South Indian Bank computer and marketing Archives

South Indian Bank computer and marketing

South Indian Bank computer and marketing
1. FDI stands for _

(a) Foreign Direct Investment-Answer
(b) Foreign Diverse Investment
(c) Frequent Direct Interest
(d) Follow-up Discreet Intent

2. The following is not a function of the DGFT

(a) DGFT entrusted with the responsibility of implementing various policies regarding trade for example, Foreign Trade Policy.
(b) DGFT is the licensing authority for exporters, importers, and export and import business.
(c) DGFT can prohibit, restrict and regulate exports and imports
(d) DGFT acts as market regulator controlling foreign company stocksAnswer

3. What is Rupee depreciation?

(a) Rupee depreciation means that rupee has become less valuable with respect to dolllarAnswer
(b) Rupee depreciation means dollar has become less valuable than rupee
(c) Rupee depreciation means a situation when value of rupee is same as euro
(d) Rupee depreciation happens when the combined value of dollar and euro is more than rupee

4. Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) notified that the Commerce Ministry on on 11 January 2012 lowered the minimum export price of onions by $100 a tonne to $150 a tonne.What was the purpose

(a) To enhance import
(b) To boost exportAnswer
(c) To lower prices in the domestic market
(d) To facilitate crop clearance

5. Indirect tax does not include _

(a) Customs
(b) Central Excise
(c) Sales TaxAnswer
(d) Service Tax

6. Telecom Commission, the decision-making body of the Department of Telecommunications recommended a uniform licence fee of what per cent of adjusted gross revenues (AGR) as against the prevalent rate of 6-8 per cent?

(a) 10%
(b) 8%Answer
(c) 5.2%
(d) 9.3%

7. What is the current repo rate (as on January 2012) fixed by the RBI?

(a) 8%
(b) 8.5%Answer
(c) 7.5%
(d) 7%

8. CRISIL is a _

(a) Credit rating agencyAnswer
(b) Employment exchange watchdog
(c) Infrastructure sector guide
(d) Market regulator

9. A committee on mutual funds, constituted by SEBI in december 2011 recommended to the regulator’s board to break down the bifurcation within the fee structure known as expense ratio. Which of the following facts are not true with regard to the above statement?

A. Currently mutual funds are allowed to charge up to 2.25% as expense ratio. fund houses are allowed to accept only 1.25% as asset management charges
B. Funds with large corpuses currently charge 1.55% as expenses charges
C. SEBI was suggested to keep overall scheme expenses unchanged at 2.25% for schemes with assets under management not exceeding Rs 400 crore
D. Expense ratio is more than important in debt schemes where the rate of return is not hig.Answer

(a) 1 & 2
(b) 3 & 4
(c) 1 & 3
(d) Only 2
(e) None of the aboveAnswer

10. The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT) on 5 December 2011 transferred indigenously-developed Gigabit Passive Optical Network (GPON) technology to seven telecom equipment manufacturers. Which of the following facts about the technology is not true?

A. The GPON technology is a pivotal component required for broadband connectivity over optical fibre.
B. C-DOT indigenously designed and developed GPON technology, which can be used to provide triple play (voice, video and data) through fibre-based networks
C. The GPON technology was tested, validated, field-evaluated and made operational in MTNL’s/VSNL’s network in Ajmer (Rajasthan)
D. The technology will help fulfil requirements of major national programmes like the National Optical Fibre Network and the State Wide Area Network

(a) Only 2
(b) Only 3Answer
(c) Only 4
(d) 1 & 2

11. By Public Sector we mean

(a) Government ownership on commerce and tradeAnswer
(b) Capitalist ownership on commerce and trade
(c) Private ownership on trade
(d) None of these

12. IN which list does Economic Planning belong to

(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent listAnswer
(d) Not any specified list

13. _ forms a part of the Interest Rate Policy

(a) Fiscal Policy
(b) Industrial Policy
(c) Monetary PolicyAnswer
(d) None of these

14. The share of road transport in total transport of the country is–

(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 60%
(d) 80%Answer

15. Which percentage of Central Taxes have been recommended by the 12th Finance Commission to be transferred to States ?

(a) 28.5%
(b) 29.5%
(c) 30.5%Answer
(d) 31.5%

16. ‘Customisation’ means __

(a) Tailor-made products for each customerAnswer
(b) Customers selling goods
(c) Tailor-made products for each staff
(d) A selling process
(e) None of these

17. A Marketing Survey is required for __

(a) deciding marketing strategies
(b) deciding Product strategies
(c) deciding pricing strategies
(d) All of theseAnswer
(e) None of these

18. Cross-selling means __

(a) Selling with a cross face
(b) Cross country marketing
(c) Selling other products to existing customersAnswer
(d) Selling to friends

19. Credit cards are used for –

(a) Cash withdrawals
(b) Purchase of air tickets
(c) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets
(d) All of theseAnswer
(e) None of these

20. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of—

(a) Y. S. P. Thorat
(b) Vijai L. KelkarAnswer
(c) T. S. Vijayan
(d) Laxmi Narayan

21. SEBI is a—

(a) Statutory bodyAnswer
(b) Advisory body
(c) Constitutional body
(d) Non-statutory body

22. Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is related to—

(a) Communication
(b) Social Integration
(c) Linking of Rivers
(d) Development of HighwaysAnswer

23. Targeted power capacity addition for 11th plan period is—

(a) 41110 MW
(b) 66463 MWAnswer
(c) 68963 MW
(d) 86283 MW

24. NABARD was established on the recommendation of—

(a) Public Account Committee
(b) Shivaraman CommitteeAnswer
(c) Narsimham Committee
(d) None of these

25. Which company is providing mobile service with name ‘Cell one’ to the consumers ?

(a) MTNL
(b) BSNLAnswer
(c) Reliance Infocom
(d) Bharti Tele

26. VAT is imposed—

(a) Directly on consumer
(b) On final stage of production
(c) On first stage of production
(d) On all stages between production and final saleAnswer

27. Which of these do not grant any tax rebate ?

(a) National Saving Certificate
(b) Indira Vikas PatraAnswer
(c) National Saving Scheme
(d) Public Providend Fund

28. Which of the following is public sector organisation ?

A. FCI Food Corporation of India
B. FCI Fertilizer Corporation of India
C. Cotton Corporation of India
D. Jute Corporation of India

(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2, 3
(c) Only 3, 4
(d) All of theseAnswer

29. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ?

(a) Central Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Reserve Bank of IndiaAnswer
(d) Above (A) and (B)

30. Mixed Economy means—

(a) Co-existence of small and large industries
(b) Promoting both Agriculture and Industries in the economy
(c) Co-existence of public and private sectorsAnswer
(d) Co-existence of rich and poor

31. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for—

(a) Internet Banking
(b) Credit CardAnswer
(c) Cash with Bank
(d) Cash with Public

32. A CD ROM disk

(a) cannot be erased and rewritten Answer
(b) has more storage capacity than a CD-R
(c) holds less data than a floppy disk
(d) can be written to oniy once
(e) None of the above

33. Storage device found inside the computer.

(a) CD-ROM
(b) Zip Disk
(c) Super Disk
(d) Hard DiskAnswer
(e) None of the above

34. Which of these keys is not on the number keypad?

(a) CtrlAnswer
(b) Del
(c) Enter
(d) NumLock
(e) None of the above

35. The computer monitor is which type of device?

(a) Input
(b) OutputAnswer
(c) Processing
(d) Software
(e) None of the above

36. RAM is and !…., _

(a) volatile, temporaryAnswer
(b) nonvolatile, permanent
(c) nonvolatile, temporary
(d) volatile, permanent
(e) None of the above

37. What menu is selected to cut, copy, and paste?

(a) File
(b) EditAnswer
(c) Too Is
(d) Table
(e) None of the above

38. A device that provides emergency power to your computer, conditions the voltage, and protects against power surges is called a _

(a) PSU = Power Supply Unit
(b) USP = Universal Surge Protector
(c) UPPS = Universal Power Protection and Supply
(d) UPS = Uninterruptible Power Supply Answer
(e) None of the above

39. Secondary storage

(a) does not require constant power Answer
(b) does not use magnetic media
(c) consists of four main types of devices
(d) does not store information for later retrieval
(e) None of the above

40. Deleted data remains on a disk until

(a) the data is overwritten
(b) the recycle bin is emptied Answer
(c) a file compression utility is used
(d) the disk is scanned
(e) None of the above

41. What is the term for how words will appear on a page?

(a) text formatting Answer
(b) Character formatting
(c) Point size
(d) Typeface
(e) None of these

42. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as

(a) pulling
(b) pushing
(c) downloadingAnswer
(d) transferring
(e) None of these

43. When sending an e-rnail. the …….. line describes the contents of the message.

(a) subjectAnswer
(b) to
(c) contents
(d) cc
(e) None of these

44. The software that allows users to surf the Internet is called alan

(a) Search engine
(b) Internet Service Provider (ISP)
(c) Multimedia application
(d) Browser Answer
(e) None of these

45. A CD-RW disk

(a) has a faster access than an internal disk
(b) is a form of optical disk, so it can only be written once
(c) holds less data than a floppy disk
(d) can be erased and rewritten Answer
(e) None of these

46. The” first page of a Web site is called the

(a) Home pageAnswer
(b) Index
(c) Java Script
(d) Bookmark
(e) None of these

47. A contains buttons and menus that provide quick access to commonly used commands.

(a) menu bar
(b) toolbarAnswer
(c) window
(d) action bar
(e) None of these

48. Ctrl, shift and alt are called __ keys.

(a) adjustment
(b) functionAnswer
(c) modifier
(d) alphanumeric
(e) None of these

49. Memory unit is one part of __ .

(a) Control unit
(b) Central Processing Unit Answer
(c) Input device
(d) Output device
(e) None of these

50. An example of a telecommunications device is a

(a) keyboard
(b) mouse
(c) printer
(d) modem
(e) None of theseAnswer

51. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment?

(a) Keyboard
(b) MouseAnswer
(c) Joystick
(d) Trackball
(e) None of these

52. Which of the following is not an.output device?

(a) Plotter
(b) Printer
(c) Monitor
(d) Touch Screen
(e) None of theseAnswer

53. Every component of your computer is either

(a) software or CPUIRAM
(b) input devices or output devices
(c) application software or, system software
(d) hardware or softwareAnswer
(e) None of these

54. What is an E-mail attachment?

(a) A receipt sent by the recipient
(b) A separate document from another program sent along with an E-mail message Answer
(c) A malicious parasite that feeds off your messages and destroys the contents
(d) A list of CC or BCC recipients
(e) None of these

55. What is correcting errors in a program called?’

(a) Interpreting
(b) Translating
(c) DebuggingAnswer
(d) Compiling
(e) None of these

56. What is the main folder on a storage device called?

(a) Platform
(b) Interface
(c) Root directoryAnswer
(D) Device driver
(E) None of these

57. ‘DOS’ floppy disk does not have—

(a) A Boot Record
(b) A File Allocation Table
(c) A Root Directory
(d) Virtual MemoryAnswer
(e) BIOS

58. The word FIP stands for—

(a) File Translate ProtocolAnswer
(b) File Transit Protocol
(c) File Typing Protocol
(d) File Transfer Protocol
(e) None of these

59. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?

(a) Through a power cable
(b) From an external power supply
(c) Directly from the computer’s power supply
(d) Through the USB cableAnswer
(e) None of these

60. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.

(a) CookiesAnswer
(b) Plug-ins
(c) Scripts
(d) ASPs
(e) None of these

61. A proxy server is used for the which of the following?

(a) To provide security against unauthorized users-Answer
(b) To process client requests for web pages
(c) To process client requests for database access
(d) To provide TCP/IP
(e) None of these

62. In the the portion lebelled http is the—

(a) host
(b) domain name
(c) protocolAnswer
(d) top-level domain
(e) None of these

63.The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known as the screen—

(a) resolutionAnswer
(b) colour depth
(c) refresh rate
(d) viewing size
(e) None of these

64. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are example of—

(a) application softwareAnswer
(b) system software
(c) operating system software
(d) platform software
(e) None of these

65. A————is approximately a million bytes.

(a) gigabyte
(b) kilobyte
(c) megabyteAnswer
(d) terabyte
(e) None of these

66. A computer cannot ‘boot’ if it does not have the

(a) Compiler
(b) Loader
(c) Operating SystemAnswer
(d) Assembler
(e) None of these

67. To view information on the web you must have a

(a) cable modem
(b) web browserAnswer
(c) Domain Name Server
(d) hypertext viewer
(e) None of these

68. What type of computer could be found in a digital watch?

(a) Mainframe computer
(b) Super computer
(c) Embedded computerAnswer
(d) Notebook computer
(e) None of these

69. The arrow keys can be used to

(a) delete text
(b) move the cursor in the text that has already been enteredAnswer
(c) save the document
(d) move the cursor while deleting text
(e) None of these

70. Office LANS, which are scattered geographically on large scale, can be connected by the use of corporate

(a) CAN
(b) LAN
(c) DAN
(d) WANAnswer
(e) TAN

71. Directory in directory is called

(a) Mini directory
(b) Junior directory
(c) Part directory
(d) Sub directoryAnswer
(e) None of these

72. A __ is a microprocessor-based computing device.

(a) personal computerAnswer
(b) mainframe
(c) workstation
(d) server
(e) None of these

73. RAM can be thought of as the __ for the computer’s processor.

(a) factory
(b) operating room
(c) waiting roomAnswer
(d) planning room
(e) None of these

74. One thousand bytes is a __

(a) kilobyteAnswer
(b) megabyte
(c) gigabyte
(d) terabyte
(e) None of these

75. What is the term for how words will appear on a page?

(a) text formatting Answer
(b) Character formatting
(c) Point size
(d) Typeface
(e) None of these

76. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as

(a) pulling
(b) pushing
(c) downloadingAnswer
(d) transferring
(e) None of these

77. When sending an e-rnail. the …….. line describes the contents of the message.

(a) subjectAnswer
(b) to
(c) contents
(d) cc
(e) None of these

78. The software that allows users to surf the Internet is called alan

(a) Search engine
(b) Internet Service Provider (ISP)
(c) Multimedia application
(d) Browser Answer
(e) None of these

79. A CD-RW disk

80. The” first page of a Web site is called the

(a) Home pageAnswer
(b) Index
(c) Java Script
(d) Bookmark
(e) None of these

81. A contains buttons and menus that provide quick access to commonly used commands.

(a) menu bar
(b) toolbarAnswer
(c) window
(d) action bar
(e) None of these

82. Ctrl, shift and alt are called __ keys.

(a) adjustment
(b) functionAnswer
(c) modifier
(d) alphanumeric
(e) None of these

83. Which ofthe following menu types is also called a drop-down menu?

(a) fly-but
(b) cascading
(c) pop-up Answer
(d) pull-down
(e) None of these

84. Data (information) is stored in computer as

(a) filesAnswer
(b) directories
(c) floppies
(d) matter
(e) None of these

85. Memory unit is one part of __ .

(a) Control unit
(b) Central Processing Unit Answer
(c) Input device
(d) Output device
(e) None of these

86. An example of a telecommunications device is a

(a) keyboard
(b) mouse
(c) printer
(d) modemAnswer
(e) None of these

87. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment?

(a) Keyboard
(b) MouseAnswer
(c) Joystick
(d) Trackball
(e) None of these

88. Which of the following is not an.output device?

(a) Plotter
(b) Printer
(c) Monitor
(d) Touch ScreenAnswer
(e) None of these

89. Every component of your computer is either

(a) software or CPUIRAM
(b) input devices or output devices
(c) application software or, system software
(d) hardware or softwareAnswer
(e) None of these

90. What is an E-mail attachment?

91. What is correcting errors in a program called?’

(a) Interpreting
(b) Translating
(c) DebuggingAnswer
(d) Compiling
(e) None of these

92. What is the main folder on a storage device called?

(a) Platform
(b) Interface
(c) Root directoryAnswer
(d) Device driver
(e) None of these

93. ‘DOS’ floppy disk does not have—

(a) A Boot Record
(b) A File Allocation Table
(c) A Root Directory
(d) Virtual MemoryAnswer
(e) BIOS

94. The word FIP stands for—

(a) File Translate ProtocolAnswer
(b) File Transit Protocol
(c) File Typing Protocol
(d) File Transfer Protocol
(e) None of these

95. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?

(a) Through a power cable
(b) From an external power supply
(c) Directly from the computer’s power supply
(d) Through the USB cableAnswer
(e) None of these

96. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.

(a) CookiesAnswer
(b) Plug-ins
(c) Scripts
(d) ASPs
(e) None of these

97. A proxy server is used for the which of the following?

(a) To provide security against unauthorized usersAnswer
(b) To process client requests for web pages
(c) To process client requests for database access
(d) To provide TCP/IP
(e) None of these

98. In the the portion lebelled http is the—

(a) host
(b) domain name
(c) protocolAnswer
(d) top-level domain
(e) None of these

99.The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known as the screen—

(a) resolutionAnswer
(b) colour depth
(c) refresh rate
(d) viewing size
(e) None of these

100. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are example of—

(a) application softwareAnswer
(b) system software
(c) operating system software
(d) platform software
(e) None of these
South Indian Bank General knowledge questions

South Indian Bank question papers
Which company joined the United Nations’ Clean Development Mission (CDM) programme, which aims to reduce CO2 emissions from its operations?
a. IBM
b. Maruti Suzuki India
c. RIL
d. BHEL
Answer: (b)
Name India’s State-run iron ore miner who agreed to team up with Australia’s Minemakers Ltd to develop a phosphate mine in Wonarah in northern Australia.
a. Bihar Sponge Iron Ltd
b. Essel Mining & Industries
c. NMDC
d. IISCO
Answer: (c)

Which of the following banks announced on 20 June 2011 to buy the Royal Bank of Canada’s (RBC) retail banking subsidiary for 3.45 billion US dollars?
a. Asian Development Bank
b. The PNC of US
c. World Bank
d. The Reserve bank of India
Answer: (b)

Which Company announced to build India’s first and largest integrated facility for fabrication of multi crystalline silicon wafers and processing of solar photovoltaic cells?
a. Aviva Life Insurance
b. NIITc. Birla Surya
d. TATA
Answer: (c)

What is the full form of IRFC?
a. Indian Railway Facilitating Centre
b. Indian Railway Finance Corporation
c. Indian Railway Cops Force
d. None of the above
Answer: (b)

IFC planned to help Jain Irrigation system in India to set up Sustainable Agro-Commercial Finance Limited. What is the intention behind this planning?
a. To provide irrigation facility to every nook and corner of India for cultivation
b. To provide irrigation facility under the circumstances of drought
c. To modernize all techniques used in irrigation
d. To benefit farmers with limited access to credit
Answer: (d)

Who of the following was appointed as the Director (Finance) of Navratna Public Sector engineering and manufacturing enterprise, Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd (BHEL)?
a. P. K. Goyal
b. P.K. Bajpai
c. Bhaswar Mukherjee
d. N.S. Kannan
Answer: (b)

Which of the following PSUs announced on 18 July 2011, the merger of Maharashtra Elektrosmelt (MEL) with itself?
a. BHEL
b. SAIL
c. HPCL
d. IOC
Answer: (b)

Government of India on 19 July 2011 appointed Usha Ananthasubramanian, former general manager of Bank of Baroda (BoB) as executive director of which public sector lender?
a. Central Bank of India
b. Punjab National Bank
c. United Bank of India
d. Gramin Bank
Answer: (b)

Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray into the life insurance segment.
a. Syndicate Bank
b. Punjab National Bank
c. Corporation Bank
d. United Bank of India
Answer: (b)

Name the sports channel that acquired the exclusive broadcast rights for Euro 2012 in the Indian subcontinent (India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan and Maldives) for Rs 100 crore?
a. ESPN
b. DD Sports
c. Neo Sports
d. Ten Sports
Answer: (c)

Who took charge as Chairman of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd, Visakhapatnam steel plant (RINL-VSP) on
31 July 2011?
a. A.P. Choudhary
b. P.K. Bishnoi
c. N.K Mishra
d. Binayak Mishra
Answer: (a)

Which Indian auto-maker launched the new version of its premium hatchback, the Vista on 23 August 2011?
a. Mahindra & Mahindra
b. Tata Motors
c. Maruti
d. Bajaj Auto
Answer: (b)

Silicon Valley legend Steve Jobs resigned as chief executive of Apple Inc on 24 August 2011. In which year was Apple founded?
a. 1970
b. 1973
c. 1975
d. 1976
Answer: (d)

How many Indian companies were ranked among the top 200 Asia-Pacific corporations in Forbes Asia’s ‘Best Under a Billion’ list for 2011 released on 31 August 2011?
a. 65
b. 35
c. 23
d. 14
Answer: (b)

Which company signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Japan-based Nippon Life Insurance for collaboration opportunities, including strategic partnership, across all financial services businesses?
a. Reliance Capital
b. Life Insurance Corporation
c. Max New York Life Insurance
d. Bharti AXA Life Insurance
Answer: (a)

Which of the following banks set up two loan processing centres for the small and medium enterprise (SME) segment on a pilot basis in Bangalore & in New Delhi in September 2011?
a. Corp Bank
b. United Bank of India
c. Syndicate Bank
d. Bank of Baroda
Answer: (c)

Which PSU topped the list by clinching five awards including the best financial performance award in Maharatna and Navaratna category among the Public Sector Enterprises in September 2011?
a. BHEL
b. ONGC
c. NTPC
d. Indian Oil
Answer: (b)

Which Indian PSU bank in tune with its plans to expand its retail division in the UK entered the mortgage market in the country for the first time?
a. Punjab National Bank
b. Oriental Bank of Commerce
c. State bank of Indiad.
d. Indian Overseas Bank
Answer: (c)

Name the chairman and managing director of Madison World, who was unanimously elected as chairman of the Audit Bureau of Circulations (ABC), the body that monitors sales of publications, for the year 2011-12.
a. T Venkattram Reddy
b. Aritra Sarkar
c. Madhukar Kamath
d. Sam Balsara
Answer: (d)

Which Indian mining company in India got the Finance Ministry’s permission to acquire stakes in overseas unlisted firms?
a. Bharat Gold Mines Limited
b. Neyveli Lignite Corporation
c. Sesa Goa
d. Coal India Ltd
Answer: (d)

Which of the following companies entered into a partnership with the department of information technology to provide rural population socially oriented investment options?
a. UTI Infrastructure Technology
b. L&T Infrastructure
c. ICICI Mutual Fund
d. RIL
Answer: (a)

Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector?
a. State Bank of India
b. Allahabad Bank
c. Punjab National Bank
d. United Bank of India
Answer: (b)

Which private bank for the first time became the most valuable lender in the country overtaking the 204-year-old State Bank of India in market capitalization on 15 November 2011?
a. ICICI
b. HDFC
c. HSBC
d. ABN Amro
Answer: (b)

Who did General Motors appoint on 15 November 2011 as president and MD of India operations with effect from 1 January 2012?
a. Tim Lee
b. Karl Slym
c. Chi Len
d. Lowell Paddock
Answer: (d)

Who was on 23 November 2011 chosen to succeed Tata group chairman Ratan Tata as the group’s new chairman in 2012 when Ratan Tata formlly retires?
a. Cyrus P. Mistry
b. Noel Tata
c. N Chandrasekaran
d. R Gopalakrishnan
Answer: (a)

Which PSU bank in November 2011 decided to abolish pre-payment charges on home loans, giving some succour to borrowers who want to foreclose their accounts?
a. Punjab National Bank
b. Bank of India
c. Corp Bank
d. State Bank of India
Answer: (d)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved the restructuring of an airline’s working capital loan liability of Rs 22000 crore. Name the airline.
a. Air India
b. Kingfisher
c. Indigo
d. SpiceJet
Answer: (a)

Which Hyderabad-based drug discovery research and development organisationon 28 November 2011 entered into an alliance with the Moulder Centre for Drug Discovery Research at Temple University, Philadelphia?
a. Ranbaxy
b. Cipla
c. GVK Biosciences (GVK BIO)
d. Sanofi-Aventis
Answer: (c)

Which Power distribution company on 5 December 2011 announced change of its name to Tata Power Delhi Distribution Limited?
a. North Delhi Power Limited (NDPL)
b. Adani Power
c. Lanco Infratech
d. CLP Power
Answer: (a)

Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) to use the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) facility to facilitate electronic funds transfer of policy payments to policyholders?
a. IDBI
b. Corp Bank
c. Indian Overseas Bank
d. Dhanlaxmi Bank
Answer: (d)

Which PSU lender decided to aggressively market its gold loan scheme for farmers to prevent defaults after the agriculture sector witnessed a sharp spike in bad debt in the past one year?
a. Union Bank
b. United Bank of India
c. Industrial Development Bank of Indiad. State Bank of India
Answer: (d)

Who did the Central Government appoint as Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Andhra Bank?
a. B. A. Prabhakar
b. O. P. Bhatt
c. Pratip Chaudhuri
d. S. Vishvanathan
Answer: (a)

The directorate general of hydrocarbons (DGH), the technical arm of the oil ministry approved which company’s proposal to commence production from Bhagyam, the second-largest oil field in the Rajasthan block?
a. Essar Oil
b. ONGC
c. Cairn India
d. Indian Oil
Answer: (c)

Which of India’s leading commodity bourses on 20 December 2011 became the world’s fifth-largest commodity futures exchange?
a. National Multi Commodity Exchange of India
b. Bharat Diamond Bourse
c. Multi Commodity Exchange
d. Bombay Stock Exchange
Answer: (d)

Name the state-run Mumbai-headquartered bank which on 29 December 2011 surprised the market by cutting its base rate, the minimum lending rate, by 10 basis points, thereby becoming the first banker this year to do so when others are waiting for a signal from the central bank.
a. State Bank of Indiab. Union Bank
c. United Bank of India
d. Allahabad Bank
Answer: (b)

Which PSU lender called off its plans to set up a joint venture with Visa Inc and Elavon Inc to enter the merchant acquiring business over differences on sharing technology?
a. Union Bank
b. State Bank of India
c. Syndicate Bank
d. Corp Bank
Answer: (b)

The Board of Approval (BoA) under the Commerce Ministry on 24 January 2012 approved the proposal of this company to set up a special economic zone (SEZ) at Indore in Madhya Pradesh. Identify the company.
a. Reliance Industries
b. Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
c. Hero Motors
d. Infosys
Answer: (b)

Name the world’s largest biotechnology company which agreed to buy Micromet in a $1.16 billion deal to gain an experimental leukemia drug.
a. Celgene Drug
b. B B Biotech
c. Dechert
d. Amgen
Answer: (d)

Which channel developed a 52-week special India: Wild Encounters to focuss on India’s enchanting wildlife s well as take viewers on an exploration spree ?
a. Discovery India
b. Animal Planet
c. Sony
d. National Gepgraphy
Answer: (b)

Which of the following banks filed a criminal complaint against Sterling Biotech, and its six directors, for allegedly defaulting on repayments on credit facilities provided by the public sector lender?
a. State Bank of Travancore
b. State Bank of Mysore
c. State Bank of Patiala
d. State Bank of Indore
Answer: (b)

Which of the following Indian Telecom company on 16 February 2012 got the RBI nod for FCCB redemption?
(a). Reliance Telecom
(b). Uninor
(c). Airtel
(d). Vodafone
Answer: (a)

World’s largest two wheeler manufacturer Hero MotoCorp on 22 February 2012 inked a pact with Erik Buell Racing [EBR]. EBR is an
(a) USA based company
(b) UAE based company
(c) Argentina based company
(d) UK based companyAnswer: (a)

Consider the following statements and using the code given below identify the personality with whom these statements are associated
1. He has recently joined the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited as its Chairman
2. He is one of the few outsiders to head HAL
3. He started his career with ONGC in 1976
4. He has also served as the head of Pawan Hans Limited
(a) RK Sharma
(b) RK Tyagi
(c) AM Naik
(d) Pratip Chaudhury
Answer: (b)

Which of the following public sector bank has appointed Madhukant Girdharlal Sanghvi as its new Chairman
(a) Bank of Baroda
(b) Allahabad Bank
(c) State Bank of Maharashtra
(d) Syndicate Bank
Answer: (d)

Which of the following banks on 20 March 2012, launched its new card product named Sapphiro
(a) HDFC
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Kotak Mahindra
(d) ICICI
Answer: (a)

Which of the following nationalized bank on 1 April 2012 appointed D Sarkar as chairman and Managing Director
(a) Indian Bank
(b) Allahabad Bank
(c) Union Bank of India
(d) Canara Bank
Answer: (c)

Which one of the following statements is wrong
(a) NTPC has successfully completed the automation package for the Simhadri Stage-II
(b) It is NTPC’s first coastal-based coal-fired thermal power project
(c) The super thermal power project located near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh
(d) NTPC is a private energy company, based in China
Answer: (d)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 4 May 2012 raised the interest rate ceiling on NRI deposits in foreign currencies by up to what percent?
a. 1%
b. 2.5%
c. 3.3%
d. 3%
Answer: (d)

Union minister of labour and employment Mallikarjun Kharge inaugurated the E-Challan and Receipt (ECR) facility on 1 May 2012. Which of the following statements related to the statement is not true?
1. E-Challan and Receipt (ECR) facility was inaugurated to bring transparency and accessibility for employers in depositing monthly Employees’ Provident Fund or EPF contributions of their workers
2. Employers under the ECR service would have to register their organisations online and generate challans for making monthly deposits. They can use these challan for either electronically or physically depositing the Provident Fund or PF contributions to the bank.
3. After the bank confirms the deposit, the concerned regional office’s system would be automatically notified and individual members’ accounts would get updated
4. the need of annual accounts preparation at the end of the will continue to prevail under this systema.
1 & 2b.
Only 2
c. Only 4
d. 2 & 3
Answer: c

Union Government decided on 1 million Cap on External Commercial Borrowing for which of the following sectors?
a. Handicraft & Small Industries sector
b. Power sector
c. Aviation sector
d. Insurance sector
Answer: (c)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 17 April 2012 instructed commercial banks to reduce their exposure to gold loan companies to what per cent of their capital funds from the existing 10%?
a. 9%
b. 8.3%
c. 4.1%
d. 7.5%
Answer: (d)

Commerce Secretary on 19 April 2012 announced that India surpassed the export target of $300 billion for 2011-12. However due to surging imports India recorded the highest ever trade deficit. What was the trade deficit recorded for the 2011-12?
a. $184.9 billion
b. $150 billion
c. 4167.4 billion
d. $142 billion
Answer: (a)

International Monetary Fund (IMF) in its World Economic Outlook (WEO), released ahead of the IMFWorld Bank Spring Meetings, marginally lowered India’s conomic growth forecast to what per cent in 2012?
a. 4%
b. 3.5%
c. 6.9%
d. 7.3%
Answer: (c)

Union government on 18 April 2012 decided to liberalise the external commercial borrowing (ECB) norms for the power sector. Power sector companies will now be able to use up to what per cent of ECB loans to refinance their rupee debt?
a. 35%
b. 40%
c. 53%
d. 27%
Answer: (b)

Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 12 April 2012 also approved an ad-valorem regime for calculating royalty for which of the following?
a. Coal & Iron ore
b. Coal & Lignite
c. Lignite & Copper
d. Lignite & Zinc
Answer: (b)

Union government on 12 April 2012 approved bailout package for Air India. What was the bailout amount cleared by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs?
a. Rs 30000 crore
b. Rs 25000 crore
c. Rs 43000 crored.
d. Rs 27000 crore
Answer: (a)

The Union Cabinet on 12 April 2012 approved the extension of funding support for implementing which of the following schemes under the New Pension System (NPS) from three years to five years for all subscribers?
a. Trade related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development (TREAD) Scheme
b. Gold Credit Pass Book Scheme
c. Swayamsidha (IWEP)
d. Swavalamban Scheme
Answer: (d)

Reserve Bank of India on 3 April 2012 tightened the reporting requirements of the banks to monitor gold import. Consider the statements given below and which of the following is true?
1. As per the directions issued, banks will have to submit a monthly statement informing the central bank about the quantity of gold imported as well as the mode of payment adopted
2. The directive was issued amidst concerns of huge outflow of foreign exchange on import of gold which is believed to be putting pressure on the India’s current account deficit (CAD).
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. None of the above
Answer: (c)

Following RBI’s decision to hike bank rate, the Food Ministry increased the interest rate on loans provided to sugar factories from the Sugar Development Fund (SDF) to what per cent from the earlier 4% from 14 February 2012?
a. 7%
b. 7.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.8%
Answer: (b)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 3 April 2012 released ‘Quarterly Statistics on Deposits and Credit of Scheduled Commercial Banks, September 2011. Which of the following facts are not true with respect to the mentioned statement?
1. The data included in the release were based on Basic Statistical Return (BSR)-10 received from all scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs)
2. The number of banked centres of Scheduled Commercial banks stood at 35,435. 27,913 of these centres were single office centres and 68 centres had 100 or more bank offices
3. State Bank of India and its Associates accounted for 21.8 per cent of the aggregate deposits
4. the credit-deposit (C-D) ratio of All Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) at all India level as on 30 September 2011 stood at 74.4 per cent
a. Only 1
b. 2 & 3
c. Only 4
d. 3 & 4
Answer: (a)

Union government on 23 March 2012 reduced the import tariff value of which metal from USD 573 per 10 grams to USD 530 per 10 grams?
a. Gold
b. Silver
c. Copper
d. Iron
Answer: (a)

Union Power Ministry did not approve of the gas price pooling mechanism within the power sector as proposed by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. With reference to the statement which of the following facts are not true?
2. The Power Ministry deemed the pooling price mechanism with 7 mmscmd of additional RLNG to be non-workable
3. As per the Power Ministry the pool proposed to be formed could only envisage 20-25 per cent of RLNG with 75-80 per cent of domestic gas
4. Petroleum Ministry specifically stated that no new power plants will be considered for gas allocation till 2019-20
5. Until 2013-14, only around 7 mmscmd of RLNG is expected to be imported due to infrastructure constraints
a. Only 1
b. 2 & 3
c. Only 3
d. Only 2
Answer: (c)

Union government raised interest rates on post office-operated small savings like Monthly Income Scheme (MIS) and Public Provident Fund (PPF) by what per cent in March 2012?
a. O.5%
b. 1.1%
c. O.75%
d. 1.75%
Answer: (a)

Finance ministry concerned over the steep rise in bad loans, set up a committee to suggest sectorspecific mechanisms to address rising issue. With respect to the statement which of the following statement is not true?
1. The ministry decided to set up the committee after rating agency Moody’s downgraded the Union Bank of India one notch on 19 March 2012 due to its high level of troubled assets and low provisions for coverage
2. The committee will have representation from the finance ministry, the Reserve Bank of India and some banks.
3. Finance Minister in Budget 2012-13 allowed $1-billion external commercial borrowing (ECB) for the airline industry for one year, and allowed foreign debt to part-finance rupee debt taken by power companies and also for affordable housing.
4. Rise in bad loans affected farm sector lending as well. In November 2010, the share of farm loans was 13.10%, and dropped to 9.18% in November 2011
a. 1 & 3
b. Only 3
c. Only 4
d. Only 1
Answer: (c)

Union Railway Minister Mukul Roy rolled back the railway fare hike as proposed by Dinesh Trivedi in the first Union Rail Budget 2012-13 presented on 14 March 2012. Which of the following statement is not true with respect to the roll back?
1. Roy withdrew the hike for second class suburban and non-suburban, and sleeper class travel fare by 2 paise, 3 paise and 5 paise per km
2. All railway reform measures suggested by Trivedi such as setting up of an independent tariff regulator, restructuring of Railway Board on professional lines, and creation of posts of Member PPP and Member Safety was also ignored
3. Roy’s budget paved the way for the cash-strapped railways to earn a mere Rs 450 crore from increased passenger fares instead of Rs 1000 crore that Trivedi budgeted for
4. Following the rollback proposed by Roy the railways can now generate only Rs 1000 crore more.
a. 2 & 4
b. Only 3
c. 1 & 4
d. Only 4
Answer: (b)

The Union Railway Budget 2012-13 was presented in the Lok Sabha on 14 March 2012 by Union Railway Minister Dinesh Trivedi. Which of the following facts related to the budget are not true?
1. The total union budget outlay for 2012-13 stood at Rs 60100 crore.
2. The fares were raised in the budget. The fares were raised 5 paise per km for suburban and ordinary second class. Fares for mail express second class was raised by only 2 paise per km
3. Union Railway budget 2012-13 proposed to allocate about Rs 4410 crore to capacity augmentation
works
4. The Union railway proposed to electrify 6500 route kilometers during the 12th Plan period. This would include electrification of Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla line and hence provide pollution free traction to the pristine Kashmir Valley
a. 3 & 5
b. Only 4
c. Only 2
d. 3 & 4
Answer: (c)

The union government decided to boost public spending in the health sector to what per cent of GDP from the current 1.4 per cent over five years (12th Five Year Plan period begining 2012)?
a. 2.5%
b. 3%
c. 3.33%
d. 4.5%
Answer: (a)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) panel on priority sector lending on 21 February 2012 proposed increment in the target (priority sector) for foreign banks to what per cent of net bank credit from the current level of 32 per cent with sub-targets of 15 per cent for exports and 15 per cent for the MSE sector?
a. 53%
b. 40%
c. 46%
d. 39%
Answer: (b)

Cabinet Committee for Economic Affairs approved the National Dairy Development Board’s ambitious National Dairy Plan for the 12th Five-Year Plan to be initiated in 2012. Which of the following facts with regard to the statement is not true?
2. The project is aimed at boosting milk production using scientific breeding and feeding programmes covering about 2.7 million milch animals in 40000 villages
3. According to the National Dairy Development Board, the demand for milk is likely to be about 150 million tonne by 2016-17 and 200-210 million tonne by 2021-22. India was the third largest milk producing nation in 2010-11 with a production of 100.2 million tonne.

4. Cooperatives currently procure about 16% of the national marketable milk surplus covering around 21% of the country’s villages and 18% of rural milk producing households
5. The cooperative sector is needed to achieve a procurement share of at least 20% of the marketable milk surplus by 2016-17 so as to retain an overall 50% share of the marketable surplus handled by the organised sector
a. 1 & 3
b. Only 3
c. Only 2
d. 3 & 4
Answer: (c)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 14 February 2012, issued the ‘Draft Circular for Deployment of White Label Automated Teller Machines (WLAs) from non-bank entities. Which of the following facts related to this statement is/are not true?
1. The WLA operator can choose the location of the WLA. However, it will have to adhere to annual targets and the ratio of WLA between Tier I &II and Tier III-VI centres that may be stipulated by the RBI.
2. Non-bank entities proposing to set up WLAs have to apply to the RBI seeking authorisation under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act 2007
3. The non-banking entities should have a minimum net worth of Rs. 1000 crore at the time of making the application and on a continuing basis after issue of the requisite authorisation.
4. Being non-bank owned ATMs, the guidelines on five free transactions in a month for using other bank ATMs will not be applicable for transactions made on the WLAs.
5. The WLA operator will have to declare one Sponsor Bank, which will serve as the Settlement Bank for the settlement of all the service transactions at the WLAs.
a. 2 & 5
b. Only 1
c. Only 3d. Only 5
Answer: (c)
South Indian Bank-SIB English ability
South Indian Bank SIB questions for practice

Directions ( 1 – 1 0 ) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A sobbing little girl stood near a small school from which she had been turned away because it ‘was too crowded’. “1 Can’t go to School,” she sobbed to a priest as he walked by. Seeing her shabby, Unkempt appearance, the priest guessed the reason and, taking her by the hand, took her inside and found a place for her in the school class. The child was so t o u c h ed that she went to bed that night thinking of the children who have no place to study.

Some two years later, this child lay dead in one of the poor tenement buildings and the parents called for the kindhearted priest, who had befriended their daughter, to handle the final arrangements. As her poor little body was being moved, a worn and crumpled purse was found which seemed to have been rummaged from some trash dump. Inside were found 57 cents and a note scribbled in childish handwriting which read, ‘This is to help make the little school bigger so more children can go to school.” For two years she had saved for this offering of love. When the priest tearfully read that note, he knew instantly what he would do.

C a r r y i ng t h i s n o t e a nd t he cracked, red pocketbook to the’stage, he told the story of her unselfish love and devotion. He challenged his assistants to get busy and raise enough money for the larger building. A newspaper learned of the story and published it. It was read by a realtor who offered them a parcel of land worth many thousands. When told that the school could not pay so much, he offered it for a 57 cent payment. Religious members too made large subscriptions. Cheques came from far and wide. Within five years the little girl’s gift had increased to $ 2 5 0 , 0 0 0 -a huge sum for that time. Her unselfish love had paid large dividends. The school building houses hundreds of scholars, so that no child in the area will ever need to be left outside at school time. In one of the rooms of this building may be seen the picture of the sweet face of the little girl whose 57 cents, so sacrificially saved, made such remarkable history. Alongside of it is a portrait of her kind priest.

1. How did the little girl die ?
(1) she had died from suffocation in the tenement building
(2) she had starved to death
(3) she fell from a poor tenement building
(4) Not mentioned in the passage
(5) None of these

2 . What was found on the girl’s body after her death ?
(1) A purse containing the drawing of a school
(2) Notes that she had taken during school
(3) A note to the priest thanking him for his kindness
(4) A purse containing the address to her new school
(5) None of these

3. In what manner did the realtor help in making the little girl’s dream come true ?
(1) By buying a land for the building of the school for thousands of dollars
(2) By building the school himself
(3) By giving away land for building the school at a negligible price
(4) By publishing the girl’s story in the newspaper
(5) None of these

4. What was the real reason behind the girl not being allowed into the school ?
(1) The girl had a learning disability
(2) She was poor and inappropriately dressed
(3) The teachers were too busy to teach her
(4) The school was full of good students and did not need one more
(5) The other kids in the school did not like her

5. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage/story ?
(1) The Girl With the 57 Cents
(2) The Making of Any School
(4) How Newspapers spreformation,
(5) A PrieL. and His Religion

6. Which of the following character istics can be attributed to the lit tle girl from the story ?

(A) She was brave.
(B) She was selfish.
(C) She was loving.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (A) and (C)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (C)
(5) Only (B) and (C) ,

7. Which of the following cannot be said about the priest ?
(A) He was insensitive.
(B) He put his thoughts into action.
(C) He was compassionate.
(l)Only(B) (2) Only (C)
(3) Only (A)
(4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) Only (A) and (C)

8. What was the little girl’s idea be hind wanting to build a bigger school ?
(1) The current school was not providing quality education
(2) More students could study in the school
(3) To gain popularity
(4) Not mentioned in the passage
(5) None of these

9. How was the priest instrumental in fulfilling the little girl’s dream ?
(1) He shared her story and urged his helpers to raise money and got school constructed
(2) He constructed the school building
(3) He handed over the 57 cents to the realtor himself
(4) He helped in the cremation of the little girl’s body
(5) He informed the newspaper of the little girl’s plight

1 0 . What was the final outcome of the 57 cents saved by the little girl ?
(1) The 57 cents were taken by the priest as a fee for his service to the little girl
(2) Nothing could be done with the 57 cents as the amount was too small
(3) A home for the poor was built with the 57 cents
(4) The 57 cents increased to a sum of $2,50,000 and was donated to charity
(5) The amount grew manifold due to various contributions and a school housing hundreds was finally built

Directions (11- 13): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. GRATIFY
(l) delight
(2)humour
(3) grateful
(4) please
(5) satisfy

12. AMAZED
(1) surprised
(2) emotional
(3) appalled
(4) scared
(5) troubled

13. WORRIED
(l)angry
(2) concerned
(3) relaxed
(4) annoyed
(5) confused

Directions (14- 15): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning lo the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. APPROPRIATE
(1) unique
(2) harmful
(3) proper
(4) unsuitable
(5) vicious

15. INNOCENTLY
(l)knowingly
(2) offensively
(3) secretly
(4) lovingly
(5) blissfully

Directions (16 – 20) : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given
and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.

16. Meena loved to shop and goes out Trith her friends whenever she got time.
(1) went outside along
(2) went out with
(3) goes for outing to
(4) go outing and
(5) No correction required

17. Manoj was many better at Sports than Anurag.
(1) much good than
(2) many good to
(3) much better at
(4) much better than
(5) No correction required

18. It was very dark and Trisha was
too scary to go home alone.
(1) too scaring
(2) to scary too
(3) to scare too
(4) too scared to
(5) No correction required

19. Many people not like being interrupted when they are busy
working.
(1) do not like being
(2) do not like
(3) not liking when
(4) no like being
(5) No correction required

20. The crowd loved her Performance and gave her a stand ovation as she left the stage.
(1) stand ovate
(2) stood ovation
(3) stand the ovation
(4) Standing ovation
(5) No correction required

Directions (21 – 25): In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly speit or
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly speit or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly speit and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark
(5) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Quality (1)/is never an accident (2)/ and is always the result of sincere (3)/ effort. (4)/ All correct (5).

22. Sharad consoled (1)/ Vijay and assured (2)/ him that his son would return (3)/ home by sunset. (4)/ All correct (5).

23. One of the monkeys was keeping (1)/ a track (2)/ of the things (3) / done by the King’s men from a distance. (4)/ All correct (5)

24. The swan lived in a pawned (1)/ and had striking (2)/ golden (3)/ feathers. (4)/ All correct (5)

25. The mother and her daughter (1)/ were happily selling milk which got them enough (2)/ money to led (3)/ a comfortable (4)/ life. All correct (5)

Directions (26-35): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day a father of a very wealthy family (71) his son on a trip to the country with the purpose of (72) his son how the poor people live so he could be thankful for his wealth. They spent a (73) of days and nights on the farm of what would be considered a (74) poor family. On their (751 from their trip, the father asked his son, “How was the trip ?” “It was great, Dad.” “Did you see how poor people can be ?” the father asked. “Oh yeah” said the son. “So what did you (761 from the trip ?” asked the father. The son answered, “1 saw that we have one dog and they had four. We have a pool that (771 to the middle of our garden and they have a creek that has no end.” “We have imported lanterns in our garden and they have the stars at night.” . “Our patio reaches to the front yard and they have the (781 horizon” “We have a small piece of land to live on and they have fields that go beyond our sight.” “We have (791 who serve us, but they serve others.” “We buy our food, but they grow theirs.” “We have walls around our (80) to protect us; they have friends to protect them.” With this the boy’s father was speechless. Then his son added, Thanks dad
for showing me how poor we are.”

26. (1) mould
(2) showed
(3) took
(4) beat
(5) drag

27.
(1) trusting
(2) showing
(3) presenting
(4) requester
(5) tell

28. (1) few
(2) many
(3) two
(4) couple
(5) much

29.
(l) very
(2) astutely
(3) major
(4) some
(5) sorrow

30. (1) return
(2) walking
(3) lane
(4) journey
(5) leave

31. (1) believe
(2) learn
(3) reveal
(4) think
(5) saw

32. (l)leak
(2) watery
(3) stands
(4) reaches
(5) swims

33. (l)last
(2) lucky
(3) more
(4) scene
(5) whole

34. (1) relatives
(2) man
(3) servants
(4) mother
(5) computers

35. (1) pillars
(2) country
(3) minds
(4) selves
(5) property
South Indian Bank-SIB Reasoning
SIB Reasoning and computer questions with answers

Reasoning & Computer Competency

Directions (1- 5) : Study the following information carefully and answer he given questions: Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four fit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and, W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces he centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

1. Who sits second to the left of Q ?
(1) V
(2) P
(3) T
(4) Y
(5) Cannot be determined

2. What is the position of T with respect to V ?
(1) Fourth to the left
(2) Second to the left
(3) Third to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Second to the right

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) R
(2) W
(3) V
(4) S
(5)Y

4. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark based upon the given seating arrangement? WP T R QW RS ?
(1) YT
(2) V Y
(3) VQ
(4) PY
(5) QV

5. Which of the following is true regarding R ?
(1) R is an immediate neighbour of V
(2) R faces the centre
(3) R sits exactly between T and S
(4) Q sits third to left of R
(5) None is true

Answers with Explanation :

1. (3) T sits second to the left of Q.
2. (4) T is third to the right of V.
3. (4) R, W, V and Y are sitting in the middle of the sides of the table. S is sitting at the corner.
4. (2) WP and TR represent neighbours. There are two persons between Q and W as well as R and S. Now, we have to choose such pair in which there would be three persons between the two.
5. (5) None of the statements is true

Directions (6 -10) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : In a certain code ‘a friend of m i n e’ is written as ‘4 9 16’ ‘mine lots of m e t a l’ is written as ‘ 3 1 0 9’ and ‘a piece of m e t a l’ is written as ‘7 1 6 3’.

6. What is the code for ‘piece’ ?
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 7
(5) Cannot be determined

7. What does ‘9’ stand for ?
(1) of
(2) mine
(3) friend
(4) lots
(5) metal

8. Which of the following may represent ‘a pleasure of mine’ ?
(1) 6309
(2) 5216
(3) 9216
(4) 3694
(5) 5041

9. What does ‘0’ stand for ?
(1) mine
(2) metal
(3) of
(4) lots
(5) a

10. ‘8 7 3′ would mean
(1) a metal piece
(2) metal for friend
(3) piece of advise
(4) friend of mine
(5) large metal piece
Answers with Explanation :

Directions (11 -16) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each membe r seated in a row faces another membe r of the other row. A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends. Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. T w o persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R.

11. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows ?
(1) B, E
(2) S, T
(3) P, R
(4) B, F
(5) None of these

12. W h o amongst the following faces A ?
(1) R
(2) T
(3) P
(4) Q.
(5) S

13. How many persons are seated between T and S ?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) None

14. P is related to V in the same way as C is related to F. To which of the following is E related to. following the same pattern ?
(1) B
(2) D
(3) C
(4) A
(5) None of these

15. Which of the following is true regarding F ?
(1) F sits second to right of C
(2) F is not an immediate neighbour of A
(3) F sits third to left of D
(4) F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
(5) F faces V

16. Who amongst the following sits exactly between P and Q ?
(1) R
(2) V
(3) S
(4) T
(5) Cannot be determined
Answers with Explanation :

Directions (18-21) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and —-
Give answer (1) if the data in statement I a lone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (S) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

17. W ho amongst L, M, N, O and P is the shortest.
I. O is shorter than P but taller than N .
II. M is not as tall as L.

18. Are all the five friends viz. Leena, Arriit, Arun, Ali and Ken who are seated around a circular table facing the centre ?
I. Leena sits second to left of Amit. Amit faces the centre. Arun sits second to right of Leena.
II. Ali sits third to the left of Ken. Ken faces the centre. Amit sits to the immediate left of Ali but Ken is not an immediate neighbour of Amit.

19. Is T grandmother of Q ?
I. P is the mother of Q. Q is the son of R. R is the son of T.
II. L is father of N and N is daughter of T.

20. Point A is towards which direction from point B ?
I. If a person w a l k s 4m to -wards the north from point A, and takes two consecutive right turns, each after walking 4 m, he would reach point C, which is 8m away from point B.
II. Point D is 2m towards the east of point A and 4m towards the west of point B.

21. How many brothers does Bhar – at have ?
I. Shiela, the mother of Bharat has only three children.
II. Meena, the grandmother of Bharat has only one granddaughter

Answers with Explanation :
18. (3) From statement I

Arun sits second to the right of Leena. If Leena faces the centre then Arun cannot be second to the right of Leena. It means Leena faces outward. From
statement II

19. (4) From statement I Q is the grandson of T. But the gender of T is not given

21. (5) From both the statements Bharat has one brother and one sister.

Quantitative Aptitude
Directions ( 22-): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
22. 348 ÷ 29 x 15 + 156 = (?)3 + 120
(1) 12
(2) 6 (Ans)
(3) 36
(4) 9
(5) None of these
Explanation : 180 + 156 -120 = ?3
216= ?3 => ? = 3v216 = 6

23. (4×4)3 ÷ (512 ÷ 8)4 x (32 x8)4 = (2×2)? +4
(1) 8
(2) 12
(3) 6 (Ans)
(4) 14
(5) None of these
Explanation : (42)3 ÷ (512 ÷ 8)4 x (4x4x2x2x4)4 = (4)? +4
=>46 ÷ (43)4 x (44)4 = (4)? +4
(am x an = a m+n : am + an = a m-n)
46 ÷ 412 x 416 = 4? +4
4 10 = 4? +4 = ? + 4 = 10 =10-4 =6
24. (2v392 – 21) + (8-7)2 = (?)2
(1) 4
(2) -4
(3) 12
(4) 2
(5) 6

25. The respective ratio between the present ages of Ram and Rakesh is 6 : II, Four years ago the ratio of their ages was 1 : 2 respectively. What will be Rakesh’s age after live years ?
(1) 4 5 years
(2) 29 year s
(3) 49 years (Ans)
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

26. The circumference of two circles is 88 metres and 220 metres respectively. What is the difference between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle ?
(1) 3422 sq. metre
(2) 3242 sq. metre
(3) 3244 sq. metre
(4) 3424 sq. metre
(5) None of these (Ans)

27. One of the angles of a triangle is two-third of sum of adjacent angles of parallelogram. Remaining angles of the triangle are in ratio 5 : 7 respectively. Wha t is the value of second’ largest angle of the triangle ?
(1) 25°
(2) 40°
(3) 35° (Ans)
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

28. Pradeep invested 20% more than Mohit. Mohit invested 10% less than Raghu. If the total sum of their investment is Rs.17,880, how much amount did Raghu invest ?
(1) Rs.6,000 (Ans)
(2) Rs. 8,000
(3) Rs.7,000
(4) Rs.5,000
(5) None of these

29. Average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh is 63. Rahul’s score is 15 less than Ajay and 10 more than Manish. If Ajay scored 30 marks more than the average
score of Rahul, Manishand Suresh, what is the sum of Manish’s and Suresh’s scores ?
(1) 120
(2) 111 (Ans)
(3) 117
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

30. Fifty three per cent of a number is 358 less than the square of 26. What is the value of three-fourth of 23 per cent of that number ?
(1) 101
(2) 109.5
(3) 113
(4) 103.5 (Ans)
(5) None of these

31. As per the decision taken by the Government of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of India. Thi s means it will now be applicable to about
(1) 200 districts
(2) 300 districts
(3) 400 districts
(4) 500 districts
(5) 600 districts (Ans)

32. W h i c h of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganised sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana ?
(1)Rs. 10,000
(2) Rs. 20,000
(3) Rs. 30,000 (Ans)
(4) Rs. 40,000
(5) Rs. 50,000

33. Which of the following banks has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab ?
(1) ICICI Bank (Ans)
(2) IDBI Bank
(3) HDFC Bank
(4) AXIS Bank
(5) None of these

34. Unique Identification Authority of India will set up data base for
(1) Identity and biometrics details of Indian residents
(2) Identity and biometrics details of Indian citizens (Ans)
(3) Identity and biometrics details of person’s residents in India or visiting India
(4) All the above
(5) None of these

35. The biggest Public Sector under -taking in the country is
(1) Iron & steel plants
(2) Roadways
(3) Railways (Ans)
(4) Airways
(5) None of these

36. Which of the following is Horticulture Crop ?
(1) Paddy
(2) Wheat
(3) Mango (Ans)
(4) Bajara
(5) None of these

37. Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of Micro Finance?
(1) India
(2) Bangladesh (Ans)
(3) South Africa
(4) USA
(5) None of these

38. Very often we read in news papers about 3G or 3rd Generation technology. This is a set of standards used for which of the following purposes ?
(1) To combat climatic changes
(2) Production of Nuclear Energy
(3) Film Production
(4) Mobile Telecommunications (Ans)
(5) All of these

39. What is the full form of ‘ULIP, the term which was in the news recently ?
(1) Universal Life & Investment Plan
(2) Unit Loan & Insurance Plan
(3) Universal Loan & Investment Plan
(4) Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan
(5) Unit Linked Insurance Plan (Ans)

40. The main function of I. M. F. is to
(1) Finance investment loans to developing countries
(2) Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
(3) Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries (Ans)
(4) Arrange international deposits from banks
(5) None of these

41. The difference between visible exports and visible imports is defined as
(1) Balance of trade (Ans)
(2) Balance of payment
(3) Balanced terms of trade
(4) Gains from trade
(5) All the above

42. Invisible Export means export
(1) Services (Ans)
(2) Prohibited goods
(3) Unrecorded goods
(4) Goods through smuggling
(5) All the above

43. Indira Gandhi Canal which is around 450 km long provide Irrigation facility mainly to which of the following states ?
(1) Punjab
(2) Haryana
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Gujarat
(5) Rajasthan (Ans)

44. The rate of MAT has been increased from the present 15% to 18% with effect from April 2010 . What the full form of M A T ?
(1) Maximum Alternate tax
(2) Minimum Alternate Tax (Ans)
(3) Minimum Affordable Tax
(4) Maximum Affordable Tax
(5) None of these

45. RBI has asked banks to make a plan to provide banking services to all villages having a population upto 2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which of the following categories ?
(1) Plan for Financial Inclusion (Ans)
(2) Efforts to meet the targets of Priority Sector Lending
(3) Extension of Relief Packages to the Farmers
(4) Plan for opening mor e rural branches
(5) None of these

46. Which of the following is not a part of the scheduled banking structure in ‘India ?
(1) Money Lenders (Ans)
(2) Public Sector Banks
(3) Private Sector Banks
(4) Regional Rural Banks
(5) State Co-operative Banks

47. The rate of interest on Savings Bank Account is stipulated by
(1) The concerned bank
(2) RBI (Ans)
(3) Indian Banks Association
(4) Government of India
(5) Banking Code s and Standards Board of India

48. Many times we read a term CBS used in banking operation. What is the full form of the letter ‘C in the term ‘CBS’ ?
(1) Core (Ans)
(2) Credit
(3) Continuous
(4) Complete
(5) None of these

49. In the year 2010 , Common -wealth Game s were organised in which of the following countries ?
(1) China
(2) South Africa
(3) Canada
(4) Brazil
(5) India (Ans)

50. Which of the following metals is used for generation of nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants ?
(1) Zinc
(2) Platinum
(3) Uranium (Ans)
(4) Nickel
(5) None of these
South Indian Bank Aptitude Reasoning
SIB aptitude and reasoning question papers,

1. 94.5% of 650 = ?
a) 606.45
b) 521.65
c) 518.55
d) 614.25 (Ans)
e) None of these
Expl : 650 x 94.5/100 = 614.25

2. 1313 x 137 = ?
a) 136
b) 1319
c) 1320 (Ans)
d) 13-6
e) None of these
Expl : 1313 x 137 = 1313+7 = 1320

3. 13.33 + 33.31 + 331.13
a) 350.55
b) 377.77 (Ans)
c) 350.05
d) 255.05
e) None of these

4. 464 ÷ (16 x 2.32) = ?
a) 12.5 (Ans)
b) 14.5
c) 10.5
d) 8.5
e) None of these

5. 178 ÷ 5 ÷ 0.5 = ?
a) 15.6
b) 71.2
c) 17.8
d) 20.4
Expl : 178/5 x 0.5 = 71.2

6. A bus covers a distance of 2,924 kms. in 43 hours. What is the speed of the bus ?
a) 72 kmph
b) 60 kmph
c) 68 kmph (Ans)
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Expl : Speed of bus = Distant covered /Time taken
= 2924/43 = 68 kmph

7. If (11)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 7930. What is the number ?
a) 36
b) 28
c) 21 (Ans)
d) 48
e) None of these
Expl : Let the number be x
According to the question
x3 – (11)3 = 7930
=> x3 = 7930 + 1331 = 9261
=> x 3 ?9261 = 3?21 x21x21 = 21

8. What should be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs.5,760at the rate of 6.p.c. p.a. after 3 years?
a) Rs.1036.80 (Ans)
b) Rs.1666.80
c) Rs.1336.80
d) Rs.1063.80
e) None of these
Expl : S.I. = Principal x Time x Rate
100
= 5760 x 3 x 6 = Rs.1036.80
100

9. What is 333 times 135?
a) 46323
b) 43623
c) 43290
d) 44955 (Ans)
e) None of these

10. The product of two successive numbers is 8556. What is the smaller number ?
a) 89
b) 94
c) 90
d) 92 (Ans)
e) None of these
Expl : Let the numbers be x and (x+1)
According to the question , x(x+1) = 8556
=> x(x+1) = 92 x 93
=> x = 92

11. Find the average of the following set of scores ?
221, 231, 441, 359, 665, 525
a) 399
b) 428
c) 407 (Ans)
d) 415
e) None of these
Expl : 221, 231, 441, 359, 665, 525 = 2442 = 407
6 6
12. 45% of a number is 255.6 what is 25% of that number ?
a) 162
b) 132
c) 152
d) 142 (Ans)
e) None of these
Expl : Let the number be x
:. ? x 45/100 = 255.6
=> x = 255.6 x 100 = 568
45
= 568 x 25 = 142
100
13. What is the least number to be added to 4321 to make it a perfect square ?
a) 32
b) 34
c) 36
d) 38
e) None of these (Ans)
Expl : SIB question no.13

14. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs.3000 at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. after 2 year ?
a) Rs. 501.50
b) Rs.499.20 (Ans)
c) Rs.495
d) Rs.510
e) None of these
Expl : Amount = P (1+ R/100)T
= 3000(1+8/100)2 = 3000(1+2/25)2
= 3000 x 27/25 x 27/25 = Rs.3499.20
C.I. = Rs.(3499.20-3000) = Rs.499.20

15. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 22% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs.10980 for DVD player; then what was the cost price of the DVD player ?
a) Rs.8000
b) Rs.8800
c) Rs.9500
d) Rs.9200
e) None of these (Ans)
Expl : CP of DVD player
= 100 x SP
(100+22)

= 100 x10980 = Rs.9000
122

16. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of the number, the answer so obtained is 6460. What is the number ?
a) 109
b) 111
c) 113
d) 115
e) None of these (Ans)
Expl : Let the number be x.
According to the question,
x2 – 782 = 6460
=> x2 = 12544
=> x = ?12544 = 112

17. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 261 marks and is declared failed by 4% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
a) 700
b) 730
c) 745
d) 765
e) None of these (Ans)
Expl : The student gets 4% less than 40% Clearly ,
36% of total marks = 261
Total marks = 261 x 100 = 725
36
18. A, B and C divide an amount of Rs.4200 amongst themselves in the ratio of 7:8:6 respectively. If an amount of Rs.200 is add3ed to each of their shares, what will be the new respective ratio of their shares of amount?
a) 8:9:6
b) 7:9:5
c) 7:8:6
d) 8:9:7 (Ans)
e) None of these
Expl : Ratio of the amounts received by A, B and C = 7:8:6
Sum of the raios = 7 + 8 + 6= 21 sum received by
:. A ? 7/21 x 4200 = Rs.1400
B ?8/21 x 4200 = Rs.1600
C?6/21 x 4200 = Rs.1200
on adding Rs.200 to the share of eah one, the required ratio = 1600 : 1800: 1400 = 8:9:7

19. Ms. Suchi deposits an amount of Rs.24000 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 14 p.c.p.a. for 8 years. What total amount will Ms. Suchi get at the end of 8 years?
a) Rs.62080
b) Rs.28000
c) Rs.50880 (Ans)
d) Rs.26880
e) None of these

20. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A,. B, C, D and E is 52. What is the product of B & E
a) 2916
b) 2988
c) 3000
d) 2800 (Ans)
e) None of these

21. The difference between 42% of a number and 28% of the same number is 210. What is 59% of that number?
a) 630
b) 885 (Ans)
c) 420
d) 900
e) None of these

22. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following question ? 4275 ÷ 496 x (21)2 = ?
a) 3795
b) 3800 (Ans)
c) 3810
d) 3875
e) 3995

23. A canteen requires 112 kgs. of wheat for a week. How many kgs. of wheat will it require for 69 days ?
a) 1204 kgs
b) 1401 kgs
c) 1104 kgs (Ans)
d) 1014 kgs
e) None of these
Expl : Requirement of which for 7 days = 112/7 kg
The requirement of wheat for 1 day = 112/7 kg
The requirement of wheat for 69 days = 112/7 x 69 = 1104 kg

24. If an amount of Rs.41910 is distributed equally amongst 22 persons , how much amount would each person get ?
a) Rs.1905 (Ans)
b) Rs.2000
c) Rs.1885
d) Rs.2105
e) None of these

25. The cost of 4 cell-phones and 7 digital cameras is Rs.1,25,627. What is the cost of 8 cell-phones and 14 digital cameras ?
a) Rs.2,51, 254 (Ans)
b) Rs.2,52,627
c) Rs.2,25,524
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these

Direction (26 – 30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and : Give answer (A) : If the data in Statement I along are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (B) : If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (C):If the data in Statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (D) : If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (E) : If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

26. What is the area of the Circle ?
I. Perimeter of the circle is 28 cms.
II. Diameter of the circle is 28 cms

27. What is the rate of interest ?
I. Simple interest accured on an amount of Rs.215000 ion two years is less than the compound interest for the same period by Rs.250
II. Simple interest accured in 10 years is equal to the principal.

28. What is the number of trees planted in the field in rows and columns?
I. Number of columns is more than the number of rows by 4
II. Number of trees in each column in an even number

29. What is the area of the right angled triangle ?
I. Height of the triangle is three fourth of the base
II. Hypotenuse of the triangle is 5 metres.

30. What is the father’s present age ?
I. Father’s present age is five times the son’s present age
II. Five years ago the father’s age was fifteen times the son’s age that time.
Answers : 26. (C), 27.(C), 28.(D), 29.(E), 30.(E)

Directions (31- 35) : Study the following and female youth and the total population for different states in 2005 and 2006

2005 2006 State M F T M F T A 12 15 32 7 8 35 B 8 7 18 10 9 20 C 9 10 28 10 12 34 D 10 6 24 8 8 30 E 6 8 30 7 6 32 F 7 5 28 8 7 35
M= Percentage of unemployed Male youth over total population
F = Percentage of unemployed Female youth over total population
T = Total population of the sate in lakhs

31. What was the total number of unemployed youths in State A in 2006 ?
a) 2, 20, 000
b) 3, 25, 000
c) 5, 20, 000
d) 5, 25, 000 (Ans)
e) None of these
Expl : Required number = (7+8)% of total population = 15/100x 35 Lakhs = 5.25 lakh

32. How many female youths were unemployed in State D in 2005?
a) 14,400
b) 1,44,000 (Ans)
c) 1,40,000
d) 14,000
e) None of these
Expl : Number of unemployed female youths in State D in 2005 = 6 x 24 lakh /100 = 1.44 lakh

33. Number of unemployed male youths in State A in 2005 was what per cent of the number of unemployed female youths in State E in 2006?
a) 66
b) 50
c) 200 (Ans)
d) 133
e) None of these
Expl : Number of unemployed male youths in State A in 2005 = 12 x35 /100= 3.84 lakh
Number of unemployed female youths in State E in 2006 = 6 x34 /100 = 1.92 lakh
:.Required percentage =m 3.84 /1.92 x 100 = 200

34. What was the difference between the number of unemployed male youths in State F in 2005 and the number of unemployed male youths in State A in 2006?
a) 70,000
b) 45,000
c) 68,000
d) 65,000
e) None of these (Ans)

35. What was the respective ratio between unemployed male youths in State D in 2005 and the unemployed male youths in State D in 2006?
a) 1:1 (Ans)
b) 2:3
c) 3:2
d) 4:5
e) None of these

Directions(36-40)Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions: Profit earned (in Crore Rs.) by Seven Companies during 2003-04
*SIB Ques 36*

36. What is the ratio between the profit earned by Company A in 2004 and the profit earned by Company B in 2003 respectively ?
a) 4:3
b) 3:2
c) 3:4
d) 2:3
e) None of these (Ans)
Expl : Profit earned by Company A in 2004 = Rs.40 crore
Profit earned by company B in 2003 = Rs.40 crore
:. Required ratio = 40:40 = 1:1

37. What is the difference (in crore Rs.) between the total profit earned by companies E, F and G together in 2003 and the total profit earned by these companies in 2004 ?
a) 70
b) 75
c) 78
d) 82
e) None of these (Ans)
Expl : Profit earned by Companies E, F and G in year 2003->50+80+60 = Rs.190 crore
Year 2004 -> 40+20+50 = Rs.110 crore
Required difference = 190 -110 = Rs.80 crore

38. What is the ratio between the total profit earned by Company C in 2003 and 2004 together and the total profit earned by company E in these two years respectively ?
a) 11:9 (Ans)
b) 9:10
c) 10:11
d) 11:10
e) None of these

39. What was the average profit earned by all the Companies in 2003 ? (In crore Rs. rounded off to two digits after decimal).
a) 52.75
b) 53.86
c) 52.86 (Ans)
d) 53.75
e) None of these

40. Profit earned by Company B in 2004 is what per cent of the profit earned by the same company in 2003 ?
a) 133.33
b) 75 (Ans)
c) 67.66
d) 75.25
e) None of these
Bank-of-Baroda-BOB Aptitude-Reasoning
Bank of India Previous Year Question Paper-Reasoning

1. In a certain code language, ‘no more food’ is written as ‘ta ka da’ and ‘more than that’ is written as ‘sa pa ka’. How is ‘that’ written in that code language ?
(1) sa
(2) ka
(3) sa or pa
(4) Date inadequate
(5)None of these

2. In a certain code SHOULDER is written as VPITQDCK. How is MORNINGS written in that code ?
(1) OSPNRFMH
(2) NPSORFMH
(3) OSPNHMFR
(4) OSPNSFEM
(5) None of these

3. In a certain code GUEST isrwritten as 53@$2 and MEAN is written as 6@4#. How is SAME writter in that code ?
(1)4$6@
(2) $46®
(3) $36@
(4) 5$6@
(5) None of these

4. D is brother of K, M is sister of K. R is father of D and S is mother of M How is K related to R ?
(l)Son
(2) Daughter
(3) Son or daughter
(4) Data inadequai e
(5) None of these

5. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the fifth, the ninth and the tenth letters of the word SEQUENTIAL, which of the
following will be the second letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give T as
the answer?
(US
(2) A
(3) E
(4) X
(5)Y

6. Sushil walked 15 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 20 metres again he took a left turnand walked 15 metres. How far and in which direction
is he from the starting point ?
(1) 20 metres. West
(2) 20 metres, East
(3) 50 metres, West
(4) 50 metres, East
(5) Data inadequate

7. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 254983 each of which has as many digits/ between them in the number as when the digits are
rearranged in descending order within the number?
(l)None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHRONICLE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

9. If V means V; ‘+’ means ‘-=-‘; ‘-‘ means’+’ and ‘x’ means’ -‘; then 20 – 16 + 4 x 3 -s- 2 = ?
(1)16
(2)30
(3) 18
(4) 24
(5) None of these

10. Pointing to a boy in a photograph Sudhir said “He is the son of my maternal grandfather’s only child”. How is the boy related to Sudhir ?
(l)Self
(2) Brother
(3) Cousin brother
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Category: South Indian Bank computer and marketing

South Indian Bank computer and marketing

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