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Category: RailTel Latest Quatitative Aptitude Questions

RailTel Latest Quatitative Aptitude Questions

RailTel Latest Quatitative Aptitude Questions

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RailTel coporation Ltd RCIL Quantitative Aptitude Questions with answers

1. It was calculated that 75 men could complete a piece of work in 20 days. When work was scheduled to commence, it was found necessary to send 25 men to another project.
How much longer will it take to complete the work?
Answer: 30 days.
Explanation:
Before: One day work = 1 / 20
One man’s one day work = 1 / ( 20 * 75)
Now:
No. Of workers = 50
One day work = 50 * 1 / ( 20 * 75)
The total no. of days required to complete the work = (75 * 20) / 50 = 30
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2. A student divided a number by 2/3 when he required to multiply by 3/2. Calculate the percentage of error in his result.
Answer 0 %
Explanation:
Since 3x / 2 = x / (2 / 3)
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3. A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell pulses at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 950gm. for a kg. His gain is …%.
Answer: 5.3 %
Explanation:
He sells 950 grams of pulses and gains 50 grams.
If he sells 100 grams of pulses then he will gain (50 / 950) *100 = 5.26

4. A software engineer has the capability of thinking 100 lines of code in five minutes and can type 100 lines of code in 10 minutes. He takes a break for five minutes after every ten minutes.
How many lines of codes will he complete typing after an hour?
Answer 250 lines of codes
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5. A man was engaged on a job for 30 days on the condition that he would get a wage of Rs. 10 for the day he works, but he have to pay a fine of Rs. 2 for each day of his absence.
If he gets Rs. 216 at the end, he was absent for work for … days.
Answer- 7 days
Explanation:
The equation portraying the given problem is:
10 * x – 2 * (30 – x) = 216 where x is the number of working days.
Solving this we get x = 23
Number of days he was absent was 7 (30-23) days.
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6. A contractor agreeing to finish a work in 150 days, employed 75 men each working 8 hours daily. After 90 days, only 2/7 of the work was completed.
Increasing the number of men by ________ each working now for 10 hours daily, the work can be completed in time.
Answer-150 men.
Explanation:
One day’s work = 2 / (7 * 90)
One hour’s work = 2 / (7 * 90 * 8)
One man’s work = 2 / (7 * 90 * 8 * 75)
The remaining work (5/7) has to be completed within 60 days, because the total number of days allotted for the project is 150 days.
So we get the equation
(2 * 10 * x * 60) / (7 * 90 * 8 * 75) = 5/7 where x is the number of men working after the 90th day.
We get x = 225
Since we have 75 men already, it is enough to add only 150 men.
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7. what is a percent of b divided by b percent of a?
(a) a (b) b (c) 1 (d) 10 (d) 100
Answer-1
Explanation:
a percent of b : (a/100) * b
b percent of a : (b/100) * a
a percent of b divided by b percent of a : ((a / 100 )*b) / (b/100) * a )) = 1
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8. A man bought a horse and a cart. If he sold the horse at 10 % loss and the cart at 20 % gain, he would not lose anything; but if he sold the horse at 5% loss and the cart at 5% gain, he would lose Rs. 10 in the bargain.
The amount paid by him was Rs._______ for the horse and Rs.________ for the cart.
Cost price of horse = Rs. 400 & the cost price of cart = 200.
Explanation:-
Let x be the cost price of the horse and y be the cost price of the cart.
In the first sale there is no loss or profit. (i.e.) The loss obtained is equal to the gain.
Therefore (10/100) * x = (20/100) * y
X = 2 * y —————–(1)
In the second sale, he lost Rs. 10. (i.e.) The loss is greater than the profit by Rs. 10.
Therefore (5 / 100) * x = (5 / 100) * y + 10 ——-(2)
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
(10 / 100) * y = (5 / 100) * y + 10
(5 / 100) * y = 10
y = 200
From (1) 2 * 200 = x = 400
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9. A tennis marker is trying to put together a team of four players for a tennis tournament out of seven available. males – a, b and c; females – m, n, o and p.
All players are of equal ability and there must be at least two males in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other under the following restrictions:
b should not play with m,
c should not play with p, and
a should not play with o.
Which of the following statements must be false?
1. b and p cannot be selected together
2. c and o cannot be selected together
3. c and n cannot be selected together.-answer
Explanation:
Since inclusion of any male player will reject a female from the team. Since there should be four member in the team and only three males are available, the girl, n should included in the team always irrespective of others selection.
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10. Five farmers have 7, 9, 11, 13 & 14 apple trees, respectively in their orchards. Last year, each of them discovered that every tree in their own orchard bore exactly the same number of apples.
Further, if the third farmer gives one apple to the first, and the fifth gives three to each of the second and the fourth, they would all have exactly the same number of apples.
What were the yields per tree in the orchards of the third and fourth farmers?
Answer-11 & 9 apples per tree.
Explanation:
Let a, b, c, d & e be the total number of apples bored per year in A, B, C, D & E ‘s orchard. Given that a + 1 = b + 3 = c – 1 = d + 3 = e – 6
But the question is to find the number of apples bored per tree in C and D ‘s orchard. If is enough to consider c – 1 = d + 3.
Since the number of trees in C’s orchard is 11 and that of D’s orchard is 13. Let x and y be the number of apples bored per tree in C & d ‘s orchard respectively.
Therefore 11 x – 1 = 13 y + 3
By trial and error method, we get the value for x and y as 11 and 9
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11. Five boys were climbing a hill. J was following H. R was just ahead of G. K was between G & H. They were climbing up in a column. Who was the second?
Answer-G.
Explanation:
The order in which they are climbing is R – G – K – H – J

12-14 John is undecided which of the four novels to buy. He is considering a spy
thriller, a Murder mystery, a Gothic romance and a science fiction novel. The books are written by Rothko, Gorky, Burchfield and Hopper, not necessary in that order, and published by Heron, Piegon, Blueja and sparrow, not necessary in that order.
(1) The book by Rothko is published by Sparrow.
(2) The Spy thriller is published by Heron.
(3) The science fiction novel is by Burchfield and is not published by Blueja.
(4)The Gothic romance is by Hopper.
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12. Pigeon publishes ____________.

13. The novel by Gorky ________________.

14. John ¬purchases books by the authors whose names come first and third in alphabetical order. He does not buy the books ¬¬______.

12-14. On the basis of the first paragraph and statement (2), (3) and (4) only, it is possible to deduce that
1. Rothko wrote the murder mystery or the spy thriller
2. Sparrow published the murder mystery or the spy thriller
3. The book by Burchfield is published by Sparrow.
12 – 14
Answer:
Novel Name Author Publisher
Spy thriller Rathko Heron
Murder mystery Gorky Piegon
Gothic romance Burchfield Blueja
Science fiction Hopper Sparrow
Explanation:
Given
Novel Name Author Publisher
Spy thriller Rathko Heron
Murder mystery Gorky Piegon
Gothic romance Burchfield Blueja
Science fiction Hopper Sparrow
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Since Blueja doesn’t publish the novel by Burchfield and Heron publishes the novel spy thriller, Piegon publishes the novel by Burchfield.
Since Hopper writes Gothic romance and Heron publishes the novel spy thriller, Blueja publishes the novel by Hopper.
Since Heron publishes the novel spy thriller and Heron publishes the novel by Gorky, Gorky writes Spy thriller and Rathko writes Murder mystery.

15. If a light flashes every 6 seconds, how many times will it flash in ¾ of an hour?
Answer: 451 times.
Explanation:
There are 60 minutes in an hour.
In ¾ of an hour there are (60 * ¾) minutes = 45 minutes.
In ¾ of an hour there are (60 * 45) seconds = 2700 seconds.
Light flashed for every 6 seconds.
In 2700 seconds 2700/6 = 450 times.
The count start after the first flash, the light will flashes 451 times in ¾ of an hour.
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16. All men are vertebrates. Some mammals are vertebrates. Which of the following conclusions drawn from the above statement is correct.
All men are mammals
All mammals are men
Some vertebrates are mammals.
None Answer: (c)

17 Which of the following statements drawn from the given statements are correct?
Given:
All watches sold in that shop are of high standard. Some of the HMT watches are sold in that shop.
a) All watches of high standard were manufactured by HMT.
b) Some of the HMT watches are of high standard.
c) None of the HMT watches is of high standard.
d) Some of the HMT watches of high standard are sold in that shop.
Answer: (b) & (d).
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18
1. Ashland is north of East Liverpool and west of Coshocton.
2. Bowling green is north of Ashland and west of Fredericktown.
3. Dover is south and east of Ashland.
4. East Liverpool is north of Fredericktown and east of Dover.
5. Fredericktown is north of Dover and west of Ashland.
6. Coshocton is south of Fredericktown and west of Dover.

18 Which of the towns mentioned is furthest of the north – west
(a) Ashland
(b) Bowling green
(c) Coshocton
(d) East Liverpool
(e) Fredericktown
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19 Which of the following must be both north and east of Fredericktown?
(a) Ashland
(b) Coshocton
(c) East Liverpool
I a only II b only III c only IV a & b V a & c

20. Which of the following towns must be situated both south and west of at least one other town?
A. Ashland only
B. Ashland and Fredericktown
C. Dover and Fredericktown
D. Dover, Coshocton and Fredericktown
E. Coshocton, Dover and East Liverpool.

21 Which of the following statements, if true, would make the information in the numbered statements more specific?
(a) Coshocton is north of Dover.
(b) East Liverpool is north of Dover
(c) Ashland is east of Bowling green.
(d) Coshocton is east of Fredericktown
(e) Bowling green is north of Fredericktown
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22 Which of the numbered statements gives information that can be deduced from one or more of the other statements?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 6

23 Eight friends Harsha, Fakis, Balaji, Eswar, Dhinesh, Chandra, Geetha, and Ahmed are sitting in a circle facing the center. Balaji is sitting between Geetha and Dhinesh. Harsha is third to the left of Balaji and second to the right of Ahmed. Chandra is sitting between Ahmed and Geetha and Balaji and Eshwar are not sitting opposite to each other. Who is third to the left of Dhinesh?

24 If every alternative letter starting from B of the English alphabet is written in small letter, rest all are written in capital letters, how the month “ September” be written.
(1) SeptEMbEr
(2) SEpTeMBEr
(3) SeptembeR
(4) SepteMber
(5) None of the above.
Answer: (5).
Explanation:
Since every alternative letter starting from B of the English alphabet is written in small letter, the letters written in small letter are b, d, f…
In the first two answers the letter E is written in both small & capital letters, so they are not the correct answers. But in third and fourth answers the letter is written in small letter instead capital letter, so they are not the answers.
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25. The length of the side of a square is represented by x+2. The length of the side of an equilateral triangle is 2x. If the square and the equilateral triangle have equal perimeter, then the value of x is _______.
Answer x = 4
Explanation:
Since the side of the square is x + 2, its perimeter = 4 (x + 2) = 4x + 8
Since the side of the equilateral triangle is 2x, its perimeter = 3 * 2x = 6x
Also, the perimeters of both are equal.
(i.e.) 4x + 8 = 6x
(i.e.) 2x = 8 ? x = 4.

26. It takes Mr. Karthik y hours to complete typing a manuscript. After 2 hours, he was called away. What fractional part of the assignment was left incomplete?
Answer: (y – 2) / y.
Explanation:
To type a manuscript karthik took y hours.
Therefore his speed in typing = 1/y.
He was called away after 2 hours of typing.
Therefore the work completed = 1/y * 2.
Therefore the remaining work to be completed = 1 – 2/y.
(i.e.) work to be completed = (y-2)/y
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27 Which of the following is larger than 3/5?
(1) ½ (2) 39/50 (3) 7/25 (4) 3/10 (5) 59/100

28 There are 3 persons Sudhir, Arvind, and Gauri. Sudhir lent cars to Arvind and Gauri as many as they had already. After some time Arvind gave as many cars to Sudhir and Gauri as many as they have. After sometime Gauri did the same thing. At the end of this transaction each one of them had 24. Find the cars each originally had.
Answer: Sudhir had 39 cars, Arvind had 21 cars and Gauri had 12 cars.
Explanation:
Sudhir Arvind Gauri

Finally 24 24 24
Before Gauri’s transaction 12 12 48
Before Arvind’s transaction 6 42 24
Before Sudhir’ s transaction 39 21 12
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29 A man bought a horse and a cart. If he sold the horse at 10 % loss and the cart at 20 % gain, he would not lose anything; but if he sold the horse at 5% loss and the cart at 5% gain, he would lose Rs. 10 in the bargain. The amount paid by him was Rs._______ for the horse and Rs.________ for the cart.
Answer:
Cost price of horse: Rs. 400 &
Cost price of cart: Rs. 200
Explanation:
Let x be the cost of horse & y be the cost of the cart.
10 % of loss in selling horse = 20 % of gain in selling the cart
Therefore (10 / 100) * x = (20 * 100) * y
? x = 2y ———–(1)
5 % of loss in selling the horse is 10 more than the 5 % gain in selling the cart.
Therefore (5 / 100) * x – 10 = (5 / 100) * y
? 5x – 1000 = 5y
Substituting (1)
10y – 1000 = 5y
5y = 1000
y = 200
x = 400 from (1)
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3130 For the following, find the next term in the series

1. 6, 24, 60,120, 210

a) 336 b) 366 c) 330 d) 660

Answer : a) 336
Explanation : The series is 1.2.3, 2.3.4, 3.4.5, 4.5.6, 5.6.7, ….. ( ‘.’ means product)

31 2. 1, 5, 13, 25

Answer : 41
Explanation : The series is of the form 0^2+1^2, 1^2+2^2,…

32 3. 0, 5, 8, 17
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Answer : 24
Explanation : 1^2-1, 2^2+1, 3^2-1, 4^2+1, 5^2-1

33 4. 1, 8, 9, 64, 25 (Hint : Every successive terms are related)

Answer : 216
Explanation : 1^2, 2^3, 3^2, 4^3, 5^2, 6^3

34 5. 8,24,12,36,18,54

Answer : 27

35 6. 71,76,69,74,67,72
Answer : 67

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RailTel-RCIL Civil Engg Question Paper
RailTel-RCIL Model paper

RailTel-RCIL Civil Engg Question Paper

1. When percentage of mica present in sand is large, it

(a) Reduces the strength of mortar, or concrete
(b) Increases the strength of mortar or concrete
(c) Has no effect on mortar, or concrete strength
(d) Enhances the strength of mortar, or concrete, but only marginally

Ans: (c)

2. If ?W? is the percentage of water required for normal consistency of cement, water to be added for determination of initial setting time is

(a) 0.50 W
(b) 0.62 W
(c) 0.75 W
(d) 0.85 W
Ans: (d)

3. Which of the following theories of failure is most appropriate for a brittle material?

(a) Maximum principal strain theory
(b) Maximum principal stress theory
(c) Maximum shear stress theory
(d) Maximum strain energy theory
Ans: (b)

4. In a strained material, the principal stresses in the X and Y directions respectively are 100 N/mm2 (Tensile) and 60 N/mm2 (Compressive). On an inclined plane, the normal to which makes an angle of 300 to the X-axis, the major principal stress, in N/mm2 would be

(a) 60
(b) 80
(c) 20
(d) 40
Ans: (c)

5. A uniformly distributed load (w) of length shorter than the span crosses a girder. The bending moment at a section in the girder will be maximum when

(a) Head of the load is at the section
(b) Tail of the load is at the section
(c) Section divides the load in the same ratio as it divides the span
(d) Section divides the load in two equal lengths.
Ans: (c)

6. The moment capacity of section at plastic hinge equals

a) Yield moment
b) Zero
c) Fully plastic moment
d) Twice the yield moment
Ans: (c)

7. Which one of the following is the correct ratio of plastic moment to yield moment for a simply supported beam of uniform square cross section throughout the span

(a) 1.5
(b) 1.7
(c) 2.0
(d) 2.34
Ans: (a)

8. A fixed beam with central point load undergoes a slight settlement at one end. Select suitable answer from the following:

(a) Moment induced at both ends will be same
(b) Moment induced at the end that has undergone settlement will be maximum
(c) Moment induced will be maximum at the end having no settlement
(d) Zero moment at the end that has settled.
Ans: (c)

9. An increase in temperature on the top fibre of a simply supported beam will cause

(a) Downward deflection
(b) Upward deflection
(c) No deflection
(d) Angular rotation about neutral axis
Ans: (b)

10. A propped cantilever AB of span L is subjected to a moment M at the prop end B. The moment at fixed end A is

(a) 2M
(b)M/2
(c) M
(d)3M/ 4

Ans: (b)

11. Which of the following steel sections should preferably be used at places where torsion occurs?

(a) Box-type section
(b) Channel section

(c) Angle section

(d) Any of the above

Ans: (a)

12. The compatibility conditions in terms of strains in a two-dimensional problem are associated with

(a) Stresses
(b) Forces
(c) Properties of materials
(d) Deformations
Ans: (d)

13. The material in which large deformation is possible before absolute failure by rupture takes place, is known as

(a) Ductile
(b) Plastic
(c) Brittle
(d) Elastic
Ans: (a)

14. A protective or decorative non-structural element placed at the level of the truss supports and column head is called

(a) Eaves girder
(b) Baluster
(c ) Eaves board
(d) Tie girder
Ans: (c)

15. When the distance between centers of two adjacent rivets connecting the members subjected to either compression or tension exceeds the maximum pitch, then the additional rivets which are not subjected to the calculated stresses are known as

(a) Packing rivets
(b) Long-grip rivets
(c) Tacking rivets
(d) Auxiliary rivets

Ans: (c)

16. The base of a column is subjected to moment. If the intensity of bearing pressure due to axial load is equal to stress due to moment, then the bearing pressure between the base and the concrete is

(a) Uniform compression throughout
(b) Zero at one end and compression at the other end
(c) Tension at one end and compression at the other end
(d) Compression, verying as a parabolic profile
Ans: (b)

17. For an I beam, the shape factor is 1.12. If the allowable stress (with factor of safety in bending as 1.5) is increased by 20% for wind and earthquake loads, the modified load factor is

(a) 1.10
(b) 1.25
(c) 1.35
(d) 1.40
Ans: (d)

18. Top chord of a truss is continuous over joints l apart. Effective lengths of the member in the plane perpendicular to the truss is

(a) 0.7 l
(b) 0.85 l
(c ) l
(d) 1.5 l
Ans: (c)

19. For two plates of equal thickness, full strength of square-edged fillet weld can be ensured if its maximum size is limited to

(a) 1.5 mm less than the plate thickness
(b) 67% of the plate thickness
(c) 80% of the plate thickness
(d) Thickness of the plate
Ans: (a)

20. When a column is supported throughout its length either by masonry walls or by construction on all the sides, then its slenderness ratio is

(a) Infinite
(b) Zero
(c ) Reasonably high
(d) Low
Ans: (b)
RailTelRCIL computer questions
Rail Tel RCIL computer science fundamental questions with answers

1.Pascal, BASIC and C are programming languages, while C++ is an _________ language.

a)Assembly language
b)Procedural
c)Object-oriented programming-Answer
d)Programming

2.Which of the following are good reasons to use an object-oriented language?

a)You can define your own data types -Answer
b)Program statements are simple than in procedural language
c)An OO Program can be taught to correct its own errors
d)It’s easier to conceptualize an OO program-Answer

3.When a language has the capability to produce new data types, it is said to be
a)reprehensible
b)encapsulated
c)overloaded
d)extensible-Answer

4.A normal C++ operator that acts in special ways on newly defined data types is said to be

a)glorified
b)encapsulated
c)classified
d)overloaded-Answer

5.Memorizing the new terms used in C++ is
a)critically important
b)something you can return to later-Answer
c)the key to wealth and success
d)completely irrelevant
6.Protecting data from access by unauthorized functions is called _____

a)extensibility
b)encapsulation-Answer
c)overloading
d)inheritance

7.Dividing a program into functions
a)is the key to OOP
b)makes the program easier to conceptualize-Answer
c)may reduce the size of the program-Answer
d)makes the program run faster

8.True or falseIn an assignment statement, the value on the left of the equal sign is always equal to the value on the right-False

9.True or false:It’s perfectly all right to use variables of different data types in the same arithmetic expression.-True

10.A relational operator

a)assigns one operand to another
b)yields a Boolean result
c)compares two operands-Answer
d)logically combines two operands

11.A variable defined within a block is visible
a)from the point of definition onward in the program
b)from the point of definition onward in the function
c)from the point of definition onward in the block-Answer
d)throughout the function

12.True or false:Relational operators have a higher precedence than arithmetic operators.-False

13.The library function exit () causes an exit from
a)the loop in which it occurs
b)the block in which it occurs
c)the function in which it occurs
d)the program in which it occurs-Answer

14.The getche () library function
a)returns a character when the key is pressed-Answer
b)returns a character when Enter is pressed
c)displays a character on the screen when any key is pressed-Answer
d)does not display a character on the screen

15.The & & and operators

a)compare two numeric values
b)combine two numeric values
c)compare two Boolean values-Answer
d)combine two Boolean values

16.The break statement causes an exit
a)only from the innermost loop
b) only from the innermost switch
c) from all loops and switches-Answer
d)from the innermost loop or switch

17.The goto statement causes control to go to
a)an operator
b)a label-Answer
c)a variable
d)a function

18.A structure brings together a group of

a)items of the same data type
b)related data items-Answer
c)integers with user-defined names
d)variables-Answer

19.True or false:A structure specifier creates space in memory for a variable-True

20.An enumerated data type brings together a group of

a)items of different data types
b)related data variables
c)integers with user-defined names
d)constant values-Answer

21.A function’s single most important role is to

a)give a name to a block of code
b)related data variables
c)accept arguments and provide a return value
d)help organize a program into conceptual units-Answer

22.Which of the following can’t legitimately be passed to a function?

a)a constant
b)a variable
c)a structure
d)a header file-Answer

23.When an argument is passed by reference

a)a variable is created in the function to hold the argument’s value-Answer
bThe function cannot access the argument’s value
c)a temporary variable is created in the calling program to hold the argument’s value
d)the function accesses the argument’s original value in the calling program

24.Overloaded functions

a)are a group of functions with the same name
b)all have the same number and types of arguments
c)make life simpler for programmers-Answer
d)may fail unexpectedly due to stress

25.A default argument has a value that
a)may be supplied by the calling program-Answer
b)may be supplied by the function -Answer
c)must have a constant value
d)must have a variable value

26.A static automatic variable is used to
a)make a variable visible to several functions
bmake a variable visible to only one function-Answer
c)conserve memory when a function is not executing
d)retain a value when a function is not executing -Answer

27.In a class specifier, data or functions designated private are accessible

a)to any function in the program
b)only if you know the password
c)to member functions of that class -Answer
d)only to public members of the class

28.True or false:In a class you can have more than one constructor with the same name -True

29.An array element is accessed using

a)a first-in first-out approach
b)the dot operator
c)a member name
d)an index number-Answer
30.When an array name is passed to a function, the function
a)accesses exactly the same array as the calling program-Answer
b)accesses a copy of the array passed by the program
c)refers to the array using the same name as that used by the calling program
d)refers to the array using a different name from that used by the calling program-Answer

31.To convert from a user-defined class to a basic type, you would most likely use

a)a built-in conversion function
b)a one-argument constructor
c)an overloaded = operator
d) a conversion function that’s a member of the class-Answer

32.Inheritance is a way to

a)make general classes into more specific classes-Answer
b)pass arguments to objects of classes
c)add features to existing classes without rewriting them-Answer
d)improve data-hiding and encapsulation

33.A “child” class is said to be from a base class

a)parent class
b)derived class-Answer
c)existing class

34.The scope-resolution operator (:) usually

a)limits the visibility of variables to a certain function
b)tells what base class, a class is derived from
c)specifies a particular class-Answer
d)resolves ambiguities-Answer

35.A class hierarchy

a)shows the same relationships as an organization chart
b)describes “has a” relationships
c)describes “is a kind of “ relationships -Answer
d)shows the same relationships as a family tree

36.A pointer is

a)the address of a variable
b)an indication of the variable to be accessed next
c)a variable for storing addresses -Answer
d)the data type of an address variable

37The new operator
a)returns a pointer to a variable
b)creates a variable called new
c)obtains memory for a new variable-Answer
d)tells how much memory is available

38.In a linked list
a)each link contains a pointer to the next link-Answer
b)an array of pointers point to the links
c)each link contains data or a pointer to data-Answer
d)the links are stored in an array

39.If you wanted to sort many large objects or structures, it would be most efficient to
place them in an array and sort the array
b)place pointers to them in an array and sort the array-Answer
c)place them in a linked list and sort the linked list
d)place references to them in an array and sort the array

40.A C++ stream is
a)the flow of control through a function
b)a flow of data from one place to another-Answer

41.To write data that contains variable of type float, to an object of type of stream, you should use

a)the insertion operator
b)seekg ()
c)write ()-Answer
d)put ()

42. Mode bits such as APP and ATE can’t do any of the following:

a)are defined in the IOS class
b)can specify if a file is open for reading or writing
c)work with the put() and get() functions-Answer
d)specify ways of opening a file

43.Redirection redirects

a)a stream from a file to the screen -Answer
ba file from a device to a stream
c)a device from the screen to a file
d)the screen from a device to a stream

44.The process of allocating memory at run time is know as

a)Static memory allocation
b)dynamic memory allocation-Answer
c)memory reallocation

45.In C language, a block of memory may be allocated using the function

acalloc
b)malloc-Answer
c)free
d)realloc

46.___________ allocates multiple blocks of storage, each of the same size. and then sets all bytes to zero.

a)malloc
b)calloc-Answer
c)free
d)realloc

47.Structures which contain a member field that point to the member field that point to the same structure types are called

astructure within a structure
b)self-referencial structure-Answer
cunions

48.C does not have an operator for

a)modulo division
b)unary
c)exponentiation-Answer
d)Bitwise

49.C compilers support fundamental data types

a)5
b)3
c)4-Answer
d)2
50.Every C program must have one _________ function section

a)printf ()
b)main ()-Answer
c)getch ()

50. main()
{
Printf(“main”);
main();
}

What is the output ?

51 Which one is the OOP language
a. Small talk, b. Pascal. c. Basic

52. Which is not the featues of OOP
a. Reflection b. Encapsulation, c. Abstraction d. Inheritence

53. What is the typed language of C++
a. Static b. Dynamic c. Link-binding

54. Which property of OOP makes let the user know only the functinality of method but not the detail how it is working
a. Abstraction b. Encapsulation c. Inheritence

55. How you define abstract class in C++
a. Using abstract mentod b. By writing keyword “abstract”. c etc

56. Which one is the two way linked list
a. Circular linklist b. Node having header and trailer in the list C. Array

57. Which one uses the indexing
a. Linklist b. Arrays c. Stack d. Queue

58. Which is having many to many mapping
a. graph, b. tree, c. stack etc

59. Which one is not the behaviour of binary search
a. Deletion of any node. b. comparing with the middle value. etc

60. When data moves from lower layer to upper layer in OSI then what happens to headed
a. Removed b. Added.

61. What is called packets in network layer
a. Datagram b. Frame. etc

62. What switching is used in conventional land line
a. Packet b. Circuit. etc

63. What scheduling algo is used for real time OS
a. Round robin b. FIFO. c. Pre-emptive. etc

64. How many layers are there in OSI model
a. 7 b. 8 c. 6 etc

65. Repeaters work in which layer
a. Datalink b. physical c. Network etce

66. Process to process communication happens in layer
a. Session b. Transport c. Application d. Network

67. Which one is not in application layer
a. FTP b. TFTP. c. Virtual network terminal.

68. Which one return the acknowledgement
a. UDP. b. TCP etc

69. Which one is DDL
a. Trancate b. Delete c. Both d. None

70. Which one is true/false for using indexing in data base
a. Slow b. Fast C More space

71. Four DML given to find out the where indexing need not be used.

72. Which one create the deadlock
a. Mutex b. Semaphore c. Hold and wait

73. One numirical to find out the effective average access time where the cache and RAM memory speed given with hit/miss percentage

74. Which one do not require the context switcing
a. General registers b. PC. c. Look aside table buffer

75. What is the size of address location for 8085
a. 1MB b. 128kb c. 64KB etc

76. What is the layer where the user comes in picture
a. Session b. Application c. Transport d. Network

77. Why NAND gate is called universal gate.
a. Using this, all other gates can be realised
b. This is largely used
c. etc etc

78. For 3 bits adder, what is the number of adder required
a. 2 full adder& 2 half adder b. 3 full adder and one half adder etc

79. One numiraical to find out the number of address bit from the 32 segments of 1MB memory location

80. What comes previous to this 10000
a. 1111 (binary) b. FFFF (hex) c. 7777 (Oct)

81. Questions related to full binary tree to find the number of nodes in leaf

82 What does parity bit
a. Error detect b. Header c. Trailer

83. How to create and interface in C++
a. by virtual functions
b. by abstract class/method
c. by creating the class using “interface” keyword

84 What is for namesapace used in C++
a. To resolve the name clashing
b. To create different name etc

85 Language which support diamond inherritance
a) C++ b) Java c) Both a and b d) None

86Dbms
Some basic sql functions like trunc some questions from Oracle in C.N

87 All of them basic questions

88 Diff b/w hub and switch?

89 What happend to header of packet if routed from bottom to top layer etc.

90 What will be output of the following-
main()
{
printf(“tim”);
main();
}
(a) tim (b) keep printing tim (c) black screen (d) none
91 In which Data structure insertion and deletion is not possible in middle but at ends.
(a) Linked list (b)Pointer Array (c) Queue (d) Dqueue.

92 bOSI Model consist of how many Layer

93 Why NAND gate is called universal gate?

94 Which of the following not supported by C++
(a) Encapsulation (b) Abstraction (c) Reflection (d) Inheritence

95 Which of the following support Diamond Inheritence
(a) C++ (b) Java (c) C (d) none

96 Suppose X is a class and arg is parameter then What is syntax of passing parameter in a copyconstructor
(a) X(X arg) (b) X(X *arg) (c) X(X &arg) (d)none

97 What is difference between Hub and Repeater?

98 If there are 6 input to a Nand Gate the how many column will bw there in Full addre table?

99 Which of the following is a DDL statement
(a) Delete (b) Turncate (c)Both a and b (d) none
RailTel RCIL electrical and electronics
RailTelRCIL electrical ElectronicsCivil,Mechnical,computer science engg questions with answers for practice

1 The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used for
A) Finding the IP address from the DNS
B) Finding the IP address of the default gateway
C) Finding the IP address that corresponds to a MAC address
D) Finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address
Answer : (D)

2 Consider the following relation schema pertaining to a students database:
Student (rollno, name, address)
Enroll (rollno, courseno, coursename)
where the primary keys are shown underlined. The number of tuples in the Student and Enroll tables are 120 and 8 respectively. What are the maximum and minimum number of tuples that can be present in (Student * Enroll), where ‘*’denotes natural join?
A) 8, 8
B) 120, 8
C) 960, 8
D) 960, 120
Answer : (C)

3 Consider a direct mapped cache of size 32 KB with block size 32 bytes. The CPU generates 32 bit addresses. The number of bits needed for cache indexing and the number of tag bits are respectively
A) 10, 17
B) 10, 22
C) 15, 17
D) 5, 17
Answer : (A)

4 The goal of structured programming is to
A) have well indented programs
B) be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code
C) be able to infer the flow of control from the program text
D) avoid the use of GOTO statements
Answer : (C)

5 The tightest lower bound on the number of comparisons, in the worst ease, for comparison-based sorting is of the order of
A) n
B) n 2
C) n log n
D) n log2 n
Answer : (B)

6 Let G be a simple graph with 20 vertices and 100 edges. The size of the minimum vertex cover of G is 8. Then, the size of the maximum independent set of G is
A) 12
B) 8
C) Less than 8
D) More than 12
Answer : (A)

7 WA and B are the only two stations on an Ethernet. Each has a steady queue of frames to send. Both A and B attempt to transmit a frame, collide, and A wins the first backoff race. At the end of this successful transmission by A, both A and B attempt to transmit and collide. The probability that A wins the second backoff race is
A) 0.5
B) 0.625
C) 0.75
D) 1.0
Answer : (A)

8 Let A be a sequence of 8 distinct integers sorted in ascending order. How many distinct pairs of sequences, B and C are there such that (i) each is sorted in ascending order, (ii) B has 5 and C has 3 elements, and (iii) the result of merging B and C gives A?
A) 2
B) 30
C) 56
D) 256
Answer : (D)

9 In a network of LANs connected by bridges, packets are sent from one LAN to another through intermediate bridges. Since more than one path may exist between two LANs, packets may have to be routed through multiple bridges.Why is the spanning tree algorithm used for bridge-routing?
A) For shortest path routing between LANs
B) For avoiding loops in the routing paths
C) For fault tolerance
D) For minimizing collisions
Answer : (B)

10 A Priority-Queue is implemented as a Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements. The level-order traversal of the heap is given below: 10, 8,5,3,2 Two new elements 1 and 7 are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the elements is
A) 10,8,7,5,3,2,1
B) 10,8,7,2,3,1,5
C) 10,8,7,1,2,3,5
D) 10,8,7,3,2,1,5
Answer : (D)

11 An organization has a class B network and wishes to form subnets for 64 departments. The subnet mask would be
A) 255.255.0.0
B) 255.255.64.0
C) 255.255.128.0
D) 255.255.252.0
Answer : (D)

12 Suppose the round trip propagation delay for a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming signal is 46.4 ms. The minimum frame size is:
A) 94
B) 416
C) 464
D) 512
Answer : (C)

1 3The order of an internal node in a B+ tree index is the maximum number of children it can have. Suppose that a child pointer takes 6 bytes, the search field value takes 14 bytes, and the block size is 512 bytes. What is the order of the internal node?
A) 24
B) 25
C) 26
D) 27
Answer : (C)

14 The Boolean function x, y, + xy + x, y
A) x, + y,
B) x + y
C) x + y,
D) x, + y
Answer : (D)

15 In an MxN matrix such that all non-zero entries are covered in a rows and b columns. Then the maximum number of non-zero entries, such that no two are on the same row or column, is
A) ? a + b
B) ? max {a, b}
C) ? min {M-a, N-b}
D) ? min {a, b}
Answer : (A)

16 The relation scheme Student Performance (name, courseNo, rollNo, grade) has the following functional dependencies:
A) name, courseNo -> grade
B) rollNo, courseNo -> grade
C) name -> rollNo
D) rollNo -> name
The highest normal form of this relation scheme is
Answer : (A)

17The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by
the instruction set architecture
B) page size
C) physical memory size
D) number of processes in memory
Answer : (D)

18Let G be a simple graph with 20 vertices and 100 edges. The size of the minimum vertex cover of G is 8. Then, the size of the maximum independent set of G is
A) 12
B) 8
C) Less than 8
D) More than 12
Answer : (A)

19What does the following algorithm approximate? (Assume m > 1, ? > 0).
x = m;
y-i;
while (x – y > ?)
{ x = (x + y) / 2 ;
y = m/x ;
}
print (x) ;

A) log m
B) m2
C) m1/2
D) m1/3
Answer : (C)

20 Consider the following C program

main ()
{ int x, y, m, n ;
scanf (“%d %d”, &x, &y);
/ * Assume x > 0 and y > 0 * /
m = x; n = y ;
while ( m ! = n)
{ if (m > n)
m = m ? n;
else
n = n – m ; }
printf(“%d”,n); }

The program computes
A) x + y, using repeated subtraction
B) x mod y using repeated subtraction
C) the greatest common divisor of x and y
D) the least common multiple of x and y
Answer : (C)

21The best data structure to check whether an arithmetic expression has balanced parentheses is a
A) queue
B) stack
C) tree
D) list
Answer : (B)

22A Priority-Queue is implemented as a Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements. The level-order traversal of the heap is given below: 10, 8,5,3,2 Two new elements 1 and 7 are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the elements is
A) 10,8,7,5,3,2,1
B) 10,8,7,2,3,1,5
C) 10,8,7,1,2,3,5
D) 10,8,7,3,2,1,5
Answer : (D)

23 An organization has a class B network and wishes to form subnets for 64 departments. The subnet mask would be
A) 255.255.0.0
B) 255.255.64.0
C) 255.255.128.0
D) 255.255.252.0
Answer : (D)

24 Suppose the round trip propagation delay for a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming signal is 46.4 ms. The minimum frame size is:
A) 94
B) 416
C) 464
D) 512
Answer : (C)

25The following numbers are inserted into an empty binary search tree in the given order: 10, 1, 3, 5, 15, 12, 16. What is the height of the binary search tree (the height is the maximum distance of a leaf node from the root)?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
Answer : (B)

26 Consider the following C function:
int f (int n)
{ static int i = 1;
if (n >= 5) return n;
n = n + i;
i ++;
return f (n);
}
27The value returned by f(1) is
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer : (C)

28 The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by
A) the instruction set architecture
B) page size
C) physical memory size
D) number of processes in memory
Answer : (D)

1. Dimensions of Power:
a) M1L2T-3,
b) M1L2T-2,
c) M1L1T-3

2. Torque in Induction Motor is directly proportional to:
a) V,
b) V(pwr)
c) V(pwr)
d) V(pwr)1/2

3. Power in Transmission lines is proportional to:
a) V,
b) V(pwr)2,
c) V(pwr)
d)V(pwr)1/2

4. Flashover at the surface of condenser bushings is due to:

5. When Surge impedance equal characteristic impedance then :
a) Vs = Vr,
b) Vs> Vr,
c) Vs< Vr,

6. Stability limit is higher in:
a) Steady state,
b) Transient state,
c) Sub transient state,

7. Those instruments which give constants and direction only are called:
a) Secondary type,
b) Absolute type,
c) Deflection type,
d) Integrating type.

8. The internal resistance of a meter is 4 ohm and current drawn is 30mA. If we want to increase its range as voltmeter upto 150V then find out the series resistance added in the circuit?
Ans. 4996 ohm

9.If relay setting is at 125% and the CT ratio is 400/5, then the fault current in hv winding is?
Ans. 6.25 amp.

10. If capacitve reactance of a 200 km line is 2000 ohm then what will be the charging reactance of a 100 km line?
a) 2000
b) 4000ohm,
c) 500 ohm,
d) 8000ohm.

11. Which is wrong:
a) Transient response is frequency domain.
b) Routh criteria is stability based.
c) Nyquist is time domain.

12. With the increase in feedback of the system which will increase:

13. Mechanical stress is max. at which part of the cable:

14. Underground cable laying is done by:
ans. conduits and piping.

15. Operation and maintenance cost is min. in which of the following plants:
a) Thermal,
b) Nuclear,
c) Hydel,
d) Diesel.

16. Earliest power plant is:
a) Thermal,
b) Nuclear,
c) Unconventional,

17. Circuit Breaker arcing contacts are made of which material:
a) copper tungsten
b) copper,
c) silver,
d) graphite.

18. The reflection coefficient for voltage of a short circuited line is:
a) -1, b) 1, c) 0, d) 2

19. Double cage rotor is used in Induction motor is to improve:
Ans. starting torque.

20. If resistance of the secondary winding of the transformer is given as .02ohm and reactance .06ohm then find out the primary resistance and reactance respectively:
Ans. .08 ohm and .24ohm

21. Skewing in the squirrel cage rotor of Induction motor is purposely done to :
Ans. to avoid interlocking and reduce noise.

22. Capacitance of 3phase line is given 4microF. if we consider single line to ground then its capacitance will be:
a) 4microF,
b) 2microF,
c) 1microF,
d) 8microF

23. The normal frequency RMS voltage that appears across the breaker poles after final arc extinction is known as:
Ans. Recovery voltage

24. In power factor meter , which element is used as shunt in instruments:
a) silver,
b) copper,
c) manganin

25. .If anode of the SCR is made positive and cathode is made negative thenit will be:
Ans. forward biased and conducting.

26. Natural commutation is done in…
a) cycloconverters,
b) choppers,
c) AC voltage controllers,

27.Class B insulation is done in :

28. The highest range of temperature of insulations is…
Ans. 180

29. Temperature of the boiler furnace is measured by:
Ans. optical pyrometer

30. Resistivity of insulators with temperature
a) decreases linearly,
b) decreases exponentially,
c) increases,
d) remains same.

31. On increasing the frequency of the transformer , hysterisis loss and eddy current loss respectively:
a) decreases and remains same,
b) decreases and increases,
c) both increases ,
d) both decreases.

32. Rotor copper losses are small in Induction Motor as compared to transformer becoz:
Ans. Rotor core is laminated.

33. Arrange the following in ascending order: resistance split, capacitor start capacitor run etc motors were given…

34. Which type of turbine is used in tydel power generation:
a) Kaplan, b) Fransis, c) Pelton Wheel type, d) Reverse type.

35. Which of the following is the distribution 3 phase voltage:
a) 220 V, b) 415 V, c) 680 V, d) 800 V.

36. Which of the following bridges is used to measure dielectric losses in capacitor:
a) Schearing Bridge,
b) Wein’s Bridge,
c) De-Sauty Bridge,
d) Maxwell Bridge.

37. Cros have which of the following…

38. A full wave centre tap thyristor is given.. find out the PIV..? dnt remember exactly some values were given…
a) 141.3 V, b) 100 V, c) 248.2 V, etc..
.
39. Speed of the Induction Motor at full load is 1400 rpm , what will be the speed at half the load…
a)1400rpm, b) 1420rpm, c) 1440rpm, d) 1460rpm.

40. The line feeding from distribution system to the consumers is called:
a) feeder, b) service mains, c) distributor, etc…

41. Which of the following generation plant is most reliable.
ans. Interconnected system.

42. Lload current in thyristor depends upon…..
a) delay angle and load type,
b) delay angle but not on load type,
c) only delay angle,

43. Buchholz relay is:
a) a gas actuated relay,
b) current sensitive relay,
c) overcurrent relay,
d) over voltage relay.

44. Diac is a:
a) 4 terminal 2junction device,
b) 3 terminal 2 junction device,
c) 5 terminal 3 junction device,
d) 6 terminal 3 junction device.

45. Dual converter consists of:
Ans. 1 converter and 1 inverter.

46. Slip is min. for which of the following machine:
a) 25HP,4 Pole ,
b) 1HP, 4 pole,
c) 2 HP , 6 pole,
) 25 HP, 6 Pole.

47. In Air Blast circuit breakers the air pressure inside is:
a) 1kg/cm2,
b) 100 mm of Hg ,
c) 20-30 kg/cm2,
d) 200-300 kg/cm2.

48. 1Barrel contains how much litres:

49. DC Choppers are used to convert:
a) DC to DC,
b) AC to DC,
c) AC to AC,

50.. How the corona effect varies with size and frequency, it increases with..
a) increasing size and reducing supply frequency, b) reducing size and incresing supply frequency, etc…

51. 1 ques was based on….. in frequency variable method which of the following factor is kept constant:
a) V/f = constant,
b) Vf = constant,
c)V=constant,
d) none of these..

52. 1 ques was based on ….. relation of Voltage with load angle delta….. options were…
a) V/1-& ,
b) V/1+&,
c) 1-&/&V,
d) &/(1-&)V

53.Universal motor is:
a) frequency dependent,
b) frequency independent,

54. If CT winding connections are made in star/delta on the primary side of the T/F then CT connections on the secondary side winding of T/F will be:
Ans. delta/star.

55. slip rings in DC machines are made of:
a) carbon,
b) graphite,
c) copper alloy,
d) copper.

56Bbending radius of the cable should be:
a) D, b)2D, c) 3D, d) 4D

57. 1 ques like….. In cycloconverters the O/P frequency power factor will bw as compared to I/P frequency power factor:
a) higher, b) lower, c) same..

58. In higher rating transformers the tank is of the following type:
a) radiator, b) oil tank, c) seperator,

59. Merz Price protection is used in :
a) Alternator, b) Transmission lines, c) Transformer,

60. Meggar is:
a) moving coil type,
b) moving iron type,

61. Differential relay is:
a) over current relay,
b) over voltage relay,

62. Two transformers are connected in parallel R/X is smthing….. then the currents in the two T/F will be:
a) Ia lags Ib ,
b) Ia leads Ib,
c) both will be in phase,

63. skin effect does not depend upon:
Ans. ambient temperature.

64. . AC resistance is more due to….
Ans. skin effect

65. Human body gets shock due to:
a) static charge discharging of body,
b) voltage induced in the body,
c) current induced in thebody,
d)none of these
.
66. Heavy water in nuclear reactor is used as:
a) accelerating agent,
b) decclerating agent,
c) lubricating agent,
d) cooling agent.

67. specifications of earth plate are:
a) 60* 60*12.5 , b) 90*90*12.5

68. Distance of ground electrode from building is:
a) 1m, b) 2m, c) 3m , d)4m

69. Why earth pit is filled with alternate layers of salt and charcoal:
Ans. to reduce earth’s resistance.

70. If cos& is a power factor, then MVAR ia proportional to:

71.why central phase is reversed…..(smthing dnt remember exactly)

72. capacitors are connected where at the transmission line:
a) at sending end,
b) at receiving end,
c) in the middle of the line,

73. Which gas is used in the gas fired prime movers at gas power plants:

RailTel(RCIL) Electronics and electrical(ECE,EEE,CSE,Mech Engg)Questions
1.For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is –
a). Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
b.) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
c.) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
d.) The poynting vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.

2. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to –
a. )Polarization
b.)Conductivity
c.)Structural homogeneties
d) Ionization
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers
3. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon –
a.)Boron
b) Indium
c) Germanium
d) Antimony
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers
4. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess –
a)High thermal conductivity and high melting point
b) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
c) High thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

5. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the –
a) infrared region
b) ultraviolet region
c) visible region
d) x-ray region
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers
6. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively –
a) high and high
b) low and high
c.) high and low
d.) low and low

7. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress –
a.) odd harmonics
b.) even harmonics
c.) fundamental component
d.) dc component
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers
8. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on –
a). mutual inductance between two coils only
b). self inductances of the two coils only
c). mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils
d.) none

9. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of –
a.) paper
b.) rubber
c.) ceramic
d.) Mylar

10. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is –
a.) always positive
b.) always negative
c.) sometime positive, sometime negative
d.) numerically less than its kinetic energy
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers
11. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a.) channel
b.) gate
c.) P-N junctions
d.) substrate

12. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that
a.) it is more sensitive
b.) it is more linear
c.) it is less temperature dependent
d.) it,s cost is low

13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by –
a.) thermally generated electrons and holes
b.) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c.) migration of minority carriers across the junction
d.) flow of drift current

14. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter –
a.) recombine with holes in the base
b.) recombine in the emitter itself
c.) pass through the base to the collector
d.) are stopped by the junction barrier

15. The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 0
c.) 1.0
d.) 0.8

16. A UJT can –
a.) be triggered by any one of it,s three terminals
b.) not be triggered
c.) be triggered by two of its three terminal only
d.) be triggered by all of its terminals only
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17. An SCR can only be turned off via it,s –
a.) cathode
b.) anode
c.) gates
d) none

18. Gold is often diffused into silicon DN junction devices to –
a.) increase the recombination rate
b.) reduce the recombination rate
c.) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor
d.) make silicon semi-metal
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19. With n nodes and b branches a network will have –
a.) (b + n) links
b.) b – n + 1 links
c.) b – n – 1 links
d.) b + n + 1 links

20. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be –
a.) 7
b.) 9
c.) 10
d.) 45

21. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give –
a.) an output power which is one – quarter of the input power
b.) an output power which is one – half of the input power
c.) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage
d.) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power

22. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer –
a.) the terminals are kept shorted
b.) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
c.) the terminals are kept open circuited
d.) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals

23. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2 ?
1. R1 = 147W 2. R1 = 153W
3. R2 = 1.5W 4. R2 = 3750W
a..) 1 and 3
b.). 1 and 4
c.). 2 and 3
d..) 2 and 4
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24. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294mH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is –
a..) 49w
b.). 60w
c..) 70w
d..) 140w

25. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is –
a..) 2
b..) 3
c..) 4
d..) 5

26. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1. Z11 = Z22
2. h12 = h21
3. Y12 = -Y21
4. BC – AD = -1 then the network is reciprocal if and only if –
a..) 1 and 2 are correct
b.) 2 and 3 are correct
c.) 3 and 4 are correct
d.). 4 alone is correct
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27. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are –
a.) will become half
b.) will remain uncha
c.). will become double
d.). cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known

28. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and uniform charge density in vacuum is-

29. Maxwell,s divergence equation for the magnetic field is given b

30. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 l at frequency f and if it,s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it,s radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be –
a). R/2 ohms
b). R ohms
c). 2R ohms
d). 4R ohms
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31. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
a.) TE111 and TM111
b). TE011 and TM011
c). TE022 and TM111
d). TE111 and TM011

32. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then it,s efficiency will be nearly
a). 0.19
b). 0.81
c). 0.97
d). 1.19

33. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = 1/ 4pqe0 it capacitance will be
a). Zero
b). IF
c). 4pF
d). OF
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34. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it,s characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal then if ,d, is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
a). d = 1.5 cm
b). d is less then 1.5 cm
c). d is greater than 1.5 cm
d). d = 3cm

35. When a dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W then the efficiency of the antenna is
a). 0.89159 %
b). 8.9159 %
c). 89.159 %
d). 891.59 %

36. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
a). 5 KHz
b). 15 KHz
c). 75 KHz
d). 200 KHz

37. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is –
a). sinusoidal
b). square
c). rectangular
d). triangular

38. Strain gauge is –
a). not a transducer
b). an active transducer
c). not an electronic instrument
d). none

39. A high Q coil has –
a). large band width
b). high losses
c). low losses
d). flat response

40. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is –
a). 1.810%
b). 0.181%
c). 18.10%
d). 0.0018%
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41. The ,h, parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for –
a). High frequency, large signal operation
b.) High frequency, small signal operation
c.) Low frequency, small signal operation
d). Low frequency, large signal operation

42. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on –
a.) Values of input in the past and in the future
b). Values of input at that time and in the past
c). Values of input at that time and in the future
d). None

43. A iron cored choke is a –
a). Linear and active device
b). Non linear and passive device
c). Active device only
d). Linear device only

44. Poynting vector wattmeter uses –
a). Seebeck effect
b). Ferranti effect
c). Induction effect
d). Hall effect
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45. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense ?
a). Thermocouple
b). Piezoelectric pick – up
c). Photo voltaic cell
d). LCD

46. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is –
a). Converter system
b). Inverter
c). Chopper
d). Thyristor

47. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode –
a). SCR
b). PCR
c). VCR
d). DCR
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48. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a –
a). constant voltage source
b). constant current source
c). constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source
d). resistance

49. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of –
a). electrons only
b). electrons or holes
c). electrons and holes
d). holes only

50. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively –
a). ferrite : 20 : 1
b). laminated iron : 1 : 1
c). ferrite : 1 : 1
d). powdered iron : 1 : 1

51. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a –
a.) 1 phase full converter
b). 3 phase half wave converter
c). 3 phase semi converter
d). 3 phase full converter

52. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is –
a.) square wave
b.) triangular wave
c )step function
d.) pulsed wave

53. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is –
a). 100V
b). 141.4V
c). 200V
d). 282.8V

54. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying –
a). T keeping Ton constant
b). Ton keeping T constant
c). Toff keeping T constant
d.) None of the above

55. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because
a). of change of state from metal to gas due to heat.
b). of change of stats from gas to metal.
c). the energy supplied is greater than the work function .
d). the energy is greater than Fermi level.

56. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is –
a). amplifier
b). triode
c). diode
d). transistor

57. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
a). Either cathode
b). Either anode
c). The central tap on the high voltage secondary
d). Either plate

58. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will-
a). Amplify the noise as much as the signal
b). Reduce the noise
c). Increase the noise
d). Not effect the noise

59. Match the given feedback circuit with it,s proper nomenclatures
a). Current series feedback
b). Current shunt feedback
c). Voltage series feedback
d). Voltage shunt feedback
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60. Class A amplifier is used when
a). No phase inversion is required
b). Highest voltage gain is required
c). dc voltages are to be amplified
d). Minimum distortion is desired

61. Identify the correct match for the given transistor
a). Enhancement type P channel MOSFET
b). Depletion type N channel MOSFET
c). Enhancement type N channel MOSFET
d). Depletion type P channel MOSFET

62. In case a signal band limited to fm is sampled at a rate less than 2fm, the constructed signal will be
a). Distortionless
b). Small in amplitude
c). Having higher frequencies suppressed
d). Distorted

63. Quad 2 input AND gates IC No is –
a). 7411
b). 7404
c). 7400
d). 7408

64. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as –
a). left shift register
b). right shift register
c). shift registers
d). none of the above
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65. The expression can be simplified to

66. An ideal power supply consist of –
a) . Very small output resistance
b) . Zero internal resistance
c) . Very large input resistance
d) . Very large output resistance

67. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by –

68. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both –
a). count pulses
b). store binary operation
c). shift registers
d). made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip

69. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as –
a). 1111101
b). 0001 0010 0101
c). 7D
d). None of the above

70. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is –
a). 7
b). 8
c). 9
d). 200
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71. On differentiation unit impulse function results in —
a). Unit parabolic function.
b). Unit triplet.
c). Unit doublet.
d). Unit ramp function.

72. Read the following;
i. Routh Hermitz`s criterion is in time domain.
ii. Root locus plot is in time domain.
iii. Bode plot is in frequency domain.
iv. Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.
a). 2, 3, and 4 are correct
b). 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c). 3 and 4 are correct
d). All four are correct.

73. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function.
a). 150
b). 450
c). 300
d). 600
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74. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is –
a). Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain.
b). Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action.
c). Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback.
d). Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action.

75. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function –
a). -40dB/dec to -20dB/dec
b). 40dB/dec to 20dB/dec
c). -20dB/dec to -40dB/dec
d). 40dB/dec to -20dB/dec

76. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by –
Number of asymptotes of its root loci is
a). 1
b). 2
c). 3
d). 4
77. In a closed – loop transfer functionthe imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be –

78. Considering the following statement :In a magic tee
1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other
2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm
3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other.
Of these statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b). 1 and 3 are correct
c). 1 and 4 are correct
d). 2 and 3 are correct

79. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called –
a). ANIK
b). EARLY BIRD (Intel sat -1)
c). WESTAR
d). MOLNIYA

80. — watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
a). 100
b). 500
c). 2000
d). 1000
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81. The ripple factor in an LC filter
a). Increases with the load current
b). Increases with the load resistance
c). Remains constant with the load current
d). Has the lowest value

82. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their –
a). Language digits
b). Access digits
c). Area codes
d). Central office codes

83. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
a). it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
b). compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
c). its use avoids receiver complexity
d). no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity
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84. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be
a). linear amplifier
b). harmonic generators
c). class C power amplifiers
d). class B untuned amplifiers

85. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on
a). maximum power of the transmitter
b). pulse repetition frequency
c). width of the transmitted pulse
d). sensitivity of the radar receiver

86. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to
a). equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace.
b). help vertical synchronization
c). help horizontal synchronization.
d). simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse

87. The frequency range 30MHz – 300MHz is –
a). medium frequency
b). very high frequency
c). super high frequency
d). Infrared frequency

88. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide –
a.) TE
b). TM
c). TEM
d). HE

89. Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at –
a). upto 18kms from earth
b). from 18 to 70 km
c). 70 to 500 km
d). above 500 km
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90. A two cavity klystron tube is a –
a). velocity modulated tube
b). frequency modulated tube
c). Amplitude modulated tube
d). simple triode

91. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get –
a). doubled
b). quadrupted
c). unchanged
d). halved

92. Which one is a cross field tube –
a). Klystron
b). Reflex Klystron
c.) Magnetron
d.) TWT

93. The degree of coupling depends on –
a). size of hole
b). location of holes
c). size and location of holes
d). not depend on size or location of hole

94. The thermal noise depends on –
a). direct current through device
b.) resistive component of resistance
c). reactive component of impedance
d) load to connected

95. The charge on a hole is –

96. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier
a.) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency
b). amplifies the output of local oscillator
c). is fixed tuned to one particular frequency
d). can be tuned to various isolate frequencies
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97. A duplexer is used to
a. ) couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
b. ) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
c. ) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
d. ) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference

98. Intel,s 8085 microprocessor chip contains
a). seven 8 bit registers
b). 8 seven bits registers
c). seven 7
d). eight 8

99. Boolean algebra is based on –
a). numbers
b). logic
c). truth
d). symbols

100. When A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 then in 2 input logic gate we get – – gate
a). XOR
b). AND
c). NAND
d). NOR

101. With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new – –
a). Era of great history
b). List
c). Book
d). Year

102. An – – though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad.
a). Funny poem
b). Newspaper article
c). Orthodox talk
d). Elegy

103. If stare is glance so gulp is –
a). Sip
b). Tell
c). Salk
d). Admire

104. He hardly works means –
a). The work is hard
b). He is hard
c). The work is easy
d). He work very little

105. Give the opposite word for pulchritude –
a). antipathy
b). unsightliness
c). inexperience
d). languor

106. Nanometre is – – – – part of a metre.
a). Millionth
b). Ten millionth
c). Billionth
d). Ten billionth

107. Malaria affects
a). Liver
b). Spleen
c). Intestine
d). Lungs

108. Sindhu Rakshak is a/an
a). Aircraft carrier
b). Submarine
c). Multiple-purpose fighter
d). Anti-aircraft gun

109. With which subject is “Dada Saheb Phalke Award” associated?
a). Best film director
b). Best musician
c). Best documentary
d). Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry

110. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus?
a). Aryabhatta
b). Newton
c). Einstein
d). Archimedes

111. In which state is Kanha Park situated?
a). M.P.
b). U.P.
c). Assam
d). W. Bengal

112. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?
a). 24th October
b). 4th July
c). 8th August
d.) 10th December

113. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of
a). Gupta architecture
b). Rashtrakuta architecture
c). Chalukya architecture
d). Chola architecture
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114. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by
a). Joint sitting of the two Houses
b). President of India
c). Prime Minister of India
d). By a special committee for the purpose

115. Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa?
a). Meghdoot
b). Raghuvansha
c). Sariputra Prakarma
d). Ritushamhara

116. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of
a). Akbar the Great
b). Mahmud Ghaznvi
c). Shah Jahan
d.) Alauddin Khilji

117. The words ,Satyameva Jayate, have been taken from
a). Vedas
b). Bhagwad Gita
c). Mundaka Upanishada
d). Mahabharata
e). None of these
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118. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?
a). USA
b). USSR
c). China
d). Pakistan

119. “Kathakali” dance is connected with
a). Kerala
b). Rajasthan
c). Uttar Pradesh
d). Tamil Nadu

120. The term “Ashes” is associated with
a). Hockey
b). Cricket
c). Soccer
d). None of these

RailTel Latest Electrical and Electronics Question Paper with Answers

1. A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the

(A) squirrel cage induction motor.
(B) wound rotor induction motor.
(C) synchronous motor.
(D) DC shunt motor.
Ans: C

2. An alternator is delivering rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor lagging case. If it is required to deliver rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor leading, the required excitation will be

(A) less.
(B) more.
(C) more or less.
(D) the same.
Ans: B
EX:Over excitation gives leading power factor and under excitation gives lagging p.f .

3. A 1:5 step-up transformer has 120V across the primary and 600 ohms resistance across the secondary. Assuming 100% efficiency, the primary current equals

(A) 0.2 Amp.
(B) 5 Amps.
(C) 10 Amps.
(D) 20 Amps.
Ans: A
EX: I1= V1 /R1 = 120/600 = 0.2 (? = 100%, losses are zero therefore V1 = VR = I1R1)

4. In case of a universal motor, torque pulsation is minimized by _________.

(A) load inertia
(B) rotor inertia
(C) both rotor and load inertia
(D) none of the above
Ans: C
Ex:In a universal motor, torque pulsation is minimized by rotor and load inertia.

5. The speed-torque characteristics of a DC series motor are approximately similar to those of the _________motor.

(A) universal
(B) synchronous
(C) DC shunt
(D) two-phase
Ans:A

6. In the heating process of the ________type a simple method of temperature control is possible by means of a special alloy which loses its magnetic properties at a particular high temperature and regains them when cooled to a temperature below this value.

(A) Indirect induction over
(B) core type induction furnace
(C) coreless induction furnace
(D) high frequency eddy current
Ans: D

7. The voltage at the two ends of a transmission line are 132 KV and its reactance is 40 ohm. The Capacity of the line is

(A) 435.6 MW
(B) 217.8 MW
(C) 251.5 MW
(D) 500 MW
Ans: A
EX:Line capacity is determined by power of line

P = (V2/R) or (V2/Z) when cos =1

8. Skewing in the slots of an induction motor is provided to reduce

(A) iron loss
(B) noise
(C) harmonics
(D) temperature rise.
Ans:C

9. The losses occurring in the rotor of an induction motor are less than those in the stator because of

(A) small diameter of rotor
(B) less rotor frequency
(C) slot skewing
(D) none of the above
Ans:B

10. Which test is conducted on transformers to check its ability to withstand the transient voltages due to lightening etc. ?

(A) Induced over voltage test
(B) Partial discharge test
(C) Impulse test
(D) Any of the above.
Ans:C

11. The output of a rotating electrical machine is limited by

(A) size of the machine
(B) peripheral velocity
(C) temperature rise
(D) none of the above.

Ans:C

12. A synchronous machine having large length of the air gap will have

(A) higher noise level
(B) smaller unbalanced magnetic pull
(C) lower limit of stability
(D) higher value of inherent regulation.
Ans:B

13. For the load cycle shown in the figure, the rating of the motor should be

(A) 600 kW
(B) 350 kW
(C) 300 kW
(D) 275 kW.
Ans:D

14. The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be

(A) 3.6 V.
(B) 2.5 V.
(C) 3.0 V.
(D) 6.0 V.
Ans: C

15. The maximum power for a given excitation in a synchronous motor is developed when the power angle is equal to

(A) 0o
(B) 45o
(C) 60o
(D) 90o

Ans: A

P = VI cos

Pmax = VI

= 00

16. The fan-out of a MOS-logic gate is higher than that of TTL gates because of its

(A) low input impedance
(B) high output impedance
(C) low output impedance
(D) high input impedance
Ans: D

17. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the Fermi-level is

(A) closer to the valence band
(B) midway between conduction and valence band
(C) closer to the conduction band
(D) within the valence band
Ans: C

18. A highly stable resonance characteristic is the property of a ____ oscillator.

(A) Hartley
(B) Colpitts
(C) Crystal
(D) Weinbridge
Ans. (C)

19. For a JFET, when VDS is increased beyond the pinch off voltage, the drain current

(A) Increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains constant.
(D) First decreases and then increases.

Ans. (C)

20. A radio frequency signal contains three frequency components, 870 KHz, 875 KHz and 880 KHz. The signal needs to be amplified. The amplifier used should be

(A) audio frequency amplifier
(B) wide band amplifier
(C) tuned voltage amplifier
(D) push-pull amplifier
Ans. (C)
EX:We need to amplify 3 signal frequencies i.e., 870 kHz, 875 kHz and 880 kHz. These frequencies lie in a bandwidth of 10 kHz and we should use only tuned voltage amplifiers to amplify them.

21. An oscillator of the LC type that has a split capacitor in the circuit is

(A) Hartley oscillator
(B) Colpitts oscillator
(C) Weinbridge oscillator
(D) R-C phase shift oscillator
Ans. (B)

22. In the voltage range, Vp < VDS < BVDSS of an ideal JFET or MOSFET

(A) The drain current varies linearly with VDS.
(B) The drain current is constant.
(C) The drain current varies nonlinearly with VDS.
(D) The drain current is cut off.
Ans: (B)

23. In a clamping circuit, the peak-to peak voltage of the waveform being clamped is

(A) affected by the clamping
(B) not affected by the clamping
(C) determined by the clamping voltage value
(D) determined by the ratio of rms voltage of the waveform and the clamping voltage
Ans: B

24. A ‘literal’ in Boolean Algebra means

(A) a variable inn its uncomplemented form only
(B) a variable ORed with its complement
(C) a variable in its complemented form only
(D) a variable in its complemented or uncomplemented form
Ans: D

25. The maximum possible collector circuit efficiency of an ideal class A power amplifier is

(A) 15%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%
Ans:C

26. Which of the following parameters is used for distinguishing between a small signal and a large-signal amplifier?

(A) Voltage gain
(B) Frequency response
(C) Harmonic Distortion
(D) Input/output impedances
Ans: D

27. A single phase diode bridge rectifier supplies a highly inductive load. The load current can be

assumed to be ripple free. The ac supply side current waveform will be

(A) sinusoidal
(B) constant dc.
(C) square
(D) triangular
Ans: C

28. The breakdown mechanism in a lightly doped p-n junction under reverse biased condition is called

(A) avalanche breakdown.
(B) zener breakdown.
(C) breakdown by tunnelling.
(D) high voltage breakdown.

Ans: A

29. For a large values of |VDS|, a FET – behaves as

(A) Voltage controlled resistor.
(B) Current controlled current source.
(C) Voltage controlled current source.
(D) Current controlled resistor.
Ans: C

30. The minimum number of flip-flops required to construct a mod-75 counter is

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8

Ans: C
RailTel General Awareness Questions
RailTel coporation Ltd RCIL Aptitude, Reasoning ,General Awareness Questions

RailTel coporation Ltd RCILGeneral Knowledge Questions
1. Which of the following countries is a land locked country in south America?
a. Ecuador
b. Peru
c. Uruguay
d. Bolivia
Ans : d
2. Canary Islands belongs to
a. Norway
b. Spain
c. New Zealand
d. Portugal
Ans : b
3. Titan is the largest natural satellite of planet
a. Mercury
b. Venus
c. Saturn
d. Neptune
Ans : c
4. Which of the following planets rotates clock wise?
a. Pluto
b. Jupiter
c. Venus
d. Mercury
Ans : c
5. A difference of 1 degree in longitude at the Equator is equivalent to nearly
a. 101 km
b. 111 km
c. 121 km
d. 125 km
Ans : b
6. The earliest known Indian script is
a. Mori
b. Devanagari
c. Brahmi
d. Kharosti
Ans : c
7. How many times the preamble was amended
a. once
b. twice
c. thrice
d. four times
Ans : a
8. The term socialist was added in the Preamble by the ¦amendment
a. 40th
b. 42nd
c. 44th
d. 49th
Ans : b
9. The state with the lowest population in India is
a. Goa
b. Tripura
c. Mizoram
d. Sikkim
Ans : d
10. Which person or organisation received the Nobel Prize three times so far?
a. Medame Curie
b. Linus Pauling
c. Alexender Flemming
d. International Committee of the Redcross
Ans : d
11. The Finance Commission is appointed for every¦ year
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Ans : c
12. Under which five year plan did agriculture show a negative growth?
a. 1st plan
b. 2nd plan
c. 3rd plan
d. 4th plan
Ans : c
13. Who is the founder of the Capital city of Agra?
a. Akbar
b. Babar
c. Sikinder Lodi
d. Mubarak Shah Sayyad
Ans: c
14. The first tide generated electricity project was established at
a. Vizhinjam, Kerala
b. Mangalore, Karnataka
c. Paradeep, Orissa
d. Vishakapattanam
Ans : a
15. National Institute of Oceanography is located in :
a. Calcutta
b. Chennai
c. Mangalore
d. Panaji
Ans : d
16. The 2004 Olympics were held in :
a. Bangkok
b. Rome
c. Athens
d. Nagasaki
Ans : c
17. Who headed the committee appointed on Kargil War ?
a. Gen. V. P. Malik
b. Gen. S. K. Sinha
c. K. Subramanyam
d. K. C. Panth
Ans : c
18. The C. K. Nayudu Trophy is related to the sport of
a. cricket
b. Hockey
c. Football
d. Chess
Ans : a
19. New York is situated on the river
a. Hudson
b. Thames
c. Danube
d. Tigris
Ans : a
20.The Woman of the Millennium selected by the British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC) is
a. Margaret Thacher
b. Hillary Clinton
c. Chandrika Kumaratunga
d. Indira Gandhi
Ans : d
21. The General Assembly of United Nations meets
a. Once a year
b. twice a year
c. thrice a year
d. Once in five years
Ans : a
22. The “Common Wealth Games 2002? will be held in
a. Toranto
b. Manchester
c. Tokyo
d. Canberra
Ans : b
23. All India Radio commenced operations in
a. 1926
b. 1936
c. 1945
d. 1947
Ans : b
24. The Killer Instinct is written by
a. Sulakshan Mohan
b. M.K.Santanam
c. O.P.Sabharwal
d. Subash Jain
Ans : c
25. The Secretary-General of UN is appointed by the
a. Security Council
b. Trusteeship Council
c. General Assembly
d. World Bank
Ans : c
26. Postal Voting is other wise called:
a. external voting
b. secret voting
c. plural voting
d. proxy voting
Ans : d
27. The Common Wealth of Independent states (CIS) consists of¦.republica?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
Ans : c
28. Which of the following harbours is considered as the world finest natural harbour?
a. Sydney harbour
b. Toronto harbour
c. New Jersy harbour
d. Singapore harbour
Ans : a
29. Who invented Radar?
a. Henrey Backquerel
b. Max Planck
c. Robert Watson Watt
d. Humphrey Davy
Ans : c
30. Sandal Wood trees are mostly found in…
a. Trophical Evergreen Forests
b. Tropical most Decidous
c. Alpine forests
d. Trophical Thorn Forests
Ans : d
31. The first country to legalise medically assisted suicide is
a. Switzerland
b. New Zealand
c. USA
d. Netherlands
Ans : d
31. Indias newsprint industry is mainly located in
a. Indore
b. Dehradun
c. Nepanagar
d. Nagpur
Ans : c
32. The tomb of Babur is at
a. Kabul
b. Lahore
c. Multan
d. Larkhana
Ans : a
33. The joint session of the two houses is presided by
a. the speaker
b. the president
c. chairman of Rajyasabha
d. none of these
Ans : a
34. The Gandhara school of Art was influenced most by the
a. Greeks
b. Shakas
c. persians
d. Kushans
Ans : a
35. The Simon Commission was appointed in
a. 1927
b. 1928
c. 1929
d. 1930
Ans : c
36. Sikkim became a full fledged state of the Indian Union, in the year ?
a. 1972
b. 1973
c. 1974
d. 1975
Ans : d
37. Who is the founder of Mahabalipuram ?
a. Rajaraja Chola
b. Mahendra Varman
c. Narsimha Varman
d. Narsimha Chola
Ans : c
38. The 189th member of United Nations is
a. Palau
b. Tuvalu
c. Soloman Islands
d. Nauru
Ans : b
39. When was Burma separated from India
a. 1947
b. 1942
c. 1937
c. 1932
Ans : c
40. Which of the following country has more than 55,000 lakes?
a. Poland
b. Denmark
c. Finland
d. Norway
Ans : c
RailTel-RCIL Mechanical Engg Question Paper
RailTel-RCIL Mechanical Engg Questions with Answers and Explanation

RailTel-RCIL Mechanical Engg Question Paper

1. A thermodynamic system is considered to be an isolated one if

(A) Mains transfer and entropy change are zero
(B) Entropy change and energy transfer are zero
(C) Energy transfer and mass transfer are zero
(D) Mass transfer and volume change are zero
Ans: (C)

2. A closed system is one in which

(A) Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(B) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(C) Neither mass nor energy cross the boundary of the system
(D) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system

Ans: (A)

3. Air is being forced by the bicycle pump into a tyre against a pressure of 4-5 bars. A slow downward movement of the piston can be approximated as

(A) Isobaric process
(B) Adiabatic process
(C) Throttling process
(D) Isothermal process
Ans: (D)

4. Isentropic flow is

(A) Irreversible adiabatic flow
(B) Reversible adiabatic flow
(C) Ideal fluid flow
(D) Frictionless reversible flow
Ans: (B)

5. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as

(A) Dual combustion cycle
(B) Diesel cycle
(C) Atkinson cycle
(D) Rankine cycle
Ans: (C)

6. Air injection is IC engine refers to injection of

(A) Air only
(B) Liquid fuel only
(C) liquid fuel and air
(D) Supercharging air
Ans: (B)

7. Turbo prop-engine has the following additional feature over the turbojet :

(A) Propeller
(B) Diffuser
(C) Starting engine
(D) Turbine and combustion chamber
Ans: (A)

8. In the SI engine, highest UBHC concentration is observed during

(A) Maximum load
(B) Acceleration
(C) Deceleration
(D) Idling
Ans: (d)

9. Shielding in a nuclear power plant is done

(A) To protect against neutron and gamma rays
(B) To absorb excess neutrons
(C) To slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
(D) To return the neutrons back into the core of the reactor
Ans: (A)

10. In the film established along a vertical plate during condensation of any vapour over the plates, the temperature distribution curve is

(A) Concave upwards
(B) Concave downwards
(C) Parabolic
(D) Straight line
Ans: (D)

11. In spite of large heat transfer coefficients in boiling liquids, cavities are used advantageously when entire surface is exposed to

(A) Nucleate boiling
(B) Film boiling
(C) Transition boiling
(D) Pool boiling
Ans: (C)

12. What is the unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid termed ‘poise’ equivalent to?

(A) dyne/cm2
(B) gm s/cm
(C) dyne s/cm2
(D) gm-cm/s
Ans:C

13. If the surface tension of water-air interface is 0.073 N/m, the gauge pressure inside a rain drop of 1 mm diameter will be:

(A) 0.146N/m2
(B) 73N/m2
(C) 146N/m2
(D) 292 N/m2
Ans:D
Ex:P = 4s/d = 4*0.073/.001 = 292N/m2

14. Which one of the following sets of conditions clearly apply to an ideal fluid?

(A) Viscous and compressible
(B) Non-viscous and incompressible
(c) Non-viscous and compressible
(d) Viscous and incompressible
Ans:B

15. Fluids that require a gradually increasing shear stress to maintain a constant strain rate are known as

(A) Rhedopectic fluids
(B) Thixotropic fluids
(C) Pseudoplastic fluids
(D) Newtonian fluids

Ans:A

16. At the interface of a liquid and gas at rest, the pressure is:

(A) Higher on the concave side compared to that on the convex side
(B) Higher on the convex side compared to that on the concave side
(C) Equal to both sides
(D) Equal to surface tension divided by radius of curvature on both sides
Ans:A

17. Willans line represents

(A) Total steam consumption vs power output with throttle governing
(B) Total steam consumption vs power output with cutoff governing
(C) Behaviour of supersaturated steam through nozzles
(D) Condensation of steam while flowing through the turbine
Ans: (A)

18. In a locomotive boiler, the draught is produced by

(A) Chimnay
(B) ID fan
(C) FD fan
(D) Steam jet
Ans: (D)

19. A Kaplan turbine is a

(A) Outward flow reaction turbine
(B) Inward flow impulse turbine
(C) Low head axial flow turbine
(D) High head mixed flow turbine
Ans: (C)

20. Navier – stokes equations are useful in the analysis of

(A) Turbulent flows
(B) Vortex flows
(C) Viscous flows
(D) Rotatioal flows
Ans: (C)
RailTel Latest Mechanical Engg Questions

RailTel(RCIL) Mechanical Engineering Objective Questions, Answers

1 In PERT analysis a critical activity has
A) maximum Float
B) zero Float
C) maximum Cost
D) minimum Cost
Answer : (B)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers
2 Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical formula is
A) CH C1 F2
B) C2 C13 F3
C) C2 C12 F4
D) C2 H2 F4
Answer : (D)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

3 A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the centre of a hollow sphere (surface 1). The diameter of the sphere is 1m, while the cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5 m each. The radiation configuration factor F11 is
A) 0.375
B) 0.625
C) 0.75
D) 1
Answer : (C)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

4 For a fluid flow through a divergent pipe of length L having inlet and outlet radii of R1 and R2 respectively and a constant flow rate of Q, assuming the velocity to be axial and uniform at any cross-section, the acceleration at the exit is
A) 2Q(R1 – R2) p LR23
B) 2Q2 (R1 – R2) p LR23
C) 2Q2 (R1 – R2) p2LR25
D) 2Q2 (R2 – R1) p2LR25
Answer : (C)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

5 An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is
A) 0.651 x 10-3
B) 0.651
C) 6.51
D) 0.651 x 103
Answer : (B)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

6 The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5,5) to (10,10) while performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10,5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

Answer : (D)

7 During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power were taken at constant speed.
All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 2 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 3 cylinder not firing 2100 kW
Number 4 cylinder not firing 2098 kW
The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
A) 91.53%
B) 85.07%
C) 81.07%
D) 61.22%
Answer : (C)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

8 In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor (Kt) and fatigue stress concentration factor (Kf ), the notch sensitivity ?q? is expressed as
A) (Kf -1) (Kt -1)
B) (Kf -1) (Kt +1)
C) (Kt -1) (Kf -1)
D) (Kf +1) (Kt +1)
Answer : (A)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

9 Starting from x0 = 1, one step of Newton-Raphson method in solving the equation x3 + 3x -7 = 0 gives the next value (x1) as
A) x1 = 0.5
B) x1= 1.406
C) x1= 1.5
D) x1 = 2
Answer : (C)

10 A maintenance service facility has Poisson arrival rates, negative exponential service time and operates on a ?first come first served? queue discipline. Break downs occur on an average of 3 per day with a range of zero to eight. The maintenance crew can service an average of 6 machines per day with a range of zero to seven. The mean waiting time for an item to be serviced would be
A) 16 day
B) 13 day
C) 1 day
D) 3 days
Answer : (A)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

11 The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
A) 103 cycles
B) 104 cycles
C) 106 cycles
D) 109 cycles
Answer : (C)

12 In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm and it rotates at 100 rpm. The roll strip contact length will be
A) 5 mm
B) 39 mm
C) 78mm
D) 120mm
Answer : (A)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

13 Water at 42?C is sprayed into a stream of air at atmospheric pressure, dry bulb temperature of 40?C and a wet bulb temperature of 20?C. The air leaving the spray humidifier is not saturated. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Air gets cooled and humidified
B) Air gets heated and humidified
C) Air gets heated and dehumidified
D) Air gets cooled and dehumidified
Answer : (B)

14 The angle between two unit-magnitude coplanar vectors P(0.866, 0.500,0) and Q(0.259, 0.966,0) will be
A) 0?
B) -30?
C) 45?
D) 60?
Answer : (C)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

15 A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items are chosen randomly from this lot. The probability that exactly 2 of the chosen items are defective is
A) 0.0036
B) 0.1937
C) 0.2234
D) 0.3874
Answer : (B)1 Stokes theorem connects
A) a line integral and a surface integral
B) a surface integral and a volume integral
C) a line integral and a volume integral
D) gradient of a function and its surface integral
Answer : (A)

16 A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the rate of 0.6 k W/m2 transforms it to the internal energy of a fluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. The fluid heated to 350 K is used to run a heat engine which rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat engine is to deliver 2.5 kW power, the minimum area of the solar collector required would be
A) 8.33m2
B) 16.66m2
C) 39.68m2
D) 79.36m2
Answer : (D)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

17 When the temperature of a solid metal increases,
A) strength of the metal decreaes but ductility increases
B) both strength and ductility of the metal decrease
C) both strength and ductility of the metal increase
D) strength of the metal increases but ductility decreases
Answer : (A)

18 A company produces two types of toys: P and Q. Production time of Q is twice that of P and the company has a maximum of 2000 time units per day. The supply of raw material is just sufficient to produce 1500 toys (of any type) per day. Toy type Q requires an electric switch which is available @ 600 pieces per day only. The company makes a profit of Rs. 3 and Rs. 5 on type P and Q respectively. For maximization of profits, the daily production quantities of P and Q toys should respectively be
A) 100, 500
B) 500, 1000
C) 800, 600
D) 1000, 1000
Answer : (C)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

19A spherical thermocouple junction of diameter 0.706 mm is to be used for the measurement of temperature of a gas stream. The convective heat transfer co-efficient on the bead surface is 400 W/m2K. Thermophysical properties of thermocouple material are k = 20 W/mK, C = 400 J/kg K and r = 8500 kg/m3. If the thermocouple initially tot 30?C is placed in a hot stream of 300?C, the time taken by the bead to reach 298?C, is
A) 2.35 s
B) 4.9 s
C) 14.7 s
D) 29.4 s
Answer : (B)

20In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1 kg and the stiffness of the spring is 1 kN/m. By introducing a damper, the frequency of oscillation is found to be 90% of the original value. What is the damping coefficient of the damper?
A) 1.2 N.s/m
B) 3.4 N.s/m
C) 8.7 N.s/m
D) 12.0 N.s/m
Answer : (C)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

21 In a machining operation, doubling the cutting speed reduces the tool life to 1/8 of the original value. The exponent n in Taylor
A) 1/8
B) 1/4
C) 1/3
D) 1/2
Answer : (C)

22 In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm and it rotates at 100 rpm. The roll strip contact length will be
A) 5 mm
B) 39 mm
C) 78 mm
D) 120 mm
Answer : (A)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

23 A soldering operation was work-sampled over two days (16 hours) during which an employee soldered 108 joints. Actual working time was 90% of the total time and the performance rating was estimated to be 120 percent. If the contract provides allowance of 20 percent of the total time available, the standard time for the operation would be
A) 8 min
B) 8.9 min
C) 10 min
D) 12 min
Answer : (D)

24 A welding operation is time-studied during which an operator was pace-rated as 120%. The operator took, on an average, 8 minutes for producing the weld-joint. If a total of 10% allowances are allowed for this operation, the expected standard production rate of the weld-joint (in units per 8 hour day) is
A) 45
B) 50
C) 55
D) 60
Answer : (A)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

25 During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be
A) circular Interpolation ? clockwise
B) circular Interpolation ? counterclockwise
C) linear Interpolation
D) rapid feed
Answer : (A)

26 A component can be produced by any of the four processes I, II, III and IV. Process I has a fixed cost ofRs. 20 and variable cost of Rs. 3 per piece. Process II has a fixed cost Rs. 50 and variable cost of Re. 1 per piece. Process III has a fixed cost of Rs. 40 and variable cost of Rs. 2 per piece. Process IV has a fixed cost of Rs. 10 and variable cost of Rs. 4 per piece. If the company wishes to produce 100 pieces of the component, from economic point of view it should choose
A) Process I
B) Process II
C) Process III
D) Process IV
Answer : (B)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

27In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size 25.000+0.040mm mate with holes of size 25.000+0.020 mm. The maximum possible clearance in the assembly will be
A) 10 microns
B) 20 microns
C) 30 microns
D) 60 microns
Answer : (D)

28 A company has two factories S1, S2 and two warehouses D1, D2. The supplies from S1 and S2 are 50 and 40 units respectively. Warehouse D1 requires a minimum of 20 units and a maximum of 40 units. Warehouse D2 requires a minimum of 20 units and, over and above, it can take as much as can be supplied. A balanced transportation problem is to be formulated for the above situation. The number of supply points, the number of demand points, and the total supply (or total demand) in the balanced transportation problem respectively are
A) 2, 4, 90
B) 2, 4, 110
C) 3, 4, 90
D) 3, 4, 110
Answer : (C)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

29 An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is
A) 0.651 x 10-3
B) 0.651
C) 6.51
D) 0.651 x 103
Answer : (B)

30 The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5,5) to (10,10) while performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10,5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer : (D)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

31 During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power were taken at constant speed.
All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 2 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 3 cylinder not firing 2100 kW
Number 4 cylinder not firing 2098 kW
The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
A) 91.53%
B) 85.07%
C) 81.07%
D) 61.22%
Answer : (C)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

32 In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor (Kt) and fatigue stress concentration factor (Kf ), the notch sensitivity ?q? is expressed as
A) (Kf -1) (Kt -1)
B) (Kf -1) (Kt +1)
C) (Kt -1) (Kf -1)
D) (Kf +1) (Kt +1)
Answer : (A)

33 Starting from x0 = 1, one step of Newton-Raphson method in solving the equation x3 + 3x -7 = 0 gives the next value (x1) as
A) x1 = 0.5
B) x1= 1.406
C) x1= 1.5
D) x1 = 2
Answer : (C)
http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

34 The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
A) 103 cycles
B) 104 cycles
C) 10 6 cycles
D) 10 9 cycles
Answer : (C)

http://p3.placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

RailTel-RCIL Computer Science and Engg Question Paper
RailTel-RCIL Computer Science and Engg Questions and Answers with Explanation,RailTel-RCIL Previous Questions and Answers,Solved RailTel-RCIL Question Paper,Syllabuswise RailTel-RCIL Question Paper

RailTel-RCIL Computer Science and Engg Question Paper

1. A type of core store that has a lower access time than the devices used for working store in the same processor is known as

a. Core memory
b. Buffer
c. Fast core
d. Address register
Ans:d

2. A memory that is capable of determining whether a given datum is contained in one of its address is

a. ROM
b. PROM
c. CAM
d. RAM
Ans:c

3. In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed

a. Parallel only
b. Sequentially only
c. Both sequentially and parallel
d. All of above
Ans:C

4. Which layer functions as liaison between user support layers and network support layers ?

a. network layer
b. physical layer
c. transport layer
d. session layer
Ans:c

5. What is the latest write-once optical storage media?

a. Digital paper
b. Magneto-optical disk
c. WORM disk
d. CD-ROM disk
Ans:c

6. What type of control pins are needed in a microprocessor to regulate traffic on the bus, in order to prevent two devices from trying to use it at the same time?

a. Bus control
b. Interrupts
c. Bus arbitration
d. Status
Ans: c

7. A protocol is a set of rules governing a time sequence of events that must take place

a. between peers
b. between an interface
c. between modems
d. across an interface
Ans:A

8. Which of hte following is considered a broad band communication channel?

a. coaxial cable
b. fiber optics cable
c. microwave circuits
d. all of above
Ans:d

9. In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by

a. network layer
b. data link layer
c. transport layer
d. session layer
e. none of above

Ans:a

10. Which of the following might be used by a company to satisfy its growing communications needs?

a. front end processor
b. multiplexer
c. controller
d. concentrator
e. all of the above
Ans:e

11. FIFO scheduling is…..

a. Preemptive Scheduling
b. Non Preemptive Scheduling
c. Deadline Scheduling
d. Fair share scheduling
Ans:b

12. The Banker’s algorithm is used

a. to prevent deadlock in operating systems
b. to detect deadlock in operating systems
c. to rectify a deadlocked state
d. none of the above
Ans:a

13. Which technique was introduced because a single job could not keep both the CPU and the I/O devices busy?
a. Time-sharing
b. Spooling
c. Preemptive scheduling
d. Multiprogramming
Ans:d

14. The scheduling in which CPU is allocated to the process with least CPU-burst time is called

a. Priority Scheduling
b. Shortest job first Scheduling
c. Round Robin Scheduling
d. Multilevel Queue Scheduling
Ans: b

15. Overlays is ?

a. A part of Operating System
b. A specific memory location
c. A single contiguous memory that was used in the olden days for running large programs by swapping
d. Overloading the system with many user files
Ans:c

16. Which Layer is not present in TCP/ IP model?

a. Appl icat ion Layer
b. Internet Layer
c. Transport Layer
d. Presentat ion Layer
Ans: d

17. The main funct ion of a browser is to

a. compi le HTML
b. interpret HTML
c. de-compi le HTML
d. interpret CGI programs
Ans: b

18. Virtual memory is __________.

a. An extremely large main memory
b. An extremely large secondary memory
c. An illusion of extremely large main memory
d. A type of memory used in super computers.
Ans:3

19. In a DMA write operation the data is transferred

a. from I/O to memory.
b. from memory to I/O.
c. from memory to memory.
d. from I/O to I/O.
Ans:a

20. A Bus cycle is equal to how many clocking periods

a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Six
Ans:c