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Category: RBI Aptitude Model Question Papers

RBI Aptitude Model Question Papers

RBI Aptitude and Analytical questions with answers for practice

1. 94.5% of 650 = ?
a) 606.45
b) 521.65
c) 518.55
d) 614.25 (Ans)
e) None of these
Expl : 650 x 94.5/100 = 614.25

2. 1313 x 137 = ?
a) 136
b) 1319
c) 1320 (Ans)
d) 13-6
e) None of these
Expl : 1313 x 137 = 1313+7 = 1320

3. 13.33 + 33.31 + 331.13
a) 350.55
b) 377.77 (Ans)
c) 350.05
d) 255.05
e) None of these

4. 464 ÷ (16 x 2.32) = ?
a) 12.5 (Ans)
b) 14.5
c) 10.5
d) 8.5
e) None of these

5. 178 ÷ 5 ÷ 0.5 = ?
a) 15.6
b) 71.2
c) 17.8
d) 20.4
Expl : 178/5 x 0.5 = 71.2

6. A bus covers a distance of 2,924 kms. in 43 hours. What is the speed of the bus ?
a) 72 kmph
b) 60 kmph
c) 68 kmph (Ans)
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Expl : Speed of bus = Distant covered /Time taken
= 2924/43 = 68 kmph

7. If (11)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 7930. What is the number ?
a) 36
b) 28
c) 21 (Ans)
d) 48
e) None of these
Expl : Let the number be x
According to the question
x3 – (11)3 = 7930
=> x3 = 7930 + 1331 = 9261
=> x 3 v9261 = 3v21 x21x21 = 21

8. What should be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs.5,760at the rate of 6.p.c. p.a. after 3 years?
a) Rs.1036.80 (Ans)
b) Rs.1666.80
c) Rs.1336.80
d) Rs.1063.80
e) None of these
Expl : S.I. = Principal x Time x Rate
100
= 5760 x 3 x 6 = Rs.1036.80
100

9. What is 333 times 135?
a) 46323
b) 43623
c) 43290
d) 44955 (Ans)
e) None of these

10. The product of two successive numbers is 8556. What is the smaller number ?
a) 89
b) 94
c) 90
d) 92 (Ans)
e) None of these
Expl : Let the numbers be x and (x+1)
According to the question , x(x+1) = 8556
=> x(x+1) = 92 x 93
=> x = 92

11. Find the average of the following set of scores ?
221, 231, 441, 359, 665, 525
a) 399
b) 428
c) 407 (Ans)
d) 415
e) None of these
Expl : 221, 231, 441, 359, 665, 525 = 2442 = 407

6 6
12. 45% of a number is 255.6 what is 25% of that number ?
a) 162
b) 132
c) 152
d) 142 (Ans)
e) None of these
Expl : Let the number be x
:. ? x 45/100 = 255.6
=> x = 255.6 x 100 = 568
45
= 568 x 25 = 142
100
13. What is the least number to be added to 4321 to make it a perfect square ?
a) 32
b) 34
c) 36
d) 38
e) None of these (Ans)
14. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs.3000 at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. after 2 year ?
a) Rs. 501.50
b) Rs.499.20 (Ans)
c) Rs.495
d) Rs.510
e) None of these
Expl : Amount = P (1+ R/100)T
= 3000(1+8/100)2 = 3000(1+2/25)2
= 3000 x 27/25 x 27/25 = Rs.3499.20
C.I. = Rs.(3499.20-3000) = Rs.499.20

15. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 22% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs.10980 for DVD player; then what was the cost price of the DVD player ?
a) Rs.8000
b) Rs.8800
c) Rs.9500
d) Rs.9200
e) None of these (Ans)
Expl : CP of DVD player
= 100 x SP
(100+22)

= 100 x10980 = Rs.9000
122

16. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of the number, the answer so obtained is 6460. What is the number ?
a) 109
b) 111
c) 113
d) 115
e) None of these (Ans)
Expl : Let the number be x.
According to the question,
x2 – 782 = 6460
=> x2 = 12544
=> x = v12544 = 112

17. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 261 marks and is declared failed by 4% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
a) 700
b) 730
c) 745
d) 765
e) None of these (Ans)
Expl : The student gets 4% less than 40% Clearly ,
36% of total marks = 261
Total marks = 261 x 100 = 725
36
18. A, B and C divide an amount of Rs.4200 amongst themselves in the ratio of 7:8:6 respectively. If an amount of Rs.200 is add3ed to each of their shares, what will be the new respective ratio of their shares of amount?
a) 8:9:6
b) 7:9:5
c) 7:8:6
d) 8:9:7 (Ans)
e) None of these
Expl : Ratio of the amounts received by A, B and C = 7:8:6
Sum of the raios = 7 + 8 + 6= 21 sum received by
:. A ? 7/21 x 4200 = Rs.1400
B ?8/21 x 4200 = Rs.1600
C?6/21 x 4200 = Rs.1200
on adding Rs.200 to the share of eah one, the required ratio = 1600 : 1800: 1400 = 8:9:7

19. Ms. Suchi deposits an amount of Rs.24000 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 14 p.c.p.a. for 8 years. What total amount will Ms. Suchi get at the end of 8 years?
a) Rs.62080
b) Rs.28000
c) Rs.50880 (Ans)
d) Rs.26880
e) None of these

20. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A,. B, C, D and E is 52. What is the product of B & E
a) 2916
b) 2988
c) 3000
d) 2800 (Ans)
e) None of these

21. The difference between 42% of a number and 28% of the same number is 210. What is 59% of that number?
a) 630
b) 885 (Ans)
c) 420
d) 900
e) None of these

22. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following question ? 4275 ÷ 496 x (21)2 = ?
a) 3795
b) 3800 (Ans)
c) 3810
d) 3875
e) 3995

23. A canteen requires 112 kgs. of wheat for a week. How many kgs. of wheat will it require for 69 days ?
a) 1204 kgs
b) 1401 kgs
c) 1104 kgs (Ans)
d) 1014 kgs
e) None of these
Expl : Requirement of which for 7 days = 112/7 kg
The requirement of wheat for 1 day = 112/7 kg
The requirement of wheat for 69 days = 112/7 x 69 = 1104 kg

24. If an amount of Rs.41910 is distributed equally amongst 22 persons , how much amount would each person get ?
a) Rs.1905 (Ans)
b) Rs.2000
c) Rs.1885
d) Rs.2105
e) None of these

25. The cost of 4 cell-phones and 7 digital cameras is Rs.1,25,627. What is the cost of 8 cell-phones and 14 digital cameras ?
a) Rs.2,51, 254 (Ans)
b) Rs.2,52,627
c) Rs.2,25,524
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these

Direction (26 – 30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and :

Give answer (A) : If the data in Statement I along are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (B) : If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (C):If the data in Statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (D) : If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (E) : If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

26. What is the area of the Circle ?
I. Perimeter of the circle is 28 cms.
II. Diameter of the circle is 28 cms

27. What is the rate of interest ?
I. Simple interest accured on an amount of Rs.215000 ion two years is less than the compound interest for the same period by Rs.250
II. Simple interest accured in 10 years is equal to the principal.

28. What is the number of trees planted in the field in rows and columns?
I. Number of columns is more than the number of rows by 4
II. Number of trees in each column in an even number

29. What is the area of the right angled triangle ?
I. Height of the triangle is three fourth of the base
II. Hypotenuse of the triangle is 5 metres.

30. What is the father’s present age ?
I. Father’s present age is five times the son’s present age
II. Five years ago the father’s age was fifteen times the son’s age that time.
Answers : 26. (C), 27.(C), 28.(D), 29.(E), 30.(E)

Directions (31- 35) : Study the following and female youth and the total population for different states in 2005 and 2006

2005 2006 State M F T M F T A 12 15 32 7 8 35 B 8 7 18 10 9 20 C 9 10 28 10 12 34 D 10 6 24 8 8 30 E 6 8 30 7 6 32 F 7 5 28 8 7 35

M= Percentage of unemployed Male youth over total population
F = Percentage of unemployed Female youth over total population
T = Total population of the sate in lakhs

31. What was the total number of unemployed youths in State A in 2006 ?
a) 2, 20, 000
b) 3, 25, 000
c) 5, 20, 000
d) 5, 25, 000 (Ans)
e) None of these
Expl : Required number = (7+8)% of total population = 15/100x 35 Lakhs = 5.25 lakh

32. How many female youths were unemployed in State D in 2005?
a) 14,400
b) 1,44,000 (Ans)
c) 1,40,000
d) 14,000
e) None of these
Expl : Number of unemployed female youths in State D in 2005 = 6 x 24 lakh /100 = 1.44 lakh

33. Number of unemployed male youths in State A in 2005 was what per cent of the number of unemployed female youths in State E in 2006?
a) 66
b) 50
c) 200 (Ans)
d) 133
e) None of these
Expl : Number of unemployed male youths in State A in 2005 = 12 x35 /100= 3.84 lakh
Number of unemployed female youths in State E in 2006 = 6 x34 /100 = 1.92 lakh
:.Required percentage =m 3.84 /1.92 x 100 = 200

34. What was the difference between the number of unemployed male youths in State F in 2005 and the number of unemployed male youths in State A in 2006?
a) 70,000
b) 45,000
c) 68,000
d) 65,000
e) None of these (Ans)

35. What was the respective ratio between unemployed male youths in State D in 2005 and the unemployed male youths in State D in 2006?
a) 1:1 (Ans)
b) 2:3
c) 3:2
d) 4:5
e) None of these
RBI Aptitude-English

RBI Assistant Previous Year Question Paper

English Language

Directions (Qs. 1-5): Read the following passage and answer the questions below it. A few words are given in the bold form to help easy location while answering some questions.

To some extent, it is the nature of the intellect to narrow our vision and give it focus. Tragedy comes in when we forget this limitation and think the intellect can comprehend things as a whole. The intellect views the world through a slit. When a cat walks by, it observes the eye,then fur, and then the tail, and then it infers that the eye is the cause of the tail, unless of course, the cat was walking backward. If this sounds absurd, some of the theories about biochemistry and behaviour use very similar reasoning. Nachiketa would object, ?Man, why don?t you open the door? That?s just your black cat Frodo, pacing back and forth.?But instead we usually get caught up in clarifying slit-information, even though without a larger view our conclusions may be entirely wrong. To ake matters worse, we specialize. I am not against specialization perse but what often happens is that we do not even look through whole slit; we subdivide. My field is the upper part of the tail; yours is the lower.I might even forget about the eye and the fur. My main concern will be my debate with a colleague in Tokyo over whether hair on the tail grows up or down. If anybody asks how the eye fits in, I refer him to another researcher. After all, what have eyes got to do with geotropic hair growth?

Debates like this cannot be resolved on the slit level. What isrequired is to open the door; then argument becomes unnecessary.Once the door is opened, even a little, we will not quarrel over whose slit is correct or whether we should confine ourselves to the top of it or the bottom. As long as we see only part of the picture, logic and argumentation can never settle an issue. When the intellect becomes calm and clear, theory gives way to demonstration. It is not beyond our reach to see life whole. We have simply become so attached to this precious slit that we think there is no higher mode of knowing. After a while, we become so used to slits that we put on a special mask with just a hairline crack in front of the eyes. Try walking around wearing a mask like this and see what happens. Every little thing will fill your field of vision.

The intellect that sees only a small corner of life makes a very poor guide. We follow it like the blind led by the blind. I see this illustrated every day in the newspapers. To take just one urgent example, I have read that perhaps half a million scientists and engineers around the world are engaged in weapons research. I have no doubt that the vast majority of these people have no desire for war. They feel they are only doing a job, playing a small role in an inevitable activity. Nevertheless,this is not a defence industry, this is a half a million highly skilled men and women preparing for war. Producing and selling instruments of war is one of the biggest business in the world today. Even before the First World War, George Bernard Shaw caught the spirit of the industry in the character of undershaft in Major Barbara. Undershaft is no sinister ?merchant of death?. He is just a businessman, whose credo is to give arms to all who offer an honest price for them, without respect of persons or principles, to capitalist and socialist, to protestant and catholic, to burglar and policeman, to black man, white man and yellow man, to all sorts and conditions, all nationalities and faiths, all follies, all causes and all crimes.

The defence-minded intellect might object, ?That?s unfortunate, but defence is necessary. Everybody has to have weapons, and somebody is going to sell them. Here is a business that is thriving?. These sales?,the merchant argue, ?help supply allies who cannot produce needed equipment.? Needed for what? Any school boy knows that weapons are needed by people in order to kill each other. From the evidence, we would have to conclude that death is a much more desirable goal than health, education, or welfare. Or, look at cancer. Many researchers today maintain that perhaps
seventy to ninety per cent of all human cancers are caused by environmental agents involved in manufacturing and processing new products. Most of these substances are relatively recent additions to our environment. We made them, and we can cease to make them if we choose. Yet one way or another such substances appeal to us so much that life without them seems untenable. As a result, instead of trying to eliminate the causes of cancer, we pour millions of dollars into what one writer calls ?the Vietnam of modern medicine?: The Search for a Cancer

This kind of myopia is not a necessary fault of the intellect. Given a larger picture, the intellect can rise to the occasion. Then even if the Nobel Prize is dangled before its eyes, it will refuse to work at any project that is at the expense of life, but will give all its attention to matters of real urgency.

1. Which of these is true in context to the passage:
(1) humans are capable of unlimited applications of the mind
(2) whether the slit is small or large, conclusion is the same
(3) all researchers view through slit-like intellects
(4) it is not possible to view life as a whole
(5) the intellect is capable of adjustments

2. The passage is against:
(a) short-sightedness of the scientists
(b) the nature of the intellect
(c) narrowness of the intellect

(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (a) and (c)
(5) all (a), (b) and (c)

3. What should be the right approach for argumentation:
(1) to specialise in a particular field
(2) to study bio-chemistry
(3) sub-divide topics and research on them
(4) open the doors of the intellect
(5) leave attachment to our slits

4. According to the author, the intellect which sees a small corner of life, can:
(1) lead to scientific and engineering outcomes
(2) lead to follies and crimes
(3) race for better defence
(4) cause environmental pollution
(5) lead to harmful and unwanted results

5. What leads to cancer?
(1) pre-existing environmental pollutants
(2) man-made additions to environment
(3) tasty and good-looking things
(4) modern medicines
(5) None of the above

6. The difference between narrow and broad vision is:
(1) narrow vision leads to specialisations, while broad vision does not
(2) narrow vision leads to debates while broad vision easily settles them
(3) narrow vision leads to desire for war while broad vision leads to desire for defence sales
(4) narrow vision leads to greedy business while broad vision leads to fair salesmanship
(5) narrow vision leads to Nobel prizes and broad vision refuses them

7. In context to the passage, which one of these is false:
(1) weapons are needed by nations for money
(2) weapons are needed for security reasons
(3) a person with a broad intellect would not sell weapons to all
(4) the author is against specialisations
(5) scientists all over the world are preparing for war

8. The title to the passage can be:
(1) Disasters of science
(2) Nature of the intellect
(3) Intellectual misconducts
(4) Human debates
(5) Viewing life as a whole

9. The undershaft is:
(1) a very clever businessman
(2) an intellectual businessman
(3) an immoral character
(4) the major role in Major Barbara
(5) a blindly-led intellect

Directions (Qs. 10-12): In context of the above passage choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the given word.

10. CREDO
(1) crime
(2) credit
(3) business
(4) job
(5) management

11. COMPREHEND
(1) absorb
(2) digest
(3) guide
(4) assimilate
(5) understand

12. GEOTROPIC
(1) falling to ground
(2) attracted towards earth
(3) touching the earth
(4) projected toward the earth
(5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 13-15): In context of the above passage choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the given word.

13. INEVITABLE
(1) blasting
(2) accidental
(3) certain
(4) incidental
(5) avoidable

14. MYOPIA
(1) narrowmindedness
(2) broadmindedness
(3) shortsightedness
(4) evilsightedness
(5) hypermetropia

15. UNTENABLE
(1) probable
(2) cured
(3) unworthy
(4) worthsome
(5) pleasant

Directions (Qs. 16-20): In each of the questions below four sentences are given which are denoted by A, B, C and D. By using all four sentences, frame a meaningful para. Choose answer from
the five alternatives given and the correct order of the sentences is your answer.

16. (A) India?s patent authorities are at the centre of global attention.
(B) India?s patent law is equipped to drive out frivolous patent seekers and to reward meritorious inventors
(C) If successful, Indian generic drug-makers may have to pay royalties.
(D) As many MNC drug-makers have applied for patents under India?s new product patent law

(1) ABCD
(2) ADCB
(3) BACD
(4) DACB
(5) CABD

17. (A) What?s more, if you happen to be inching towards retirement, your EMIs will be structured accordingly.
(B) Future credit may get customised.
(C) The next time you get a hike in your company, rest assured your Equated Monthly Instalments (EMIs) will go up.
(D) EMIs will now be fixed according to your affordability.

(1) DCAB
(2) BCAD
(3) BCDA
(4) ABCD
(5) CBAD

18. (A) The Tax Return Prepares Scheme has been introduced recently to help individuals file their income tax returns.
(B) According to this scheme, certain tax return prepares will be specially trained.
(C) The aim is to ease the process of filing returns and reduce the cost for tax payers.
(D) However, individuals should carefully examine this service and its likely benefits.

(1) ABCD
(2) ADCA
(3) DABC
(4) BACD
(5) BCAD

19. (A) There is nothing more soothing to the mind, body and soul than being on the beach front.
(B) That?s what Archil, which buys bad loans, thinks.
(C) A little bit of business can also be thrown in such a setting.
(D) The ARC thought of the idea of organising a workshop on junk bonds in an exotic beach resort in Goa and has roped in the Indian Bank?s Association.

(1) DCAB
(2) ABCD
(3) DACB
(4) ACBD
(5) CBDA

20. (A) The financial markets in the country have provided a wide array of such instruments.
(B) Doing business is all about managing risk.
(C) The profit and loss account is a reflection of the risk that is dexterously handled by CFOs.
(D) Which have been seized with alacrity by the industry.

(1) BACD
(2) ABCD
(3) ACBD
(4) DBCA
(5) BCAD

Directions (21-30): In the following passage there are blanks.Choose the correct answer from the given options to fill the blanks which are numbered.

(21) has marked man?s (22) progress from (23) times. Modern medicine is built on the innovative (24) of scientists and physicians such as Louis Pasteur. He (25) in a revolution in medicine by producing a (26) against rabies in 1880. (27) with Robert Koch, Pasteur founded (28). There has been no (29) back (30) then.

21. (1) Discovery
(2) Innovation
(3) Reforms
(4) Applications
(5) Interests

22. (1) amazing
(2) alluring
(3) alarming
(4) charming
(5) exciting

23. (1) antique
(2) mid-historic
(3) recent
(4) remote
(5) prehistoric

24. (1) fantastic
(2) dilemma
(3) genius
(4) brain
(5) intellect

25. (1) ushered
(2) projected
(3) prospered
(4) thrushed
(5) brushed

26. (1) injection
(2) medicine
(3) antidote
(4) vaccine
(5) antibody

27. (1) Along
(2) Also
(3) Going
(4) Working
(5) Enjoying

28. (1) immunology
(2) pathology
(3) zoology
(4) botany
(5) bacteriology

29. (1) viewing
(2) looking
(3) seeing
(4) peeping
(5) hopping

30. (1) till
(2) from
(3) until
(4) since
(5) by

Directions (Qs. 31-40): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence, five pairs of words are given. Find out the correct pair of words and fill in the blanks.

31. The world is ___ the way it is, because it is what we wanted to experience at some level of .
(1) wonderful, brightness
(2) perfect, consciousness
(3) famous, search
(4) okay, intelligence
(5) brilliant, dreams

32. The church of England has that it can?t allow a multi-faith ceremony for Prince Charles.
(1) decided, functional
(2) projected, wedding
(3) asserted, coronation
(4) ordered, birth
(5) allowed, dancing

33. The ___ are the poorest and most people in our cities.
(1) poor, helpless
(2) rural, hardworking
(3) workers, happy
(4) scheduled castes, strong
(5) homeless, vulnerable

34. Reform will not only help the U.N., but also contribute to stability in Asia.
(1) revitalise, geopolitical
(2) regenerate, economic
(3) ascend, social
(4) revolutionise, political
(5) charge, general

35. Feeling the of the higher power is an .
(1) value, dream
(2) emotions, theme
(3) presence, ecstasy
(4) absence, innocence
(5) acknowledgement, accomplishment

36. All the for a robust and sustainable growth are being put in .
(1) ingredients, place
(2) factors, striding
(3) points, list
(4) component, consideration
(5) plans, favour

37. India is firmly in the of vote bank politics. So, the for job reservation for SC and ST in private sector will grow.
(1) gloves, greed
(2) grip, clamour
(3) hands, rush
(4) roots, need
(5) net, suicide

38. One of the secrets Gandhi gave us is that strength does not come from bone and muscle, it comes from an will.
(1) simple, inner
(2) straight, ironical
(3) wonderful, ideal
(4) tactical, iron
(5) magnificent, indomitable

39. If disasters and are the wake up call for a world that it has gone , then we are now in the position to acknowledge it to manifes the world we desire to experience.
(1) peace, mad
(2) wars, insane
(3) famines, out
(4) tragedies, troublesome
(5) mishaps, trivial

40. Inner-faith harmony requires that there is both and among religions.
(1) value, esteem
(2) establishment, survival
(3) trust, respect
(4) harmony, co-operation
(5) co-existence, concord

Directions (Qs. 41-45): Each of the following questions consists of a sentence. Find out whether there is any error in it.The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that
part is answer. If there is no error, mark 5 as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation).

41. (1) Neither of them (2) are coming here (3) to address this (4) large gathering. (5) No error.

42. (1) Hardly she finished (2) her duty when (3) the bell (4) started ringing. (5) No error.

43. (1) More private companies should (2) be permit to enter (3) into field of communication (4) to strengthen the network. (5) No error.

44. (1) Government should severely (2) punish the persons (3) involved in the (4) practice of female foeticide. (5) No error.

45. (1) Parents should ensure (2) and cultivate (3) reading habits between (4) their children. (5) No error.

Directions (Qs. 46-50):These questions are based on idioms.From among the options, choose the one that is closest in meaning to the given idiom/phrase.

46. keep at an arm?s length:
(1) keep a good distance
(2) keep closeness
(3) avoid involvement or friendship
(4) hate
(5) give a warm welcome

47. take the bull by the horns:
(1) invite danger from an enemy
(2) prepare for unwanted situation
(3) be full of vigour
(4) face boldly
(5) None of these

48. a dark horse:
(1) a person who is not good-looking but is very good at heart
(2) a person who is specially called for an event
(3) a person having a poor reputation
(4) a person whose past is mysterious
(5) a person who is quite less known

49. pour oil on troubled waters:
(1) create a nice scenery
(2) settle down a situation
(3) aggravate matters
(4) worsen a situation
(5) create an unfavourable situation

50. to drag one?s feet:
(1) slow down deliberately
(2) lazy behaviour
(3) uninterested behaviour
(4) present opposition to someone
(5) move very quietly
RBI Aptitude Reasoning Placement Papers

RBI Reasoning solved Questions with answers

1 Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
S M P 6 3 * $ A 4 L N @ Z 5 # V U 7 E 8 B % T Y X G 2 I & 9 W

Which of the following is the third to the left of the fifteenth from the left end ?
(A) @
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) U
(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

2 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
P M 3 A $ L Z @ # ?
(A) U V E
(B) V # E
(C) 7 U 8
(D) V 7 #
(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

3 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) A 4 *
(B) T B Y
(C) 9 I W
(D) V 5 U
(E) P S 6

Ans : (A)

4 How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by an even number and preceded by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

Ans : (A)

5 IF LEARNING is written as MGDVSOUO then SURPRISE would be:

(a) TWUTWOAL
(b) TWUTWOZM-Answer
(c) TWVUXPAN
(d) TWUSVNZK
6 If SUNDAY is coded as XZCMTR then PAYMENT would be:

(a) RPNDZOJ
(b) QBZNFOU
(c) SMDLXZO-Answer
(d) TNEMYAP
7 If TAP is coded as SZO, then how is FREEZE coded?

(a) EQDDYD-Answer
(b) ESDFYF
(c) GQFDYF
(d) EQDFYG
8 In a certain code, FORGE is written as FPTJI. How is CULPRIT written in that code?

(a) CXOSULW
(b) CVNSVNZ
(c) CVMQSTU-Answer
(d) CSJNPGR

If victory is coded as YLFWRUB, how can success be coded?

(a) VXFFHVV-Answer
(b) VXEEIVV
(c) VYEFIVV
(d) VYEEHVV
9 In a certain code SOCIAL is written as TQFMER, then how you will code DIMPLE?

(a) EKPTQK-Answer
(b) EKPQPJ
(c) EKPSPJ
(d) EKPSOH

10 In a certain code SOCIAL is written as TQFMER, then how you will code DIMPLE?

(a) wtzyv
(b) twxyz
(c) tqwvm
(d) mtuvw
11If PAINTER is written in a code language as NCGPRGP, then REASON would be written as :

(a) PCYQMN
(b) PGYQMN
(c) PGYUMP-Answer
(d) PGYUPM
12 If CIGARETTE is coded as GICERAETT. Then DIRECTION will be coded as :

(a) RIDTCENOI-Answer
(b) NORTECDII
(c) IRDCTIONE
(d) NOIETCRID
RBI Grade B Asst Model Questions
RBI Grade B officer Previous Years solved question papers
Directions (Q. 1 to 6) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter: R DA E J M K T B U I P W H F
Digit/Symbol Code: 4 8 5 $ * 1 2 6 % © 7@3 9 #
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as +.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter, is a consonant their codes are to be interchanged.

1. HIFMJU
(1)©7#1*9
(2) 97#l*9
(3)©7#l*©
(4) +7#1*+-Answer
(5)None of these

2. AKTRBW
(1) 3264%5-Answer
(2) 3264%3
(3) 324%65
(4) 5264%3
(5) None of these

3. EBPDRI
(1) 7%@847
(2) 7%@84$
(3)$°/o@847-Answer
(4) $%8@47
(5) None of these

4. BKAJIM
(1) %25*71
(2) 125*7%
(3) O/o25*7%
(4) 15*271-Answer
(5) None of these

5. UKPDMA
(1) 52@815
(2) ©2@815-Answer
(3) ©2@81C
(4) ©@2815
(5) None of these

6. METUFB
(1) %$6©#1
(2) 1$6©#1
(3) %$6©#°/o -Answer
(4) l$60#%
(5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 7 to 12) : A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84
Step I south but 32 71 glory fair 65 84
Step II south 84 but 32 71 glory fair 65
Step III south 84 glory but 32 71 fair 65
Step T : south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair 65
Step V : south 84 glory 71 fair but 32 65
Step VI : south 84 glory 71 fair 65 but 32
and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
7. Step III of an input is: year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39 How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three
(2) Four -Answer
(3) Two
(4) Five
(5) None of these

8. Input: any how 49 24 far wide 34 69 Which of the following steps will be the last but one
(1) VI
(2) VII
(3) V -Answer
(4) VIII
(5) None of these

9. Step II of an input is: town 74 pair 15 31 nice job 42 Which of the following is definitely the input
(1) pair 15 31 town nice job 42 74
(2) pair 15 town 31 74 nice job 42
(3) pair 15 town 74 31 nice job 42
(4) Cannot be determined-Answer
(5) None of these

10. Input: play over 49 37 12 match now 81Which of the following will be step IV
(1) play 81 over 49 37 match now
(2) play 8 over 49 37 12 match now
(3) play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12
(4) There will be no such step-Answer
(5) None of these

11. Step II of an input is : war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24 Which of the following steps will be the last
(1) V
(2)VI-Answer
(3) IV
(4) VII
(5) None of these

12. Input: shower fall water 34 51 67 98 goal.How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Five-Answer
(5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 13 to 40) : In the following questions, the symbols ©, @, $, % and * are used with following meanings as illustrated below
‘P @Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
In each question four statements showing relationship have been given, which are followed by four conclusions I, II, III & IV.

Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is /are definitely True.
13. Statements:M © D, D * K, K @ R , R * F
Conclusions
1. F©K
II. D * F
III. M © R
IV D * R

(1) None is true-Answer
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only IV is true

14. Statements
B%K, K$ T, T* F ,H© F
Conclusions
I B$T
II©B
III H © K
IV. F © B
(1) Only either I or II is true
(2) Only III is true
(3) Only IV is true
(4) Only III and IV are true
(5) Only either I or II are true-Answer

15. Statement
W * B, B@ F, F © R, R $ M
Conclusions
I W*F
II. M * B
III R * B
IV. M* W
(1) Only and IV are true
(2) Only II and III are true-Answer
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) Only II and IV are true
(5) None of these

16. Statements
E@ K, K $ T’, T © N,.B % N
Conclusions
I T%E
II K©N
III. B * T
IV. B * E
(I) Only I, II and III are true
(2) Only II, III and IV are true
(3) Only I, III and IV are true-Answer
(4) All are true
(5) None of these

17. Statements –
Z $ B, B % M, M © F, F @ R
Conclusions
I Z*M
II. F * B
III R*M
IV. M @ Z
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I, III and IV are true
(3) Only III and IV are true-Answer
(4) Only either I or IV and III are true
(5) None of these

18. Statements
H@T , T $ N, F © N, B%F
Conclusions
I F@H
II F©T
III:B * T
IV B % H
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true-Answer
(4) Only III and IV are true
(5) Only II and III are true
RBI Aptitude-Reasoning
RBI Assistant Model Paper

Reasoning Ability

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) White
(2) Indigo
(3) Blue
(4) Red
(5) Orange

2. ?Cooler? is related to ?summer? in the same way which of the following is related to ?rain??
(1) Shirt
(2) Umbrella
(3) Icecream
(4) Fan
(5) Fridge

3. City A is larger than city B which is smaller than city D. If city E is larger than city A but smaller than city D, which of the following is the largest?
(1) E
(2) A
(3) D
(4) B
(5) Cannot be determined

4. If ?red? means ?blue?, ?blue? means ?black?, ?black? means ?yellow?, ?yellow? means ?green?, ?green? means ?white?, ?white? means ?brown? and ?brown? means ?indigo?, then what is the colour of middle line of our National Flag?
(1) white
(2) yellow
(3) brown
(4) green
(5) None of these

5. If ?INVITATION? is written as ?KMXHVZVHQM?, then ?READY? is written in that code as which of the following?
(1) SCDDA
(2) TDCDB
(3) QFBEZ
(4) TDCCA
(5) None of these

Directions (6-10): In each question below, three statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they appear at variance from commonly known facts. Then decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the given statements. Mark out an appropriate answer choice that you think is correct.

Statements:
6. (a)All papers are books.
(b)All books are pages
(c) All pages are material.

Conclusions:
I. Some material are pages.
II. All books are material.
III. All papers are pages.
IV. Some books are papers.

(1) All the four follow
(2) Only II, III follow
(3) Only I, III and IV follow
(4) Either I or III and II follow
(5) None follows

Statements:
7. (a)Some bats are balls.
(b)No stars are moons
(c) All balls are moons.

Conclusions:
I. Some moons are not balls.
II. No balls are stars.
III. Some moons are not balls.
IV. Some balls are bats.

(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I, II and IV follow
(3) Either II or IV follows
(4) All follow
(5) None of these follows

Statements:
8. (a)All coats are pants.
(b)No pants are shirts.
(c) Some shirts are pullovers.

Conclusions:
I. No coat is a shirt.
II. Some coats are shirts.
III. All coats are shirts.
IV. Some coats are not pullovers.

(1) Only I, II and III follow
(2) Only Ist follows
(3) Only I and IV follow
(4) Either I and III or II and IV follow
(5) Only III and IV follow

Statements:
9. (a)Some pens are pencils.
(b)Some rubbers are gum.
(c) No bag is a gum.

Conclusions:
I. Some pencils are gum.
II. Some pencils are not gum.
III. some rubbers are not bag.
IV. Some rubbers are bag.

(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Either I or II and either III or IV follow
(5) None of these follows

Statements:
10. (a)No fruits are bananas.
(b)No oranges are peas.
(c) All bananas are oranges.

Conclusions:
I. No bananas are peas.
II. Some oranges are not fruits.
III. Some bananas are fruits.
IV. Some oranges are bananas.

(1) Only III follows
(2) Only I, II and IV follow
(3) Either I or II follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) All follow

Directions (Qs. 11-15): Study the following arguments and distinguish between ?strong? arguments and ?weak? arguments because they relate to the question. ?Strong? arguments are those
which are both important and directly related to the question. ?Weak? arguments are those which are of minor importance and also not directly related to the question. Each question below is
followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide which of the argument is a ?strong? and ?weak?. Give answer:
(1) if only argument I is ?strong?.
(2) if only argument II is strong.
(3) if either I or II is ?strong?.
(4) if neither I nor II is ?strong?.
(5) if both I and II are ?strong?.

Statement:
11. Should the government punish those schools which charge high admission fee?
Arguments:
I. Yes, where will the poor students go?
II. Yes, education has become more of a business than a pious commitment.

Statement:
12. Should there be a quota for those who are poor?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will decrease the level of unemployment and poor people will not be discriminated by upper caste.
II. No, we already have reservations in our jobs.

Statement:
13. Should there be no place for interview in selection?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it is a difficult part of selection.
II. No, it is the only way to judge the candidates? personality and motives.

Statement:
14. Should women be provided more job opportunities?
Arguments:
I. Yes, they should go into the outside world.
II. No, they are not interested in jobs.

Statement:
15. Should government provide more benefits to those who are the only child of their parents?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it will control increase of population.
II. Yes, it will give them bright future and love of parents.

Directions (Qs. 16-20): In these questions, a statement is given, which is followed by various assumptions. Read the statements and the assumptions and decide which one of them are implicit.

Statement:
16. ?Ensure freedom from thieves with this car locking system.?
Assumptions:
I. This car locking system is the best.
II. It is desired to have freedom from thieves.
III. There are thieves everywhere.

(1) I and II are implicit.
(2) II and III are implicit.
(3) I and III are implicit.
(4) Only II is implicit.
(5) All are implicit.

Statement:
17. ?We deal in used cars. Contact us at phone no. XYZ, at the earliest possible.??an advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. Some people want to sell old cars.
II. The advertisement will be read by the needy people.
III. Used cars may not be totally useless.

(1) Only I is implicit.
(2) Only II and III are implicit.
(3) Only I and III are implicit.
(4) All I, II, III are implicit.
(5) None of I, II, III are implicit.

Statement:
18. ?Lalu Prasad is expected to announce several schemes for poor people in the budget.??a news reporter.
Assumptions:
I. The reporter has a fair reporting.
II. The news-reporter has genuine report sources.
III. Lalu Prasad is capable of announcing schemes.

(1) I and II are implicit.
(2) II and III are implicit.
(3) Only III is implicit.
(4) All are implicit.
(5) None is implicit.

Statement:
19. Mr X tells Mrs X: ?I cannot send my child to that school Children over there smoke and drink.? Which of these assumptions is implicit?
Assumptions:
I. Smoking and drinking are not desirable of children.
II. Their child will agree to their decision.
III. The school has a good reputation.
(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and I
(4) I only
(5) All I, II, III

Statement:
20. Monica?s advice to Sonia: ?Go to Chandigarh via Ambala?the best route.?
Assumptions:
I. Sonia wants to go to Chandigarh.
II. Monica loves advising everybody.
III. They love Chandigarh.
(1) I is implicit.
(2) II is implicit.
(3) Either I or II is implicit.
(4) Neither I nor II is implicit.
(5) Both are implicit.

Directions (Qs. 21-25): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
(1) Six friends Asad, Babli, Cajole, Dev, Eva and Fatima are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre.
(2) Cajole is between Asad and Babli.
(3) Fatima is between Eva and Asad.
(4) Eva is to the left of Dev

21. Who is on the left of Babli?
(1) Asad
(2) Cajole
(3) Dev
(4) Eva
(5) None of these

22. Who is on the left of Cajole?
(1) Dev
(2) Eva
(3) Asad
(4) Fatima
(5) None of these

23. Which pair of friends is sitting on the opposite of each other?
(1) Dev, Asad
(2) Dev, Babli
(3) Asad, Fatima
(4) Cajole, Babli
(5) None of these

24. Which of the following is sitting on the right side of Fatima?
(1) Eva
(2) Dev
(3) Asad
(4) Babli
(5) Cajole

25. Which of the above given statements is superfluous?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
(5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 26-30): Read the following information and answer the questions.
Four people of different nations live on the same side of a sector in four houses each of different colour. Each person has a different favourite drink. The Englishman lives in the red house. The following additional information is:
?The Hindu drinks tea.
?The Muslim lives in the first house on the left.
?The Muslim lives adjacent to the blue house.
?In the second house from the right they drink coffee.
?The Sikh drinks banana shake.
?Tea is drunk in the blue house
?The pink house is to the right of red house

26. Which of the following drink coffee?
(1) Muslim
(2) Hindu
(3) Englishman
(4) Muslim and Hindu
(5) None of the above

27. The colour of Sikh house is:
(1) yellow
(2) blue
(3) red
(4) pink
(5) None

28. The Muslim drinks which of the following drink:
(1) tea
(2) coffee
(3) banana shake
(4) tea, coffee
(5) milk

29. Who sits adjacent to Muslim?
(1) Hindu
(2) Englishman
(3) Sikh
(4) Both Hindu and Sikh
(5) None of the above

30. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) Hindu lives in the blue house
(2) Sikh drinks banana shake and his colour of house is pink
(3) Muslim drinks coffee
(4) Yellow house is occupied by Muslim
(5) None of the above

Directions (Qs. 31-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Given here are the conditions to become the members of a Lake Club. A person must:
(1) be in the age group of 21-50 as on August 13, 2006.
(2) be drawing a minimum salary of Rs 1 lakh per annum.
(3) own a house.
(4) not have a family of more than five members including himself.
(5) have excellence in any field of arts and sports.
However, if a person:
(6) satisfies all except (4) above, but draws a salary of more than 2 lakh per annum, the case may be referred to the Club president.
(7) satisfies all except (3) above, the case may be referred to the Club secretary.
On the basis of above conditions and information, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken regarding each condition.

Mark answer:
(1) if the person is eligible to be a member
(2) if the person can?t be allowed the membership
(3) if the data provided is inadequate.
(4) if the case is to be referred to the Club secretary
(5) if the case is to be referred to the Club president

31. Mr Rahul Tiwari, living with his mother and father, is a college professor earning Rs 8600 monthly. He has his own house and is having a good record in the field of fine arts.

32. Ravi Tripathi, an IAS officer, draws a salary of Rs 15000 p.m.His date of birth is March 17, 1985. He lives with his mother, father and a brother. He is having his own house and holds a certificate of being the best volleyball player in his college.

33. Mr Pankaj Pandey works as a manager in horticulture. He is 35 years old and lives as a tenant with his wife and two daughters. He draws a monthly salary of Rs 8700 p.m. for the last 7 years. He holds a good record in sports.

34. Mr Dev Taneja, a bachelor, lives in a private house owned by him with his parents and grand parents. He is senior manager in American Express, drawing a salary of Rs 17000 p.m. He has won the Trophy in Badminton and his D.O.B. is August 13, 1992.

35. Mrs Radha Kapoor, living with her husband, receives a salary of Rs 10,000 p.m. She has completed 12 years of service in the company on January 10, 2004.

36. Mrs Poonam completed 33 years in March 2005. She stays in her own house along with his husband and three sons. She works as G.M. in Infosys, and draws Rs 117000 per annum. She has exhibited excellence in the field of arts.

37. Mr Ajay is a Branch Manager in SBI and draws a salary of Rs 201000 per annum. He lives in a flat which is not owned by him, along with his wife and a son. He holds a certificate of excellence in tennis. His D.O.B. is October 15, 1980.

38. Mr Satyakam is 40 years old, lives alone in his house. He works as manager in textile mill and earns Rs 10,200 every month.

39. Ms Kavita lives in her own house with his husband and a daughter. She is working as a Assistant Manager in HDFC. She is 26 years old and having a excellence in painting.

40. Mr Abhinav is a bachelor working as a Computer Engineer in electron company. He draws Rs 10900 p.m. His D.O.B. is October 1982. He has been the captain of the Basketball team. He lives in his own house and having family of four persons including him.

Directions (Qs. 41-45): An arrangement machine when given an input of words, rearrange them following a particular rule and solve it.
Input: This chapter would give you basic concepts.
Step 1: basic this chapter would give you concepts.
Step 2: basic chapter this would give you concepts.
Step 3: basic chapter concepts this would give you.
Step 4: basic chapter concepts give this would you.
Study the logic and answer the questions that follow.

41. Input: Do not imitate others work.
Which of the following will be Step 3 for the given input?
(1) Do others not imitate work.
(2) Do imitate not others work.
(3) Work do others imitate.
(4) Do not others work imitate.
(5) None

42. Input: Adequate safety arrangements are must for kids.
Which of the following will be 2nd last step for the given input?
(1) Adequate are arrangements for kids safety must.
(2) Adequate are arrangements for kids must safety.
(3) Adequate are safety arrangements must for kids.
(4) Adequate safety are arrangements must for kids.
(5) None

43. Input: Marcus Brauchli gives inaccurate information.
How many steps are required to rearrange the above input properly.
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2
(5) None of these

44. Input: Most Indian leaders cannot even visualise free India.
Which of the following will be last step of above input?
(1) Most Indian even leaders cannot visualise free India.
(2) Cannot even free India Indian most leaders visualise.
(3) Cannot even free India most Indian leaders visualise.
(4) Cannot even free India Indian leaders most visualise.
(5) None.

45. Step IV: It is figure anti-establishment from media.
Which of the following is the input of the above mentioned step.
(1) It is figure from anti-establishment media.
(2) Media it is figure from anti-establishment.
(3) It is anti-establishment media from.
(4) Can?t be determined.
(5) None of these

RBI Question Paper – Computer Knowledge

1. What is backup ?
(1) Adding more components to your network
(2) Protectiong data by copying it from the original source to a different destination
(3) Filtering old. data from the new data
(4) Accessing data on tape
(5) Using earlier data

2. The legal right to use software based on specific restrictions is granted via a……….
(1) software privacy policy
(2) software license
(3) software password manager
(4) software log
(5) None of these

3. What is an E-mail attachment?
(1) A receipt sent by the recipient
(2) A separate document from another program sent along with an E-mail message
(3) A malicious parasite that feeds off of your messages and destroys the contents
(4) A list of CC : or BCC : recipients
(5) A friend to whom E-mail is sent regularly

4. The type of software that controls – the Internal operations in the computer, and controls how the computer works with all Its parts is which of the following ?
(1) Shareware
(2) Public domain software
(3) Application software
(4) Operating system software
(5) None of these

5. When data changes In multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes ………..
(1) Data redundancy
(2) Information overload
(3) Duplicate data
(4) Data consistency
(5) Data inconsistency

6. What Is the main folder on a storage device called ?
(1) Root directory
(2) Interface
(3) Device drive/
(4) Platform
(5) Main directory

7. To view information on the web you must have a……….
(1) Cable modem
(2) Web browser
(3) Domain Name Server
(4) Hypertext viewer
(5) None of these

8. A file is often referred to as a(n)
(1) Wizard
(2) Document
(3) Pane
(4) Device
(5) Documentation

9. To protect yourself from’ computer hacker intrusions you shoud install a ………….
(1) Firewall
(2) Mailer
(3) Macro
(4) Script
(5) None of these

10. What type of computers are client computers (most of the time) in a client-server system?
(1) Mainframe
(2) Mini-computer
(3) Microcomputer
(4) PDA
(5) None of these

11. What happens when you boot up aPC?
(1) Portions of the operation system are copied from disk into memory
(2) Portions of the operating system are copied from memory onto disk
(3) Portions of the operating system are compiled
(4) Portions of the operating system are emulated
(5) The PC gets switched ofT

12. Linux is an example of………..
(1) Freeware
(2) Open source software
(3) Shareware
(4) Complimentary
(5) None of these

13. Which one of the following software applications would be the most appropriate for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
(1) Database
(2) Document processor
(3) Graphics package
(4) Spreadsheet
(5) PowerPoint

14. A ………….. is used to read handwritten or printed text lo make a digital image that is stored in memory.
(1) Printer
(2) Laser beam
(3) Scanner
(4) Touchpad
(5) None of these

15. You organize files by storing them in …………
(1) Archives
(2) Lists
(3) Indexes
(4) Folders
(5) None of these

16. A …………… pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a layout, and a background
(1) Guide
(2) Model
(3) Ruler
(4) Template
(5) Design-plate

17. What is the default file extension for all Word documents ?
(1) WRD
(2) TXT
(3) DOC
(4) FIL
(5) WD

18. Removing and replacing devices without turning off your computer is referred to as ……..
(1) Hot swapping
(2) Plug-N-Play
(3) Bay swap
(4) USB swapping
(5) None of these

19. Specialized programs that assist users in locating information on the web are called ……………
(1) Information engines
(2) Locator engines
(3) Web browsers
(4) Resource locators
(5) Search engines

20. Compiling creates a(n)………
(1) Error-free prdgram
(2) Program specification
(3) Subroutine
(4) Algorithm
(5) Executable program

21. Expansion cards are inserted into
(1) Slots
(2) Peripheral devices
(3) The CPU
(4) The back of the computer
(5) None of these

22. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be …………..
(1) Distributed
(2) Non-Wired
(3) Centralized
(4) Open source
(5) Wireless

23. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n) ……………..
(1) Workstation
(2) CPU
(3) Magnetic disk
(4) Integrated circuit
(5) Complex circuit

24. Junk e-mail is also called
(1) Crap
(2) Spoof
(3) Sniffer script
(4) Spool
(5) Spam

25. A progrm designed to destroy data on your computer which can travel to “infect” other computers is called a ………….
(1) Disease
(2) Torpedo
(3) Hurricane
(4) Virus
(5) Infector

26………….. shows the files, folders, and drives on your computer, making it easy to navigate from one location to another within the file hierarchy.
(1) Microsoft Internet Explorer
(2) Windows Explorer
(3) My Computer
(4) Folders Manager
(5) Windows Locator

27. The…………..manual tells you how to use a software program.
(1) Documentation
(2) Programming
(3) User
(4) Technical
(5) Designer

28. A collection of interrelated records is called a………….
(1) Utility file
(2) Management information system
(3) Database
(4) Spreadsheet
(5) Datasheet

29. File extension is used
(1) For naming the file .
(2) To ascertain that file name is not lost
(3) To identify file
(4) To identify file type
(5) To make items complex

30. What is Gutter margin ?
(1) Margin added to left margin while Pirinting
(2) Margin added to right margin while printing
(3) Margin added to binding side of the page while printing
(4) Margin added to outside of page while printing
(5) None of these

31. ALU of CPU has
(1) RAM space
(2) Register
(3) Byte space
(4) Secondary storage space
(5) None of these

32. What happens when operating system is loaded^n RAM ?
(1) Copying
(2) Device driving
(3) Booting
(4) Multitasking
(5) None of these

33. In page preview mode
(1) You can see all the pages of your document
(2) You can see only that page on which your are currently working
(3) You can see only that page which have no graphics
(4) You can see only title page of your document
(5) You can see only the last page of your document

34. When you will start, your computer Boot routine will perporm
(1) RAM Test
(2) Disk drive test
(3) Memory Test
(4) Power-on-selfTest
(5) Whether power supply is on or off

35. Machine language uses
(1) Numeric code
(2) English Language code
(3) Java Language
(4) CPU Processing code
(5) None of these

36. What is the keyboard short-cut for new slide ?
(1) Ctrl + M
(2) Ctrl + N
(3) Ctrl + Shift + N
(4) Ctrl + S
(5) None of these

37. Vertical space between lines of text in documentis called
(1) Double space
(2) Line gap
(3) Single space
(4) Vertical spacing
(5) Line spacing

38. Full form of CD-RW is
(1) Compact Drum, Read, Write
(2) Compact Diskette. Read. Write
(3) Compact Disc, Read-only then Write
(4) Compact Diskette with Random Write Capability
(5) Compact Disc-Rewritable

39. Password makes users capable
(1) To enter Into system quickly
(2) To use time efficiently
(3) To retain the secrecy of files
(4) To make file structure simple
(5) To feel special

40. Files deleted from hard disc are sent to
(1) Dustbin
(2) Floppy Disc
(3) Clipboard
(4) Motherboard
RBI Electronics and Electrical Questions with answers
TYPICAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1 The two windings of a transformer is
(A) conductively linked.
(B) inductively linked.
(C) not linked at all.
(D) electrically linked.
Ans : B

Q.2 A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off.vThe motor will
(A) come to stop.
(B) continue to run at synchronous speed.
(C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
(D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.
Ans: B

Q.3 The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
(A) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed.
(B) it will fail to start.
(C) it will not develop high starting torque.
(D) all are true.
Ans: A

Q.4 The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at fullvload speed is about
(A) 50 Hz.
(B) 20 Hz.
(C) 2 Hz.
(D) Zero.
Ans: C

Q.5 In a stepper motor the angular displacement
(A) can be precisely controlled.
(B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
(C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
(D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.
Ans: A

Q.6 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is
(A) low at light load only.
(B) low at heavy load only.
(C) low at light and heavy load both.
(D) low at rated load only.
Ans: A

Q.7 The generation voltage is usually
(A) between 11 KV and 33 KV.
(B) between 132 KV and 400 KV.
(C) between 400 KV and 700 KV.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: A

Q.8 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
(A) damping torque.
(B) eddy current torque.
(C) torque aiding the developed torque.
(D) no torque.
Ans: D

Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be
(A) A square wave.
(B) A sine wave.
(C) A triangular wave.
(D) A pulse wave.
Ans: A

Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be
(A) A square wave.
(B) A sine wave.
(C) A triangular wave.
(D) A pulse wave.
Ans: A

Q.10 In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to
(A) Ia .
(B) 1 2/a
(C)I/a1
Ans: B

Q.11 In a 3 – phase induction motor running at slip ‘s’ the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power Pg is
(A) (s -1 ) Pg .
(B) Pg/(1- s)
(C) (1- s ) Pg .
(D) s × Pg .
Ans: C

Q.12 In a 3 – phase induction motor the maximum torque
(A) is proportional to rotor resistance r2 .
(B) does not depend on r2 .
(C) is proportional to root of r2 .
(D) is proportional to r2/2
Ans: B

Q.13 In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is
(A) stationary w.r.t. armature.
(B) rotating w.r.t. field.
(C) stationary w.r.t. field.
(D) rotating w.r.t. brushes.
Ans: C

Q.14 In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at
(A) unity p.f.
(B) leading p.f.
(C) lagging p.f.
D) zero p.f. leading.
Ans: B

Q.15 The maximum power in cylindrical and salient pole machines is obtained respectively at load angles of
Ans: 90 degree<90 degree

Q.16 The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be
(A) 3.6 V.
(B) 2.5 V.
(C) 3.0 V.
(D) 6.0 V.
Ans: C

Q.17 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer
(A) is in phase with the flux.
(B) lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
(C) leads the flux by 90 degree.
(D) is in phase opposition to that of flux.
Ans: C

Q.18 The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is zero for a
(A) dc machine.
(B) 3 phase induction machine.
(C) synchronous machine.
(D) single phase induction machine.
Ans: all options are correct

Q.19 The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through
(A) slip rings.
(B) commutator segments.
(C) solid connections.
(D) carbon brushes.
Ans: C

Q.20 A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the
(A) squirrel cage induction motor.
(B) wound rotor induction motor.
(C) synchronous motor.
(D) DC shunt motor.
Ans: C

Q.21 A hysteresis motor
(A) is not a self-starting motor.
(B) is a constant speed motor.
(C) needs dc excitation.
(D) can not be run in reverse speed.
Ans: B

Q.22 The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is
(A) a dc series motor.
(B) a dc shunt motor.
(C) an ac two-phase induction motor.
(D) an ac series motor.
Ans: B

Q.23 The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the
(A) operating voltage.
(B) power factor.
(C) current to be carried.
(D) type of insulation used.
Ans: C

Q.24 Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is
(A) electric arc heating
(B) induction heating
(C) electric resistance heating
(D) dielectric heating
Ans: C

Q.25 A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-loadand unity power-factor. At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage
regulation will be
(A) 4.5%.
(B) less than 4.5%.
(C) more than 4.5%.
(D) 4.5% or more than 4.5%.
Ans: C

% R = Vr cos F + Vx sin F = Vr
p.f = cos F =1 \ F =00
\ kVA = kW & kVAR =0
No reactive power component
Percentage regulation (%R) = Vr cos F ± Vx sin F
When cos F = 0.8 lagging
%R = Vr cos F + Vx sin F
= Vr (0.8) + Vx (0.6)
%R = (0.8)Vr +(0.6) Vx at p.f 0.8 lagging
and %R = Vr at unity p.f

Q.26 In a dc shunt motor the terminal voltage is halved while the torque is kept constant. The resulting approximate variation in speed ‘w’ and armature current ‘ Ia ‘ will be
(A) Both w and Ia are doubled.
(B) w is constant and Ia is doubled.
(C) w is doubled while Ia is halved.
(D) w is constant but Ia is halved.
Ans: B

N  V – IaR or N  Eb
T  Ia F , F  Ia
\ T  Ia
Q.27 A balanced three-phase, 50 Hz voltage is applied to a 3 phase, 4 pole, inductionmotor. When the motor is delivering rated output, the slip is found to be 0.05. The
speed of the rotor m.m.f. relative to the rotor structure is
(A) 1500 r.p.m.
(B) 1425 r.p.m.
(C) 25 r.p.m.
(D) 75 r.p.m.
Ans: D

NS = 120f /P = 120 x 50 /4 =1500rpm
N = NS ( 1-s) = 1500 (1-0.05) = 1425
\relative speed = 1500 – 1425 = 75 rpm

Q.28 An alternator is delivering rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor laggingcase. If it is required to deliver rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor
leading, the required excitation will be
(A) less.
(B) more.
(C) more or less.
(D) the same.
Ans: B
Over excitation gives leading power factor and under excitation gives lagging p.f .

Q.29 A ceiling fan uses
(A) split-phase motor.
(B) capacitor start and capacitor run motor.
(C) universal motor.
(D) capacitor start motor.
Ans: DTo give starting torque and to maintain speed.

Q.30 A stepper motor is
(A) a dc motor.
(B) a single-phase ac motor.
(C) a multi-phase motor.
(D) a two phase motor.
Ans: D
Stepper motor works on 1-phase-ON or 2-phase –ON modes of operation

Q.31 The ‘sheath’ is used in cable to
(A) provide strength to the cable.
(B) provide proper insulation.
(C) prevent the moisture from entering the cable.
(D) avoid chances of rust on strands.
Ans: A

The sheath in underground cable is provided to give mechanical strength.
Q.32 The drive motor used in a mixer-grinder is a
(A) dc motor.
(B) induction motor.
(C) synchronous motor.
(D) universal motor.
Ans: D
The universal motor is suitable for AC & DC both supply systems.

Q.33 A 1:5 step-up transformer has 120V across the primary and 600 ohms resistance
across the secondary. Assuming 100% efficiency, the primary current equals
(A) 0.2 Amp.
(B) 5 Amps.
(C) 10 Amps.
(D) 20 Amps.
Ans: A
I1= V1 /R1 = 120/600 = 0.2 (h = 100%, losses are zero \V1 = VR = I1R1)

Q.34 A dc shunt generator has a speed of 800 rpm when delivering 20 A to the load at theterminal voltage of 220V. If the same machine is run as a motor it takes a line
current of 20A from 220V supply. The speed of the machine as a motor will be
(A) 800 rpm.
(B) more than 800 rpm.
(C) less than 800 rpm.
(D) both higher or lower than 800 rpm.
Ans: C

Ng= Eg (60A / Fpz) Eg = V + Ia Ra ; in generator
Nm= Eb (60A / Fpz) Eb = V – Ia Ra ; in motor
Eg > E b for same terminal voltage
Therefore, Ng > N m

Q.35 A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number ofpoles of the motor are
(A) 4.
(B) 6.
(C) 12.
(D) 8.
Ans: A
N= Ns (1-S) = NS –NS x S
1440 = Ns (1-S)
Ns = 1440 / (1-S)
Ns = (120 f/ p) = 120 x 50/p = 6000 p
Ns will be closer to N i.e 1440
When P=2 ; Ns = 3000 rpm , not close to N
When P=4 ; Ns = 1500 rpm , it is closer to N
Therefore P =4 for N=1440
Q. 36 In a 3-phase synchronous motor
(A) the speed of stator MMF is always more than that of rotor MMF.
(B) the speed of stator MMF is always less than that of rotor MMF.
(C) the speed of stator MMF is synchronous speed while that of rotor MMF is zero.
(D) rotor and stator MMF are stationary with respect to each other.
Ans: D

Because, Motor is magnetically locked into position with stator, the rotor poles areengaged with stator poles and both run synchronously in same direction Therefore,
rotor & stator mmf are stationary w.r.t each other.
Q.37 In a capacitor start single-phase induction motor, the capacitor is connected
(A) in series with main winding.
(B) in series with auxiliary winding.
(C) in series with both the windings.
(D) in parallel with auxiliary winding.
Ans: B
To make single phase motor self start. We split the phases at 90 degree. Hence, motorbehaves like a two phase motor.

Q.38 A synchro has
(A) a 3-phase winding on rotor and a single-phase winding on stator.
(B) a 3-phase winding on stator and a commutator winding on rotor.
(C) a 3-phase winding on stator and a single-phase winding on rotor.
(D) a single-phase winding on stator and a commutator winding on rotor.
Ans: C
Synchros : The basic synchro unit called a synchro transmitter. It’s constructionsimilar to that of a Three phase alternator.

Q.39 As the voltage of transmission increases, the volume of conductor
(A) increases.
(B) does not change.
(C) decreases.
(D) increases proportionately.
Ans: C
Decreases due to skin effect.

Q.40 The size of the feeder is determined primarily by
(A) the current it is required to carry.
(B) the percent variation of voltage in the feeder.
(C) the voltage across the feeder.
(D) the distance of transmission.
Ans: A
Size of conductor depends upon amount of current flow.

Q. 41 The boundary of the protective zone is determined by the
(A) Location of CT
(B) sensitivity of relay used
(C) Location of PT
(D) None of these
Ans: B
The boundary of the protective zone is determined by the sensitivity of relay used. Ifthe relay is more sensitive, the protective zone will be increased.

Q.42 In a three phase transformer, if the primary side is connected in star and secondaryside is connected in delta, what is the angle difference between phase voltage in the
two cases.
(A) delta side lags by -30°.
(B) star side lags by -30°.
(C) delta side leads by 30°.
(D) star side leads by -30°.
Ans: C

This is vector group and has +30° displacement. Therefore, delta side leads by +30°.
Q.43 To achieve low PT error, the burden value should be ____________.
(A) low
(B) high
(C) medium
(D) none of the above
Ans: A In a Potential transformer, burden should be in permissible range to maintain errorlessmeasurement.

Q.44 Slip of the induction machine is 0.02 and the stator supply frequency is 50 Hz.What will be the frequency of the rotor induced emf?
(A) 10 Hz.
(B) 50 Hz.
(C) 1 Hz.
(D) 2500 Hz.

Ans: C
Given : s = 0.02 ; f = 50 Hz
Therefore, frequency of rotor induced emf = s f
= 0.02 x 50 = 1.0 Hz

Q.45 A 4 pole lap wound dc shunt motor rotates at the speed of 1500 rpm, has a flux of 0.4mWb and the total number of conductors are 1000. What is the value of emf?
(A) 100 Volts.
(B) 0.1 Volts.
(C) 1 Volts.
(D) 10 Volts.
Ans: D

Given N = 1500 rpm, F = 0.4 mWb, Z = 1000, P = 4, & A= 4
Therefore, Eb = NFPZ / 60 A
= 1500 x 0.4 x 4 x 1000 x 10-3 / 60 x 4
= 60/6 = 10 volts

Q.46 The synchronous reactance of the synchronous machine is ______________.
(A) Ratio between open circuit voltage and short circuit current at constant field current
(B) Ratio between short circuit voltage and open circuit current at constant field current
(C) Ratio between open circuit voltage and short circuit current at different field current
(D) Ratio between short circuit voltage and open circuit current at different field current
Ans. A
The Synchronous reactance of a synchronous machine is a total steady state reactance,
presented to applied voltage, when rotor is running synchronously without excitation.
Therefore , XS = Ef / IS
= Emf of OC for same If / short circuit current

Q.47 A 3 stack stepper motor with 12 numbers of rotor teeth has a step angle of____________.
(A) 12°
(B) 8°
(C) 24°
(D) 10°
Ans. D
Given m = 3, Nr = 12
Step angle = 360 / m x Nr = 360 /3 x 12 = 10°

Q.48 In case of a universal motor, torque pulsation is minimized by _________.
(A) load inertia
(B) rotor inertia
(C) both rotor and load inertia
(D) none of the above
Ans: C

In a universal motor, torque pulsation is minimized by rotor and load inertia.
Q.49 Oil-filled cable has a working stress of __________ kV/mm
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 15
Ans: D
This is defined by dielectric strength of mineral oil i.e. 15 kV/mm.

Q.50 Inverse definite minimum time lag relay is also called ___________
(A) pilot relay.
(B) differential relay.
(C) over current relay.
(D) directional overcurrent relay.
Ans: B
Inverse definite minimum time lag relay characteristic is inverse but minimum time is
fixed. The operating time is inversely proportional to the magnitude of actuating
quantity.

Q.51 Specific heat of nickel –chrome is _____________
(A) 0.112
(B) 0.106.
(C) 0.108.
(D) 0.110.
Ans: None of these
Specific heat of Nickel-Chrome is 440 J/kg°C to 450 J/kg°C

Q.52 The polarity test is not necessary for the single-phase transformer shown in Fig. 1
so as to correctly determine _____________of the transformer.figure
(A) shunt branch parameters.
(B) transformation ratio.
(C) series parameters.
(D) any of the above characteristics.
Ans: D
Polarity test is required for parallel operation of transformers to know the direction of
current flow in secondary circuit w.r.t primary circuit.

Q.53 The short-circuit ratio of a typical synchronous machine is obtained from the OCC
and SCC curves of Fig.2 as

As shown in SCC curve the ratio of two field currents
Q.54 The speed-torque characteristics of a DC series motor are approximately similar to
those of the _________motor.
(A) universal
(B) synchronous
(C) DC shunt
(D) two-phase
Ans: A
Universal motor has same characteristics as DC series motor and also known as an a.c
series motor.

Q. 55 The rotor frequency for a 3 phase 1000 RPM 6 pole induction motor with a slip of
0.04 is________Hz
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 2
Ans: D
Given: N=1000 rpm ; P= 6; s= 0.04;
and f = NP/ 120
= 10006/120
= 50 Hz
Rotor frequency fr=sf = 0.0450
= 2.0 Hz

Q.56 The torque-speed characteristics of an a.c. operated universal motor has a
______characteristic and it______ be started under no-load condition.
(A) inverse, can
(B) nearly inverse, can
(C) inverse, cannot
(D) nearly inverse, cannot
Ans: C
If torque is zero then speed may exceed up to infinite, that is dangerous for machine
and machine can be damaged.
N  1/ T

Q.57 In the heating process of the ________type a simple method of temperature control is
possible by means of a special alloy which loses its magnetic properties at a particular
high temperature and regains them when cooled to a temperature below this value.
(A) Indirect induction over
(B) core type induction furnace
(C) coreless induction furnace
(D) high frequency eddy current
Ans: D
Magnetic property of alloy changes with change of the temperature and
Heat is produced due to eddy current = i2R and i  f2

Q.58 In order to reduce the harmful effects of harmonics on the A.C. side of a high voltage
D.C. transmission system ______are provided.
(A) synchronous condensers
(B) shunt capacitors
(C) shunt filters
(D) static compensators
Ans: C
Xc= 1/?c
Q.59 An a.c. tachometer is just a ________with one phase excited from the carrier
frequency.
(A) two-phase A.C. servomotor
(B) two-phase induction motor
(C) A.C. operated universal motor
(D) hybrid stepper motor.
Ans: D
This is a special purpose machine whose stator coil can be energized by electronically
switched current.
Q.60 The torque, in a _____________is proportional to the square of the armature current
(A) DC shunt motor
(B) stepper motor
(C) 2-phase servomotor
(D) DC series motor
Ans: D
Ta  .Ia and   Ia ; therefore Ta  Ia2

Q.61 The synchronous speed for a 3 phase 6-pole induction motor is 1200 rpm. If the
number of poles is now reduced to 4 with the frequency remaining constant, the rotor
speed with a slip of 5% will be _________.
(A) 1690 rpm
(B) 1750 rpm
(C) 1500 rpm
(D) 1710 rpm
Ans: D
Given : Ns1 =1200 , P1= 6,
P2 = 4, s = 0.05,
Frequency f = NsP/120
= 1206/120 = 60 Hz
rotor frequency f/ = s.f = 0.05 60 = 3.0 Hz
Now, Ns2 = 120 60 /4 = 1800 and Ns – N = 120 f / P2
Therefore, N=Ns- 120 f / P2 = 1800-1200.0560/4 = 1800-90 = 1710

Q.62 The eddy current loss in an a-c electric motor is 100 watts at 50 Hz. Its loss at 100
Hz will be
(A) 25 watts
(B) 59 watts
(C) 100 watts
(D) 400 watts
Ans: D
Eddy current losses  f2
New loss  (2f)2
New loss  4f2
\ 4 times

Q.63 The maximum power for a given excitation in a synchronous motor is developed
when the power angle is equal to
(A) 0o
(B) 45o
(C) 60o
(D) 90o
Ans: A
P = VI cosF
Pmax = VI
\F = 00
Q. 64 A commutator in a d.c. machine
(A) Reduces power loss in armature.
(B) Reduces power loss in field circuit.
(C) Converts the induced a.c armature voltage into direct voltage.
(D) Is not necessary.
Ans: C
As name suggests, it commutes ac into dc.

Q.65 The speed of a d.c. shunt motor at no-load is
(A) 5 to 10%
(B) 15 to 20%
(C) 25 to 30% (
D) 35 to 40%
higher than its speed at rated load.
Ans: A
Ta  F Ia ,, F = constant,
\T  Ia
N  Eb / F or N  Eb initially Eb less , so speed is less.

Q.66 The efficiency of a transformer is mainly dependent on
(A) core losses.
(B) copper losses.
(C) stray losses.
(D) dielectric losses.
Ans: A
Core loss has prominent value over other losses

Q.67 When two transformers are operating in parallel, they will share the load as under:
(A) proportional to their impedances.
(B) inversely proportional to their impedances.
(C) 50% – 50%
(D) 25%-75%
Ans: A
High rating transformer has higher impedance.
kVA rating  Impedance of transformer

Q.68 If the voltage is reduced to half, the torque developed by an induction motor will be
reduced to
(A)41of original torque.
(B)21of original torque.
(C)81of original torque.
(D)161of original torque.
Ans: B
Tg  V or Tg  Pm (rotor gross output)

Q.69 A 3-phase, 400 votts, 50 Hz, 100 KW, 4 pole squirrel cage induction motor with a
rated slip of 2% will have a rotor speed of
(A) 1500 rpm
(B) 1470 rpm
(C) 1530 rpm
(D) 1570 rpm
Ans: B
N = NS (1-S) and NS =120 f / p
=120 x 50 /4 = 1500 rpm
\N= 1500 (1-0.02) =1470 rpm
Q.70 If the phase angle of the voltage coil of a directional relay is o
50 , the maximumtorque angle of the relay is

Ans: C
Torque  Power
Power  Voltage
Therefore, It has same angle as ‘V’ has

Q.71 The voltage at the two ends of a transmission line are 132 KV and its reactance is
40 ohm. The Capacity of the line is
(A) 435.6 MW
(B) 217.8 MW
(C) 251.5 MW
(D) 500 MW
Ans: A
Line capacity is determined by power of line
P = (V2/R) or (V2/Z) when cos F =1

Q.72 A 220/440 V, 50 Hz, 5 KVA, single phase transformer operates on 220V, 40Hz
supply with secondary winding open circuited. Then
(A) Both eddy current and hysteresis losses decreases.
(B) Both eddy current and hysteresis losses increases.
(C) Eddy current loss remains the same but hysteresis loss increases.
(D) Eddy current loss increases but hysteresis loss remains the same.
Ans: A
Wh = khfBm
1.6 and We = kef2Bm
2.k
Therefore, hysteresis and eddy current losses will be decreased when frequency
decreases.

Q.73 A synchronous motor is operating on no-load at unity power factor. If the field
current is increased, power factor will become
(A) Leading & current will decrease
(B) Lagging & current will increase.
(C) Lagging & current will decrease.
(D) Leading & current will increase.
Ans: A
Initially synchronous motor is operating at no load and unity power factor. When
field current increases, the excitation will increase. Therefore, p.f will be leading and
current will be I CosF < I

Q.74 A d.c. shunt motor runs at no load speed of 1140 r.p.m. At full load, armature reaction weakens the main flux by 5% whereas the armature circuit voltage drops by 10%. The
motor full load speed in r.p.m. is
(A) 1080
(B) 1203
(C) 1000
(D) 1200
Ans: A
N2 / N1 =Eb2 /Eb1 x F1 / F2 ; F2 = 0.95F1 ; Eb2 = 0.9Eb1
\ N2 /1140 = 0.9 x 1/0.95
N2 = 1080

Q.75 The introduction of interpoles in between the main pole improves the performance ofd.c. machines, because
(A) The interpole produces additional flux to augment the developed torque.
(B) The flux waveform is improved with reduction in harmonics.
(C) The inequality of air flux on the top and bottom halves of armature isremoved.
(D) A counter e.m.f. is induced in the coil undergoing commutation.
Ans: D
Counter e.m.f is produced, it neutralizes the reactive emf.

Q.76 The rotor power output of a 3-phase induction motor is 15 KW and corresponding slipis 4%. The rotor copper loss will be
(A) 600 W.
(B) 625 W
(C) 650 W
(D) 700 W

Ans: B
Rotor copper losses = rotor input- rotor output
and output = (1-s) input
\ Input = output/(1-s) = 15000 /1-0.04 = 15625
\ loss = 15625 -1500 = 625 watt
Q.77 The direction of rotation of hysteresis motor is reversed by
(A) Shift shaded pole with respect to main pole
(B) Reversing supply lead
(C) Either A or B
(D) Neither A nor B
Ans: A
This motor used single phase, 50Hz supply and stator has two windings. These areconnected continuously from starting to running.

Q.78 A 1.8°step, 4-phase stepper motor has a total of 40 teeth on 8 pole of stator. Thenumber of rotor teeth for their rotor will be
(A) 40
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 80
Ans: B
Step angle ‘’ = NS – Nr / NS Nr x 3600
\ 1-8 = -40 + Nr/40 Nr x 3600
Nr = 50

Q.79 Low head plants generally use
(A) Pelton Turbines
(B) Francis Turbine
(C) Pelton or Francis Turbine
(D) Kaplan Turbines
Ans: A
In the hysterisis motor, the direction of rotation can be reversed by shifting theshaded pole region with respect to main pole. But not by changing supply lead
because it has ac supply.

Q.80 The charging reactance of 50 Km length of line is 1500. The charging reactance for100Km length of line will be
(A) 1500 
(B) 3000 
(C) 750 
(D) 600 
Ans: B
Characteristic reactance per km = 1500/50 = 30 ohms
\ Characteristic reactance per 100km = 30 x 100 = 3000 ohms

Q.81 Electric ovens using heating elements of _______________ can produce temperatureupto 3000°C.
(A) Nickel
(B) Graphite
(C) Chromium
(D) Iron
Ans: C
Chromium has high melting point.

Q.82 In DC generators, armature reaction is produced actually by
(A) Its field current.
(B) Armature conductors.
(C) Field pole winding.
(D) Load current in armature.
Ans: D
Because load current in armature gives rise to armature mmf which react with
main field mmf.

Q.83 Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their
(A) Rating.
(B) Leakage reactance.
(C) Efficiency.
(D) Per-unit impedance.
Ans: A
Transformers having higher kVA rating will share more load.

Q.84 As compared to shunt and compound DC motors, the series DC motor will have thehighest torque because of its comparatively ____________ at the start.
(A) Lower armature resistance.
(B) Stronger series field.
(C) Fewer series turns.
(D) Larger armature current.
Ans: D
T  F Ia
(before saturation)
F  Ia
T  Ia
2
Q.85 A 400kW, 3-phase, 440V, 50Hz induction motor has a speed of 950 r.p.m. on fullload.The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the machine will be _______________.
(A) 0.06
(B) 0.10
(C) 0.04
(D) 0.05

Ans: D
N = Ns (1-S)
950 = 120 x 50 (1-S)/6
S = 0.05

Q.86 Reduction in the capacitance of a capacitor-start motor, results in reduced
(A) Noise.
(B) Speed.
(C) Starting torque.
(D) Armature reaction.
Ans: C
Reduction in the capacitance reduces starting voltage, which results in reducedstarting torque.

Q.87 Regenerative braking
(A) Can be used for stopping a motor.
(B) Cannot be easily applied to DC series motors.
(C) Can be easily applied to DC shunt motors
(D) Cannot be used when motor load has overhauling characteristics.
Ans: B
Because reversal of Ia would also mean reversal of field and hence of Eb

Q.88 At present level of technology, which of the following method of generating electric power from sea is most advantageous?
(A) Tidal power.
(B) Ocean thermal energy conversion
(C) Ocean currents.
(D) Wave power.
Ans: A
At present level of technology, tidal power for generating electric power from seais most advantageous because of constant availability of tidal power.

Q.89 If the field circuits of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor gets suddenly opencircuited, then
(A) The motor stops.
(B) It continues to run at the same speed.
(C) Its runs at the slower speed.
(D) It runs at a very high speed.
Ans: B
The motor continues to run at the same speed because synchronous motor speeddoes not depend upon load, Na f.
Q.90 Electric resistance seam welding uses __________ electrodes.
(A) Pointed
(B) Disc.
(C) Flat
(D) Domed
Ans: B
Disc type electrodes are used for electric resistance seam welding.

Q.91 For LV applications (below 1 kV), ______________ cables are used.
(A) Paper insulated.
(B) Plastic.
(C) Single core cables.
(D) Oil filled.
Ans: C
For low voltage applications single core cables are suitable.

Q.92 No load current in a transformer:
(A) lags the applied voltage by 90°
(B) lags the applied voltage by somewhat less than 90°
(C) leads the applied voltage by 90°
(D) leads the applied voltage by somewhat less than 90°
Ans: B
The primary input current under no load conditions has to supply (i) iron losses inthe core i.e hysteresis loss and eddy current loss (ii) a very small amount of Cu loss
in the primary (there being no Cu loss in secondary as it is open)

Q.93 A transformer operates most efficiently at 3/4th full load. Its iron (PI) and copperloss (PCu) are related as:
(A) =16 9 I Cu P P
(B) = 4 3 I Cu P P
(C) = 3 4 I Cu P P
(D) = 9 16 I Cu P P
Ans: D
If PCu is the Cu loss at full load, its value at 75% of full load isPCu x(0.75)2 = 9/16 PCu
At maximum efficiency, it equals the iron loss PI which remains constant through
out. Hence max. efficiency at

PI = 9/16 PCu
Or PI / PCu = 9/16

Q.94 In a salient pole synchronous machine (usual symbols are used):
(A) xq > xd
(B) xq = xd
(C) xq < xd
(D) xq = 0
Ans: C
Since reluctance on the q axis is higher, owing to the larger air gap,
hence xq < xd

Q.95 The armature of a dc machine is laminated to reduce:
(A) Eddy current loss
(B) Hysteresis loss
(C) copper losses
(D) friction and windage losses
Ans: A
Thinner the laminations, greater is the resistance offered to the induced e.m.f.smaller the current and hence lesser the I2R loss in the core.

Q.96 The resistance representing mechanical output in the equivalent circuit of aninduction motor as seen from the stator is:Mechanical Power developed by the rotor (Pm) or gross power developed by rotor
(Pg)
= rotor input –rotor Cu losses
= (3I/2 R2
/ / S) -(3I/2 R2
/ )
= 3I/2 R2
/ (1/ S -1)

Q.97 A single phase Hysteresis motor
(A) can run at synchronous speed only
(B) can run at sub synchronous speed only
(C) can run at synchronous and super synchronous speed
(D) can run at synchronous and sub synchronous speed
Ans: A
The rotor revolves synchronously because the rotor poles magnetically lock up with the revolving stator poles of opposite polarity

Q. 98 The temperature of resistance furnaces can be controlled by changing the:
(A) applied voltage
(B) number of heating elements
(C) circuit configuration
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
Temperature of resistance furnaces can be controlled by changing either appliedvoltage or by number of heating elements or by circuit configuration.

Q.99 The line trap unit employed in carrier current relaying:
(A) offers high impedance to 50 Hz power frequency signal
(B) offers high impedance to carrier frequency signal
(C) offers low impedance to carrier frequency signal
(D) Both (A) & (C)
Ans: B
The line trap unit employed in carrier current relaying offers high impedance tocarrier frequency signal.
Because carrier frequency range is 35 km – 500 kHz
XL = 2 f l
Where f increases XL will also increases

Q.100 For a line voltage V and regulation of a transmission line R
(A) R µ V
(B)VR µ 1
(C) 2 R µ V
(D) 2 VR µ 1
Ans: B
R  1/V
Regulation = (V0 – VL ) / V0 , if VL is high the (V0 – VL ) will be low.
Therefore R  1/

RBI Previous years Solved Question Paper of Test – II: English

Directions (Q. 1-5):Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
1.The government is planning to set ….. family welfare centres for slums in cities.

1) another
2) with
3) for
4) in
5) up-Answer

2. Economic independence and education have women more assertive.

1) prepared
2) made -Answer
3) marked
4) resulted
5) adjusted

3.In the modern world, the ……… of change and scientific innovation is unusuallyrapid.

1) supplies
2) context
3) pace-Answer
4) fantasy
5) requirement

4.The unprecedented economic growth of china has ……… world wide attention.

1) perceived
2) proposed
3) neither
4) astonished
5) attracted-Answer

5.Each business activity ……….. employment to people who would otherwise be unemployed.

1) taking
2) finds
3) creates
4) provides -Answer
5) given

Directions (Q. 6-10):
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate while answering some of the questions.
The importance of communication skills cannot be underestimated, especially so,in the teaching – learning process. Teaching is generally considered as only fifty percent knowledge and fifty percent interpersonal or communication skills. For a teacher, it is not just important to give a lecture rich in content that provides abundant information about the subject or topic in question, but a successful teacher develops an affinity with, an understanding of, and a harmonious interrelationship with her pupils. Building rapport becomes her primary task in the classroom. But what exactly is rapport? Rapport is a sympathetic relationship or understanding that allows you to look at the world from someone else’s perspective. Making other people feel that you understand them creates a strong bond. Building rapport is the first step to better communication – the primary goal of all true ducators. Communication skills for teachers are thus as important as their in-depth knowledge of the particular subject which they teach. To a surprising degree , how one communicates determines one’s effectiveness as a teacher. A study on communication styles suggests that 7% of communication takes place through words, 38% through voice intonation and 55% through body language. Much of teaching is about sending and receiving messages. The process of communication is composed of three elements : the source (sender, speaker, transmitter or instructor), the symbol used in composing and transmitting of the message (words or signs), and the receiver (listener, reader or student). The three elements are dynamically interrelated since each element is dependent on the others for effective communication to take place. Effective communication is all about conveying your message to the other people clearly and unambiguously. It’s also about receiving information the others are sending to you,with as little distortion as possible. Doing this involves effort from both the sender and the receiver. And it’s a process that can be fraught with error, with messages muddled by the sender, or misinterpreted by the reciepent. When this isn’t detected it can cause tremendous confusion, wasted effort and missed opportunity.

Good communication skills are a prerequisite for those in the teaching profession. Carefully planned and skillfully delivered messages can issue invitations to students that school is a place to share ideas, investigate and collaborate with others. Effective communication is essential for a wellrun classroom. A teacher who is able to communicate well with students can inspire them to learn and participate in class and encourage them to come forth with their views, thus creating a proper rapport. Although this sounds simple and obvious, it requires much more than a teacher saying something out loud to a student. They must also realise that all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

Directions (Q. 6-7):Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
6. Abundant

1) Small
2) Little -Answer
3) False
4) Sufficient
5) Rare

7. Muddled

1) Skillfully organised
2) Strongly controlled
3) Clearly conveyed -Answer
4) Isolated
5) Complicated

Directions (Q. 8-10):Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

8. Sounds

1) Seems -Answer
2) Corrects
3) Noises
4) Takes
5) Silences.

9. Affinity

1) Partnership
2) Partiality
3) Weakness
4) Compatibility-Answer
5) Discord

10. Degree

1) Extent -Answer
2) Goal
3) Affect
4) Situation
5) Direction

11.Which of the following is/are essential for effective communication?

(A) Conveying the message clearly
(B) Not to waste effort and opportunity
(C) Receiving the information with as little distortion as possible.
1) Only (A) and (C)-Answer
2) Only (B)
3) Only (A)
4) Only (C)
5) Only (B) and (C)

12.Which of the following is true about ‘rapport’ as per the passage?

(A) It is a sympathetic relationship.
(B) It is based on understanding of other people’s frame of reference.
(C) It helps in creating a strong bond.
(D) It is important for teachers to build rapport with students.
1) Only (A) and (B)
2) Only (B) and (D)
3) Only (A), (B) and (D)
4) Only (A), (B) and (C)
5) All are true-Answer

13.Which of the following must the teachers keep in mind to facilitate learning in student as per the passage?

1) To control the students such that they do not share ideas with others within thelecture hours.
2) To maintain rapport with students and compromise on the course content.
3) To realise hat all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.-Answer
4) Only to keep the lecture rich in course content.
5) To ensure that students adhere to her views only.

14.Which of the following are the three elements of communication as per the passage?

1) Source, Signs and Students-Answer
2) Source, Sender and Speaker
3) Signs, Words and Students
4) Instructor, Listener and Reader
5) Transmitter, Students and Receiver

15.Which of the following is the finding of the study on communication styles?
1) The body language and gestures account for 38% of communication and outweighs the voice intonation.
2) Only 9% communication is about content whereas the rest is about our tone and body language.
3) The tone of our voice accounts for 55% of what we communicate and outweighsthe body language.
4) More than 90% of our communication is not about content but about our toneand body language.-Answer
5) Teaching is fifty percent knowledge and fifty per cent interpersonal forcommunication skills.

Directions (Q. 16-):
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence.The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (5). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

16.The economic disparity1)/ has grown rapid in 2)-Answer/ the era of globalisation 3)/ and free market forces4/ No error) 5)

17.Research shows that people1/ is more sensitive to perceiving 2-Answer/ messages that areconsistent-3/ with their opinions and attitudes.4 / No error-5

18.Many poverty alleviation schemes1/ are not applicable of-2-Answer/ slum dwellers inmetro cities-3/ as they are above the poverty line-4/ No error-5

19.Rather than considering its-1/ human capital as a drain on-2/ resources, India needsto-3/ resource develop its into a huge opportunity.-4-Answer/ No error-5

20.The European nations have 1/ become one of the 2/ favourite destinations of the Indian students-3/ seek specialised Knowledge and training.-4-Answer/ No error-5

21.If a credit card bill-1/ is paid in full and-2 / on time, none finance-3-Answer/ charges are levied.-4/ No error-5

22.Training have a1 / positive effect on-2 / development of various-3/ skills and abilities.-4 / No error-5-Answer

23.Lack of ability to -1/ read or write is just one of -2/ the all barriers that keep-3-Answer/ the poor people under developed.-4 / No error-5

24.Science and technology have-1/ become dominant factors-2/ affecting our economic, cultural-3/ and spiritual development.-4/ No error-5-Answer

25.A social business sells products-1/ at prices that make it Self- sustaining, pays -2/no dividends and reinvestment-3 -Answer/ the profits in the business-4./ No error-5

Directions (Q.26-):In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank
appropriately.Find out the appropriate word in each case.

26 The latest technology (26) put to use or about to arrive in market must be (27) to all entrepreneurs. The reason is that it may have an (28) effect on business. Valve radio’s gave way to transistor radios and with micro chips, technology is giving way to digital equipment. Business has (29) the same but the technology has kept changing.A notable feature is that the size of the receivers decreased (30) so did the use of its material and onsequently its price. The traditional flour mills are losing business(31) customers now buy flour (32) from the market. As a result of this, the business is (33) Following the same lines as technology, the social trends also go on changing and influence the market. The Indian sarees are being taken (34) by readymade stitched clothes. Every entrepreneur must note such changes in the environment and also the technology and plan in (35) with these to ensure the success of his endeavour.

26) to
2) needed
3) decided
4) besides
5) being-Answer

27.
1) hoped
2) welcome
3) released
4) Known -Answer
5) aware

28.
1) approximate
2) huge
3) uniform
4) excellence
5) enormous-Answer

29.
1) maintained
2) remained -Answer
3) often
4) mentioned
5) become

30.
1) mainly
2) and -Answer
3) how
4) also
5) some

31.
1) reason
2) due
3) young
4) as -Answer
5) old

32.
1) knowingly
2) ease
3) cheap
4) directly -Answer
5) forcefully

33.
1) shrinking -Answer
2) blooming
3) returned
4) same
5) small

34.
1) against
2) to
3) over-Answer
4) up
5) for

35.
1) lines
2) relativity
3) accordance-Answer
4) proper
5) toning

Directions (Q. 36-40):
Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph,and then answer the questions given below.
(A) Understandably, the newly married woman herself wants to spend more time with the family.
(B) They also worry that she might not be able to defend herself in case of trouble.
(C) Once married, the in-law exert a lot of pressure for similar cause of security.
(D) Initially, the family does not want the “decent” girl going all around.
(E) Retaining female workers at door-to-door sales jobs is just as hard as ever.

36.Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) E
2) B
3) D-Answer
4) C
5) A

37.Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) C -Answer
3) D
4) B
5) E

38.Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) D
2) B
3) C
4) E -Answer
5) A

39. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) C
2) A
3) E
4) D
5) B-Answer

40.Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence afterrearrangement?
1) B
2) D
3) C
4) A -Answer
5) E

RBI General Awareness Questions

RBI Grade B Exam Paper for Year 2010. This section is General Awareness.
Part I : General Awareness :
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.-Answer

2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.-Answer

3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five-Answer
(c) Six
(d) Four

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy-Answer
(d) polity.

5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.-Answer
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.-Answer

7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus-Answer
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny

8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.-Answer
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.

9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.-Answer
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.-Answer
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.

11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.-Answer

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP-Answer
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income

13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.-Answer
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.

14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.-Answer
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.

15. The famous slogan “GARIBI HATAO” (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)-Answer
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)

16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.-Answer
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.

17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.-Answer

18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin-Answer
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall

19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.-Answer
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.

20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide-Answer
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.

21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.-Answer
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.

22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation-Answer
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis

23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green-Answer
(c) Orange
(d) Red

24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.-Answer
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.

25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini-Answer

26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching-Answer
(d) Amplitude Modulation.

27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta-Answer
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar

28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria-Answer

29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite-Answer

30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US-Answer
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK

31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet-Answer
(d) Finance Ministry

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) ” all other things variable ”
(b) “other things increasing”
(c) “other things being equal”-Answer
(d) “all other things decreasing”

33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar-Answer
(d) Shabana Azmi

34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.-Answer
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.

35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.-Answer
(d) the India Telecommunication System.

36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.-Answer

37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission-Answer
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India

38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit-Answer
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit

39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.-Answer
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.

40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.-Answer
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.

41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual-Answer

42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision-Answer
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing

43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.-Answer
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.

44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km-Answer
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km

45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh-Answer
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.

46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.-Answer
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.

47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas-Answer

48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown-Answer.

49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.-Answer
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.

50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla-Answer
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon

RBI General-Awareness
RBI General Awareness Placement Paper

1. USA has asked India to reduce its dependence on crude oil supply from which of the following countries which is also a member of the OPEC ?
(1) Venezuela
(2) Iraq
(3) Libya
(4) Iran
(5) Nigeria

2. Which of the following is the most essential financial service which should be provided to the poor people to bring them in the network of financial inclusion ?
(1) Insurance for life
(2) Investment plan for future
(3) Pension for old age
(4) A bank account where he/she can save small amount
(5) Health insurance for minor illnesses and hospitalization in case of need

3. Who among the following is the President of a country at present?
(1) Rupert Murdoch
(2) Ban ki-moon
(3) YoshihikoNoda
(4) Nicolas Sarkozy
(5) None of these

4. What does the letter F denote in NBFCs’ a term, seen very frequently in Banking world these days ?
(1) Formal
(2) Fiscal
(3) Federal
(4) Functional
(5) Financial

5. Who among the following is a Deputy Governor of the RBI at present ?
(1) Sri Sunll Mitra
(2) Sri Azim Premji
(3) Sri H. R. Khan
(4) Mrs. Sushma Nath
(5) None of these

6. Standard and Poor’s is a. Credit Rating Agency of international repute. Which of the following is one such agency of Indian origin?
(1) IBA
(2) BASEL
(3) SEBI
(4) IRDA
(5) CRISIL

7. Who among the following is the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh at present ?
(1) AkhileshYadav
(2) Mulayam Singh Yadav
(3) Mayawati
(4) Amar Singh
(5) None of these

8. Coin of which of the following denominations is called Small Coin?
(1) Re 1
(2) Re 2 ;
(3) Re 5
(4) 50 paisa
(5) Rs 10

9. Which of the following is NOT a Highlight of the Union Budget 2012-13?
(1) No change in rate of Corporate Tax
(2) All types of loans upto ?35 lacs will be given on 6% interest only
(3) Service Tax raised from. 10% to 12%
(4) Fiscal Deficit is targeted at 5.1% of GDP
(5) Substantial increase in De^ fence Budget

10. Which of the following services/ products of banks is specially designed and launched to help students ?
(1) Personal loan
(2) Corporate loan
(3) Business loan
(4) Medical loan
(5) Education loan

11. Which of the following terms is NOT directly associated with the functioning of RBI ?
(1) Open Market Operations
(2) Cash Reserve Ratio
(3) SENSEX
(4) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(5) Public Debt Office .

12. Which of the following is one of the major activities of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARDI ?
(1) On-site inspection of Cooperative Banks and Regional Ru ral Banks (RRBs)
(2) Helping Government of India in preparing Union Budget and presetning it in the Cabinet Meeting
(3) Acting as custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country
(4) Deciding rate of interest on Saving Bank Accounts in Pub-lich Sector Banks
(5) Representing India in World Bank and other such agencies

13. DipLka who won CrocodiLe ChaLLenge Cup FinaLs, pLayed in December 2011. is a famous
(1) Badmintor pLayer
(2) TabLe Tennis pLayer
(3) Lawn Tennis pLayer
(4) Chess pLayer
(5) Squash pLayer

14. Who among the foLLowing Is the recipient of NobeL Prize In Literature given in 2011 ?
(1) Bruce A BeutLer
(2) V.S. NaipuaL
(3) Tomas Transtromer
(4) RaLph M. Steinman
(5) Chetan Bhagat
(4) NucLear Reactors
(5) Submarines

15. ‘SeycheLLes’, where China is going to set up its new military base, is a country In………
(1) Bay of BengaL
(2) China Sea
(3) Indian Ocean
(4) Red Sea
(5) Caspian Sea

16. Which of the foLLowing terms is used in the fieLd of economics ?
(1) AbsoLute Zero
(2) MoLecuLar Equation
(3) Zero Point Energy
(4) BaLance of Payment
(5) Mass Defect

17. “Kyoto ProtocoL”, an agreement signed by various countries, is associated with the fieLd of……..
(1) InternationaL trade
(2) CLean environment and cLimate change
(3) Currency swap
(4) Deep sea mining and oiL expLoration
(5) BuiLding a common food stock to save mankind in case of any naturaL caLamity

18. WorLd’s AIDS Day is observed on which of the foLLowing days?
(1) 1st December
(2) 1st March
(3) 1st ApriL
(4) 1st May
(5) 1st January

19. USA withdrew its army from which of the foLLowing countries after a 9 year’s Long stay of the same there ?
(1) Syria
(2) Ubya
(3) Egypt
(4) Iraq
(5) Iran

20. Which of the foLLowing Cups/Trophies Is associated with the game of Laws Tennis ?
(1) FIFA Cup
(2) Champions Trophy
(3)Ranji Trophy
(4) SubratoCup
(5) Davis Cup

21. Which award Is given to the coaches of Sports persons ?
(1) Dronacharya Award
(2) Arj una Award
(3) KaLLdasSamman
(4) Rajiv Gandhi KheLratna
(5) Saraswati Samman

22. Which of the foLLowing terms is used in the game of Cricket?
(1) Heave
(2) Sily Point
(3) Tee
(4) Smash
(5) Grand slam

23. A new NucLear Power PLant is being set up In.which of the foLLowing pLaces in India ?
(1) Amethi
(2) Firozabad
(3) Jaitapur
(4) Joshi Math
(5) Satna

24. Which of the following schemes is launched to make cities in India slum-free ?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(2) Bharat Nirman
(3) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(4) Indira Awas Yojana
(5) None of these

25. Who among the following is a famous author of Indian origin?
(1) Hormi K. Bhabha
(2) Kiran Desai
(3) Swati A. Piramal
(4) Shabana Azmi
(5) Ronen Sen1

26. Who among the following has written the famous book “Malgudi Days” ?
(1) V.S. Nalpaul
(2) Deepak Chopra
(3) Rabin dranath Tagore
(4) Vijay Tendulkar
(5) R.K. Narayan

27. Which of the following is NOT the name of the currency of a country?
(1) Rand
(2) Pound
(3) Dinar
(4) Ecuador
(5) Dollar

28. Which of the following is the Unit of heat?”
(1) Joule
(2) Ohm
(3) Ampere
(4) Volt
(5) Newton
RBI Question Paper
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TEST III

General Scio-Economic & Banking Awareness

1. Trade Ministers of Key WTO member countries including India held a meeting at Davos in Switzerland on January 29, 2011. Which one of the following was the purpose of this meeting ?

(1) Negotiations for free trade

(2) Negotiations to abolish Restrictive Trade Practices

(3) Issues relating to agricultural subsidies

(4) Negotiations for a global trade deal (Ans)

(5) To include Pakistan and Iraq as members
2. Which one of the following advices has/have been given by leading Economists to Finance Minister during their pre-budget meeting with him?

(A) To take measures to boost farm productivity only.

(B) To improve supply of agricultural products only.

(C) To reduce the fiscal deficit only,
(1) Only (A) (Ans)

(2) Only (B)

(3) Only (C)

(4) All (A), (B) & (C)

(5) Only (A) & (B)
3. As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries has signed highest number of deals to get global project finance?

(1) Australia

(2) USA

(3) Saudi Arabia

(4) Spain

(5) India (Ans)
4. Which of the following terms is used in Banking Field?

(1) Interest Rate Swap (Ans)

(2) Input Devices

(3) Sedimentary

(4) Zero Hour

(5) Privilege Motion
5. To which of the following States has the Asian Development Bank given a loan of $ 90 m for development of Power projects?

(1) Himachal Pradesh

(2) West Bengal

(3) Tripura

(4) Arunachal Pradesh

(5) Asom (Ans)
6. On which one of the following issues can SEBI penalize any company in India?

(A) Violation of Banking Regulation Act.

(B) Violation of foreign portfolio investment guidelines.

(C) For violation of Negotiable Instrument Act.
(1) Only (A)

(2) All (A), (B) & (C)

(3) Only (A) & (B)

(4) Only (B) & (C) (Ans)

(5) Only (B)
7. In the opinion of the Governor of Reserve Bank of India, which one of the following is the reason owing to which India’s inflation is accelerating ?

(1) Excess liquidity in market

(2) Speculation in essential goods

(3) Higher food cost (Ans)

(4) Commodities futures

(5) None of the above
8. In opinion of the RBI, Which one of the following is/ are a threat to the smooth functioning of Indian Companies?

(A) Rising input costs.

(B) High interest rates.

(C) Inflation only.

(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (B)

(3) Only (A) & (B) (Ans)

(4) Only (C)

(5) All (A), (B) & (C)

9. For which one of the following reasons Government of India has decided to waive off up front payment of ?. 1400 to be made by each customer located in rural areas to get LPG connection?

(A) To help villagers to use LPG in place of firewood/ kerosene.

(B) To help villagers to save kerosene for agricultural activities.

(C) To lure villagers to use LPG which is of substandard quality and not fit for industrial use.

(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (B)

(3) Only (C)

(4) Only (A) & (B) (Ans)

(5) Only (B) & (C)
10. Expand the term ALM as used in Banking/Finance sector?

(1) Asset Liability Mismatch

(2) Asset Liability Maturity

(3) Asset Liability Management (Ans)

(4) Asset Liability Manpower

(5) None of the above
11. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Half a Life’?

(1) Mark Tully

(2) Deepak Chopra

(3) Chetan Bhagat

(4) Ved Mehta

(5) V.S. Naipaul (Ans)

12. In which one of the following states, village level marketing platform has been set up for the first time in the country?

(1) Haryana

(2) Maharashtra

(3) Gujarat (Ans)

(4) Bihar

(5) Kerala
13. The RBI has asked banks to spell out their policy, procedures arid size of the business on which of the following aspects of banking?

(1) On-shore banking

(2) Off-shore banking (Ans)

(3) Investments in secondary market

(4) Wealth management

(5) None of the above

14. Which of the following organizations has given a US $ 1.72 billion loan to India to build roads in rural areas?

(1) Asian Development Bank

(2) International Monetary Fund

(3) Bill Gates Foundation USA

(4) World Bank (Ans)

(5) None of the above

15. Which one of the following advices has been given by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee to Chartered Accounts?

(1) They must highlight the credit risks

(2) They must highlight the operational risks

(3) They must bring to the notice of Government tax evasions

(4) They must be vigilant against “window dressing” of companies (Ans)

(5) None of the above

16. Who amongst the following has asked banks to adopt ‘six step’ approach to prevent diversion of funds by the companies?

(1) Company Registrar

(2) SEBI (Ans)

(3) RBI

(4) AMFI

(5) All of these
17. Which one of the following countries has been invited to join BRIC?

(1) Indonesia

(2) Bangladesh

(3) South Africa (Ans)

(4) China

(5) Argentina
18. Who is Nicolas Sarkozy?

(1) French Prime Minister

(2) French President (Ans)

(3) Russian Prime Minister

(4) Russian President

(5) None of the above
19. Through which one of the following sources domestic funds are raised by Companies?

(A) IPO only.

(B) FPO only.

(C) Commercial papers.

(1) Only (C)

(2) All (A), (B) & (C)

(3) Only (A) & (C) (Ans)

(4) Only (A)

(5) Only (A) &(B)
20. Which one of the following was the reason owing to which Govt. wants Reserve Bank of India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs ?

(1) To reduce liquidity in the market (Ans)

(2) It is as per Basel II requirements

(3) It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives

(4) It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown

(5) None of the above
21. According to World Economic Forum, which one of the following risks is the greatest risk faced by the world in the year 2011?

(1) Credit Risk (Ans)

(2) Country Risk

(3) Counter party Risk

(4) Sovereign Default Risk

(5) None of the above
22. Which one of the following decisions has been taken by Govt. in respect of MGNREGA?

(1) The wages should be revised by the State Governments (Ans)

(2) The wages are to be revised by Planning Commission

(3) The District Authorities who allot work can give differential wages

(4) The wages shall be linked to inflation

(5) None of the above
23. What are teaser loan rates charged by banks?

(1) Fixed rate of interest charged by banks

(2) Floating rate of interest charged by banks

(3) Rate of interest in the initial period is less and goes up subsequently (Ans)

(4) Rate of interest in the initial period is more and it goes down subsequently

(5) None of the above
24. On which one of the following subjects Pranab Sen Committee has submitted its recommendations to the Govt. of India?

(1) MGNREGA

(2) Food Security

(3) Inflation

(4) Food Processing Industries

(5) None of the above (Ans)
25. Expand the term CCEA as used in administrative circles.

(1) Cabinet Committee on External Affairs

(2) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (Ans)

(3) Cabinet Council on External Affairs

(4) Cabinet Council on Economic Affairs

(5) None of the above
26. With which one of the following games, Baichung Bhutia is associated?

(1) Hockey

(2) Golf

(3) Kabaddi

(4) Football (Ans)

(5) Tennis

27. What is the full form of the term LIBOR as used in financial/banking sectros?

(1) Local Indian Bank Offered Rate

(2) London-India Bureau of Regulations

(3) Liberal International Bank Official Ratio

(4) London inter Bank Offered Rate (Ans)

(5) None of the above
28. In which one of the following States, Patratu Thermal Power Plant is proposed to be set up?

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Bihar

(3) Jharkhand (Ans)

(4) West Bengal

(5) Kerala
29. On the basis of which of the following reasons, IMF has projected India’s GDP growth at 8.8 percent in 2010-11?

(A) Strong industrial growth.

(B) Strong farm sector growth.

(C) High domestics consumption demand.
(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (B)

(3) Only (C)

(4) Only (A) & (C)

(5) Only (B) & (C) (Ans)

30. Who amongst the following is the ICC Cricketer of the Year?

(1) Sachin Tendulkar (Ans)

(2) Kevin Pietersen

(3) M S Dhoni

(4) Sanath Jayasuriya

(5) None of these

31 Who is Montek Singh Ahfuwalia?

(1) Chairman, Planning Commission

(2) Dy. Chariman, Planning Commission (Ans)

(3) Commerce Secretary, GOI

(4) Economic Advisor to Prime minister

(5) None of the above

32. Who amongst the following is the Prime Minister of Australia at present?

(1) Julia Gillard (Ans)

(2) Kevin Rudd

(3) Dilma Rousseff

(4) Sebastian Vettel

(5) None of the above

33. Expand the term FSDC which is used in finanical sectors?

(1) Finanical Security and Development Council

(2) Financial Stability and Development Council (Ans)

(3) Fiscal Security and Development Council

(4) Fiscal Stability and Development Council

(5) None of the above

34. According to US Department of Agriculture, which one of the following countries in the world is the largest producer of dairy products?

(1) Australia

(2) USA

(3) China

(4) Norway

(5) India (Ans)

35. With wich one of the following games is ‘Tiger Woods’ associated?

(1) Golf (Ans)

(2) Swimming

(3) Tennis

(4) Table Tennis

(5) Badminton

36. Which one of the following is largest producer of power in India?

(1) Reliance Power

(2) Tata Power

(3) National Hydro Power

(4) Adani Power

(5) NTPC (Ans)

37. For which one of the following States, centre has appointed interlocutors?

(1) Himachal Pradesh

(2) J & K (Ans)

(3) Nagaland

(4) Manipur

(5) None of these

38. Expand the term GSLV.

(1) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (Ans)

(2) Global Satellite Launch Vehicle

(3) Geosynchronous Station Launch Vehicle

(4) Global Station Launch Vehicle

(5) None of the above

39. For which one of the followintg reasons Basel II norms are to be followed by Commercial Banks?

(1) Risk management (Ans)

(2) Adoption of international accounting standards

(3) Restriction on bonus payments to bank executives

(4) Transparency in disclosures

(5) None of the above

40. With which one of the following sports, the name of Parupalli Kashyap is associated?

(1) Chess (Ans)

(2) Tennis

(3) Badminton

(4) Athletics

(5) None of these

41. Which of the following terms is used in Cricket?

(1) Centre forward

(2) Goal

(3) Love

(4) LBW (Ans)

(5) Bull’s eye

42. With which one of the following activities, Golden Globe Awards are associated?

(1) Journalism

(2) Social work

(3) Peace initiatives

(4) Films (Ans)

(5) None of these

43 ‘Goodbye Shahzadi’ is a book written by

(1) Shyam Bhatia (Ans)

(2) Ashok Mehta

(3) Janardhan Thakur

(4) Arun Gandhi

(5) None of the these

44. Malayalam writer Akkithom Achyuthan Nambhodiri will be the recipient of which of the following awards?

(1) Jnanpith Award

(2) Pulitzer Prize

(3) Best Asian Author (Ans)

(4) Kalidas Sanman

(5) Arjuna Award

45. With which one of the following sports, Narain Karthikeyen is connected?

(1) F-1 (Ans)

(2) Tennis

(3) Badminton

(4) Table Tennis

(5) Snooker

46. In which one of the following States, Sabari mal temple is located?

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) A.P

(3) Kerala (Ans)

(4) Karnataka

(5) None of these

47. Which one of the following will set up core banking infrastructure for rural banks?

(1) RBI

(2) NABARD (Ans)

(3) SIDBI

(4) IBA

(5) None of these

48 Who is Robert Zoelick?

(1) IMF Chief

(2) World Bank President (Ans)

(3) ADB President

(4) Chief UNIDO

(5) None of the above

49. Justice K. G. Balakrishnan is holding the post of

(1) Chief Justice of India (Ans)

(2) Chairman, National Human Rights Commission

(3) Cabinet Secretary, Govt. of Inida

(4) Revenue Secretary, Govt. of India

(5) None of the above

50. Mehbooba Mufti belongs to which one of the following political parties?

(1) National Conference

(2) POP (Ans)

(3) NCR

(4) Janta Dal

(5) None of these

RBI Reasoning questions with answers for practice

1. Statement: Should all the profit making public sector units be sold to private companies?

Arguments:
Yes. This will help the government to augment its resources for implementing the development programmes.
No. The private companies will not be able to run these units effectively.
Yes. There will be a significant improvement in the quality of services.
No. There would not be job security for the employees at all the levels.
A. Only II and III are strong
B. All are strong
C. Only III and IV are strong
D. Only I, II and III are strong
E. Only II, III and IV are strong
Answer: Option C

Explanation:

The government cannot sell off public sector units just to pool up funds for development. Besides, if it does so, these units shall be handed over to private companies which are fully equipped to run these units effectively. So, neither I nor II holds strong. Privatization shall surely ensure better services, but private companies adopt hire and fire policy and they are free to terminate the services of any employee as and when they wish to. Thus, both III and IV hold strong.

Direction (for Q.No. 2):
In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

2. Statement: The company has decided to increase the price of all its products to tackle the precarious financial position.

Assumptions:
The company may be able to wipe out the entire losses incurred earlier by this decision.
The buyers may continue to buy its products even after the increase.
The company has adequate resources to continue production for few more months.
A. Only I and III are implicit
B. Only II is implicit
C. Only II and III are implicit
D. None is implicit
E. None of these
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

It is mentioned that the company has taken the decision to make up for the financial deficit. So, I is implicit. The response of the buyers to the increased prices cannot be deduced from the statement. So, II is not implicit. Since the company seeks to improve its financial position by increasing the prices of its products, so III is also implicit.
Learn more problems on : Statement and Assumption
Direction (for Q.No. 3):
Translate from an imaginary language into English. Then, look for the word elements that appear both on the list and in the answer choices.

3.
Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
gemolinea means fair warning
gerimitu means report card
gilageri means weather report
Which word could mean “fair weather”?
A. gemogila
B. gerigeme
C. gemomitu
D. gerimita
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Gemo means fair; linea means warning; geri means report;mitumeans card; and gilameans weather. Thus, gemogila is the correct choice.
Learn more problems on : Artificial Language

Direction (for Q.No. 4):
Choose the picture that would go in the empty box so that the two bottom pictures are related in the same way as the top two are related.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Camera is to photograph as teakettle is to a cup of tea. The camera is used to make the photo; the teakettle is used to make the tea.
Direction (for Q.No. 5):
The logic problems in this set present you with three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2, and Fact 3. Then, you are given three more statements (labeled I, II, and III), and you must determine which of these, if any, is also a fact. One or two of the statements could be true; all of the statements could be true; or none of the statements could be true. Choose your answer based solely on the information given in the first three facts.

5. Fact 1: Most stuffed toys are stuffed with beans.
Fact 2: There are stuffed bears and stuffed tigers.
Fact 3: Some chairs are stuffed with beans.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?
I: Only children’s chairs are stuffed with beans.
II: All stuffed tigers are stuffed with beans.
III: Stuffed monkeys are not stuffed with beans.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.
Answer: Option D

Explanation:

None of the three statements is supported by the known facts.
Direction (for Q.No. 6):
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Give answer:

(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.
6.
Statements: Use “Kraft” colours. They add colour to our life. – An advertisement.

Conclusions:

Catchy slogans do not attract people.
People like dark colours.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Answer: Option D

Explanation:

The slogan given in the statement is definitely a catchy one which indicates that catchy slogans do attract people. So, I does not follow. Nothing about people’s preference for colours can be deduced from the statement. Thus, II also does not follow.
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Direction (for Q.No. 7):
Choose the statement that is best supported by the information given in the question passage.

7. Close-up images of Mars by the Mariner 9 probe indicated networks of valleys that looked like the stream beds on Earth. These images also implied that Mars once had an atmosphere that was thick enough to trap the sun’s heat. If this were true, something happened to Mars billions of years ago that stripped away the planet’s atmosphere.
This paragraph best supports the statement that

A. Mars now has little or no atmosphere.
B. Mars once had a thicker atmosphere than Earth does.
C. the Mariner 9 probe took the first pictures of Mars.
D. Mars is closer to the sun than Earth is.
E. Mars is more mountainous than Earth is.
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

The paragraph states that Mars once had a thick atmosphere, but that it was stripped away. The other choices, true or not, cannot be found in the passage.
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Direction (for Q.No. 8):
In each of the following questions, three statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and TV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

8. Statements: All rods are bricks. Some bricks are ropes. All ropes are doors.

Conclusions:

Some rods are doors.
Some doors are bricks.
Some rods are not doors.
All doors are ropes.
A. Only I and II follow
B. Only I, II and III follow
C. Only either I or III, and II follow
D. Only either I or III, and IV follow
E. None of these
Answer: Option E

Explanation:

All rods are bricks. Some bricks are ropes.

Since the middle term ‘bricks’ is not distributed even once in the premises, no definite conclusion follows.

Some bricks are ropes. All ropes are doors.

Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be particular and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘Some bricks are doors’. II is the converse of this conclusion and so it holds.

All rods are bricks. Some bricks are doors.

Since the middle term ‘bricks’ is not distributed even once in the premises, no definite conclusion follows.

However, I and III involve the extreme terms. But, since they are not contradictory, they do not form a complementary pair.

Hence, only II follows.
Direction (for Q.No. 9):
Three of the words will be in the same classification, the remaining one will not be. Your answer will be the one word that does NOT belong in the same classification as the others.

9. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

A.
branch
B.
dirt
C.
leaf
D.
root
Answer: Option B

Explanation:

A branch, leaf, and root are all parts of a tree. The dirt underneath is not a part of the tree.
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Direction (for Q.No. 10):
In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

10. Statement: The Company X has rejected first lot of values supplied by Company A and has cancelled its entire huge order quoting use of inferior quality material and poor craftsmanship.

Courses of Action:

The Company A needs to investigate functioning of its purchase, production and quality control departments.
The Company A should inspect all the valves rejected by Company X.
The Company A should inform Company X that steps have been taken for improvement and renegotiate schedule of supply.
A. Only I and II follow
B. Only II follows
C. II, and either I or III follow
D. All I, II and III follow
E.
None of these
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

First of all, company A should inspect the rejected valves to ensure if they are really sub-standard. If yes, it should scrutinise its working thoroughly and remove its lackenings, be it in the quality of raw material or craftsmanship. So, both I and II follow. III seems to be a far-off action which can be implemented only after the first two steps are put into practice. Thus, III does not follow,
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Direction (for Q.No. 11):
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give answer

(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
11.
Statement: “Avon Cycles – Fast, easy to ride, impressive, reliable, crafted and up-to-date automation.” – An advertisement.

Assumptions:

There is no other cycle with any of these features.
People do not bother about the cost.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit
Answer: Option D

Explanation:

The advertisement is for Avon cycles and nothing about the cost or the features of other brands of cycles, is mentioned. So, neither I nor II is implicit.
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Direction (for Q.Nos. 12 – 14):
In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

12. Statement: The successful man has the ability to judge himself correctly.

Assumptions:

Inability to judge correctly causes failure.
To judge others is of no use to a successful man.
The successful man cannot make a wrong judgement.
A. None is implicit
B. All are implicit
C. Only I and II are implicit
D. Only II and III are implicit
E.
Only I and III are implicit
Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Assumptions I and III directly follow from the statement and so both are implicit. Also, the basic quality of a successful man is that he can judge himself. This means that he need not judge others. So, II is also implicit.
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13. Statement: Quality of life of a person is not dependent only on his wealth.

Assumptions:

The aim of most people is just to acquire more wealth.
There are some factors other than wealth which contribute to the quality of life.
Wealth does not contribute to the quality of life at all.
A. Only I is implicit
B. Only I and II are implicit
C. Only II is implicit
D. Only II and III are implicit
E. Only I and III are implicit
Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Clearly, I does not follow from the statement. So, it is not implicit. The statement mentions that quality of life does not depend only on wealth. This means that there are some other factors as well, which govern the quality of life. But this does not imply that wealth does not contribute at all. So, II is implicit while III is not.
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14. Statement: Ravi decided to leave office at 4.00 p.m. to catch a flight to Bangalore departing at 6.00 p.m.

Assumptions:
The flight to Bangalore may be delayed.
He may be able to reach airport well before 6.00 p.m.
He may get adequate time to search for a vehicle to go to the airport.
A. None is implicit
B. Only II is implicit
C. Only II and III are implicit
D. All are implicit
E. None of these
Answer: Option C

Explanation:

I cannot be assumed from the given statement and so it is not implicit. Also, knowing that his flight is scheduled to depart at 6 p.m., Ravi would leave accordingly, keeping enough time to search for a vehicle and to reach the airport well before time. So, both II and III are implicit.
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Direction (for Q.No. 15):
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Give answer:

(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.

15. Statements: The XYZ Medical College has started a cell which will conduct counselling workshops in the field of stress management to patients and general public.

Conclusions:
The hospital has needed resources to start such activity.
Patients and general public feel a need to have such cell in the hospital.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Since the hospital has started the activity, it must have been well-equipped for the same. So, I follows. Also, any new activity is started keeping in mind the need for it. So, II also follows.
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Direction (for Q.No. 16):
In each of the following questions, a statement/group of statements is given followed by some conclusions. Without resolving anything yourself choose the conclusion which logically follows from the given statements).

16. Soldiers serve their country.

A. Men generally serve their country.
B. Those who serve their country are soldiers.
C. Some men who are soldiers serve their country.
D. Women do not serve their country because they are not soldiers.
Answer: Option C

Direction (for Q.No. 17):
Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Give answer:

(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.

17. Statement: Should higher education be restricted to only those who can bear the expenditure?

Arguments:

Yes. Higher education is very costly; hence it should not be given free.
No. There are a large number of brilliant students who cannot afford to pay and they should be given higher education.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E.
Both I and II are strong
Answer: Option B

Explanation:

For the all-round progress of the nation, all the students, especially the talented and intelligent ones, must avail of higher education, even if the government has to pay for it. So, only argument II holds.

Direction (for Q.No. 18):
A good way to figure out the relationship in a given question is to make up a sentence that describes the relationship between the first two words. Then, try to use the same sentence to find out which of the answer choices completes the same relationship with the third word.

18. Exercise is to gym as eating is to

A. food
B. dieting
C. fitness
D. restaurant
Answer: Option D

Explanation:

A gym is a place where people exercise. A restaurant is a place where people eat. Food (choice a) is not the answer because it is something people eat, not a place or location where they eat. The answer is not choice b or c because neither represents a place where people eat.
Direction (for Q.No. 19):
The words in the bottom row are related in the same way as the words in the top row. For each item, find the word that completes the bottom row of words.

19.
apples fruit supermarket novel book ?
A. bookstore
B. magazine
C. vegetable
D. shopping
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

The relationship above the line is as follows; apples are a kind of fruit; fruit is sold in a supermarket. Below the line, the relationship is: a novel is a kind of book; books are sold in a bookstore.
Direction (for Q.No. 20):
Read the question carefully and choose the correct answer.

20. At the baseball game, Henry was sitting in seat 253. Marla was sitting to the right of Henry in seat 254. In the seat to the left of Henry was George. Inez was sitting to the left of George. Which seat is Inez sitting in?

A. 251
B. 254
C. 255
D. 256
Answer: Option A

Explanation:

If George is sitting at Henry’s left, George’s seat is 252. The next seat to the left, then, is 251.

1. Many a times we read in newspapers about a term ?dematerialization?. In context with the markets, what is dematerialization of securities?
Ans. Electronic holding of the shares replacing the paper securities

2. Name the identity cards which are being distributed to all persons above the age of 18 residing in the nine maritime states and four Union Territories under the national Population Register (NPR) scheme.
Ans. Resident Identity Card

3. What is the new disinvestment target set by the Union Budget for the fiscal year 2012-13 (in crores)?
Ans. 30,000

4. How much percentage of fund allocated to the priority sector lending by the commercial banks in India, as stipulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), goes to Agricultural sector?
Ans. 18%

5. The book titled ?The World Beneath His Feet? is the biography of which sportsman?
Ans. Pulela Gopichand

6. The Reserve Bank of India has introduced a new facility recently, via which the banks can dip below 1% of their statutory liquidity ratio to avail cash from this window. What is the name of this facility ?
Ans. Marginal Standing Facility

7. Name India?s first cruise missile that will travel at a sub-sonic speed developed by the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)?
Ans. Nirbhay

8. Which is the first private sector employer of India to introduce the National Pension Scheme for its employees?
Ans. Wipro

9. Which bank won the prestigious Asian Banker Achievement Award for being the strongest bank in Asia-Pacific region?
Ans. State Bank of India

10. The 5th edition of the World Energy Summit was held recently at:
Ans. Abudhabi

11. Daniel Shechtman from Israel is the Nobel Prize winner of 2011. Which field does he relate to?
Ans. Chemistry

12. Who is the author of the famous novel ?War and Peace??
Ans. Leo Tolstoy

13. The 35th National Games will be held in:
Ans. Kerala

14. Who is known as ?The Grand Old Man of India??
Ans. Dhada Bhai Naoroji

15. The currency of Myanmar is:
Ans. Kyat

16. Which of the following countries is not a member of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?
a)China
b)India
c)Nepal
d)Bangladesh
Ans. China

17. How many public sector banks are currently there in India?
Ans. 27

18. Dhada Saheb Phalke awards are given by the Ministry of:
Ans. Information and Broadcasting

19. When milk is churned the cream from it is seperated by:
Ans. Centifugal force

20. Who is the cabinet minister of civil aviation department of the Union Government?
Ans. Ajith Singh
Computer General Awareness for Bank PO and Clerk
Computer General Awareness Sample Questions for Bank PO and Clerk

1. This ……… tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.
(a)Client
(b)Applications/Web server
(c)Enterprise server
(d)DBA
(e)None of these
Ans. Client

2. A polymorphic virus:
(a)modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file
(b)is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains
(c)a malicious logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program
(d)infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program
(e)None of these
Ans. modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file

3. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification :
(a)is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or Website is legitimate
(b)provides private key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server
(c)allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server
(d)uses a public key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems
(e)None of these
Ans. Uses a public-key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems

4. ……… allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail:
(a)TCP/IP
(b)Ethernet
(cWAP
(d)Token ring
(e)None of these
Ans. WAP

5. ‘DOS’ floppy disk does not have:
(a)A Boot Record
(b)A File Allocation Table
(c)A Root Directory
(d)Virtual Memory
(e)BIOS
Ans. Virtual Memory

6. A passive threat to computer security is:
(a)Malicious Intent
(b)Sabotage
(c)Accident Errors
(d)Espionage Agents
(e)None of these
Ans. Malicious Intent

7. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except:
(a)each computer must have a network card
(b)there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
(c)there must be at least one connecting device
(d)each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
(e)None of these
Ans. there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices

8. ‘MICR’ technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to:
(a)Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(b)Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
(c)Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
(d)Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
(e)None of these
Ans. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition

9. All the information collected during database development is stored in a:
(a)repository
(b)data warehouse
(c)RAD
(d)CASE
(e)None of these
Ans. data warehouse

10. The ……… component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.
(a)data extraction
(b)end-user query tool
(c)end-user presentation tool
(d)data store
(e)None of these
Ans. end-user query tool
1. First Governor of RBI was:
(a)Hilton Young
(b)Paul Samuelson
(c)C.D.Deskmukh
(d)O.A Smith
Ans. (d) O.A Smith

2. At the time of nationalization who was the Governor of RBI:
(a)O.A Smith
(b)J.B Taylor
(c)C.D. Deshmukh
(d)K.C.Neogy
Ans. (c) C.D. Deshmukh

3. The RBI was nationalized in the year:
(a)1949
(b)1956
(c)1959
(d)1947
Ans. (a) 1949

4. The general superintendence and director of the bank is entrusted to central board of directors of:
(a)10 members
(b)20 members
(c)25 members
(d)30 members
Ans. (b) 20 members

5. Paper currencies of our country are issued by RBI under:
(a)Section 22 of the RBI act 1934
(b)Section 24 of the RBI act 1934
(c)Section 28 of the RBI act 1934
(d)None of these
Ans. (a) Section 22 of the RBI act 1934

6. One rupee currency notes bear the signature of:
(a)PM
(b)President of India
(c)Governor of RBI
(d)Finance Secretary of India
Ans. (d) Finance Secretary of India

7. Ten rupees notes bear the signature of:
(a)President
(b)Finance Minister
(c)Secretary of Ministry of finance
(d)Governor of RBI
Ans. (d) Governor of RBI

8. Which of the following is the banker of the banks:
(a)IDBI
(b)SBI
(c)RBI
(d)UTI
Ans. (c) RBI

9. In which of the following banks one can?t open a personal account:
(a)Co-Operative Banks
(b)Commercial banks
(c)Regional Rural Banks
(d)RBI
Ans. (d) RBI

10. Which of the following banks is the banker to the government:
(a)SBI
(b)SEBI
(c)RBI
(d)IRDA
Ans. (c) RBI
1. The term of office of an elected member shall be ……… years from the date of which he enters upon office.
Ans. 5

2. In a circle co-operative union reservation for women is ………
Ans. 1

3. The authority competent to reject a ballot paper shall be the ………
Ans. Returning Officer

4. Any dispute relating to the election of the circle co-operative union shall be referred to the ………
Ans. Registrar

5. The management of the affairs of the circle co-operative union shall vest in the body constituted under section ………
Ans. 88

6. Section ……… of KCS Act deals about the establishment of State Co-operative Union.
Ans. 89

7. The Audit of a State Co-operative Union is done by:
Ans. Director of Co-operative Audit

8. Approval of annual report, budget and audited accounts of the union is the duty of:
Ans. General body

9. The managing committee of the State Co-operative Union consist of ……… members.
Ans. 23

10. The number of Government nominees in the State Co-operative Union:
Ans. 2
1. Name the Co-operative institution which bagged ?Coffey International Award 2011? for providing unique mobile service empowering the farmers through timely information delivery:
(a) IFFCO Kissan Sanchar Ltd
(b) Krishak Bharati Cooperative Limited (KRIBHCO)
(c) MILMA
(d) None of these
Ans. IFFCO Kissan Sanchar Ltd

2. Who is considered to be the father of Co- operative movement in India?
(a) Robert Owen
(b) Frederic Nicholson
(c) Edward Law
(d) Dupernix
Ans. Frederic Nicholson

3. The Planning and co- ordination function of Co- operative education is conducted by:
(a) NCCF
(b) NCCT
(c) NCUI
(d) None of these
Ans. NCCT

4. One Hundred and Eleventh Constitution Amendment Bill is notable because:
(a) Which made right to property
(b) Which made right to freedom of religion
(c) Which made right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right
(d) None of these
Ans. Which made right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right

5. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED), a farmer?s co-operative was established in:
(a) 1990
(b) 1960
(c) 1979
(d) 1958
Ans. 1958

6. The first diary co-operative society formed was:
(a) Kaira
(b) Anand
(c) Gujarat
(d) Katra
Ans. Katra

7. The book ?Co- operative Movement in India? written by:
(a) C.R Fay
(b) E.M Hough
(c) G.D.H Cole
(d) S.S Puri
Ans. E.M Hough

8. Which Committee recommended the formation of State Bank of India?
(a) National Commission of Agriculture
(b) All India Rural Credit Survey Committee
(c) Gorwala Committee
(d) Maclagan Committee
Ans. All India Rural Credit Survey Committee

9. NCCF stands for:
(a) National Co operative Consumer Federation
(b) National Consumer Co operative Forum
(c) National Co operative Federation
(d) None of these
Ans. National Co operative Consumer Federation

10. The largest milk producing nation in 2010-11 was:
(a) India
(b) Japan
(c) Denmark
(d) Ireland
Ans. India
1. Which day is observed as World House Sparrow Day?
Ans. March 20

2. Which is the International Monetary Fund?s (IMF) unit of account?
Ans. SDR

3. The khandelwal committee to recommendations are related to the:
Ans. Banking sector

4. The 123rd birth anniversary of Muzzaffar Ahmed was observed in August 2011. Muzzaffar Ahmed was one of the founders of the:
Ans. Communist party

5. What is the India?s rank in the last National Security Index (NSI), 2011?
Ans. 5th

6. Who is the author of the book ?India on the Growth Tumpike??
Ans. Vijay Kelkar

7. Which of the following prizes is given to Mathematicians?
(a) Kluge Prize
(b) Kalinga Prize
(c) Abel Prize
(d) Pulitzer prize
Ans. Abel Prize

8. In August 2011 NASA launched the billion dollar solar powered spacecraft JUNO which is on a five year journey to:
Ans. Jupiter
1. PDF means:
Ans. Portable Document Format

2. ISDN stands for:
Ans. Integrated Services Digital Network

3. Which is a computer printing device for printing vector graphics?
Ans. Plotter

4. Which is the default mode of printing the documents?
Ans. Portrait

5. Which is the disk subsystem that increases performance or provides fault tolerance or both?
Ans. RAID
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Inexpensive (or sometimes “Independent”) Disks.

6. Who is the person responsible for the design, implementation, maintenance and repair of an organization?s database?
Ans. DBA (Data Base Administrator)

7. Tab key is an abbreviation for:
Ans. Tabulator key

8. Which is the computer shortcut for undo the previous operation?
Ans. Ctrl+Z

9. Which is the lossy compressed music format that is very popular for digitizing music?
Ans. MP3

10. Which is the best method to move text from one page to a different page?
Ans. Cut and Paste
Marketing and Computer

1. Zero based Budgeting (ZBB) means:
Ans. Each year, budgeting starts from a scratch

2. The abbreviation ISP stands for :
Ans. Internet Service Provider

3. Acid-test of a brand is ?????..
Ans. Brand loyalty

4. In Banks ROA means ?????..
Ans. Return on assets

5. In the context of globalization, BPO means:
Ans. Business Process Outsourcing

6. SWOT analysis refers to:
Ans. Strategic planning for selling product

7. In banks, loans and advances are considered as ?????.
Ans. Assets

8. In the era of globalization of business, M & A means???????
Ans. Mergers & Acquisitions
Marketing and Computer

1. DOS and Windows 3.x support file names upto ????characters length.
Ans. Eight

2. In DOS the ?Label? command is used to
Ans. Display the label of the disk.

3. The subsystem of the kernel and hardware that cooperates to translate virtual to physical address comprises ????.
Ans. Memory Management Subsystem

4. A device operating at the physical layer is called a
Ans. Repeater

5. For separating channels in FDM, it is necessary to use
Ans. Time slots

6. Encryption and decryption are functions of
Ans. Session layer

7. Which type of switching uses the entire capacity of a dedicated link?
Ans. Datagram Packet switching

8. In ????? each packet of a message follows the same path from sender to receiver.
Ans. The datagram approach to packet switching
Marketing and Consumer Co-operatives

1. Which is the apex institution of marketing co-operatives?
Ans. Marketfed

2. Which is the national Apex institution in the field of Marketing Co-operatives
Ans. NAFED

3. Marketfed was established in ????..
Ans. 1960

4. To meet the losses due to outright purchase, marketing co-operatives keep a Fund called:
Ans. Price fluctuation fund

5. Committee on Co-operative Marketing was appointed in:
Ans. 1966

6. NAFED means?????
Ans. National Agricultural Federation

7. The headquarters of NAFED:
Ans. New Delhi

8. The Bio-fertilizer plant of NAFED is situated at:
Ans. Indore

9. National Horticulture Research and Development Foundation (NHRDF) was established in:
Ans. 1977

10. First Co-operative Marketing society in India is:
Ans. Hubli
1. The first European bank in India which was established in 1771.
a)Bank of England
b)State Bank of India
c)Bank of Bengal
d)None of these

2. With the approval of the parliament in 1806 the directors of the East India Company established the first presidency bank known as:
a)Bank of Bengal
b)Bank of Madras
c)Bank of Bombay
d)Bank of Maharashtra

3. Bank of Bombay was the second presidency bank established in ???. With a capital of Rs. 52,25,000.
a)1840
b)1854
c)1862
d)1880

4. Which one of the following is not a presidency bank?
a)Bank of Bengal
b)Bank of Madras
c)Bank of Sourastra
d)Bank of Bombay

5. Which one of the following joint stock banks were established during the period of swadeshi movement.
a)Allahabad bank in 1870
b)Oudh Commercial Banks in 1881
c)Punjab National Bank in 1895
d)All of these

6. Imperial Bank of India Act was passed in:
a)1919
b)1920
c)1921
d)1922

7. ????.. are the private banks organized on a joint stock system, run basically with profit motive and specialize in financing short and long term needs of trade, industry and commerce.
a)Schedule Bank
b)Non Schedule Banks
c)Commercial Banks
d)Industrial Banks

8. Which one of the following is not a primary function of commercial banks?
a)Accepting deposit
b)Advancing loan
c)Discounting bills of exchange
d)Agency services

9.The greatest advantage of ????? deposits are that the customers can remit any amount to the bank and withdraw unlimited quality of money without any notice to the banker.
a)Savings
b)Current
c)Fixed
d)Recurring

10. Which of the following is an agency service of Commercial banks?
a)Buying and selling of securities for customers
b)Making periodical payments of insurance premium, collection of interest and dividends
c)Collection of cheques, draft, bill of exchange
d)All of these

11. Which of the following is not a secondary function of commercial bank?
a)Accept current deposit
b)Accept fixed deposit
c)Advancing loans
d)General utility services

12. Time deposits are otherwise called:
a)Fixed deposit
b)Savings deposit
c)Current deposit
d)Recurring deposit
13. ?A commercial bank is not merely purveyors of money, but also in an important sense, manufacturers of money.?- who said this statement?
a)J.M Keynes
b)J.B Say
c)Sayers
d)Crowther

14. ?If loans are the children of deposits, deposits are also the children of loan? said :
a)J.M Keynes
b)J.B Say
c)John Paget
d)Crowther

15. Bank Money is created by ????.
a)RBI
b)Government
c)Monetary authority
d)Commercial bank
RBI electrical and Electronics questions
RBI electronics and electrical questions with answers

1.Resistance is measured in

henries
ohms
hertz
watts
Ans:B

2. A sine wave voltage is applied across an inductor. When the frequency of the voltage is decreased, the current

is increased
is decreased
does not change
momentarily goes to zero
Ans:A

3. The winding resistance of a coil can be increased by

increasing the number of turns
using a thinner wire
changing the core material
increasing the number of turns or using thinner wire
Ans:D

4. When the current through an inductor is cut in half, the amount of energy stored in the electromagnetic field

is halved
quadruples
doubles
does not change

Ans:A
5. In the complex plane, the number 14 – j5 is located in the

first quadrant
second quadrant
third quadrant
fourth quadrant
Ans:D

6. When the frequency of the source voltage decreases, the impedance of a parallel RC circuit

Increases
decreases
does not change
does not change
Ans:A

7. In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by

45°
90°
120°
180°
Ans:C

8. A constant load power means a uniform conversion of

mechanical to electrical energy
electrical to mechanical energy
current to voltage
voltage to current
Ans:B

9. Polyphase generators produce simultaneous multiple sinusoidal voltages that are separated by

certain constant phase angles
certain constant frequencies
certain constant voltages
certain constant currents
Ans:A

10. Materials with lots of free electrons are called

Conductors
insulators
semiconductors
filters
Ans:A

11. Electrons in the outer orbit are called

nuclei
valences
waves
shells
Ans:B

12. A multimeter measures

current
voltage
resistance
current, voltage, and resistance
Ans:D

13. A wiper is the sliding contact in a

Switch
photoconductive cell
thermistor
potentiometer
Ans:D

14. A circuit breaker is a

Fuse
switch
resettable protective device
resistor
Ans:C

15. An ohmmeter is an instrument for measuring

current
voltage
resistance
wattage
Ans:C

16.The two windings of a transformer is

conductively linked.
inductively linked.
not linked at all.
electrically linked.
Ans:B

17. The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed.
it will fail to start.
it will not develop high starting torque
all are true.
Ans:A

18 In a stepper motor the angular displacement

can be precisely controlled.
it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller
the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines
Ans:A

19 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is
low at light load only.
low at heavy load only.
low at light and heavy load both.
low at rated load only.
Ans:A

20. The generation voltage is usually

between 11 KV and 33 KV.
between 132 KV and 400 KV.
between 400 KV and 700 KV.
None of the above.
Ans:A

21. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding Produces

damping torque.
eddy current torque.
torque aiding the developed torque
no torque.

Ans:D

22. In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is

stationary w.r.t. armature.
rotating w.r.t. field.
stationary w.r.t. field.
rotating w.r.t. brushes.
Ans:C

23. In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at

unity p.f.
leading p.f.
lagging p.f.
zero p.f. leading.
Ans:B

24 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer

is in phase with the flux
lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
leads the flux by 90 degree.
is in phase opposition to that of flux.
Ans:C

25. The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit Through

slip rings.
commutator segments
solid connections
carbon brushes.
Ans:C

26. A hysteresis motor

is not a self-starting motor
is a constant speed motor
needs dc excitation
can not be run in reverse speed.
Ans:B

27. The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is

a dc series motor.
a dc shunt motor.
an ac two-phase induction motor.
an ac series motor
Ans:B

28. For a given wirewound core, an increase in current through the coil

reverses the flux lines
decreases the flux density
increases the flux density
causes no change in flux density
Ans:C

29. When the current through the coil of an electromagnet reverses, the

direction of the magnetic field reverses
direction of the magnetic field remains unchanged
magnetic field expands
magnetic field collapses
Ans:A

30. The unit for permeability is

Wb/At × m
At/m
At/Wb
Wb
Ans:A

31. The ability of a material to remain magnetized after removal of the magnetizing force is known as

Permeability
reluctance
hysteresis
retentivity
Ans:D

32. When a solenoid is activated, the force that moves the plunger is
an electromagnetic field
a permanent magnetic field
varying voltage
a steady current
Ans:A

33. Which of the following capacitors is polarized

mica
ceramic
plastic-film
electrolytic
Ans:D

34. In a series resonant band-pass filter, a lower value of Q results in

a higher resonant frequency
a smaller bandwidth
a higher impedance
a larger bandwidth
Ans:D

35. A steady-state condition is reached when

the output voltage reaches the average value of the input voltage
the output voltage reaches the input voltage
the output voltage reaches approximately 63% of the input voltage
the output voltage reaches the effective value of the input voltage
Ans:A

36. An RC differentiator acts as a

low-pass filter
high-pass filter
band-pass filter
band-stop filter
Ans:B

37. A balanced three-phase, 50 Hz voltage is applied to a 3 phase, 4 pole, induction motor. When the motor is delivering rated output, the slip is found to be 0.05. The speed of the rotor m.m.f. relative to the rotor structure is

1500 r.p.m.
1425 r.p.m.
25 r.p.m.
75 r.p.m.
Ans:D

Explanation: NS = 120f /P = 120 x 50 /4 =1500rpm

N = NS ( 1-s) = 1500 (1-0.05) = 1425

\relative speed = 1500 – 1425 = 75 rpm

38. A ceiling fan uses

split-phase motor.
capacitor start and capacitor run motor
universal motor.
capacitor start motor.
Ans:D

39. The drive motor used in a mixer-grinder is a

dc motor.
induction motor.
synchronous motor.
universal motor.
Ans:D

40. A 1:5 step-up transformer has 120V across the primary and 600 ohms resistance across the secondary. Assuming 100% efficiency, the primary current equals

0.2 Amp.
5 Amps
10 Amps.
20 Amps.
Ans:A
Explanation: I1= V1 /R1 = 120/600 = 0.2 (h = 100%, losses are zero \V1 = VR = I1R1)

41. A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number of poles of the motor are

4.
6.
12
8.
Ans:A

Explanation: N= Ns (1-S) = NS –NS x S

1440 = Ns (1-S)

Ns = 1440 / (1-S)

Ns = (120 f/ p) = 120 x 50/p = 6000 p

Ns will be closer to N i.e 1440

When P=2 ; Ns = 3000 rpm , not close to N

When P=4 ; Ns = 1500 rpm , it is closer to N

Therefore P =4 for N=1440

42. In a 3-phase synchronous motor

the speed of stator MMF is always more than that of rotor MMF.
the speed of stator MMF is always less than that of rotor MMF.
the speed of stator MMF is synchronous speed while that of rotor MMF is zero
rotor and stator MMF are stationary with respect to each other.
Ans:D

Explanation: Because, Motor is magnetically locked into position with stator, the rotor poles are engaged with stator poles and both run synchronously in same direction Therefore,

rotor & stator mmf are stationary w.r.t each other.

43. In a three phase transformer, if the primary side is connected in star and secondary side is connected in delta, what is the angle difference between phase voltage in the two cases.

delta side lags by -30°.
star side lags by -30°.
delta side leads by 30°.
star side leads by -30°.
Ans:C

Explanation: This is vector group and has +30° displacement. Therefore, delta side leads by +30°.
44. Slip of the induction machine is 0.02 and the stator supply frequency is 50 Hz. What will be the frequency of the rotor induced emf?

10 Hz.
50 Hz.
1 Hz.
2500 Hz.
Ans:C
Explanation: Given : s = 0.02 ; f = 50 Hz

Therefore, frequency of rotor induced emf = s f

= 0.02 x 50 = 1.0 Hz

45. A 4 pole lap wound dc shunt motor rotates at the speed of 1500 rpm, has a flux of 0.4 mWb and the total number of conductors are 1000. What is the value of emf?

100 Volts.
0.1 Volts.
1 Volts.
10 Volts.
Ans:D

Explanation: Given N = 1500 rpm, F = 0.4 mWb, Z = 1000, P = 4, & A= 4

Therefore, Eb = NFPZ / 60 A

= 1500 x 0.4 x 4 x 1000 x 10-3 / 60 x 4

= 60/6 = 10 volts

46. A 3 stack stepper motor with 12 numbers of rotor teeth has a step angle of ____________.

120
8?
24?
10?

Ans:D

Explanation: Given m = 3, Nr = 12

Step angle = 360 / m x Nr = 360 /3 x 12 = 10?

47 .Oil-filled cable has a working stress of __________ kV/mm

10
12
13
15
Ans:D

Explanation: This is defined by dielectric strength of mineral oil i.e. 15 kV/mm.

48 . The rotor frequency for a 3 phase 1000 RPM 6 pole induction motor with a slip of 0.04 is________Hz

8
4
6
2
Ans:D

Explanation: Given: N=1000 rpm ; P= 6; s= 0.04;

and f = N_P/ 120

= 1000_6/120

= 50 Hz

Rotor frequency fr=s_f = 0.04_50

= 2.0 Hz

49 The synchronous speed for a 3 phase 6-pole induction motor is 1200 rpm. If the number of poles is now reduced to 4 with the frequency remaining constant, the rotor speed with a slip of 5% will be _________.

1690 rpm
1750 rpm
1500 rpm
1710 rpm
Ans:D

Explanation: Given : Ns1 =1200 , P1= 6,

P2 = 4, s = 0.05,

Frequency f = Ns_P/120

= 120_6/120 = 60 Hz

rotor frequency f/ = s.f = 0.05 _60 = 3.0 Hz

Now, Ns2 = 120 _60 /4 = 1800 and Ns – N = 120 f / P2

Therefore, N=Ns- 120 f / P2 = 1800-120_0.05_60/4 = 1800-90 = 1710

50. The efficiency of a transformer is mainly dependent on

core losses.
copper losses
stray losses.
dielectric losses.
Ans:A

51. A synchronous motor is operating on no-load at unity power factor. If the field current is increased, power factor will become

Leading & current will decrease
Lagging & current will increase.
Lagging & current will decrease
Leading & current will increase.
Ans:A

Explanation: Initially synchronous motor is operating at no load and unity power factor. When field current increases, the excitation will increase. Therefore, p.f will be leading and

current will be I Cos??< I

52. If the phase angle of the voltage coil of a directional relay is o 50 , the maximum torque angle of the relay is

130
100

50

25

Ans:C
Explanation: Torque _ Power

Power _ Voltage

Therefore, It has same angle as ‘V’ ha

53. A 220/440 V, 50 Hz, 5 KVA, single phase transformer operates on 220V, 40Hz supply with secondary winding open circuited. Then

Both eddy current and hysteresis losses decreases.
Both eddy current and hysteresis losses increases.
Eddy current loss remains the same but hysteresis loss increases.
Eddy current loss increases but hysteresis loss remains the same.

Ans:A
Explanation: Wh = khfBm

1.6 and We = kef2Bm

2.k

Therefore, hysteresis and eddy current losses will be decreased when frequency decreases.

54. Electric ovens using heating elements of _______________ can produce temperature

upto 3000°C.

Nickel
Graphite
Chromium
Iron
Ans:C

Explanation: Chromium has high melting point.

55. Electric resistance seam welding uses __________ electrodes.

Pointed
Disc.
Flat
Domed
Ans:B

Explanation: Disc type electrodes are used for electric resistance seam welding.

56 The line trap unit employed in carrier current relaying:

offers high impedance to 50 Hz power frequency signal
offers high impedance to carrier frequency signal
offers low impedance to carrier frequency signal
Both (A) & (C)

Ans:B

Explanation: The line trap unit employed in carrier current relaying offers high impedance to

carrier frequency signal.

Because carrier frequency range is 35 km – 500 kHz

XL = 2_ f l

Where f increases XL will also increases

57. The temperature of resistance furnaces can be controlled by changing the:

applied voltage
number of heating elements
circuit configuration
All of the above
Ans:D

Explanation: Temperature of resistance furnaces can be controlled by changing either applied voltage or by number of heating elements or by circuit configuration.

58. A single phase Hysteresis motor

can run at synchronous speed only
can run at sub synchronous speed only
can run at synchronous and super synchronous speed
can run at synchronous and sub synchronous speed
Ans:A

Explanation: The rotor revolves synchronously because the rotor poles magnetically lock up with the revolving stator poles of opposite polarity

59. The armature of a dc machine is laminated to reduce:

Eddy current loss
Hysteresis loss
copper losses
friction and windage losses
Ans:A

Explanation: Thinner the laminations, greater is the resistance offered to the induced e.m.f., smaller the current and hence lesser the I2R loss in the core.

60 For LV applications (below 1 kV), ______________ cables are used.

Paper insulated.
Plastic.
Single core cables.
Oil filled.
Ans:C
Explanation: For low voltage applications single core cables are suitable.

RBI Whole-Testpaper
RBI Solved Paper

RBI Assistant Exam Questions and Answers

Section: Reasoning

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters PCYO using all the letters, but each letter only once in each word?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Answer:2

2. The positions of the first and fifth letter of the word SUITABLE are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of second and sixth letter, third and seventh letter, and fourth and eighth letter are interchanged. In the New arrangement, how many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is third from the left end and the alphabet which is second from the right end?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Four

5) More than four Directions

Answer:3

Directions :(Q.3-4): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow. Among A,B,C,D and E, each scored different marks in an examination. only one person scored more than C. E scored more than A but less than D. D did not score the highest marks. The one who scored the second lowest scored 71% marks. C scored 92% marks.

3. Who among the following is most likely to have scored 87% marks?

1) A

2) B

3) D

4) E

5) Either A or D

Answer:3

4. Which of the following percentages is most likely to be B’s percentage in the exam?

1) 68%

2) 71%

3) 84%

4) 76%

5) 97%

Answer:5

5. Each vowel of the word SAVOURY is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series. If the new alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order (from left to right), which of the following will be fifth from the right?

1) U

2) R

3) Q

4) P

5) X

Answer:2

6. Point P is 10m to the West of Point A. Point B is 2m to the South of Point P. Point Q is 6m to the East of Point B. Point C is 2m to the North of Point Q. Which of the following three points fall in a straight line?

1) A,C,P

2) B, C,P

3) Q,C,A

4) A,B,Q

5) A,B,C

Answer:4

Directions (Q. 6-10): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statements are following by two conclusions. Give answer

1) if only conclusion I is true

2) if only conclusion II is true

3) if either conclusion I or II is true

4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

5) if both conclusions I and II are true

6. Statements: H ??I = J. K ??L

Conclusions: I. K < H II. L > I

Answer: 1

7. Statements: S > C ??O; P < C

Conclusions: I. O < P II. S > p

Answer: 2

8. Statements: A = B ??C; A > R

Conclusions: I. B > R II. R < C

Answer: 4

9 . Statements: D > E ??F; J < F

Conclusions: I. D > J II. E < J

Answer: 5

10. Statements: P < Q > T; R ??Q

Conclusions: I. R > P II. T < R

Answer: 5

Directions :(Q. 11-15): Study the following information to answer the given questions. Eight People are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A,B C and D are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing South. Therefore, in the given section arrangement, each member sitting in a row faces another member of the other row. S sits second to left of Q. A faces the immediate neighbour of S. Only one person sits between A and C. P does not face A. B is not an immediate neighbour of A.

11. Which of the following is true regarding D?

1) D sits an one of the extreme ends of the line.

2) A sits on the immediate left D.

3) Q faces D.

4) C is an immediate neighbour of D.

5) No immediate neighbour of D faces R.

Answer: 4

12. Who among the following faces C?

1) P

2) Q

3) R

4) S

5) Cannot be determined

Answer: 1

13. Who among the following sits on the immediate right of the person who faces C?

1) P

2) Q

3) R

4) S

5) Cannot be determined

Answer: 2

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) A

2) Q

3) R

4) B

5) S

Answer: 5

15. Who among the following faces R?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) Cannot be determined

Answer: 1

Directions:(Q. 16-18): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4) if the data neither in statement I nor in statement II are sufficient to answer the question statement 5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

16. On which date of the month was Parul born?

I. Her mother correctly remembers that she was born after 15th but before 21st of April.

II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after 18th but before 24th of April.

Answer: 4

17. How many brothers does Meghna have? Meghna is a girl.

I. Kishore, the father of Meghna, is the only child of Kamal. Kamal has only two grandchildren.

II. Jyoti, the daughter-in-law of Kamal, has son and a daughter.

Answer: 5

18) Among P, Q, R, S and T, sitting in a straight line, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?

I. S sits third to the left of Q. S is an immediate neighbour of both P and T.

II. Two people sit between T and R. R does not sit at either of the extreme ends. P sits second to the right of T.

Answer: 2

Section: English

Directions :(19-2): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate while answering some of the questions.

The importance of communication skills cannot be underestimated, especially so, in the teaching – learning process. Teaching is generally considered as only fifty percent knowledge and fifty percent interpersonal or communication skills. For a teacher, it is not just important to give a lecture rich in content that provides abundant information about the subject or topic in question, but a successful teacher develops an affinity with, an understanding of, and a harmonious interrelationship with her pupils. Building rapport becomes her primary task in the classroom. But what exactly is rapport? Rapport is a sympathetic relationship or understanding that allows you to look at the world from someone else’s perspective. Making other people feel that you understand them creates a strong bond. Building rapport is the first step to better communication – the primary goal of all true educators. Communication skills for teachers are thus as important as their in-depth knowledge of the particular subject which they teach. To a surprising degree, how one communicates determines one’s effectiveness as a teacher. A study on communication styles suggests that 7% of communication takes place through words, 38% through voice intonation and 55% through body language. Much of teaching is about sending and receiving messages. The process of communication is composed of three elements : the source (sender, speaker, transmitter or instructor), the symbol used in composing and transmitting of the message (words or signs), and the receiver (listener, reader or student). The three elements are dynamically interrelated since each element is dependent on the others for effective communication to take place. Effective communication is all about conveying your message to the other people clearly and unambiguously. It’s also about receiving information the others are sending to you, with as little distortion as possible. Doing this involves effort from both the sender and the receiver. And it’s a process that can be fraught with error, with messages muddled by the sender, or misinterpreted by the reciepent. When this isn’t detected it can cause tremendous confusion, wasted effort and missed opportunity. Good communication skills are a prerequisite for those in the teaching profession. Carefully planned and skillfully delivered messages can issue invitations to students that school is a place to share ideas, investigate and collaborate with others. Effective communication is essential for a wellrun classroom. A teacher who is able to communicate well with students can inspire them to learn and participate in class and encourage them to come forth with their views, thus creating a proper rapport. Although this sounds simple and obvious, it requires much more than a teacher saying something out loud to a student. They must also realise that all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

Directions (Q. 19-28): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

19. Abundant

1) Small

2) Little

3) False

4) Sufficient

5) Rare

Answer: 2

20. Muddled

1) Skillfully organised

2) Strongly controlled

3) Clearly conveyed

4) Isolated

5) Complicated

Answer: 3

Directions (Q. 21-22): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

21. Sounds

1) Seems

2) Corrects

3) Noises

4) Takes

5) Silences.

Answer: 1

22. Affinity

1) Partnership

2) Partiality

3) Weakness

4) Compatibility

5) Discord

Answer: 4

23. Degree

1) Extent

2) Goal

3) Affect

4) Situation

5) Direction

Answer: 1

24. Which of the following is/are essential for effective communication?

(A) Conveying the message clearly

(B) Not to waste effort and opportunity

(C) Receiving the information with as little distortion as possible.

1) Only (A) and (C)

2) Only (B)

3) Only

(A) 4) Only (C)

5) Only (B) and (C)

Answer: 1

25. Which of the following is true about ‘rapport’ as per the passage?

(A) It is a sympathetic relationship.

(B) It is based on understanding of other people’s frame of reference.

(C) It helps in creating a strong bond.

(D) It is important for teachers to build rapport with students.

1) Only (A) and (B)

2) Only (B) and (D)

3) Only (A), (B) and (D)

4) Only (A), (B) and (C)

5) All are true

Answer: 1

26. Which of the following must the teachers keep in mind to facilitate learning in student as per the passage?

1) To control the students such that they do not share ideas with others within the lecture hours.

2) To maintain rapport with students and compromise on the course content.

3) To realise hat all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

4) Only to keep the lecture rich in course content.

5) To ensure that students adhere to her views only.

Answer: 5

27. Which of the following are the three elements of communication as per the passage?

1) Source, Signs and Students

2) Source, Sender and Speaker

3) Signs, Words and Students

4) Instructor, Listener and Reader

5) Transmitter, Students and Receiver

Answer: 3

28. Which of the following is the finding of the study on communication styles?

1) The body language and gestures account for 38% of communication and outweighs the voice intonation.

2) Only 9% communication is about content whereas the rest is about our tone and body language.

3) The tone of our voice accounts for 55% of what we communicate and outweighs the body language. 4) More than 90% of our communication is not about content but about our tone and body language.

5) Teaching is fifty percent knowledge and fifty per cent interpersonal for communication skills.

Answer: 1

Directions (Q.29-38): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The latest technology (66) put to use or about to arrive in market must be (67) to all entrepreneurs. The reason is that it may have an (68) effect on business. Valve radio’s gave way to transistor radios and with micro chips, technology is giving way to digital equipment. Business has (69) the same but the technology has kept changing. A notable feature is that the size of the receivers decreased (70) so did the use of its material and consequently its price. The traditional flour mills are losing business (71) customers now buy flour (72) from the market. As a result of this, the business is (73) Following the same lines as technology, the social trends also go on changing and influence the market. The Indian sarees are being taken (74) by readymade stitched clothes. Every entrepreneur must note such changes in the environment and also the technology and plan in (75) with these to ensure the success of his endeavour.

29.

1) to

2) needed

3) decided

4) besides

5) being

Answer: 5

30.

1) hoped

2) welcome

3) released

4) Known

5) aware

Answer: 4

31.

1) approximate

2) huge

3) uniform

4) excellence

5) enormous

Answer: 5

32.

1) maintained

2) remained

3) often

4) mentioned

5) become

Answer: 2

33.

1) mainly

2) and

3) how

4) also

5) some

Answer: 2

34.

1) reason

2) due

3) young

4) as

5) old

Answer: 2

35.

1) knowingly

2) ease

3) cheap

4) directly

5) forcefully

Answer: 4

36.

1) shrinking

2) blooming

3) returned

4) same

5) small

Answer: 4

37.

1) against

2) to

3) over

4) up

5) for

Answer: 1

38.

1) lines

2) relativity

3) accordance

4) proper

5) toning

Answer: 3

Section: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 39-40): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

39. ? 000.5 0024 = 5652

1) 171.75

2) 117.25

3) 171.25

4) 117.75

5) None of these

Answer: 4

40. 65% of 654 – ? % of 860 = 210.1

1) 25

2) 15

3) 20

4) 30

5) None of these

Answer: 1

41 12 men alone can complete a piece of work in six days, whereas 10 men and 21 women take three days to complete the same piece of work. In how many days can 12 women alone complete the same piece of work?
1) 10

2) 9

3) 11
4) 8

5) None of these

Answer: 1
42. The owner of an electronic store charges his customer 11% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 1,33,200 for an LED TV, what was the original price of the TV?
1) `1,20,000

2) `1,14,500

3) ` 1,22,500
4) ` 1,18,000

5) None of these

Answer: 1
43. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 19 years. The ratio of their ages is 16 : 3. What is the age of the daughter?
1) 9 years

2) 3 years

3) 12 years
4) 6 years

5) None of these

Answer: 4
44. A car covers a certain distance in three hours at the speed of 124 Km/hr. What is the average speed of a truck which travels a distance of 120 Km less than the car in the same time?
1) 88 km/hr

2) 84 km/hr

3) 78 km/hr
4) 73 km/hr

5) None of these

Answer: 2
45. The cost of four calculators and two stencils is ` 6,200 what is the cost of ten calculators and five stencils?
1) `15,500

2) `14,875

3) ` 16,200
4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Answer: 1
46. Find the average of the following set of scores: 214, 351, 109, 333, 752, 614,456, 547
1) 482

2) 428

3) 444
4) 424

5) None of these

Answer: 5

47. The average of four consecutive odd numbers A, B, C and D is 54. What is the product of A and C?

1) 2907

2) 2805

3) 2703
4) 2915

5) None of these

Answer: 2
48. The sum of 55% of a number and 40% of the same number is 180.5. What is 80% of that number?

1) 134

2) 152

3) 148
4) 166

5) None of these

Answer: 2
49. There are 950 employees in an organisation, out of which 28% got promoted. Find the number of employees who got promoted.
1) 226

2) 256

3) 266
4) 216

5) None of these

Answer:
50. What is the least number to be added to 3000 to make it a perfect square?
1) 191

2) 136

3) 25
4) 84

5) None of these

Answer: 3
51. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of ` 7,640 at the rate of 15 pcpa after two years?
1) `2,634.9

2) `2,643.9

3) ` 2,364.9
4) ` 2,463.9

5) None of these

Answer: 4
52. In an examination it is required to get 65% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 874 marks and is declared failed by 10% marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
1) 1450

2) 1640

3) 1500
4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Answer: 5
53. A juice centre requires 35 dozen guavas for 28 days. How many dozen guavas will it require for 36 days?
1) 50

2) 52

3) 40
4) 45

5) None of these

Answer: 4
54. Mohan sold an item for ` 4,510 and incurred a loss of 45%. At what price should he have sold the item to have earned a profit of 45%?
1) `10,900

2) ` 12,620

3) ` 11,890
4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Answer: 2
55. What would be the circumference of a circle whose area is 745.36 sq cm?
1) 94.4 cm

2) 88.8 cm

3) 96.3 cm
4) 87.4 cm

5) None of these

Answer: 5
Section: General Awareness
56. USA has asked India to reduce its dependence on crude oil supply from which of the following countries which is also a member of OPEC?
1) Venezuela

2) Iraq

3) Libya
4) Iran

5) Nigeria

Answer: 4

56. Which of the following is the most essential financial service which should be provided to the poor people to bring them into the network of financial inclusion?
1) Insurance for life
2) Investment plan for future
3) Pension for old age
4) A bank account where he/she can save small amount
5) Health insurance for minor illnesses and hospitalisation in case of need

Answer: 4

57. Who among the following is the president of a country at present?
1) Rupert Murdoch

2) Ban ki-moon

3) Yoshihiko Noda
4) Nicolas Sarkozy

5) None of these

Answer: 4

58. What does tha letter F denote in ‘NBFCs’, a term seen very frequently in banking world these days?
1) Formal

2) Fiscal

3) Federal
4) Functional

5) Financial

Answer: 5

59. Which of the following services products of banks is specially designed and launched to help students?
1) Personal loan

2) Corporate loan

3) Business loan
4) Medical loan

5) Education loan

Answer: 5

60. Which of the following terms is not directly associated with the functioning of RBI?
1) Open Market Operations

2) Cash Reserve Ratio

3) SENSEX
4) Liquidity Adjustment Facility

5) Public Debt Office

Answer: 3

61. The 59th National Film Award for Best Actress was given to
1) Vidya Balan

2) Kareena Kapoor
3) Priyanka Chopra

4) Lara Dutta

5) Roopa Ganguly

Answer: 1

62. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the body/ agency set up to boost foreign investments in India?
1) FORE

2) FCCB

3) FIPB
4) FEMA

5) AITAF

Answer: 3

63. Which of the following is not considered infrastructural sector of the economy?
1) Electricity

2) Textile Sector

3) Telecom
4) Cement

5) Road and Railways

Answer: 2

64. Sachin Tendulkar made his 100th century in the match played between India and
1) Pakistan

2) England

3) Australia
4) Bangladesh

5) Sri Lanka

Answer: 4
65. Who among the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2012?
1) TV Rajeswar

2) Aruna Irani

3) AR Rahman
4) Shabana Azmi

5) Anup Jalota

Answer: 5
66. Which of the following countries is a member of BRICs?
1) Bhutan

2) Iran

3) Romania
4) Sudan

5) South Africa

Answer: 5
67. Which of the following countries has recently placed its first space lab ‘Tiangong-1’ into orbit?

1) North Korea

2) Japan

3) India
4) France

5) China

Answer: 5
68. Who among the following is the Solicitor General of India at present?
1) Jacob Mathew

2) Rohinton Nariman
3) Gopal Subramaniam

4) Ashok Chawla

5) None of these

Answer: 2
69. Which of the following schemes has been launched by the Govt of India to motivate
school children to attend school regularly?
1) Kutir Jyoti

2) Mid-Day Meal

3) MGNREGA
4) RAY

5) Bharat Nirman

Answer: 2

70. Seychelles, where China is going to set up its new military base, is a country
in the
1) Bay of Bengal

2) China Sea

3) Indian Ocean
4) Red Sea

5) Caspian Sea

Answer: 3
71. Which of the following terms is used in the field of economics?
1) Absolute Zero

2) Molecular Equation

3) Zero Point Energy
4) Balance of Payment

5) Mass Defect
Answer: 4

Section: Computer Knowledge

72. The legal right to use software based on specific restrictions is granted via a
1) software privacy policy

2) software license
3) software password manager

4) software log
5) None of these

Answer: 2

73. Which of the following is the type of software that controls the internal operations in the computer and controls how the computer works with all its parts?
1) Shareware

2) Public domain software
3) Application software

4) Operating system software

5) None of these.

Answer: 4
74. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes.
1) data redundancy

2) information overload
3) duplicate data

4) data consistency

5) data inconsistency

Answer: 5

75. To view information on the Web you must have a
1) cable modem

2) Web browser

3) domain name server
4) hypertext viewer

5) None of these

Answer: 1

76. A file is often referred to as a
1) Wizard

2) document

3) pane
4) device

5) documentation

Answer: 2

77. To protect yourself from computer hacker intrusions you should install a
1) firewall

2) mailer

3) macro
4) script

5) None of these

Answer: 2

78. Which of the following software applications would be the most appropriate
for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
1) Database

2) Document processor

3) Graphics package
4) Spreadsheet

5) Power Point

Answer: 4

79. A ………. is used to read hand written or printed text to make a digital image that is stored in memory.
1) printer

2) laser beam

3) scanner
4) touchpad

5) None of these

Answer: 3

80 A…………….. is pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a layout, and a background.
1) guide

2) model

3) ruler
4) template

5) design-plate

Answer: 4

81. Removing and replacing devices without turning off your computer is referred to as
1) Hot swapping

2) Plug-n-Play

3) Bay swap
4) USB swapping

5) None of these.

Answer: 2

82. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are called.
1) information engines

2) locator engines

3) web browsers
4) resource locators

5) search engines

Answer: 5
83. Expansion cards are inserted into
1) slots

2) peripheral devices

3) the CPU
4) the back of the computer

5) None of these

Answer: 1

84. A program designed to destroy data on your computer which can travel to “infect” other computers is called a
1) disease

2) torpedo

3) hurricane
4) virus

5) infector
Answer: 4

85. A collection of interrelated records is called a
1) utility file

2) management information system
3) database

4) spreadsheet

5) datasheet

Answer: 3
RBI Grade -B Aptitude Questions Answers
RBI Grade B Previous Years Quantitative Aptitude Solved Question paper
Directions (11-5) : In each of these questions a number series is given. Below the series one number is given followed by(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to complete this series following the same logic as in the original series and answer the question that follows.
1. 5 9 25 91 414 2282.5
3 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (c)?
a)63.25
b)63.75
c)64.25
d)64.75-Answer
e)None of these

2. 15 9 8 12 36 170
19 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will conic in place of (b)?
a)18
b)16-Answer
c)22
d)24
e)None of these

3. 7 6 10 27 104 515
9 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (d) ?
a)152-Answer
b)I56
c)108
d)112
e)None of these

4. 6 16 57 244 1245 7506
4 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (d)?
a)98S
b)980
c)1004
d)1015
e)None of these-Answer

5. 8 9 20 63 256 1285
5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (e)?
a)945
b)895
c)92SAnswer
d)84S
e)None of these

Directions (6 -10): What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
(You are not expect ed to calculate exact value.)

6. (32.51) 2-(17.4S)2 =?
a)780
b)8SO
c)680
d)820
e)750Answer

7. 88.25% of 450 =?% of 530

a)70
b)68
c)75Answer
d)80
e)6S

8. Square root (12.005)2+? =5000

a)680Answer
b)720
c)750
d)620
e).630

9.9. 3745 ÷ 24.05 X 17.98 =?

a)2860
b)2800Answer
c)2760
d)2720
e)2840

10.117.95 X 8.017 X 4.98 = ?

a)4670
b)4780
c)4840
d)4720Answer
e)4800

Directions (11–15) : In these questions, a question is, given followed by information in three statements. You have to consider the information in all the three statements and decide the information in which of the statement(s) is not necessarily required to answer the question and therefore can be dispensed with. Indicate your answer accordingly.

11. How many students from Institute ‘A’got placement?
I. Number of students studying in Institutes A & B are in the ratio of 3 : 4 respectively.
II. Number of students who got placement from Institute B is 120% of the number of students who got placement from InstituteA.
III . 80% of the students studying in Institute B got placement.
a)None of the statements can be dispensed with
b)Only I
c)Only II
d)Any one of the three
e)Question cannot be answered even with the information in all three statements Answer

12. What is the monthly income of Mr. X?
I. Mr. X spends 85% of his income on various items and remainingamount is saved.
II. Monthly savings of Mr. X are Rs. 4,500/-.
III.Out of-the total ·money spent byMr. X in a month, one-fifth is’ spenton food and remaining amount of Rs. 20.400 onother items.
a)Only II
b)Only III
c)Only either II or III
d)Question cannot be answered even with the information in air three statements
e)None of theseAnswer

13. What is Suchitra’s present age?
I.Suchitra’s present age is double the age of her son.
II. Ratio between present ages of Suchitra and her mother is 2: 3respectively.
III. Four years hence the ratio between Suchitra’s age and her son’s age will be 13: 24 respectively.
a)Only II
b)Only III
c)Either I orIIIOnly
d)Either II or III Only
e)None of theseAnswer

14. What is Neeta’s share in the profit earned at the end of 2 years in a joint business run by Neeta, Seeta and Geeta?
I. Neeta invested Rs. 85,000/-to start the business.
II. Seeta and Geeta joined Neeta’s business after six months investing amounts in the ratio of 3 : 5 respectively.
III . Total amount invested by Seeta and Geeta is Rs. 2.5 lacs
a)Only II
b)Only III
c)Only either II or III
d)Information in all three statements is required for answering thequestion.
e)Question cannot be answered even with the information in all three statements.Answer

15. What is the labeled price of the article?
I. Cost price of the article is Rs. 500/-.
II. Selling price after offering 5% discount on the labeled price is Rs. 608/
III. Profit earned would have been 28% if no discount was offered.
a)Only I
b)Only III
c)Only II & Ill
d)Only I and IllAnswer
e)Only I and II

16 Directions (16-20) : · Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

An Institute having 450 employees has sent all its employees for training in one or more are as out of HRM,Computer Skillsand Financial Skills. Employees are classified into two categories officers and clerks, which are in the ratio of 4 : 5 respectively. 10% of the officers take trainingonlyin Computer skills. 16% of the clerks take trainingonly in HRM which is equal to the number of officers takingtraining only in F inancial Skills and 50% of thnumber of officers taking training in HRM and Financial Skills both 6% of the total-employees take training in all three of which two-third are officers. 10% of the total employees take training in HRM and Computer Skills both which is five times the number of Clerks taking training in Computer Skills and Financial Skills. 10% of the Clerks take training in HRM and Computer Skills both Number of officers taking train.ing only in HRM is 25% of the number of Clerks taking training only in HRM. 20% of the total number of employees takes training only in Computer Skills . Number of clerks taking training in HRM and Financial skills both is 20% of the total number of Clerks.
16.Total how many officers take-trainingin HRM?
a)110
b)128
c)118
d)98
e)None of theseAnswer
17. Total how many Clerks take training in Computer Skills but not in HRM?
a)113
b)104
c)88
d)79
e)None of theseAnswer
18. Total how many employees take training in Financial Skills but not inHRM?
a)106
b)135
c)127
d)134
e)None of theseAnswer
19. Total how many Clerks take training in Financial Skills?
a)115
b)106
c)47
d)97
e)None of theseAnswer
20. What percent of the total number of Officers take training in Computer Skills but not in Financial Skills?
a)25
b)40
c)20
d)15
e)None of theseAnswer
RBI Grade B Reasoning Questions

RBI Placement Paper

RBI Grade B officer Previous Years solved question papers

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters MASTE using each letter only once in each word
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three-Answer

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1)78-Answer
(2) 48
(3) 72
(4)54
(5) 42

3. In a certain cede SAFER is written as 5@3#2 and RIDE is written as 2©%#. How is FEDS written in that code ?
(1)3#©5
(2) 3@%5
(3)3#%5-Answer
(4) 3#%2
(5)None of these

4.. Pointing to a woman, Nirmal said, “She is the daughter of my wife’s grandfather’s only child”. How is the woman related to Nirmal
(1)Wife-Answer
(2)Sister-in-law
(3)Sister
(4)Data inadequate
(5)None of these

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1)Sweet-Answer
(2) Cake
(3)Pastry
(4) Bread.
(5) Biscuit

6. In a certain code CONFUSED is written as EMNBEFTV. How is SECLUDED written in that code
(1) RDBKEFEV
(2) KBDRCDCT
(3) KBDREFEV-Answer
(4) MDFTCDCT
(5) None of these

7. What should come next in the following letter series ?
Z XVT R P N U YW T J S Q O
(1)M-Answer
(2)K
(3)N
(4)J
(5)None of these

8. Flow many such digits are there in the number 9254716 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order
(1)None
(2) One-Answer
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

9. In a certain code language’ bring the board’ is written as ka na di pa’ and ‘white and black board’ is written as ‘na di sa ra’. How is ‘the’ written in that code ?
(l)ka
(2) pa
(3) ka or pa-Answer
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

10. Among B, F, J, K and W each having a different weight, F is heavier than only J. B is heavier than F and W but not as heavy 35 K. Who among them is the third heaviest among them ?
(1) B
(2)F
(3) K
(4)W -Answer
None of these

Directions (Q. 11 to 16) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
Y 4 8 A @ D F 3 # R N 1 M © W
P % J 2 E 5 Z * 6 Q B 7 $ H U 9 I K

11. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the above arrangement P
(1)1
(2)D
(3)Z-Answer
(4)$
(5)None of these

12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group
(1)D#A
(2)JWE-Answer
(3)562
(4) $9B
(5)RM3

13. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?
(1)None
(2) One
(3) Two-Answer
(4) Three
(5) More than three

14. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol P
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two-Answer
(4) Three
(5) More than three

15. What should come next in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
8@D #N1 W%J 5*6
(1) 7HU-Answer
(2) 7$U
(3) 7#9
(4) B$#
(5) None of these

16. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourteenth from the left end?
(1)W
(2)P
(3)6
(4)J-Answer
(5)None of these

Directions (Q. 17 to 20) In each question below are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, II and IV. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is correct.

17. Statements

All belts are rollers.
Some rollers are wheels.
All wheels are mats.
Some mats are cars.

Conclusions

I. Some mats are rollers.
II. Some mats are belts.
III. Some cars are rollers.
IV Some rollers are belts.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I, III and IV follow
(3) Only I and IV follow-Answer
(4) Only II, III and IV follow
(5) None of these

18. Statements

Some tyres are rains.
Some rains are flowers.
All flowers are jungles.
All jungles are tubes.

Conclusions

I. Some jungles are tyres.
II. Some tubes are rains.
III. Some jungles are rains.
IV. Some tubes are flowers.
(1) Only I, II and III follow
(2) Only II, III and IV follow-Answer
(3) Only I, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these

19. Statements

All desks are chairs.
All chairs axe tables.
All tables are boxes.
All boxes are trunks.

Conclusions

I. Some trunks are tables.
II. All chairs are boxes.
III. Some boxes are desks.
P All desks are trunks.
(1) Only I ,II and III follow
(2) Only I, II and IV follow
(3) Only II, III and IV follow
(4) All follow-Answer
(5) None of these

20. Statements
Some birds are goats.
Some goats are horses.
Some horses are lions.
Some lions are tigers.

Conclusions

I. Some tigers are goats.
II. No tiger is goat.
III. Some lions are birds.
IV No lion is bird.
(1) Only either I or II follows
(2) Only either III or IV follows
(3) Only either I or II and either III or IV follow-Answer
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
RBI Computer Model Questions Answers
RBI Bank Assist Exam, : Computer Knowledge questions and answers for learn and practice
RBI Bank Assist Exam, : Computer Knowledge solved question papers

1. A —- typically connects personal computers within a very limited geographical area, usually within a single building.?
(A) LAN
(B) BAN
(C) TAN
(D) NAN
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is called ?
(A) utilizing
(B) batching
(C) upgrading
(D) processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. An e-mail address typically consists of a user ID followed by the —— sign and the name of the e-mail server that manages the user’s electronic post office box.
(A) @
(B) #
(C) &
(D) *
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. Software applies—, also called algorithms, to process data.
(A) arithmetic
(B) procedures
(C) objects
(D) rules
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. A file extension is separated from the main file name with a(n) ——, but no spaces.
(A) question mark
(B) exclamation mark
(C) underscore
(D) period
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. An ad hoc query is a——
(A) pre-planned question
(B) pre-scheduled question
(C) spur-of-the-moment question
(D) question that will not return any results
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. A Web —– consists of one or more Web pages located on a Web server.
(A) hub
(B) site
(C) story
(D) template
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. A computer —- is a set of program instructions that can attach itself to a file, reproduce itself, and spread to other files.
(A) worm
(B) virus
(C) trojan horse
(D) phishing scam
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. The desktop contains small graphics called—-
(A) windows
(B) logos
(C) icons
(D) pictures
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are examples of —–languages.
(A) low-level
(B) computer
(C) system programming
(D) high-level
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. A(n)——camera is a peripheral device used to capture still images in a digital format that can be easily transferred into a computer and manipulated using graphics software.
(A) digital
(B) analog
(C) classic
(D) film
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. —–makes it possible for shoppers to make purchases using their computers.
(A) E-world
(B) E-commerce
(C) E-spend
(D) E-business
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

13. Networks are monitored by security personnel and supervised by —–who set(s) up accounts and passwords for authorized network users.
(A) IT managers
(B) the government
(C) network administrators
(D) password administrators
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Application software is designed to accomplish—
(A) real-world tasks
(B) computer-centric tasks
(C) gaming tasks
(D) operating system tasks
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. A telephone number, a birth date, and a customer name are all examples of—
(A) a record
(B) data
(C) a file
(D) a database
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

16. The human-readable version of a program is called—
(A) source code
(B) program code
(C) human code
(D) system code
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. A—— computer (also referred to as a laptop), is a small, lightweight personal computer that incorporates the screen, the keyboard, storage, and processing components into a single portable unit.
(A) notebook
(B) journal
(C) diary
(D) briefcase
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. —– is the result produced by a computer.
(A) Data
(B) Memory
(C) Output
(D) Input
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Programs such as Internet Explorer that serve as navigable windows into the Web are called—-
(A) Hypertext
(B) Networks
(C) Internet
(D) Web browsers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. A —– is a device that not only provides surge protection, but also furnishes your computer with battery backup power during a power outage.
(A) surge strip
(B) USB
(C) UPS
(D) battery strip
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. When you save to —-, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off.
(A) RAM
(B) motherboard
(C) secondary storage device
(D) primary storage device
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. The motherboard is the—
(A) circuit board that houses peripheral devices
(B) same as the CPU chip
(C) the first chip that is accessed when the computer is turned on
(D) circuit board that contains a CPU and other chips
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. A computer-intensive problem runs on a—
(A) server
(B) main frame
(C) supercomputer
(D) super PC
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. A(n)—–converts and executes one statement at a time.
(A) compiler
(B) interpreter
(C) converter
(D) instructions
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

25. The term —- designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.
(A) digital device
(B) system add-on
(C) disk pack
(D) peripheral device
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Approximately how many bytes make one megabyte ?
(A) One thousand
(B) Ten thousand
(C) One hundred
(D) One million
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

27. What is MP3 ?
(A) A mouse
(B) A Printer
(C) A Sound format
(D) A Scanner
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. All the deleted files go to–
(A) Recycle Bin
(B) Task Bar
(C) Tool Bar
(D) My Computer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

29. —– this is the act of copying or downloading a program from a network and making multiple copies of it.
(A) Network piracy
(B) Plagiarism
(C) Software piracy
(D) Site-license piracy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

30. A directory within a directory is called—
(A) Mini Directory
(B) Junior Directory
(C) Part Directory
(D) Sub Directory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

31. Which is the best definition of a software package ?
(A) An add-on for your computer such as additional memory
(B) A set of computer programs used for a certain function such as word processing
(C) A protection you can buy for a computer
(D) The box, manual and license agreement that accompany commercial software
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. In MICR, C stands for —-
(A) Code
(B) Colour
(C) Computer
(D) Character
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. Fax machines and imaging systems are examples of—
(A) bar-code readers
(B) imaging systems
(C) scanning devices
(D) pen-based systems
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

34. When writing a document, you can use the —- feature to find an appropriate word or an alternative word if you find yourself stuck for the right word.
(A) dictionary
(B) word finder
(C) encyclopedia
(D) thesaurus
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task ?
(A) Function
(B) Control
(C) Arrow
(D) Space bar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is—
(A) read-only
(B) memory-only
(C) run-only
(D) write-only
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

37. In an information system, alphanumeric data normally takes the form of—-
(A) Sentences and paragraphs
(B) Numbers and alphabetical characters
(C) Graphic shapes and figures
(D) Human voice and other sounds
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. A Website?s main page is called its—
(A) home page
(B) browser page
(C) search place
(D) bookmark
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. When installing —–, the user must copy and usually decompress program files from a CDROM or other medium to the hard disk.
(A) programming software
(B) system hardware
(C) applications hardware
(D) applications software
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

40. A collection of interrelated files in a computer is a—
(A) file manager
(B) field
(C) record
(D) database
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. A —– computer is a large and expensive computer capable of simultaneously processing data for hundreds or thousands of users.
(A) server
(B) mainframe
(C) desktop
(D) tablet
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

42. The trend in computer systems is toward the use of graphical user interfaces (GUIs). In these operating systems, a trackball is described as—
(A) a roller ball which moves the cursor
(B) a pen-shaped device which allows data to be entered through the CRT screen
(C) a figure which resembles a familiar office device
(D) an outdated input device
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

43. Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by—-
(A) Symbols
(B) Labels
(C) Graphs
(D) Icons
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

44. What is usually used for displaying information at public places ?
(A) Monitors
(B) Overhead Projections
(C) Monitors and Overhead Projections
(D) Touch Screen Kiosks
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. The real business and competitive value of information technology lies in—
(A) The software applications that are used by many companies
(B) The capabilities of the software and value of the information a business acquires and uses
(C) The infrastructure of hardware, networks, and other IT facilities that are commonly used by many companies
(D) The capabilities of the hardware and the speed at which it processes information
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. Companies use which of the following vendors to provide access to software and services rather than purchasing the applications and maintaining the applications themselves ?
(A) Open source vendors
(B) Alliances
(C) Application service providers
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Which one of the following would be considered as a way that a computer virus can enter a computer system ?
(A) Opening an application previously installed on the computer
(B) Borrowed copies of software
(C) Viewing a website without causing any additional transactions
(D) Running antivirus programs
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of—
(A) spooling
(B) dentity theft
(C) spoofing
(D) hacking
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. The first step in the transaction processing cycle is—
(A) database operations
(B) audit
(C) data entry
(D) user inquiry
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

50. In the information systems concept, the output function involves–
(A) Capturing and assembling elements that enter the system to be processed
(B) Transformation processes that convert input into output
(C) Transferring elements that have been produced by a transformation process to their ultimate destination
(D) Monitoring and evaluating feedback to determine whether a system is moving toward the achievement of its goal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

RBI Aptitude Paper

RBI Grade B Previous Years Quantitative Aptitude Solved Question paper
Directions (1·5) : Study the following table carefully to answer the questions. Rate of interest (P.C.P.A.) offered by five companies on deposits under different schemes

TD P { margin-bottom: 0cm; }P { margin-bottom: 0.21cm; }

Company Scheme

A

B

C

D

E

I

8.5

9

8

8.5

9

II

9.5

8.5

9

9

8.5

III

8

7.5

8

8.5

8.5

IV

10

9.5

10.5

9.5

10.5

1 . Mr. X deposited an amount in Scheme II with Company C for two years. After that he withdrew the amount and reinvested only the principal amount in Scheme IV of Company B for twoyears. Total amount of simple interest accrued from the two schemes is Rs.14,800/-. What was the principal amount?

a)Rs. 48.000/
b)Rs. 42,000/
c)Rs. 40.000/Answer
d)Cannot be determined
e)None of these

2. Company E offers compound interest under Scheme I and Company A others simple interest under Scheme IV.What will be the difference between the interestsearned under the Scheme I of Company E,andScheme IV of Company A respectively in two years on an amount of Rs. 1.2 lakhs?
a)Rs. 1.428Answer
b)Rs. 1,328
c)Rs. 1,528
d)Rs. 1,548
e)None of these

3. Company D offers compound interest under Scheme II and simple interest under Scheme IV.Abhijit invested Rs.25,000 with this company under Scheme IV and after one year switched over to Scheme II along with the interest for one more year. What isthe total amount he will get at the end of twoyears?
a)Rs. 28,939.25
b)Rs. 29,838.75Answer
c)Rs. 31.748.28
d)Rs. 31.738.75
e)None of these

4.Abhishek invested an amount of Rs.45,000 for two years with Company B under, Scheme III which offer compound interest and Jeevan invested
equal amount for two years with Company C under Scheme IV which offers simple interest. Who earned more interest and how much?
a)Abbishek, Rs. 1,875
b)Jeevan, Rs. 1,875
c)Abhishek, Rs. 1,962
d)Jeevan, Rs. 1,962Answer
e)None of these

5. Mr. La! invested Rs. 30,000 in Company under Scheme II which offer s simple interest and Rs. 48,000 in Company D under Scheme II which offers compound interest. What will be the total amount of interest earned by Mr. Lal in two years ?
a)Rs. 14728.80Answer
b)Rs. 17428.50
c)Rs. 14,827.70
d)Rs. 16,728.20
e)None of these

Directions (6-) : Study the following pie – charts and table to answer these questions.
State -wise Details of Adult Population of a Country Graduate and above
Total No. = 24 Lakhs.

Male -Female (M : F ) Ratio

State
Graduation and Above

UptoXII Std Pass

MFMFA7579B5335C5445
D

9

8

5

7

E

9

7

9

10

F

4

3

3

2

Directions (6-35) : Study the following pie – charts and table to answer these questions.
State -wise Details of Adult Population of a Country Graduate and above
Total No. = 24 Lakhs.

6. What is the difference between Graduate male population and XII Std.male population from State A?
a)24,000
b)14,000-Answer
c)28,000
d)36,000
e)None of these
7. What is the ratio between Graduate female population of State E and Std.XII female population of State Drespectively?
a)7 : 5
b)5 : 7
c)16 : 15
d)15 : 16-Answer
e)None of these

8. Graduate female population of State C is what percent of the Std. XII female population of that State?
a)40
b)62.5
c)50-Answer
d)52.5
e)None of these

9. Class XII male population of State Cis what percent of the total Std. XII population of all the states together?
a)8-Answer
b)12%
c)11%
d)9%
e)None of thesev

10. What is the ratio between Graduate male population of State E and Std.XII female population of that State respectively?
a)28 : 35
b)35: 28
c)32:45
d)45: 32
e)None of these-Answer

11. Total graduate population of State F is what percent o f the total Std. XIIpopulation of State A?
a)56
b)72
c)68
d)76
e)None of these-Answer

12. Std. XII male population of State E is what percent of the Std. XII malepopulation of State F?
a)70
b)75-Answer
c)68
d)72
e)None of these

13. What is the ratio between total Graduate and Std. XII male population of St ate A and total Graduate and Std.XIIfemale population of that State respectively?
a)215:216
b)214 : 215
c)217 :215-Answer
d)215:217
e)None of these

14. What is the ratio between total Graduate population of State D and total Std. XII population of that State respectively?
a)17: 16-Answer
b)16: 17
c)64:51
d)51:64
e)None of these

15. Graduate female population of State B. is what percent of the Graduate female population of State E? (rounded off to nearest integer)
a)129
b)82
c)77-Answer
d)107
e)None of these

16 )·Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.
QUANTITY OF VARIOUS ITEMS SOLD AND PRICE PER KG.
16. What is the average price per kg. of wheat and rice sold?
(rounded off tonearest integer)
a)32
b)34-Answer
c)36
d)35
e)31

17. If cumin is sold at a 10% discount; the quantity sold doubles. What will be the cost of total quantity of cumin sold on discount?
a)Rs. 52,600/
b)Rs. 28,800/
c)Rs. 32,000/
d)Rs. 57,600/-Answer
e)None of these

18. Out of the total quantity of sugar sold,half the quantity is sold at the given rate while half the quantity is sold on a price increased by 20%. What is the total cost of entire quantity of sugarsold?
a)Rs. 23,100/-Answer
b)Rs. 23,800/
c)Rs. 22,400/
d)Rs. 23,400/
e)None of these

19 Ifthe quantitie s sold of Groundnut and Cumin are interchanged, what willbe the total cost of quantities sold for these two items together?
a)Rs. 62,000/
b)Rs. 60,000/
c)Rs. 65,000/
d)Rs. 63,000/
e)None of these-Answer

20 . If the quantity of coriander sold is increased by 200% and. the price per kg.is reduced by 8%, what will be the total cost of coriander sold?
a)Rs. 38,460
b)Rs. 36,480/
c)Rs. 38,640/-Answer
d)Rs. 36,840/
e)None of these

RBI English GK Computer Questions

RBI Assisst Model solved question papers of English,General Awareness,Aptitude,Reasoning and computer knowledge questions with answers

Questions 1 to 5: Choose synonymous word

1. To surprise somebody greatly:

(a) Appraise

(b) Antonyms

(c) Astonish (Ans)

(d) Reveal

2. To make something more important that it really:

(a) Excess

(b) Elaborate

(c) Stress upon

(d) Exaggerate (Ans)

3. Express one’s opinion without evidence or full knowledge:

(a) Specify

(b) Speculate (Ans)

(c) Concede

(d) Sensing

4. An event that will happen soon:

(a) Imminent (Ans)

(b) Damnsure

(c) Immense

(d) Immutable

5. To lead somebody to do something:

(a) Persuade (Ans)

(b) Placate

(c) Persecute

(d) Perpend

Questions 6 to 9: Four words are given in each. Three of them can be grouped together applying a principle. One word does not belong to the group. Find it out.

6. (a) Violet

(b) Blue

(c) Magenda (Ans)

(d) Green

Ans :

? All the others colours present in rainbow.
7. (a) Cucumber

(b) Carrot (Ans)

(c) Brinjal

(d) Ladies finger

? It is a root vegetable.

8. (a) Yaswanth Sinha

(b)Jaswant Singh

(c) Shatrugnan Sinha (Ans)

(d) Manmohan Singh

? All others were Finance Ministers of India (d) Manmohan Singh can also be the answer as others were only union ministers

while Manmohan Singh is the Prime Minister.

9. (a) Cancel

(b) Nullify

(c) Void

(d) Confirm

Questions 10 to 13: Three words are given. There is a relationship between the first two words. Select a word that expresses a similar relationship with the third word from the given alternatives.

10. Pather Panjali : Sathyajith Ray; Athithi :

(a) K.P. Kumaran (Ans)

(b) M.T. Vasudevan Nair

(c) T.V. Chandran

(d) P.A. Backer

11. Bangladesh: Dhaka; Austria:

(a) Canberra

(b) Lapaz

(c) Santiago

(d) Vienna (Ans)

Ans :

? Canberra – capital of Australia

? Santiago – capital of Chile
Question 12 to 20: choose collect answer from the alternative to fill the blank space:

12. A,E, J,O,?,?

(a) M,Q

(b) S, X

(c) T, Y (Ans)

(d) U, Z

Ans :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M

N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

E 5th position J 10th position

O 15th position T 20th position

Y 25th position

13. ADH, BEI, CFJ, ?

(a) DGL

(b) DHK

(c) EHL

(d) FIM

Ans : (c) and (d) are correct

A + 3 = D, D + 4 = H

B + 3 = E, E + 4 = I

C + 3 = F, F + 4 = J

E + 3 = H, H + 4 = L

So answer is EHL

FIM also comes in the same manner

14. Veluthampi Dalawa ______ a brave fight against British Army.

(a) Put up (Ans)

(b) Put off

(c) Put in

(d) Put down

15. The train was coming, the supervisor ______ the workers to stop working on rail.

(a) called off

(b) called in

(c) called away

(d) called out (Ans)

16. It ________ rain this evening.

(a) can

(b) may (Ans)

(c) could

(d) is

17. ______ the suspected cause for earthquakes is the construction of dams.

(a) Most of

(b) Only

(c) One of (Ans)

(d) None of these

18. There were _______ telephone booths around, so that the old one is closed.

(a) few

(b) a little

(c) a few (Ans)

(d) little
19. Indian Patent Act was formed in

(a) 1970 (Ans)

(b) 1975

(c) 1977

(d) 1980

20. ?One Life? is written by:

(a) Dr. B. Iqbal

(b) Bergnan

(c) Kurozowa

(d) Dr. Christiaan Bernard (Ans)

Ans : Christiaan Bernard. One life is a book written by Dr Christiaan Bernard. He made the first human heart transplant in 1967.

RBI Computer question with answers
1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.
B. spam.
C. viruses.
D. identity theft.
Answer: B

2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.
A. data mining
B. data selection
C. POS
D. data conversion
Answer: A

3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems.
A. Data
B. Point-of-sale (POS)
C. Sales
D. Query
Answer: B

4. A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an itemâ??s tag and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
A. PSS
B. POS
C. inventory
D. data mining
Answer: A

5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminalâ??s computer is an example of a law enforcement specialty called:
A. robotics.
B. simulation.
C. computer forensics.
D. animation.
Answer: C

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
A. gathering data
B. processing data into information
C. analyzing the data or information
D. storing the data or information
Answer: C

7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database all of the animalâ??s movements.
A. POS
B. RFID
C. PPS
D. GPS
Answer: B

8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of manually. This technology is known as:
A. robotics.
B. computer forensics.
C. simulation.
D. forecasting.
Answer: A

9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:
A. proprietary.
B. open.
C. experimental.
D. in the public domain.
Answer: A

10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers.
A. Nanoscience
B. Microelectrodes
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence that humans do.
A. Nanoscience
B. Nanotechnology
C. Simulation
D. Artificial intelligence (AI)
Answer: D

12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
A. A process
B. Software
C. Storage
D. Information
Answer: D

13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
A. programming.
B. processing.
C. storing.
D. organizing.
Answer: B

14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data.
A. present
B. input
C. output
D. store
Answer: B

15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual print of the picture is considered:
A. data.
B. output.
C. input.
D. the process.
Answer: B
16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data.
A. processing
B. kilobyte
C. binary
D. representational
Answer: C

17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:
A. multimedia.
B. words.
C. characters.
D. numbers.
Answer: D

18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique combination of:
A. eight bytes.
B. eight kilobytes.
C. eight characters.
D. eight bits.
Answer: D

19. The term bit is short for:
A. megabyte.
B. binary language.
C. binary digit.
D. binary number.
Answer: C
20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
A. megabyte.
B. byte.
C. kilobyte.
D. gigabyte.
Answer: B