
(A) Safe drinking water
(B) Adequate standard of living
(C) Education
(D) Marriage
Ans : (D)

49. Who is the author of Ageless Body, Timeless Mind ?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Deepak Chopra
(C) Dom Moraes
(D) Tony Kusher
Ans : (B)

50. Which cricketer holds the record for scoring highest number of runs in a test match innings ?
(A) Gary Sobers
(B) Vivian Richards
(C) Sunil Gavaskar
(D) Brian Lara
Ans : (D)
SSC General-Awareness

SSC Sample Question Paper

Q.1.Who amongst the following is the Director of the film ‘Water’ which was in news ?
a. Vidhu Vinod Chopra
b. Mrinal Sen
c. Gulzar
d. Mahesh Bhatt
e. None of these

Q.2.The 10th plan period is upto”
a. 2007
b. 2008
c. 2009
d. 2010
e. None of these

Q.3.OPEC is a group of countries which are”
a. exporting oil
b. producing cotton
c. rich and developed
d. developing and poor
e. nuclear powers

Q.4.Intel Company mainly produces”
a. Hard disks
b. VCDs
c. Monitors
d. Software
e. None of these

Q.5.Who amongst the following is the M.D./Chairman of one of the major Steel Companies ?
a. Shri L. N. Mittal
b. Shri K. K. Birla
c. Shri Vijaypat Singhania
d. Shri Mukesh Ambani
e. Shri Anil Agarwal

Q.6.Who is the President of Nasscom?
a. Kiran Karnik
b. Narayana Murthy
c. Pramod Desai
d. Devang Mehta
e. None of these

Q.7.Which of the following awards is not given for excellence in the field of literature ?
a. Booker Prize
b. Nobel Prize
c. Pulitzer Price
d. Arjun Award
e. Bharatiya Gnanpith Award

Q.8.’Singur’ which was in news is a place in”
a. Orissa
b. West Bengal
c. Jharkhand
d. Bihar
e. Maharashtra

Q.9.Who amongst the following is the author of the book series named as ‘Harry Potter’ ?
a. J. K. Rowling
b. Lindsay Lohan
c. Julia Roberts
d. Sandra Bullock
e. None of these

Q.10.Which of the following Satellites recently dedicated to nation helps Direct to Home Television Service in India ?
a. Matsat
b. Edusat
c. Insat”4b
d. Insat”IB
e. None of these

Q.11.Many a times we read some news items about the ‘West Bank’.’West Bank’ is situated at the western side of the river”
a. Mississippi
b. Amazon
c. Nile
d. Jordan
e. None of these

Q.12.Which of the following phenomenon is considered responsible for ‘Global Warming’ ?
a. Greenhouse Gas Effect
b. Fox Fire
c. Dry Farming
d. Radioactivity
e. None of these

Q.13.Which of the following instruments is not issued by a bank ?
a. Demand Draft
b. Pay Order
c. Debit Card
d. Credit Card
e. National Saving Certificate

Q.14.Name of Jyoti Randhawa is associated with which of the following games ?
a. Golf
b. Badminton
c. Hockey
d. Chess
e. None of these

Q.15.Which of the following Software Companies recently launched its education portal ‘Unlimited Potential’ in India ?
a. Microsoft
b. Infosys
c. Wipro
d. TCS
e. None of these

Q.16.Polly Umrigar who died was a well known”
a. Cricketer
b. Tennis Player
c. Golfer
d. Chess Player
e. Hockey Player

Q.17.In India Census is done after a gap of every”
a. Five years
b. Seven years
c. Eight years
d. Ten years
e. Fifteen years

Q.18.Prof. Muhammad Yunus the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006 is the exponent of which of the following concepts in the field of banking ?
a. Core Banking
b. Micro Credit
c. Retail Banking
d. Real Time Gross Settlement
e. Internet Banking

Q.19.Who amongst the following was India’s official candidate for the post of UNO’s Secretary General ?
a. Mr. Shyam Saran
b. Dr. C. Rangarajan
c. Mr. Shashi Tharoor
d. Mr. Vijay Nambiar
e. None of these

Q.20.Mr. Gordon Brown has taken over as the Prime Minister of”
a. Italy
b. Canada
c. France
d. South Africa
e. Britain

Q.21.Which of the following Departments of the Govt. of India is helping banks in disbursement of rural credit by the bank ?
a. Railways
b. State Road Transports
c. Post and Telegraph
d. Ministry of Health
e. None of these

Q.22.Which of the following organization/agencies has established a fund known as ” investor production fund” ?
a. SEBI
b. NABARD
c. Bombay stock exchange
d. AMFI
e. None of these

Q.23.Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present ?
a. Mr. M.V.Kamath
b. Mr. Y.V.Reddy
c. Mr. N.R.Narayanmurthy
d. Mr.O.P.Bhatt
e. None of these

Q.24.Majority of rural people still prefer to go to which of the following for their credit needs ?
a. Money lenders
b. Foreign Bankers
c. NABARD
d. RBI
e. None of these

Q.25.India has different categories of commercial banks.Which of the following is NOT one such categories ?
a. Private Banks
b. Commodities Banks
c. Nationalized Banks
d. Cooperative Banks
e. Foreign Banks

Q.26.Which of the following types of Banks are allowed to operate foreign currency accounts ?
(1) Foreign Banks
(2) Regional Rural Banks
(3) Nationalized Banks
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Only 3
d. All 1,2and 3
e. None of these

Q.27.Which of the following countries does not play International Cricket ?
a. Russia
b. England
c. South Africa
d. Pakistan
e. India

Q.28.The money which Govt. of India spends on the development of infrastructure in country comes from the which of the following sources Pick up the correct Statement(s)
(1) Loan from World Bank/ADB etc
(2) Taxws collected from the people
(3) Loan from the RBI
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Only 3
d. Both 1 and 2
e. All 1,2 and 3

Q.29.The Securities & Exchange Board Of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on money flow in equity through ?P Notes’.What is the full form of ?P Notes’ ?
a. Permanent Notes
b. Perchase Notes
c. Participatory-Notes
d. Private Notes
e. None of these

Q.30.Who amongst the following was the captain of the India cricket team who won the Twenty-20 World Cup-2007 ?
a. Yuvraj Singh
b. M.S.Dhoni
c. Rahul Dravid
d. Saurav Ganguly
e. None of these
SSC CPO SI Exam previous year question papers

SSC CPO SI Exam previous year question papers
Arithmetical Ability

1. The product of 2 numbers is 1575 and their quotient is 9/7. Then the sum of the numbers is ?

a. 74

b. 78

c. 80

d. 90

Ans : Let the numbers be x and y .

? xy = 1575

And x/y = 9/7

? xy/x/y = 1575/9/7

? y2 = 1225

? y = 35 and x = 45

? The sum of the numbers = 45+35

= 80

2. The value of (81)3.6 * (9)2.7/ (81)4.2 * (3) is __

a. 3

b. 6

c. 9

d. 8.2

Ans : (81)3.6 * (9)2.7/(81)4.2 * (3) = (3)14.4 * (3)5.4/(3)16.8 * (3)

= 314.4+5.4-16.8-1

= 32

= 9

3. ?6+?6+?6+? is equal to ?

a. 2

b. 5

c. 4

d. 3

Ans : Let ?6+?6+?6+?. be x.

? x =?6+x

? x2 = 6+x

? x2 + x ? 6 = 0

? (x-3) (x+2) = 0

? x = 3

4. The sum of the squares of two natural consecutive odd numbers is 394. The sum of the numbers is ?

a. 24

b. 32

c. 40

d. 28

Ans : Let the consecutive odd numbers be x and (x+2)

? x2 + (x + 2)2 = 394

? x2 + x2 + 4x + 4 = 394

? 2 x2 +4x ? 390 = 0

? x2 + 2x ? 195 = 0

? (x +15) (x-13) = 0

? x = 13

? Required sum = 13 +15 =28

5. When (6767 +67) is divided by 68, the remainder is-

a. 1

b. 63

c. 66

d. 67

Ans: (6767+ 67) = 67(6766 + 166)

As 66 is an even number

? 6766 is an even number

? (6766 + 1) is perfectly divisible by (67 + 1)

i.e. 68

? The remainder = 67

6. In a division sum, the divisor is 4 times the quotient and twice the remainder. If a and b are respectively the divisor and the dividend then-

a. 4b-a2 /a =3

b. 4b-2a /a2 =2

c. (a+1)2 = 4b

d. A(a+2)/b = 4

Ans : As divisor is a, and dividend is b.

? Quotient = a/4

And Remainder = a/2

? b = a * a/4 + a/2

? 4b = a2 + 2a

? a(a+2)/b = 4

7. If 738 A6A is divisible by 11, then the value of A is-

a. 6

b. 3

c. 9

d. 1

Ans : As 738A6 A is divisible by 11.

? A + A + 3 = 6 + 8 + 7

? A = 9

8. The east positive integer that should be subtracted from 3011 * 3012 so that the difference is perfect square is-

a. 3009

b. 3010

c. 3011

d. 3012

Ans : ? 3011 * 3012 = 3011 (3011 + 1)

= (3011)2 + 3011

? Required least number = 3011

9. P, Q, R are employed to do a work for Rs. 5750. P and Q together finished 19/23 of work and Q and R together finished 8/23 of work. Wage of Q, in rupees, is-

a. 2850

b. 3750

c. 2750

d. 1000

Ans : Work done by Q = 19/23 + 8/23 ? 1

4/23

? Wage of Q = 4/23 * 5750

= Rs. 1000

10. A can do a piece of work in 24 day, B in 32 days and C in 64 days. All begin to do it together, but A leaves after 6 days and B leaves 6 days before the completion of the work. How many days did the work last?

a. 15

b. 20

c. 18

d. 30

Ans : Work done by A = 6/24 = ¼

Work done by B = (x-6)/32

(where x is no. of days in which work is competed)

? ¼ + x ? 6/32 + x/64 = 1

? 16 + 24 ? 12 + x /64 = 1

? 3x + 4 = 64

? x = 60/3 = 20 days

11. The square root of (0.75)3 /1-0.75 + [0.75 + 90.75)2 +1] is-

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

Ans : The square root of

[(0.75)3/1 ? 0.75 + {0.75 + (0.75)2 + 1}]

= ?1.6875 + 2.3125

=?4

= 2

12. Given that ?4096 = 64, the value of ?4096 + ?40.96 +?0.004096 is-

a. 70.4

b. 70.464

c. 71.104

d. 71.4

Ans : Given Exp. = ?4096 + ?40.96 +?0.004096

= 64 + 6.4 + 0.064

= 70.464

13. By selling an article at 3/4th of the marked price, there is a gain of 25%. The ratio of the marked price and the cost price is-

a. 5 : 3

b. 3 : 5

c. 3 : 4

d. 4 : 3

Ans : Let of M.P. be Rs. x.

? S.P. = Rs.3x/4

and C.P. = 3x/4 * 100/125

= Rs.3x/5

? required ratio = x: 3x/5

= 5:3

14. A and B earn in the ratio 2:1. They spend in the ratio 5:3 and save in the ratio 4:1. If the total monthly savings of both A and B are Rs.5,000, the monthly income of B is-

a. Rs.7,000

b. Rs.14,000

c. Rs.5,000

d. Rs.10,000

Ans : Let the monthly income of B be Rs. x.

? Monthly income of A = Rs. 2x and

Saving of A =5000 * 4/(4 + 1)

= Rs. 4000

Saving of B = Rs.1000

? 2x ? 4000/x-1000 = 5/3

? 6x ? 12000 = 5x ? 5000

? x = Rs.7000

15. The ratio of the sum of two numbers and their difference is 5:1. The ratio of the greater number to the smaller number is-

a. 2 : 3

b. 3 : 2

c. 5 : 1

d. 1 : 5

Ans : Let the numbers be x and y.

? x + y/ x ? y = 5/1

? 5x ? 5y = x + y

? 4x = 6y

? x/y = 6/4

x : y = 3 : 2

16. A cistern has 3 pipes A, B and C. A and B can fill it in 3 and 4 hours respectively, and C can empty it in 1 hour. If the pipes are opened at 3 p.m., 4 p.m. and 5 p.m. respectively on the same day, the cistern will be empty at-

a. 7.12 p.m.

b. 7.15 p.m.

c. 7.10 p.m.

d. 7.18 p.m.

Ans : Let the cistern be emptied at x p.m.

? x -3/3 + x ? 4/4 = x – 5/1

? 4x ? 12 + 3x ? 12/12 = x ? 5/1

? 7x ? 24 = 12x ? 60

? 5x = 36

? x = 36/5

= 7 hr. + 12 min.

= 7.12 p.m.

17. If A works alone, he would take 4 days more to complete the job than if both A and B worked together. If B worked alone, he would take 16 days more to complete the job than if A and B work together. How many days would they take to complete the work if both of them worked together?

a. 10 days

b. 12 days

c. 6 days

d. 8 days

Let x days are taken when they work together.

? Time taken by A to complete the work = (x + 4) days

And Time taken by B to complete the work = (x + 16) days

? 1/x = 1/x + 4 + 1/x + 16

? 1/x = x + 16 + x + 4/(x + 4) (x +16)

? 2×2 + 20x = x2 + 20x +64

? x2 = 64 (8)2

? x = 8 days

18. 250 men can finish a work in 20 days working 5 hours a day. To finish the work within 10 days working 8 hours a day, the minimum number of men required is-

a. 310

b. 300

c. 313

d. 312

Ans : Required no. of men = 250 * 5 * 20/8 * 10

=312.5

313

19. 2 men and 5 women can do a work in 12 days. 5 men 2 women can do that work in 9 days. Only 3 women can finish the same work in-

a. 36 days

b. 21 days

c. 30 days

d. 42 days

? (2m + 5w) * 12 = (5m + 2w) * 9

? 24m + 60w = 45m + 18w

? 21m = 42w

? 1m = 2w

? 2m + 5w = 9w

? required no. of days = 9 * 12/3

= 36

20. While selling, a businessman allows 40% discount on the marked price and there is a loss of 30%. If it is sold at the marked price, profit per cent will be ?

a. 10%

b. 20%

c. 16 2/3%

d. 16 1/3%

Ans : Let the M.P. be Rs.100.

? S.P = (100-40) = Rs.60

and C. P. = 60 * 100/(100-30) = Rs.600/7

? Reqd. % profit = 100-600/7 /600/7 * 100%

= (700 ? 600)/7 * 600 * 100 * 7%

= 16 2/3%

21. Successive discount of 10% , 20% and 50% will be equivalent to a single discount of-

a. 36%

b. 64%

c. 80%

d. 56%

Ans : Equivalent to a single discount

= [100 – (100 ? 10) (100 ? 20) (100 ? 50)/100*100]%

= [100 – 90*80*50/10000]%

= [100-36]%

= 64%

22. A retailer offers the following discount schemes for buyers on an article-

I. Two successive discounts of 10%

II. A discount of 12% followed by a discount of 8%.

III. Successive discounts of 15% and 5%

IV. A discount of 20%

The selling price will be minimum under the scheme-

a. I

b. II

c. III

d. IV

Ans : From (i) single discount = [10 + 10 ? 10*10/100] % = 19%

From (ii) single discount = [12 + 8 -12*8/100] % = 19.04%

From (iii) single discount = [15 + 5 ? 15*5/100] % = 19.25%

From (iv) single discount = 20%

? The S.P. will be minimum under the scheme IV.

23. Of three numbers, the second is thrice the first and the third number is three-fourth of the first. If the average of the three numbers is 114, the largest number is ?

a. 72

b. 216

c. 354

d. 726

Ans : Let the first number be x.

? Second number = 3x and Third number = 3x/4

? x + 3x + 3x/4 = 3*114

? 19x/4 = 342

? x = 342*4/19 = 72

? The largest number = 3*72

= 216

24. A car covers 1/5 of the distance from A to B at the speed of 8 km/hour, 1/10 of the distance at 25 km per hour and the remaining at the speed of 20 km per hour. Find the average speed of the whole journey-

a. 12.625 km/hr

b. 13.625 km/hr

c. 14.625 km/hr

d. 15.625 km/hr

Ans : If the whole journey be x km. The total time taken

= (x/5/8 + x/10/25 + 7x/10/20) hrs

= (x/40 + x/250 + 7x/200) hrs

= 25x + 4x + 35x/1000

= 64x/1000 hrs

? Average speed = x/64x/1000

= 15.625 km/hr

25. The average of 3 numbers is 154. The first number is twice the second and the second number is twice the third. The first number is-

a. 264

b. 132

c. 88

d. 66

Ans : Let the first number be x.

? Second number = x/2 and Third number = x/4

? x + x/2 + x/4 = 3 x 154

? 7x/4 = 462

? x = 462*4/7

=264

26. The average salary of all the staff in an office of a corporate house is Rs. 5,000. The average salary of the officers is Rs. 14,000 and that of the rest is Rs. 4,000. If the total number of staff is 500, the number of officers is ?

a. 10

b. 15

c. 25

d. 50

Ans : Let the number of officers be x.

? 5000*500 = 14000x + 4000(500-x)

? 2500000 =14000x + 2000000 ? 4000x

? x = 500000/10000

= 50

27. The average marks of 40 students in an English exam are 72. Later it is found that three marks 64, 62 and 84 were wrongly entered as 60, 65 and 73. The average after mistakes were rectified is-

a. 70

b. 72

c. 71.9

d. 72.1

Ans : Correct average

= 40*72 + (64 + 62 +84) ? 68 ? 65 ? 73/40

= 2880 + 210 ? 206/40 = 2884/40

= 72.1

28. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing metals in the ratio 7:2 and 7:11 respectively. If equal quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, the ratio of gold and copper in C will be-

a. 5 : 7

b. 5 : 9

c. 7 : 5

d. 9 : 5

Ans : Quantity of gold in A = 7/9* wt. of A

Quantity of gold in B = 7/18* wt. of B

If 1 kg of each A and B are mixed to form third alloys C.

Then quantity of gold in 2 kg C = 7/9 + 7/18

= 7/6 kg

And Quantity of copper in 2 kg C = 2 ? 7/6

= 5/6 kg

? Required ratio = 7/6 : 5/6 = 7 : 5

29. In a laboratory, two bottles contain mixture of acid and water in the ratio 2 : 5 in the first bottle and 7 : 3 in the second. The ratio in which the contents of these two bottles be mixed such that the new mixture has acid and water in the ratio 2 : 3 is-

a. 4 : 15

b. 9 : 8

c. 21 : 8

d. 1 : 2

Ans : Quantity of acid in first bottle = 2/7 x mix.

and Quantity of acid in second bottle = 7/10 x mix.

If x and 1 volumes are taken from I and II bottle respectively to form new mixture.

Then, (2/7 x + 7/10 * 1)/(5x/7 +3/10 * 1) = 2/3

? 6x/7 21/10 = 10x/7 +6/10

? 4x/7 = 15/10

? x = 15/10*7/4 = 21/8

? Required ratio = x : 1

= 21 : 8

30. A mixture contains 80% acid and rest water. Part of the mixture that should be removed and replaced by same amount of water to make the ratio of acid and water 4 : 3 is-

a. 1/3 rd

b. 3/7 th

c. 2/3 rd

d. 2/7 th

Ans : Let the initial wt. of mixture be 1 kg and x kg of mixture is taken out and replaced by same amount of water.

? Amt. of acid/Amt. of water = 0.8 ? 0.8x/ (0.2 ? 0.2x + x) = 4/3

? 2.4 ? 2.4x = 0.8 + 3.2x

? 5.6x = 1.6

? x = 1.6/5.6 = 2/7th part

31. An employer reduces the number of his employees in the ratio 9 : 8 and increases their wages in the ratio 14 : 15. If the original wage bill was Rs. 189,900, find the ratio in which the wage bill is decreased-

a. 20 : 21

b. 21 : 20

c. 20 : 19

d. 19 : 21

Ans : Let the initial number of employees be 9x and the employer gives Rs. 14y as wage to each.

? 9x * 14y =18900

? xy = 150 and The later bill = 8x*15y = 120xy

= 120*150 = 18000

? Required ratio = 18000 : 18900

= 20 : 21

32. The batting average for 40 innings of a cricketer is 50 runs. His highest score exceeds his lowest score by 172 runs. If these two innings are excluded, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48 runs. The highest score of the player is-

a. 165

b. 170

c. 172

d. 174

Ans : Let the max. number of runs be x.

? The lowest score = (x-172)

? 40*50 = 38*48 + x + (x-172)

? 2000 = 1824 + 2x ? 172

? x= 174

33. Walking at 3 km per hour, Pintu reaches his school 5 minutes late. If he walks at 4 km per hour he will be 5 minutes early. The distance of Pintu?s school from his house is-

a. 1 ½ Km

b. 2 Km

c. 2 ½ Km

d. 5 Km

Ans : Distance of the school from the house

= 4*3/(4 ? 3) * 5 +5/60 km

= 12*1/6

=2 km

34. Nitin bought some oranges at Rs. 40 a dozen and an equal number at Rs.30 a dozen. He sold them at Rs. 45 a dozen and made a profit of Rs.480. The number of oranges, he bought, was-

a. 48 dozen

b. 60 dozen

c. 72 dozen

d. 84 dozen

Ans : Let the number of oranges bought be x.

? 45x/12 ? 70x/24 = 480

? (45-35)/12 = 480

? x = 480*12/10 = 576

= 48*12 = 48 dozen

35. A man buys two chairs for a total cost of Rs.900. By selling one for 4/5 of its cost and the other for 5/4 of its cost, he makes a profit of Rs.90 on the whole transaction. The cost of the lower priced chair is-

a. Rs.360

b. Rs.400

c. Rs.420

d. Rs.300

Ans : Let the cost price of 1 chair be Rs. x.

? C.P. of other chair = Rs. (900-x)

? 4/5 x + 5/4 (900-x) = 900 + 90

? 4/5 x +1125 -5x/4 = 990

? 9x/20 = 135

? x = 135*20/9

= Rs. 300

? C.P. of the lower priced chair is Rs. 300.

36. By selling 100 oranges, a vendor gains the selling price of 20 oranges. His gain per cent is-

a. 20

b. 25

c. 30

d. 32

Ans : Let the S.P. of 100 Oranges be Rs. x.

? S.P. of 20 oranges = x/100 *20 = Rs. x/5

?C.P. of 100 oranges = x – x/5

= Rs. 4x/5

? Reqd. Profit % = x/5 * 100*5/4x %

= 25%

37. 60% of the cost price of an article is equal to 50% of its selling price. Then the percentage of profit or loss on the cost price is-

a. 20% loss

b. 16 2/3% profit

c. 20% profit

d. 10% loss

Ans : Let the cost price be Rs. 100.

? S.P * 50/100 = 100*16/100

? S.P = 60*100/50

= Rs. 120

? Reqd. % profit = (120 ? 100)% = 20%

38. Maninder bought two horses at Rs.40,000 each. He sold one horse at 15% gain, but had to sell the second horse at a loss. If he hand suffered a loss of Rs.3,600 on the whole transaction, then the selling price of the second horse is-

a. Rs.30,000

b. Rs.30,200

c. Rs.30,300

d. Rs.30,400

Ans: C.P. of two horses = 2*40000 = Rs. 80000

and S.P. of two horse = 80000 ? 3600 = Rs. 76400

? S.P. of the other horse = 76400 ? 46000 = 30400

39. A fruit-seller buys x guavas for Rs.y and sells y guavas for Rs. x. If x>y, then he made-

a. x2 ? y2 / xy % loss

b. x2 ? y2 / xy % gain

c. x2 ? y2 / y2 % loss

d. x2 ? y2 / y2 * 100% gain

Ans : C.P. of 1 guava = Rs. y/x [x>y]

and S.P. of 1 guava = Rs. x/y

? Reqd. Gain% = x/y ? y/x/ y/x * 100%

= x2 – y2 /y2 *100%

40. A jar contain 10 red marbles and 30 green ones. How many red marbles must be added to the jar so that 60% of the marbles will be red?

a. 25

b. 30

c. 35

d. 40

Ans : Let after adding x red marbles, the red marbles with be 60% of the total.

? (10+x)/ (10 + x) + 30 = 60/100

? 10 + x/40 + x = 3/5

? 50 + 5x = 120 + 3x

x = 70/2 = 35

41. If a number multiplied by 25% of itself gives a number which is 200% more than the number, then the number is ?

a. 12

b. 16

c. 35

d. 24

Ans : Let the number be x.

? x*25x/100 = x + 200x/100

? x2/4 = 3x

? x2 – 12x = 0

? x ? 12 = 0

? x = 12

42. The value of an article depreciates every year at the rate of 10% of its value. If the present value of the article is Rs.729, then its worth 3 years ago was-

a. Rs.1250

b. Rs.1000

c. Rs.1125

d. Rs.1200

Ans : Let the worth 3 years ago be Rs. x.

? 729 = x (1 ? 10/100)3

? 729 = x*9*9*9/10*10*10

? x = Rs. 1000

43. The price of onions has been increased by 50%. In order to keep the expenditure on onions the same the percentage of reduction in consumption has to be-

a. 50%

b. 33 1/3%

c. 33%

d. 30%

Ans : Reqd. Percentage of reduction

= 50*100/(100 + 50) %

= 5000/150 %

= 33 1/3%

44. A took two loans altogether of Rs.1200 from B and C. B claimed 14% simple interest per annum, while C claimed 15% per annum. The total interest paid by A in one year was Rs.172. Then, A borrowed-

a. Rs.800 from C

b. Rs.625 from C

c. Rs.400 from B

d. Rs.800 from B

Ans : If A borrowed Rs. x from B. and A borrowed Rs. Rs. (1200 ? x) from C.

? (1200 ? x)*15*1/100 + x*14*1/100

? 18000 ? 15x + 14x = 172*100

x = Rs. 800

45. If a regular polygon has each of its angles equal to 3/5 times of two right angles, then the number of side is-

a. 3

b. 5

c. 6

d. 8

Ans : If the number of sides a regular polygon be n.

Then (2n-4)/n = 2*3/5

? (2n ? 4)*5 = 6n

? n = 5

46. A square is of area 200 sq. m. A new square is formed in such a way that the length of its diagonal is ?2 times of the diagonal of the given square. The the area of the new square formed is-

a. 200?2 sq.m

b. 400?2 sq.m

c. 400 sq.m

d. 800 sq.m

Ans : Length of the diagonal of Ist square

= ?2*200

= 20 m

? Length of the diagonal of new square = 20?2m

? Area of the new square = ½*(20.?2)2 = 400 sq. m

47. The heights of a cone, cylinder and hemisphere are equal. If their radii are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 1, then the ratio of their volumes is-

a. 2 : 9 : 2

b. 4 : 9 : 1

c. 4 : 27 : 2

d. 2 : 3 : 1

Ans : Ratio of their volumes [cone : cylinder : hemisphere]

= 1/3?(2)2h : ?(3)2*h : 2/3?(1)2.h

= 4/3 : 9 : 2/3 = 4 : 27 : 2

48. A motor-boat can travel at 10 km/hr in still water. It travelled 91 km downstream in a river and then returned to the same place, taking altogether 2 hours. Find the rate of flow of river-

a. 3 km/hr

b. 4 km/hr

c. 2 km/hr

d. 5 km/hr

Ans : Let the rate of flow of river be x km/hr.

? 91/(10 + x) + 91/(10 ? x) = 20

? 91(10 ? x + 10 + x)(10 + x) (10 ? x) = 20

? 91*20 = 20(100 ? x2)

? x2 = 9 = (3)2

? x = 3 km/hr

49. A man driving at 3/4th of his original speed reaches his destination 20 minutes later than the usual time. Then the usual time is-

a. 45 minutes

b. 60 minutes

c. 75 minutes

d. 120 minutes

Ans : Let the original speed be x km/hr and the usual time be y hours.

? x * y = ¾ x(y+1/3)

? 4y = 3y + 1

? y = 1 hr = 60 minutes

50. A motor-boat, travelling at the same speed, can cover 25 km upstream and 39 km downstream in 8 hours. At the same speed, it can travel 35 km upstream and 52 km downstream in 11 hours. The speed of the stream is ?

a. 2 km/hr

b. 3 km/hr

c. 4 km/hr

d. 5 km/hr

Ans : Let the speeds of motor boat and the stream be x and y km/hr respectively.

? 39/x + y + 25/x ? y = 8 ?(1)

and 52/x + y + 35/x ? y = 11 ?(2)

Solving equations (1) and (2), we get-

? 100 – 105/x ? y = 32 ? 33

? x ? y = 5

and x + y = 13

? y = 4 km/hr

51. If a sum of money placed at compound interest, compounded annually, doubles itself in 5 years, then the same amount of money will be 8 times of itself in-

a. 25 years

b. 20 years

c. 15 years

d. 10 years

Ans : Required time = 5log 8/log 2

= 5*3log 2/log 2

= 15 years

52. A person has left an amount of Rs.1,20,000 to be divided between his 2 son aged 14 years and 12 years such that they get equal amounts when each attains 18 years of age. If the amount gets a simple interest of 5% per annum, the younger son?s share at present is-

a. Rs.48,800

b. Rs.57,600

c. Rs.62,400

d. Rs.84,400

Ans : Let the present share of the younger son be Rs. x.

? The share of the elder son = Rs. (120000 ? x)

? x + x*6*5/100

= (120000 ? x) + (120000 ? x)*4*5/100

? 130x/100 = (120000 ?x)*120/100

? 13x = 1440000 ? 12x

? 25x = 1440000

? x = Rs. 57600

53. If the simple interest on Rs.x at a rate of a% for m years is same as that on Rs. y at a rate of a2% for m2 years, then x : y is equal to-

a. m : a

b. am : 1

c. 1/m : 1/a

d. 1/am : 1

? x*a*m/100 = y*a2*m2/100

? x/y = am/1

? x : y = am : 1

54. Base of a right prism is an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm. If the volume of the prism is 108?3 cc, its height is-

a. 9 cm

b. 10 cm

c. 11 cm

d. 12 cm

Ans : Height of the prism = 108?3*4/?3*(6)2 = 12cm

55. If a + 1/a + 2 = 0, then the value of (a37 ? 1/a100) is-

a. 0

b. -2

c. 1

d. 2

Ans : ? a + 1/a + 2 = 0

? a2 + 1 +2a = 0

? (a + 1)2 = 0

? a +1 = 0

? a = -1

? a37 -1/a100 = (-1) ? (1) = -2

56. The value of k for which the graphs of (k-1) x+y-2 = 0 and (2-k) x -3y + 1 = 0 are parallel is-

a. ½

b. -1/2

c. 2

d. -2

Ans : (k ? 1) x + y ? 2 = 0

? y = (1 ? k) x + 2 ?.(1)

and (2 ?k) x ? 3y ? 1 = 0

3y = (2 ? k) x +1

Y = 2 ? k/3 x + 1/3 ?.(2)

? m1 = m2

? 1 ? k = 2 ? k/3

? 3 ? 3k = 2 – k

? k = 1/2

57. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 2 (a-b-c) ? 3, then the value of (a ? b + c) is-

a. -1

b. 3

c. 1

d. -2

Ans : a2 + b2 + c2 = 2(a ? b ? c) ? 3

? a2 – 2a + 1 + b2 + 2b + 1 + c2 + 2c + 1 = 0

? (a ? 1)2 + (b + 1)2 + (c + 1)2 = 0

? a ? 1 = 0, b + 1 = 0, c + 1 = 0

? a = 1, b = -1, c = -1

? a + b ? c = 1 ? 1 + 1 =1

58. If x2 + 3x + 1 = 0, then the value of x3 + 1/x3 is-

a. -18

b. 18

c. 36

d. -36

Ans : ? x2 + 3x + 1 = 0

? x + 3 + 1/x = 0

? x + 1/x = -3

? (x + 1/x)3 = (-3)3

? x3 + 1/x3 + 3 (-3) = -27

? x3 + 1/ x3 = -18

59. If xa, xb, xc = 1, then the value of a3 + b3 + c3 is ?

a. 9

b. abc

c. a + b + c

d. 3abc

Ans : ? xa. xb. xc = 1

? xa + b + c = x0

? a +b + c =0

? a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc

60. Base of a right pyramid is a square, length of diagonal of the base is 24?2 m. If the volume of the pyramid is 1728 cu.m, its height is-

a. 7 m

b. 8 m

c. 9 m

d. 10 m

Ans : Area of the base of the pyramid

= ½ (24?2)2 = 576m2

? Height of pyramid + 1728*3/576 = 9m

61. The height of a right circular cone and the radius of its circular base are respectively 9 cm and 3 cm. The cone is cut by a plane parallel to its base so as to divide it into two parts. The volume of the frustum (i.e., the lower part) of the cone is 44 cubic cm. The radius of the upper circular surface of the frustum (taking ? = 22-7) is-

a. 3?12 cm

b. 3?13 cm

c. 3?6 cm

d. 3?20 cm

Ans : Let the radius of the upper circular part of the frustum be r cm.

(Picture)

Then r/3 = x/9 = AC/AD

? x = 3r (where AC = x cm)

? ?/3h(r12 + r1r2+r22 = 44

? ?/3(9 ? x)*(9 + 3r + r2) = 44

? (9 ? x)*(9 + 3r + r2) = 44*3*7/22 = 42

? 81 + 27r + 9r2 ? 9x ? 3rx – r2x = 42 On putting x = 3r,

? 81 + 27r + 9r2 – 9r2 – 3r3 ? 27r = 42

? 3r3 = 39

? r = 3?13 cm

62. The ratio of radii of two right circular cylinder is 2 : 3 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 4. The ratio of their curved surface area is-

a. 5 : 6

b. 3 : 4

c. 4 : 5

d. 2 : 3

Ans : Required ratio = 2?*2r*5h/2?*3r*4h = 5 : 6

63. A solid cylinder has total surface area of 462 sq.cm. Curved surface area is 1/3rd of its total surface area. The volume of the cylinder is-

a. 530 cm3

b. 536 cm3

c. 539 cm3

d. 545 cm3

Ans : ? 2?r(r + h) = 462

and 2?rh = 1/3*462 = 154

? r + h/h = 462/154 =3

? r + h = 3h

? r = 2h

? 2?*2h2 = 154

? h2 = 154*7/22*4 = 49/4

= (7/2)2

? h = 7/2 cm

and r = 7 cm

? Volume of the cylinder

= 22/7*49*7/2

= 539 cm3

64. A cylinder and a cone have equal radii of their bases and equal heights. If their curved surface areas are in the ratio 8 : 5, the ratio of their radius and height is-

a. 1 : 2

b. 1 : 3

c. 2 : 3

d. 3 : 4

Ans : Let the radius and height of each are r and h respectively.

? 2?rh/?r?h2 + r2 = 8/5

? 10h = 8?r2 + h2

? 100h2 =64r2 + 64h2

? h2 = 64 r2/36 = (4/3 r)2

? h = 4/3r

? r : h = 3 : 4

65. A solid is hemispherical at the bottom and conical above. If the surface areas of the two parts are equal, then the ratio of radius and height of its conical part is-

a. 1 : 3

b. 1 :1

c. ?3 : 1

d. 1 : ?3

Ans :

? ?rl = 2?r2

? l = 2r

? ?h2 + r2 = 2r

? h2 = 3r2

? r : h = r/h

= 1 : ?3

66. If O is the circumcentre of ? ABC and ?OBC = 350, then the ?BAC is equal to-

a. 550

b. 1100

c. 700

d. 350

Ans : ? ?BOC = 1800 ? (350 + 350) = 1100

? ?BAC = 1/2 * 1100 = 550

67. If I is the incentre of ? ABC and ? BIC = 1350, then ? ABC is-

a. Acute angled

b. Equilateral

c. Right angled

d. Obtuse angled

Ans :

?BIC = 1350

? B/2 + C/2 = 1800 ? 1350 = 450

? ?B + ?C = 900

? ?A = 1800 ? (?B + ?C) = 900

i.e., ? ABC is a right angled.

68. If sin2 (? + ?/2) is-

a. 1

b. -1

c. 0

d. 0.5

? sin2 ? + sin2 ? = 2

? 1 ? cos2 ? 1 – cos2 ? = 2

? cos2 ? cos2 ? = 0

? cos ? = 0

and cos ? = 0

? ? = ?/2 and ? = ?/2

? cos (? + ?/2) = cos [?/2 + ?/2 / 2]

= cos ?/2 = 0

69. The length of a shadow of a vertical tower is 1/?3 times its height. The angle of elevation of the Sun is-

a. 300

b. 450

c. 600

d. 900

Ans :

? tan ? = h/1?3 h = ?3 = tan 600

70. The graphs of x +2y =3 and 3x-2y = 1 meet the Y-axis at two points having distance-

a. 8/3 units

b. 4/3 units

c. 1 unit

d. 2 units

Ans : When the graphs meet the Y-axis at two points.

Then, [x + 2y = 3] at x = 0 ? [0, y1 =3/2]

[3x – 2y = 1] at x = 0

and i.e., [0, y2 = -1/2]

Required distance = (y1 ? y2)

= 3/2 ? (- ½) = 2 units

71. If x+1/16x = 1, then the value of 64×3 + 1/64×3 is-

a. 4

b. 52

c. 64

d. 76

? x + 1/16x = 1

? 16×2 ? 16x + 1 =0

? 16×2 ? 16x + 4 = 3

? (4x ? 2)2 = 3

? 4x = 2 + ?3

? 64×3 = (2±?3)3

=8 + 3?3 + 6?3 (2 + ?3)

= 26 + 15?3

? 64×3 + 1/64×3 = (26 + 15?3) + 1/ (26 + 15?3)

= (26 + 15?3) + 26 – 15?3/676 -675

=52

72. If a, b, c, are three non-zero real numbers such that a + b + c = 0, and b2 ? ca, then the value of a2 + b2 + c2/ b2 ?ca is-

a. 3

b. 2

c. 0

d. 1

? a + b + c = 0

? a + c = -b

? a2 + c2 = b2 -2ac

? a2 + b2 + c2 = 2b2 ? 2ac

? a2 + b2 + c2/ b2 ac = 2

73. If a4 + a2 b2 + b4 = 8 and a2 + ab + b2 = 4, then the value of ab is-

a. -1

b. 0

c. 2

d. 1

? a4 + a2 b2 + b4/ a2 + ab + b2 = 8/4

? (a2 + b2)2 ? (ab) 2/ (a2 + b2 + ab) = 2

? a2 ? ab + b2 = 2 ?.(1)

and a2 + ab + b2 = 4 ?..(2)

? 2ab = 2

? ab = 1

74. If a = 25, b = 15, c = -10, then the value of a3 + b3 + c3 ? 3abc/ (a-b)2 + (b-c)2 + (c-a)2 is-

a. 30

b. -15

c. -30

d. 15

? a3 + b3 + c3 ? 3abc

= (25)3 + (15)3 + (-10)3 ? 3*25*15*(-10)

=15625 + 3375 ? 1000 + 11250 = 29250

and (a – b)2 + (b ? c)2 + (c ? a)2

= (10)2 + (25)2 + (-35)2

= (10)2 + 625 + 1225

= 1950

? Required value = 29250/1950 =15

75. A, B, C are three points on a circle. The tangent at A meets BC produced at T, ?BTA = 400, ?CAT = 440. The angle subtended by BC at the centre of the circle is-

a. 840

b. 920

c. 960

d. 1040

Ans : (Picture)

?ACB = 400 + 440 = 840

? ?ACO = 900 – 440 = 460 = ?OAC

? ?OCB = ?ACB – ?ACO

= 840 – 460 = 380 = ?OBC

? ?BOC = 1800 ? (?OCB + ?OBC)

= 1800 ? (380 + 380) = 1040

76. If the length of a chord of a circle at a distance of 12 cm from the Centre is 10 cm, then the diameter of the circle is-

a. 13 cm

b. 15 cm

c. 26 cm

d. 30 cm

Ans : (Picture)

? OA = ?OM2 + AM2

= ?122 + 52 = 13

? Diameter of the circle = 2*OA

= 2*13 = 26cm

77. In ? ABC, P and Q are the middle points of the sides AB and AC respectively. R is a point on the segment PQ such that PR : RQ = 1 : 2. If PR = 2 cm, then BC =

a. 4 cm

b. 2 cm

c. 12 cm

d. 6 cm

? PR/RQ = ½

But, PR = 2cm

RQ = 2*PR

= 4cm

(Picture)

? PQ = PR + RQ

= 2 + 4 = 6 cm

? BC = 2*PQ = 12CM

78. If tan ? tan 2? = 1, then the value of sin2 2? + tan2 is equal to ?

a. ¾

b. 10/3

c. 3 ¾

d. 3

? tan ? * tan 2? = 1

? tan ? * 2 tan ?/1 ? tan2 ? = 1

? 2 tan2 ? = 1 – tan2 ?

? 3 tan2 ? = 1

? tan ? = 1/?3 = tan 300

? ? = 300

? sin2 2? + tan2 2? = sin2 600 + tan2 600

= ¾ + 3

=3 ¾

79. The value of cot ?/20 cot 3?/20 cot 5?/20 cot 7?/20 cot 9?/20 is-

a. -1

b. ½

c. 0

d. 1

Ans : Given Exp.

= cot ?/20. cot 3?/20. cot 5?/20. cot 7?/20. cot 9?/20

= cot 90. cot 270. cot 450. cot 630. cot 810

= cot 90. cot 270*1*tan 270. tan 90.

= cot 90. cot 270*1*1/ cot 270*1/ cot 90

=1

80. If sin ?+ cos ? = 17/13, 0<?<900, then the value of sin ?- cos ? is-

a. 5/17

b. 3/19

c. 7/10

d. 7/13

? sin ? + cos ? = 17/13

? sin2 ? + cos2 ? + 2sin ?.cos ? = 289/169

? 2sin ?.cos ? = 289 /169 -1

= 289 -169/169 = 120/169

? sin2 ? + cos2 ? ? 2 sin2 ?.cos ? = 1 ? 120/169

= 49/169

? (sin ? ? cos ?)2 = (7/13)2

? sin ? ? cos ? = 7/13

S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level Exam
(Tier-II) 2011
Solved Paper ? I
Arithmetical Ability

1. The product of 2 numbers is 1575 and their quotient is 9/7. Then the sum of the numbers is ?

a. 74

b. 78

c. 80

d. 90

Ans : Let the numbers be x and y .

? xy = 1575

And x/y = 9/7

? xy/x/y = 1575/9/7

? y2 = 1225

? y = 35 and x = 45

? The sum of the numbers = 45+35

= 80

2. The value of (81)3.6 * (9)2.7/ (81)4.2 * (3) is __

a. 3

b. 6

c. 9

d. 8.2

Ans : (81)3.6 * (9)2.7/(81)4.2 * (3) = (3)14.4 * (3)5.4/(3)16.8 * (3)

= 314.4+5.4-16.8-1

= 32

= 9

3. ?6+?6+?6+? is equal to ?

a. 2

b. 5

c. 4

d. 3

Ans : Let ?6+?6+?6+?. be x.

? x =?6+x

? x2 = 6+x

? x2 + x ? 6 = 0

? (x-3) (x+2) = 0

? x = 3

4. The sum of the squares of two natural consecutive odd numbers is 394. The sum of the numbers is ?

a. 24

b. 32

c. 40

d. 28

Ans : Let the consecutive odd numbers be x and (x+2)

? x2 + (x + 2)2 = 394

? x2 + x2 + 4x + 4 = 394

? 2 x2 +4x ? 390 = 0

? x2 + 2x ? 195 = 0

? (x +15) (x-13) = 0

? x = 13

? Required sum = 13 +15 =28

5. When (6767 +67) is divided by 68, the remainder is-

a. 1

b. 63

c. 66

d. 67

Ans: (6767+ 67) = 67(6766 + 166)

As 66 is an even number

? 6766 is an even number

? (6766 + 1) is perfectly divisible by (67 + 1)

i.e. 68

? The remainder = 67

6. In a division sum, the divisor is 4 times the quotient and twice the remainder. If a and b are respectively the divisor and the dividend then-

a. 4b-a2 /a =3

b. 4b-2a /a2 =2

c. (a+1)2 = 4b

d. A(a+2)/b = 4

Ans : As divisor is a, and dividend is b.

? Quotient = a/4

And Remainder = a/2

? b = a * a/4 + a/2

? 4b = a2 + 2a

? a(a+2)/b = 4

7. If 738 A6A is divisible by 11, then the value of A is-

a. 6

b. 3

c. 9

d. 1

Ans : As 738A6 A is divisible by 11.

? A + A + 3 = 6 + 8 + 7

? A = 9

8. The east positive integer that should be subtracted from 3011 * 3012 so that the difference is perfect square is-

a. 3009

b. 3010

c. 3011

d. 3012

Ans : ? 3011 * 3012 = 3011 (3011 + 1)

= (3011)2 + 3011

? Required least number = 3011

9. P, Q, R are employed to do a work for Rs. 5750. P and Q together finished 19/23 of work and Q and R together finished 8/23 of work. Wage of Q, in rupees, is-

a. 2850

b. 3750

c. 2750

d. 1000

Ans : Work done by Q = 19/23 + 8/23 ? 1

4/23

? Wage of Q = 4/23 * 5750

= Rs. 1000

10. A can do a piece of work in 24 day, B in 32 days and C in 64 days. All begin to do it together, but A leaves after 6 days and B leaves 6 days before the completion of the work. How many days did the work last?

a. 15

b. 20

c. 18

d. 30

Ans : Work done by A = 6/24 = ¼

Work done by B = (x-6)/32

(where x is no. of days in which work is competed)

? ¼ + x ? 6/32 + x/64 = 1

? 16 + 24 ? 12 + x /64 = 1

? 3x + 4 = 64

? x = 60/3 = 20 days

11. The square root of (0.75)3 /1-0.75 + [0.75 + 90.75)2 +1] is-

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

Ans : The square root of

[(0.75)3/1 ? 0.75 + {0.75 + (0.75)2 + 1}]

= ?1.6875 + 2.3125

=?4

= 2

12. Given that ?4096 = 64, the value of ?4096 + ?40.96 +?0.004096 is-

a. 70.4

b. 70.464

c. 71.104

d. 71.4

Ans : Given Exp. = ?4096 + ?40.96 +?0.004096

= 64 + 6.4 + 0.064

= 70.464

13. By selling an article at 3/4th of the marked price, there is a gain of 25%. The ratio of the marked price and the cost price is-

a. 5 : 3

b. 3 : 5

c. 3 : 4

d. 4 : 3

Ans : Let of M.P. be Rs. x.

? S.P. = Rs.3x/4

and C.P. = 3x/4 * 100/125

= Rs.3x/5

? required ratio = x: 3x/5

= 5:3

14. A and B earn in the ratio 2:1. They spend in the ratio 5:3 and save in the ratio 4:1. If the total monthly savings of both A and B are Rs.5,000, the monthly income of B is-

a. Rs.7,000

b. Rs.14,000

c. Rs.5,000

d. Rs.10,000

Ans : Let the monthly income of B be Rs. x.

? Monthly income of A = Rs. 2x and

Saving of A =5000 * 4/(4 + 1)

= Rs. 4000

Saving of B = Rs.1000

? 2x ? 4000/x-1000 = 5/3

? 6x ? 12000 = 5x ? 5000

? x = Rs.7000

15. The ratio of the sum of two numbers and their difference is 5:1. The ratio of the greater number to the smaller number is-

a. 2 : 3

b. 3 : 2

c. 5 : 1

d. 1 : 5

Ans : Let the numbers be x and y.

? x + y/ x ? y = 5/1

? 5x ? 5y = x + y

? 4x = 6y

? x/y = 6/4

x : y = 3 : 2

16. A cistern has 3 pipes A, B and C. A and B can fill it in 3 and 4 hours respectively, and C can empty it in 1 hour. If the pipes are opened at 3 p.m., 4 p.m. and 5 p.m. respectively on the same day, the cistern will be empty at-

a. 7.12 p.m.

b. 7.15 p.m.

c. 7.10 p.m.

d. 7.18 p.m.

Ans : Let the cistern be emptied at x p.m.

? x -3/3 + x ? 4/4 = x – 5/1

? 4x ? 12 + 3x ? 12/12 = x ? 5/1

? 7x ? 24 = 12x ? 60

? 5x = 36

? x = 36/5

= 7 hr. + 12 min.

= 7.12 p.m.

17. If A works alone, he would take 4 days more to complete the job than if both A and B worked together. If B worked alone, he would take 16 days more to complete the job than if A and B work together. How many days would they take to complete the work if both of them worked together?

a. 10 days

b. 12 days

c. 6 days

d. 8 days

Let x days are taken when they work together.

? Time taken by A to complete the work = (x + 4) days

And Time taken by B to complete the work = (x + 16) days

? 1/x = 1/x + 4 + 1/x + 16

? 1/x = x + 16 + x + 4/(x + 4) (x +16)

? 2×2 + 20x = x2 + 20x +64

? x2 = 64 (8)2

? x = 8 days

18. 250 men can finish a work in 20 days working 5 hours a day. To finish the work within 10 days working 8 hours a day, the minimum number of men required is-

a. 310

b. 300

c. 313

d. 312

Ans : Required no. of men = 250 * 5 * 20/8 * 10

=312.5

313

19. 2 men and 5 women can do a work in 12 days. 5 men 2 women can do that work in 9 days. Only 3 women can finish the same work in-

a. 36 days

b. 21 days

c. 30 days

d. 42 days

? (2m + 5w) * 12 = (5m + 2w) * 9

? 24m + 60w = 45m + 18w

? 21m = 42w

? 1m = 2w

? 2m + 5w = 9w

? required no. of days = 9 * 12/3

= 36

20. While selling, a businessman allows 40% discount on the marked price and there is a loss of 30%. If it is sold at the marked price, profit per cent will be ?

a. 10%

b. 20%

c. 16 2/3%

d. 16 1/3%

Ans : Let the M.P. be Rs.100.

? S.P = (100-40) = Rs.60

and C. P. = 60 * 100/(100-30) = Rs.600/7

? Reqd. % profit = 100-600/7 /600/7 * 100%

= (700 ? 600)/7 * 600 * 100 * 7%

= 16 2/3%

21. Successive discount of 10% , 20% and 50% will be equivalent to a single discount of-

a. 36%

b. 64%

c. 80%

d. 56%

Ans : Equivalent to a single discount

= [100 – (100 ? 10) (100 ? 20) (100 ? 50)/100*100]%

= [100 – 90*80*50/10000]%

= [100-36]%

= 64%

22. A retailer offers the following discount schemes for buyers on an article-

I. Two successive discounts of 10%

II. A discount of 12% followed by a discount of 8%.

III. Successive discounts of 15% and 5%

IV. A discount of 20%

The selling price will be minimum under the scheme-

a. I

b. II

c. III

d. IV

Ans : From (i) single discount = [10 + 10 ? 10*10/100] % = 19%

From (ii) single discount = [12 + 8 -12*8/100] % = 19.04%

From (iii) single discount = [15 + 5 ? 15*5/100] % = 19.25%

SSC FCI Assistant exam solved previous question papers

SSC FCI Assistant Exam Solved Previous Question Papers

1. Which of the following bodies tightened the norms for foreign exchange risk cover in India mentioning that only companies with a networth of Rs 200 crore can use derivatives to hedge against risk of volatility in currency rates?
a. IMF
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. SEBI
d. Union Ministry of Finance
Ans: b

2. Which body in India finally provided tax exemption on the 9.5 per cent interest income on PF deposits for 2010-11?
a. Reserve Bank of India
b. Income Tax Department
c. Employees? Provident Fund Organisation
d. Corporate Affairs Ministry
Ans: b

3. (1) The report on Customer Service in Banks by a committee chaired by M. Damodaran, former Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that was released on 3 July 2011 recommended an increased deposit insurance cover of Rs.5 lakh so as to encourage individuals to keep all their deposits in banks.
(2) The panel also suggested blocking of lost ATM cards through SMS and immediate restoration of funds in case of non-dispensation of cash at an ATM within 5 working days.
Which of the above is not true?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. None of the above
Ans: b

4. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?
a. 7%
b. 7.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.5%
Ans: c

5. Which bank posted a 99 per cent drop in net profit at Rs 21 crore for the fourth quarter ended 31 March 2011 against Rs 1867 crore during the corresponding period in 2010?
a. Indian Overseas Bank
b. State Bank of India
c. Bank of India
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b

6. Who did global payments processing company MasterCard appoint as the General Manager, South Asia and Country President, India?
a. T. V. Seshadri
b. Vicky Bindra
c. Tunde Lemo
d. Ajay Banga
Ans: a

7. Government of India on 19 July 2011 appointed Usha Ananthasubramanian, former general manager of Bank of Baroda (BoB) as executive director of which public sector lender?
a. Central Bank of India
b. Punjab National Bank
c. United Bank of India
d. Gramin Bank
Ans: b

8. Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray into the life insurance segment.
a. Syndicate Bank
b. Punjab National Bank
c. Corporation Bank
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b

9. Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Dewan Housing Finance Corporation (DHFL) under which DHFL will distribute home loans to Yes Bank’s customers?
a. Canara Bank
b. ABN Amro bank
c. Yes Bank
d. HSBC
Ans: c

10. Which life insurance company in India launched a new non-linked health insurance plan, Jeevan Arogya?
a. HDFC Standard Life Insurance Co. Ltd
b. Life Insurance Corporation of India
c. IDBI Fortis Life Insurance Company Ltd.
d. SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd
Ans: b

11. Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector?
a. State Bank of India
b. Allahabad Bank
c. Punjab National Bank
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b

12. Which Indian bank on 10 May 2011 raised benchmark prime lending rate 75 basis points to 14% following raising of interest rates by RBI by basis points on 3 May 2011?
a. State Bank of India
b. Union Bank
c. Punjab National Bank
d. Bank of Baroda
Ans: a

13. The Reserve Bank of India on 26 April 2011 fined 19 banks, including the country’s top private and foreign banks for violating its guidelines on derivatives. Which is the only public sector bank on the list of banks to be fined?
a. State bank of India
b. Punjab National Bank
c. Bank of India
d. Indian Bank
Ans: a

14. The Reserve Bank of India on 25 August 2011 released its Annual Report for 2010-11. Which of the following was not discussed in the Annual Report the Central Board of the RBI?
a. assessment of the macroeconomic performance during 2010-11
b. prospects for 2011-12
c. working and operations of the Reserve Bank and its financial accounts
d. role of regulatory bodies in controlling the financial markets
Ans: d

15. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) panel headed by headed by Usha Thorat, Director, Centre for Advanced Financial Research and Learning (CAFRAL) on 29 August 2011 came up with suggestion on non-banking finance company (NBFC). Which of the following related to this statement is not true?
1. The panel suggested the central bank to insist on a minimum asset size of more than Rs.25 crore for registering any new non-banking finance company (NBFC)
2. Transfer of shareholding, direct or indirect, of 25 per cent and above, change in control, merger or acquisition of any registered NBFC will require prior approval of the Reserve Bank.
3. Tier-I capital for capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR) purposes would be specified at 12 per cent to be achieved in three years for all registered deposit-taking and non-deposit-taking NBFCs.
4. NBFCs would be subject to regulations similar to banks while lending to stock brokers and merchant banks and similar to stock brokers, as specified by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
a. 1 & 4
b. 2 & 4
c. Only 4
d. Only 1
Ans: d

16. Which Indian PSU bank in tune with its plans to expand its retail division in the UK entered the mortgage market in the country for the first time?
a. Punjab National Bank
b. Oriental Bank of Commerce
c. State bank of India
d. Indian Overseas Bank
Ans: c

17. Which of the following banks set up two loan processing centres for the small and medium enterprise (SME) segment on a pilot basis in Bangalore & in New Delhi in September 2011?
a. Corp Bank
b. United Bank of India
c. Syndicate Bank
d. Bank of Baroda
Ans: c

18. The government suspended M Ramadoss for alleged violations in issuing insurance cover to an airline during his stint as head of another state-run insurer. To which insurance group did he belong to?
a. New India Assurance
b. LIC
c. GIC
d. ICICI Insurance
Ans: a

19. Which of the following banks in early May 2011 entered into a tie-up with non-banking finance companies such as Future Capital, Bajaj Finance, and Reliance Capital to grow its retail portfolio?
a. Central Bank of India
b. State Bank of India
c. Bank of India
d. HDFC Bank
Ans: a

20. Which are the two Gujarat-based cooperative sector lenders on which Reserve bank of India imposed a financial penalty of Rs 1 lakh each for violation of various rules, including anti-money laundering guidelines?
1. Shree MahalaxmiMercantile Co-operative Bank
2. Rander People’s Co-operative Bank
3. Abad District Co Op Bank
4. Ahd Mercantile Co-Op Bank Ltd
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c. 1 & 4
d. 3 & 4
Ans: (a)

21Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh paid a visit in December 2011 to –
Tokyo
Melbourne
Wellington
Moscow-Ans: 4

22Annual Defence Diologue was held in December 2011 between India and –
China-1
Afghanistan
Russia
Pakistan
Ans: 1

23Consider the following statements on NATGRID –
(i) NATGRID has been formed to link database for inputs to combat terrorism.
(ii) It is meant to improve India’s capability to counter threats to its internal security.
Choose the right option:
Both (i) and (ii) are correct-Ans
Only (i) is correct
Only (ii) is correct
Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

24The report by Wildlife Institute of India enlisted major threats to three tiger reserves which are Kalakad-Mundanthurai tiger reserve, Anamalai and Mudumalai. In which one of the following stated are these tiger reserves located?
Bihar
Tamil Nadu-ans
West Bengal
Kerala
Ans: 2

Who have been awarded with FIFA World Player of the Year 2011 Trophy?
Lionel Messi-1Ans: 1
Xavi Fernandez
Christiano Ronaldo
None of these

25Uttarakhand state cabinet on October 29, 2011 cleared Uttarakhand Lokayukta Bill, 2011. Consider the following features of the bill-
(i) The Chief Minister of the state, all ministers, MLAs and lower judiciary will be under the purview of Lokayukta.
(ii) Judges of the Uttarakhand High Court will not be covered under the purview of Lokayukta.
Choose the right option-
Both (i) and (ii) are correct-Ans: 1
Only (i) is correct
Only (ii) is correct
Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

26Which Bengali film was selected as the inaugural film at the 11th edition of River to River Florence Indian Film Festival, 2011, in Florence, Italy in December 2011?
100% Love
Khokababu
Chaplin-Ans: 3
Bedroom

27Name the legendary Bollywood playback singer who entered the Guinness world Records for the most number of single studio recordings?
Lata Mangeshkar
Asha Bhonsle-Ans: 2
Shreya Ghoshal
Suchitra Krisnamurthy

28Which one of the following became the first Indian state to launch health insurance policy covering all its people?
Kerala
Haryana
Bihar
Goa-Ans: 4

29West Bengal State cabinet approved the newly drafted land acquisition and resettlement Bill. Consider the following features of the Bill-
(i) The private enterprises would have to acquire land for their projects directly from the landowners.
(ii) The new policy provides that the government would acquire land only for projects of public utility like building, hospitals, irrigation projects, bridges, laying railway tracks, setting up of embankments, and projects relating to internal secu
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Only (i) is correct
Only (ii) is correct
Nither (i) nor (ii) is correct

30Annual Defence Diologue was held in December 2011 between India and –
ChinaAns: 1
Afghanistan
Russia
Pakistan

SSC airthmetic aptitude and reasoning questions with answers Combied gradatuate level examination
Directions (Q.No. 1-5): Find out the correct answer out of the four alternatives given below each question and then mark it in your answer sheet
1.Ice : Coolness :: Earth : ?
a. Forest
b. Weight
c.Gravitation-Ans
d.Ocean

2.Coconut:Shell :: Letter : ?
a.Mail
b.Letter-box
c.Stamp
d.Emvelope-Ans

3.Income is related to profit in the same way as expenditure is related to
a.Loss-Ans
b.Surplus
c.Balance
d.Sale

4.Much is related to many in the same way as measure is related to
a.Calculate
b.Count
c.Weigh
d.Measurement-Ans

5.Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as warning is related to
a.Precaution-Ans
b.Disaster
c.Risk
d.Danger

6.Directions (Q.No.6-10) : Find out the missing term in the following letter-number series:
6.H 4 W, I 18 V, K 48 T, N 100 Q, ? ,W 294 H
a.P1485 S
b.R 180 M-An
c.S 198 1
d.T 206 K

7.I ED, 2 FD, 3 KH, ? 15 KG 48 KF
a. 12 PX
b.6 RI
c.9LV
d.8TQ

8M4, T7, P7, Q 10, S 10, N 13 ? K 16
a.V 4
b.K 7
c.T 13
d. G15

9.R 5 P, T 6 M, V 9 J, X 15 G, ?
a. A 12 L
b. I 18 X
c. T 13
d. G 15

10.DGK0, GKP3, ? PVC 15
a. GKV 5
b. KPV 8
c. PVZ 9
d. KPU 11

11. If the first 6 letter of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letter are written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged Z, then which letter is fourth letter to the right of 13th letter from the left?
a.M b.N c. Q d.P

12 If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the alphabet series?
a.L b.O c.M d.N

13 If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rrearranged ias in a dictionary,which letter group would have its group of letter in the MIDDLE among the five letter-groups?
a.LACK
b.MEET
c.ROAD
d.DEAF

14 Find the odd man out
a.MOndAy
b.tUESdAy
c.WEdNESdAy
d.thUrSdAy

15 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
a.CUSTOMER :SGPSYYBK
b.INTEREST : UUHVJYUQ
c.OVERSEAS: TCHWWKCW
d.BANKING : HPLOSGI

16 Three of the four groups of letter given below are alike in a certain way while one is different Choose the odd one
a.PROFIT : RPQCKR
b.OTHERS : QRJCTQ.
c.LEGUME : NCISOC
dCANKER : EYPIGP

17 Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while oneis different Choose the odd one
a.GOWOURV
b.LZKMSU
c.JOEHNP
d.SFXPMG

18 Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different choose the odd one
a.TW
b.MS
c.FT
JU

19 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
a. Pineapple
b.Guava
c.Grapes
d.Papaya
e.Pea-Ans

20 If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?
aS
b.B
c.A
d.K

21 If ? P Q’ means ?P is wife of Q’, ?P+Q’ means ?P is father of Q’ and ?P Q’ means ?P is sister of Q’ then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?a.Cannot be determined
b.Mother-ans
c.Niece
d.Aunt
e.None of these

22Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
a. IB
b.LF
c.IE-Ans
d.FL
e TL

23 In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ?4? exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4?s and 6?s together are there?5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
a.4-a
b.6
c.3
d.5
e None of these

24 Accident is related to Carefulness in the same way as Disease is related to
a.Sanitation-Ans (a) Lack of second results in the first
b.Treatment
c.Medicine

25Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
a. BROTHER : DORVEHT
b.ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
c.ANOTHER : CONVEHT
d.BETWEEN : DTEZEEP-Ans (d)
e HUSBAND : JSUDNAF

26What is the common ratio of the progression 3?2, 6, 6?2 ?(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) ?2 (d) ?317. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes-Ans
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes

Directions Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.
27. What does ?Ne? stands for in the code language?I. ?Na Ni Nok Ne? means ?I will tell you? and ?Ni Nok Ne Nam? means ?he will tell you? in that code language.II. ?Ni Ne Mo Nam? means ?will he call you? and ?Ne Mok Sac Ni? means ?how will you go? in that code language.Ans (d)

28 Who amongst P, Q, R, S, T and U is the tallest?
I. P is taller that R and T but not as tall as U, who is taller than Q and S.
II. R is the third in height in the ascending order and not as tall as U, P and Q, Q being taller than P but not the tallest.
Ans (c)

29Who among A, B, C, D, E & F read the book last?
I. F, who gave the book to B after reading, was third to read the same.
II. C, who read the book after A, was the third person to read the book before it reached E.
Ans (d)

30. Who is paternal uncle of Pavan?
I. Pavan is brother of Poornima, who is daughter of Meena, who is sister of Kumar, who is brother Smrithi.
II. Prithvi is brother of Indrajith, who is husband of Poornima, who is mother of Ganga, who is sister of Pavan.
Ans (b)

31. What is Milan?s rank in the class of 44 students?I. Ramesh, whose rank is 17th in the class, is ahead of Shyam by 6 ranks, Shyam being 7 ranks ahead of Milan.
II. Suketu is 26 ranks ahead of Milan and Shyamala is 6 ranks behind Milan while Savita stands exactly in the middle of Shyamala and Suketu in ranks, her rank being 17.
Ans (c)

32. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

33. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

34. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
SSC CHSL Exam solved Question paper
SSC CHSL Exam solved Question paper
SSC-2013 Civil engineering questions with answers,SSC 2013 solved question papers.SSC-2013 model questions for practice.SSC

SSC Combined Recruitment for the post of Engineering Assistant and Technician in Prasar Bharati Examination ? 2013

Closing Date: 22.3.2013
Date of Examination: 26-05-2013

SSC Junior Engineers,Technician,Dietician Model question papers for practice

1. The magnitude of the bending moment at the fixed support of the beam is equal to :

(a) P.a
(b) P. a – Answer
2
(c) P.b
(d) P.(a+b)
2. The number of simultaneous equations to be solved in the slope deflection method, is equal to :
(a) the degree of statical indeterminacy
(b) the degree of kinematic indeterminacy
(c) the number of joints in the structure
(d) none of the above

3. The influence line diagram for the force in member ‘a’ of the truss shown below is given by

Answer – (A)

4. The forces in members ‘a, b, c’ in the truss shown are, respectively
(a) P, P/2, 0 – Ans
(b) P/2, P, 0
(c) P, P, P
(d) P/2, P/2, 0

5. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the flexibility method of analysis ?

(a) The method is used to analyse determinate structures
(b) The method is used only for manual analysis of indeterminate structures
(c) The method is used for analysis of flexible structures
(d) The method is used for analysis of indeterminate structures with lesser degree of static indeterminacy. – Ans

6. A single bay single storey portal frame has hinged left support and a fixed right support. It is loaded with uniformly distributed load on the beam. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the deformation of the frame ?
(a) It would sway to the left side – Ans
(b) It would sway to the right side
(c) It would not sway at all
(d) None of the above

7. The material that exhibits the same elastic properties in all the directions at a point, is said to be
(a) homogeneous
(b) Orthotropic
(c) Visco-elastic
(d) Isotropic – Ans

8. If the shear force at a section of beam under bending is equal to zero then the bending moment at the section is
(a) zero
(b) maximum – Ans
(c) minimum
(d) minimum or maximum

9. The net effective cross sectional area calculated in the steel angle tension member design, accounts for :
(a) the tensile force and bolt holes – Ans
(b) the eccentricity of the end connections and the bolt holes
(c) the effectiveness of the tack connection along the length
(d) the effectiveness of the end connection

10. The maximum allowable compressive stress corresponding to lateral buckling in a discretely laterally supported symmetrical I beam does not depend upon :
(a) the modulus of elasticity – Ans
(b) the radium of gyration about the minor axis
(c) the span length of the beam
(d) the ratio of overall depth of thickness of the flange

11. The basic assumption of plane sections normal to the neutral axis before bending, remaining plane and normal to the neutral axis after bending, leads to :
(a) uniform strain over the beam cross section – Ans
(b) uniform stress over the cross section
(c) linearly stress over the cross section
(d) stresses which are proportional to strains at all cross sections

12. As per IS:800 -1984 the minimum pitch of rivets in a row is recommended as the diameter of the rivet times.
(a) 2.0
(b) 2.5- Ans
(c) 3.0
(d) 4.0

13. As per IS:800-1984 the maximum allowable slenderness ratio of compression members carrying forces resulting from dead load and superimposed load is
(a) 180- Ans
(b) 250
(c) 300
(d) 400

14. Which one of the following conditions, both elastic and plastic methods of analysis of indeterminate structures have to satisfy ?
(a) yield condition
(b) mechanism condition
(c) equilibrium
(d) compatibility of deformation – Ans

15. The span to depth ratio limit is specified in IS : 456 – 1978 for the reinforced concrete beams, in order to ensure that the
(a) tensile crack width is below a limit
(b) shear failure is avoided
(c) stress in the tension reinforcement is less than the allowable value
(d) deflection of the beam is below a limiting value – Ans

16. The lateral ties in a reinforced concrete rectangular column under axial compression are used to :
(a) avoid the buckling of the longitudinal steel under compression. – Ans
(b) Provide adequate shear capacity
(c) Provide adequate confinement to concrete.
(d) reduce the axial deformation of the column

17. Which one of the following set of values give the minimum clear cover (in mm) for the main reinforcements in the slab, beam, column and footing, respectively, according to IS: 456-1978
(a) 20, 25, 30, 75
(b) 5, 15, 25, 50
(c) 15, 25, 40, 75 – Ans
(d) none of the above

18. In a reinforced concrete beam-column, the increase in the flexural strength along with the increase in the axial strength occurs
(a) beyond the elastic limit of the material
(b) when the yield of the tension reinforcement governs the strength – Ans
(c) when the crushing of the concrete in the compression zone governs the strength
(d) never

19. The modulus of rupture of concrete gives
(a) the direct tensile strength of the concrete
(b) the direct compressive strength of the concrete
(c) the tensile strength of the concrete under bending. – Ans
(d) the characteristic strength of the concrete

20. The effective width of a reinforced concrete T beam flange under compression, according to IS:456-1978, given Io is the distance between the adjacent zero moment points, b is the breadth of the rib and D is the thickness of the flange, is
(a) Io + B + 6D – Ans
6
(b) Io + 6D
(c) Io + 6D
6
(d) Io + b
6

21. A soil having particles of nearly the same size is known as
(a) well graded
(b) uniformly graded – Ans
(c) poorly graded
(d) gap graded

22. The consistency of a saturated cohesive soil is affected by
(a) water content – Ans
(b) particle size distribution
(c) density index
(d) coefficient of permeability

23. The unconfined compressive strength of a ‘stiff clay’ falls in the range
(a) less than 50 kN/m2 – Ans
(b) 50 to 100 kN/m2
(c) 100 to 200 kN/m2
(d) above 200 kN/m2

24. The unit weight of a soil at zero air voids depends on :
(a) specific gravity
(b) water content
(c) unit weight of water
(d) all the above – Ans

25. The appropriate field test to determine the insitu undrained shear strength of soft clay is :
(a) plate load test
(b) static cone penetration test
(c) standard penetration test
(d) vane shear test – Ans

26. State whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE

(1) The measure of soil compaction is its wet density
Ans : False

(2) The void ratio of soil can exceed unity
Ans : True

(3) Between bearing capacity and settlement, the proportioning of a footing in sand is more often governed by settlement.
Ans : False

(4) The bulb of pressure under a strip footing forms in the direction of its length
Ans : True

(5) Friction poles are also called ‘floating piles’.
Ans : False

27. Fill in the blanks :
(1) Soils transportated by wind are known as —–soils
Ans : Transported

(2) The equation of the A-line in the Plasticity Chart is ——-
Ans : Ip = 0.73 (wf-20)

(3) The hydraulic head at a point in the soil includes —–
Ans : Piezometric as well as datum head

(4) Use of N-Values not corrected for over-burden pressure leads to ——design of footings at shallow depths.
Ans : False

28. A steady discharge of 1 cumec flows uniformly in a rectangular channel 1 m wide at a depth of 250 mm. The slope of the channel bed is :
(a) adverse – Ans
(b) steep
(c) critical
(d) mild

29. A 1 : 30 model of an ogee spillway crest records an acceleration of 1.3 m/s2 at a certain location. The homologous value of the acceleration in the prototype in m/s2 , is
(a) 0.043
(b) 0.237
(c) 1.300 – Ans
(d) 7.120

30. The expression for the specific speed of a pump :
(a) does not include the diameter of the impeller
(b) yields larger values for radial pumps than for axial flow pump
(c) is necessarily non dimensional – Ans
(d) includes power as one of the variables

31. A lysimeter is used to measure :
(a) infiltration
(b) evaporation
(c) evapotranspiration – Ans
(d) radiation

32. The dimension of a pressure gradient in a fluid flow are :
(a) ML-1 T2
(b) ML-3 T-2
(c) ML-2 T-2 – Ans
(d) M-1 L-3 T-2

33. Shear stress develops on a fluid element, if :
(a) the fluid is at least
(b) the fluid container is subject to uniform linear acceleration
(c) the fluid is inviscid
(d) the fluid is viscous and the flow is non-uniform – Ans

34. The percentage error in the computed discharge over a triangular notch corresponding to an error of 1% in the measurement of the head over the notch, would be
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.0
(d) 2.5 – Ans

35. In deriving the equation for the hydraulic jump in a rectangular channel in terms of the conjugate depths and the initial Froude number.
(a) continuity equation and energy equation are used.
(b) continuity equation and momentum equation are used
(c) equations of continuity, momentum and energy are used – Ans
(d) gradually varied flow equation is used

36. The peak discharge of the instantaneous unit hydrograph of a basin, when compared to the peak discharge of a 4 hour unit hydrograph of that basin, would be ”
(a) greater – Ans
(b) equal
(c) equal or lesser
(d) lesser

37. The temporary hardness of water, is caused by :
(a) dissolved carbon dioxide
(b) bicarbonates and carbonates of calcium and magnesium – Ans
(c) bicarbonates of sodium and potassium
(d) carbonates of calcium and magnesium

38. Breakpoint chlorination of water involves addition of chlorine in an amount sufficient to :
(a) total concentration of a biochemicals
(b) total concentration of organic matter
(c) concentration of biodegradable organic matter – Ans
(d) concentration of chemically oxidisable matter

39. A trickling filter is primarily a :
(a) straining process to remove suspended solids from sewage
(b) biological oxidation process to remove BOD from sewage – Ans
(c) straining process to remove turbidity from water
(c) straining process to remove bacteria from water

40. The ideal form of curve for the summit curve
(a) Spiral
(b) Parabola – Ans
(c) Circle
(d) lemniscate

41. A highway stretches where the required overtaking sight distance cannot be provided, it is necessary to incorporate :
(a) at least twice the stopping sight distance – Ans
(b) half the required overtaking sight distance
(c) one-third the required overtaking sight distance
(d) three times the stopping sight distance

42. In a highway pavements emulsions are mainly used in :
(a) surface dressing
(b) patching and maintenance operation – Ans
(c) bitumen macadam
(d) asphaltic concrete

43. In using the data from a plate bearing test for determining the modulus of subgrade reaction, the value of settlement to be used is :
(a) 1.25 mm – Ans
(b) 2.50 mm
(c) 3.75 mm
(d) 1.75 mm

44. The function of ballast in railway tracks is to
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) serve as an elastic support for the track structure
(c) provide the necessary resilience against the dynamic effect of the loads
(d) all the above – Ans

45. Shear centre for an angle-purlin (figure) is located at,
(a) X
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) none

46. The deflection of a cantilever beam at free end b applied with a moment M at the same point is :
(a) M I2 /EI
(b) Ml2/2EI – Ans
(c) Ml2 /3 EI
(d) Ml2/ 4 EI

47. The effective length of a circular electric pole of length L and constant diameters erected on ground is,
(a) 0.80 L
(b) 1.20 L
(c) 1.50 L
(d) 2.00 L – Ans

48. In IS : 800(1984) the permissible compressive stress in column is based on :
(a) Euler formula
(b) Secant formula – Ans
(c) Rankine-Gordan formula
(d) Rankine -Merchant formula

49. Generally (fatigue life of welded steel structure/fatigue life of riveted steel structure) ratio is,
(a) smaller than 1 – Ans
(b) equal to 1
(c) greater than 1
(d) greater than 2.1

50. The particle size distribution curves are extremely useful for the classification of
(a) fine grained soils
(b) coarse grained soils
(c) both coarse grained and fine grained soils – Ans
(d) silts and clays
SSC Question-Paper
SSC CGL Tier I Solved Question Paper

English Language

1. To pin one?s faith-
(a) To be sure of somebody?s favour
(b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one?s relatives

2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable
(b) To cheat people
(c) To hurt some body?s feelings·
(d) To trust others

3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument
(c) To be busy over trifles
(d) To be busy over important matter

4. Alma Mater-
(a) Mother?s milk
(b) Mother?s concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(d) Institution where one receives education

5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody

6. At one?s beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one?s service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody

7. At one?s wit?s end-
(a) Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others

8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy?s territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive

Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer:
Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords), the ?temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weaknesses or defects of society or of Government, and ?in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought of a nation: Hence the Press constitutes an Estate by itself.Obviously. thus power which the Press in an:)? country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So Press has to play the role of a teacher here.

9. Edmunde Burke called the Press
(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal

10. The term Fourth Estate stands for
(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power

11. Out of the following the one which is not included in the Three Estates is-
(a) Lords Spiritual
(b) Justices of Peace
(c) Lord Temporal
(d) Commons

12. The Free press docs not perform the function of-
(a) Shaping public opinion
(b) Supporting at all times the official policy
(c) Criticising Government
(d) Exposing social abuses

13. How much power does a Free Pres! possess?
(a) Only that much power which is allowed by the Government of the the country
(b) Unlimited power without any check
(c) Unlimited power subject to the maintenance of la wand order and public morality
(d) No power at all

14. The secret of the Press is-
(a) the money which the newspaper owners can wield
(b The number of newspaper readers
(c) the extent to which it supports official policy
(d) The patronage enjoyed by it of the Government

15. The number of newspaper readers is determined by ?
(a) The low price of newspapers
(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people
(c) Education of the general mass of people
(d) The availability of newsprint.

16. The Press exercises power by
(a) Enlisting the support of the people
(b) Keeping watch over the acts of the Government
(c) Controlling life and thought of a nation
(d) Because it is a great moneyed­concern

17. The state of journalism in India
(a) is upto the mark
(b) is rather low
(c) is in its infancy
(d) is not very high

18. The Press has the greatest chances of flourishing in a?
(a) Monarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Limited Dictatorship

19-26: Fill in the blanks
19. She has Dot recovered fully?the shock of his failure.
(a) off
(b) of
(c) from
(d) against

20. The master dispensed?the services of his servant.
(a) of
(b) with
(c) off
(d) for

21. I look?him as my close friend.
(a) OD
(b) up
(c) after
(d) to

22. My friend is really very good?­cricket.
(a) on
(b) at
(c) in
(d) over

23. He has great affection?me.
(a) with
(b) on
(c) for
(d) in

24. He always connives?with his superiors against his colleagues.
(a) on
(b) with
(c) about
(d) at

25. I have been informed that the two bro­thers have fallen?.
(a) upon
(b) through
(c) in
(d) out

26. Your friend has been convicted?the charge of murder.
(a) upon
(b) for
(c) on
(d) of

Direction: 27-31 : Each word or phrase is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phase which is most nearly the same

27. Pragmatism-
(a) Appearance
(b) Obscurantism
(c) Practicality
(d) Reversion

28. Expeditiously­
(a) Rapidly
(b) easily
(c) Vividly
(d) none of these

29. Precarious­
(a) Huge
(b) uncertain
(c) Dangerous
(d) valuable

30. Vagrant-
(a) Wandering
(b) Not clear
(c) Futile
(d) None of these

31. Valediction­
(a) Valid
(b) Farewell speech
(c) Judgement
(d) None of these

Directions :- Each question is followed by four alternatives. Pick the one which best describe the statement

32. Capable of being approached-
(a) Accessory
(b) Easy
(c) Accessible
(d) Adaptable

33. One who is liked by people-
(a) Samaritan
(b) Popular
(c) Philanthropist
(d) Misanthrope­pist

34. No longer in use-
(a) Impracticable
(b) Obsolete
(c) Absolute
(d) Useless

35. A child born after the death of his father-
(a) Posthumous
(b) Bastard
(c) Kiddy
(d) Stepson.

36. One who is present everywhere-
(a) God
(b) Omnipotent
(c) Omnipresent
(d) Visible

37. An office without salary-
(a) Honorary
(b) Slavish
(c) Sinecure
(d) Voluntary

38. A document written by hand-
(a) Script
(b) Autobiography
(c) Manuscript
(d) Autography

39. Government by officials-
(a) Oligarchy
(b) Bureaucracy
(c) Autocracy
(d) Democracy

40. A speech made off hand-
(a) Extempore
(b) Maiden
(c) Lecture
(d) Gibberish

SSC English question paper

SSC staff selection commission General englsih question and answer
1. To pin one’s faith-
(a) To be sure of some body’s favour -Ans
(b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one’s relatives
2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable-Ans
(b) To cheat people .
(c) To hurt some body’s feelings·
(d) To trust others

3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument
(c) To be busy over trifles-Ans
(d) To be busy over important matter

4. Alma Mater- ‘
(a) Mother’s milk
(b) Mother’s concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(cl) Institution where one receives edu­cation-Ans

5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point-Ans
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody-

6. At one’s beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one’s service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody

7. At one’s wit’s end-
(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others

8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy’s territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive

Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer: Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords), the ‘temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weaknesses or defects of society or of Government, and ‘in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought of a nation: Hence the Press consti­tutes an Estate by itself.

Obviously. thus power which the Press in an:)’ country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So Press has to play the role of a teacher here.

9. Edmunde Burke called the Press
(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal

10. The term Fourth Estate stands for
(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power

11. Out of the following the one which is not included in the Three Estates is-
(a) Lords Spiritual
(b) Justices of Peace
(c) Lord Temporal
(d) Commons

12. The Free press docs not perform the function of-
(a) Shaping public opinion
(b) Supporting at all times the official policy
(c) Criticising Government
(d) Exposing social abuses

13. How much power does a Free Pres! possess?
(a) Only that much power which is allowed by the Government of the the country
(b) Unlimited power without any check
(c) Unlimited power subject to the maintenance of la wand order and public morality
(d) No power at all

14. The secret of the Press is-
(a) the money which the newspaper owners can wield
(b The number of newspaper readers
(c) the extent to which it supports official policy
(d) The patronage enjoyed by it of the Government

15. The number of newspaper readers is determined by –
(a) The low price of newspapers
(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people
(c) Education of the general mass of people
(d) The availability of newsprint.

16. The Press exercises power by
(a) Enlisting the support of the people
(b) Keeping watch over the acts of the Government
(c) Controlling life and thought of a nation
(d) Because it is a great moneyed­concern

17. The state of journalism in India
(a) is upto the mark
(b) is rather low
(c) is in its infancy
(d) is not very high

18. The Press has the greatest chances of flourishing in a–
(a) Monarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Limited Dictatorship

19-26: Fill in the blanks
19. She has Dot recovered fully—the shock of his failure.
(a) off (b) of (c) from (d) against

20. The master dispensed—the services of his servant.
(a) of (b) with (c) off (d) for

Answers
11. b, 12. b, 13. c, 14. b, 15. c, 16. c, 17. d, 18. c. 19. c, 20. b

21. I look—him as my close friend.
(a) OD (b)’up (c) after (d) to

22. My friend is really very good–­cricket.
(a) on (b) at (c) in (d) over

23. He has great affection—me.
(a) with (b) on (c) for (d) in

24. He always connives—with his superiors against his colleagues.
(a) on (b) with (c) about (d) at

25. I have been informed that the two bro­thers have fallen—.
(a) upon (bl through (c) in (d) out

26. Your friend has been convicted—the charge of murder.
(a) upon (b) for (c) on (d) of

Direction: 27-31 : Each word or phrase is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phase which is most nearly the same

27. Pragmatism-
(a) Appearance (b) Obscurantism (c) Practicality (d) Reversion

28. Expeditiously­
(a) Rapidly b. easily (c) Vividly d. none of these

29. Precarious­
(a) Huge b. uncertain (c) Dangerous d. valuable

30. Vagrant-
(a) Wandering b. Not clear (c) Futile d. None of these
Answers
21. a, 22. b, 23. c, 24. b, 25. d, 26. c, 27. c, 28. a, 29. c, 30. a

31. Valediction­
(a) Valid B. Farewell speech (c) Judgement d. None of these

Directions :- Each question is followed by four alternatives. Pick the one which best describe the statement

32. Capable of being approached-
(a) Accessory (b) Easy (c) Accessible (d) Adaptable

33. One who is liked by people-
(a) Samaritan (b) Popular () Philanthropist (d) Misanthrope­pist

34. No longer in use-
(a) Impracticable (b) Obsolete (c) Absolute (d) Useless

35. A child born after the death of his father-
(a) Posthumous (b) Bastard (c) Kiddy (d) Stepson.

36. One who is present everywhere-
(a) God (b) Omnipotent (c) Omnipresent (d) Visible

37. An office without salary-
(a) Honorary (b) Slavish (c) Sinecure (d) Voluntary

38. A document written by hand-
(a Script (b) Autobiography (c) Manuscript (d) Autography

39. Government by officials-
(a) Oligarchy (b) Bureaucracy (c) Autocracy (d) Democracy

40. A speech made off hand-
(a) Extempore (b) Maiden (c) Lecture (d) Gibberish
31.b, 32. a, 33. b, 34. b, 35. a, 36. b, 37. a, 38. c, 39. b, 40. a
SSC Whole Testpaper
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.-Ans

2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.-
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.-Ans

3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) FiveAns
(c) Six
(d) Four

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchyAns
(d) polity.

5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.Ans
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.Ans

7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch
(b) HerodotusAns
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny

8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.Ans
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.

9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.Ans
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.Ans
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.

11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.Ans

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDPAns
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income

13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.Ans
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.

14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.Ans
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.

15. The famous slogan “GARIBI HATAO” (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)Ans
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)

16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.Ans
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.

17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.Ans

18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.ChamberlinAns
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall

19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.Ans
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.

20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromideAns
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.

21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.Ans
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene

22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) OxidationAns
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis

23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) GreenAns
(c) Orange
(d) Red

24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.Ans
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.

25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) RohiniAns

26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude MatchingAns
(d) Amplitude Modulation.

27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi MehtaAns
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar

28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) MalariaAns

29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) BauxiteAns

30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The USAns
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK

31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union CabinetAns
(d) Finance Ministry

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) ” all other things variable ”
(b) “other things increasing”
(c) “other things being equal”Ans
(d) “all other things decreasing”

33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip KumarAns
(d) Shabana Azmi

34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.Ans
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.

35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.Ans
(d) the India Telecommunication System.

36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.Ans

37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning CommissionAns
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India

38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficitAns
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit

39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.Ans
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.

40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.Ans
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.

41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individualAns

42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) SupervisionAns
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing

43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.Ans
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.

44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 kmAns
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km

45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal PradeshAns
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.

46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.Ans
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.

47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) TejasAns

48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.Ans

49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.Ans
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.

50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin ChawlaAns
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon

51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and AftermathAns
(d) Shining India and BJP.

52. What was the original name of “Nurjahan”?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) JahanaraAns

53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878Ans

54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.Ans
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.

55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.Ans
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.

56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.Ans
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.

57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade Ans
(d) K.T.Telang

58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.Ans

59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipseAns
(d) Solar eclipse.

60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.Ans

61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.Ans
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.

62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) VirusesAns
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae
d) Fungi

63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canalAns
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.

64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensisAns

65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.Ans

66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.Ans
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.

67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphousAns
(c) isomers
(d) isobars

68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.Ans
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.

69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) CarbohydratesAns
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.

70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.Ans
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.

71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.Ans

72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.Ans

73. “Slash and Burn agriculture” is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.Ans
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.

74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.Ans

75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.Ans
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.
SSC Examination GK solved model question paper
SSC Examination GK solved model question paper

1. Name the Nobel Peace Prize winner who was named the winner of one of the world’s leading religion prizes, Templeton Prize for 2012 by the John Templeton Foundation on 29 March 2012.
a. The Dalai Lama
b. Tawakkol Karman
c. Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
d. Baba Ram Dev
Answer: (a)
2. US Senate on 30 March 2012 confirmed career diplomat as ambassador to India. Identify the person in question.
a. William Clark, Jr.
b. Albert Peter Burleigh
c. Robert Blackwill
d. Nancy Powell
Answer: (d)
3. Amadou Toumani Toure, who was ousted from his position following a military coup, was the president of _ _ _ _ _ _
a. Tunisia
b. Azerbaijan
c. Mali
d. Maldives
Answer: (c)
4. A former Director of Kashmiri American Council (KAC) was sentenced to two years in prison in a District Court in Eastern District of Virginia. Identify the person the statement is related with.
a. Hafeez Saeed
b. Mushtaq Ahmed
c. David Coleman Headley
d. Gulam Nabi Fai
Answer: (d)
5. Macky Sall became the new president of Senegal. Sall replaced _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ to the top post.
a. Abdoulaye Wade
b. Naseer Abdullah
c. Erich Sherry
d. None of the above
Answer: (a)
6. Which country has India agreed ?in-principle? to the participation in hydro power-projects in the North-East?
Ans:Bangladesh
7. Name the Tech-savvy state which set a record by winning the National Tourism Award for its website for 5th time in last 10 years.
Ans:Kerala
8. Which Malayalam language daily has tied up with Yahoo India to deliver premium digital content in Malayalam?
Ans:Malayala Manorama
9. Name the Delhi-based group which has been nominated in the best international brand/group award at the British Reggae Industry Awards.
Ans:Reggar Rajahs

10. Which movie of Indian filmmaker Mani Ratnam is now part of the permanent collection at the Austrian Film Museum?
Ans:Raavanan
11. Who has been awarded the Pritzker Architecture Prize considered as Nobel prize in Architecture?
Ans:Wang Shu
12. Which railway station became the first railway network to offer BluFi, a combination of Bluetooth and WiFi to provide information to passengers?
Ans:Bangalore City Railway Station
13. Which state bagged the second best national award in the Comprehensive Development Of Tourism category?
Ans:Rajasthan
14. Name the Kerala-based UAE business magnate who was awarded with Interfaith Harmony Award at Kuala Lumpur.
Ans:M.A.Yusuf Ali
15. Name the men?s mixed doubles winner of the ATP Dubai Open 2012.
Ans:Mahesh Bhupathi and Rohan Bopanna
16. When was the World?s oldest post office opened as it celebrates its 300th anniversary?
Ans:1712 in Sanquhar, London
17. Name the Indian American filmmaker who won the ?2012 Rising Star Award? for his feature film ?9 Eleven? at the Canada International Film Festival.
Ans:Manan Singh Katohora
18. Who won the women?s Kabaddi World Cup championship?
Ans:India
19. Who is expected to visit India with export of gas and investment on agenda?
Ans:Qatar?s Emir Sheikh Hamad bin Khalifa al Thani
20. Who has been elected as Russian President?
Ans:Vladimir Putin
21. Which 4 financial institutions have agreed to form country?s first $2 billion (about Rs.10,000 crore) Infrastructure Development Fund to finance infrastructure projects in India?
Ans:Bank of Baroda, ICICI Bank, LIC and Citi Financial
22. Who has been appointed as MD of Hyundai Motor India Ltd.?
Ans:Bo Shin Seo
23. Which Chinese Electric company has started office in India?
Ans:Shangai Electric
24. Which university conferred honoris causa(as honorary academic degree) during its 12th convocation to the finance minister Pranab Mukherjee?
Ans:Assam University
25. Which India?s leading commodity exchange would be listed on the BSE making it India?s first exchange to be listed?
Ans:Multi Commodity Exchange
26. Which western India university will start the Institute of International Studies?
Ans:M S University
27. HSBC will sell its general insurance for US $914 million to which 2 companies?
Ans:AXA Group and QBE Insurance Group
28. Against which team India will play one-off Twenty20 International cricket on March 30th 2012 to commemorate the 150 years of settlement of Indians in that country?
Ans:South Africa
29. Who retained his title of being the world?s richest Indian in Forbes magazine?s annual list of the world?s richest people?
Ans:Mukesh Ambani
30. Name the music director ? king of soft melodies who passed away recently.
Ans:Ravi Shankar Sharma
31. Who has been appointed as head coach of the Pakistan cricket team?
Ans:Dav Whatmore
32. Name the bank that has entered into a partnership with Remit2home to offer Sri Lankans to transfer money back home.
Ans:Nations Trust Bank
33. Where is Kerala a film city is to be built?
Ans:Varikkassery Mana at Ottapalam
34. Who will be appointed as CEO of L&T?
Ans:K Venkataraman
35. Who is appointed as ISI chief of Pakistan Government?
Ans:Lt. Gen. Zaheerul Islam
36. Which Indian NGO has been chosen for America?s first Innovation Award for the Empowerment of Women and Girls, for training and organising wastepickers and eliminating child labour from recycling?
Ans:Chintan
37. What is the reduced CRR of scheduled banks as revised by RBI at 75 basis points?
Ans:4.75%
38. At what value did Euro zone finance ministers release 2nd bailout package for debt-hit Greece?
Ans:$46.9 billion
39. Where was the International Financial Hub inaugurated in India recently?
Ans:New Town, Kolkata
40. What is the extended number of days for advance reservation of Indian railway tickets?
Ans:120
41. Which state has recorded an increase in foodgrains production that touched 50.22 lakh tonnes during Kharif 2011 season?
Ans:Haryana
42. Name the ambulance launched for farmers in Andhra Pradesh by Srihari Kotela, a Charterted Accountant.
Ans:Rythu Ratham (Tollfree ? 18002666208)
43. Which non-banking finance arm of Tata Sons have decided to ramp up its travel business and focus on the retail segment?
Ans:Tata Capital
44. Which financial service will Nokia close in India?
Ans:Nokia Money
45. Which rank does India hold as per U5MR rates by UNICEF?
Ans:46th rank
46. Who will take over the rein of Deutsche Bank CEO at the end of May 2012?
Ans:Anshu Jain
47. Name the Indian railway minister who will present Railway Budget 2012-13.
Ans:Dinesh Trivedi
48. Who has been appointed as Director General of Police for Punjab?
Ans:Sumedh Singh Saini
49. Who and at what age became 5th time Chief Minister of Punjab?
Ans:Parkash Singh Badal
50. Where was FICCI FRAMES 2012 ? Asia?s largest global convention on film media and entertainment inaugurated?
Ans:Kolhapur, Maharashtra