LIC Aptitude numerical Archives

LIC Aptitude numerical

LIC Mathematical Aptitude Question and answers for Upcoming Exams – LIC previous years solved question papers with detailed explanations
1. Two numbers are respectively 25% and 20% less than a third number. What percent is the first number of the second.
(A) 5.85%
(B) 75.85%
(C) 80.60%
(D) 93.75%
Ans (D)
2. A pump can fill a tank with water in two hours. Because of a leak in the tank it was taking two 1/3 hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water off the tank in.
(A) 8 hours
(B) 7 hours
(C) 13/3 hours
(D) 14 hours
Ans (D)
3. A can do a peace of work in 4 hours. B and C can do it in 3 hours. A and C can do it in two hours. How long will B take to do it?
(A) 10 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 24 hours
Ans (B)
4. The difference between the simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money at 5% rate of interest p.a. for two years is Rs.15. Then the sum is _____
(A) Rs.6500
(B) Rs.5500
(C) Rs.6000
(D) Rs.7000
Ans (C)
5. A sum borrowed under compound interest doubles itself in 10 years. When will it become four fold of itself at the same rate of interest?
(A) 15 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 24 years
(D) 40 years
()Ans (B)
6. The students in three classes are in the ratio of 2:3:5 if 40 students are increased in each class the ratio changes to 4:5:7 if 40 students are increased in each class the ratio changes to 4:5:7 originally the total number of students was _______
(A) 100
(B) 180
(C) 200
(D) 400
Ans (C)
7. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 5:3 and that of their expenditure is 9.5. Find the income of each person if they save Rs.1300 and Rs.900 respectively.
(A) Rs.4000, Rs.2400
(B) Rs.3000, Rs.1800
(C) Rs.5000, Rs.3000
(D) Rs.4500, Rs.2700
Ans (A)
8. A fort has provision for 50 days if after 10 days they are strengthen by 500 men and the remaining food lasts 35 days. How many men were there in the fort initially?
(A) 3500
(B) 3000
(C) 2500
(D) 4000
Ans (A)
9. A number is increased by 20% and then it is decreased by 10%. Find the net increase or decrease in %
(A) 10% increase
(B) 10% decrease
(C) 8%increase
(D) 8% decrease
Ans (C)
10. The product of two positive numbers is 2500 if one number is 4 times the other, the sum of the two numbers is ______
(A) 25
(B) 125
(C) 225
(D) 250
Ans (B)
11. Which of the following is the largest number which is exactly devisable by 7,9 and 15?
(A) 9450
(B) 9765
(C) 9865
(D) 9550
Ans (B)
12. What percent of 5/8 is 8/5?
(A) 100
(B) 64
(C) 256
(D) 1024
Ans (C)
13. 2.3 + 6.5 – 7.1 + 4.9 -1.4 + 8.6 – 5.3?
(A) 8.5
(B) 8.6
(C) 8.7
(D) 8.4
Ans (A)
14. Example of a mathematical statement is ______
(A) (10+8)-9
(B) 2x+3=5
(C) 5<9+3
(D) x+3
Ans (C)
15. If 4x = 10 then X=?
(A) 10-4
(B) 10 X 4
(C) 10 +4
(D) 10/4
Ans (D)
16. a and b are two numbers. The property of a = b then b=a is called _______
(A) Reflexive property
(B) Transitive property
(C) Symmetric property
(D) Associative property
Ans (C)
17. “10 added to 5 times x is equal to 20″ in symbolic form is _______
(A) 5(x+10)=20
(B) 5x+10=20
(C) x/5+10=20
(D) 5x-10=20
Ans (B)
18. The point equidistant from the vertices of a triangle is its_____
(A) Orthocentre
(B) Centroid
(C) circumcentre
(D) Incentre
Ans (C)
19. The centroid of a triangle is the point of concurrence of its
(A) angle bisectors
(B) perpendicular bisector
(C) altitudes
(D) medians
Ans (D)
20. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:2:7 then the triangle is ______
(A) acute angled
(B) obtuse angled
(C) right angled
(D) isosceles
Ans (D)
21. Two sides of a triangle are 8cm and 11cm then the possible third side is____
(A) 1 cm
(B) 2 cm
(C) 3 cm
(D) 4 cm
Ans (D)
22. A triangle always has exactly
(A) one acute angle
(B) at least two acute angles
(C) exactly one right angle
(D) exactly two acute angles
Ans (B)
23. Two trains A and B are running at the speeds of 45 KMPH and 25 KMPH respectively in the same direction. The faster train i.e. train A crosses a Man sitting in the slower train B in 18 secs. Find the length of the train A?
(A) 100 metres
(B) 120 metres
(C) 150 meters
(D) 180 meters
Ans (A)
24. A circular road runs round a circular ground. If the difference between the circumference of the outer circle and inner circle is 44 meters, find the width of road.
(A) 8 meters
(B) 7 meters
(C) 17 meters
(D) 9 meters
Ans (B)
25. A and B started a business in partnership. A invested Rs.2000/- for six months and B invested Rs.1500 for 8 months. What is the share of A in total profit of Rs.510?
(A) Rs.250
(B) Rs.255
(C) Rs.275
(D) Rs.280
Ans (B)

Placement Paper
LIC free solved sample placement papers for practice, LIC DSE and ADO recruitment written test procedure, Test pattern LIC apatitude questions for practice,LIC model questions and answers

LIC,the given questions have been asked in various exams and will provide the idea of numerical aptitude and how to attempt them.
1. Five years ago the total age of a father and his son was 40 years. The ratio of their present ages is 4:1. What is the present age of father?

(a) 30 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 25 years
(d) None of these

Answer d

2. Ten years ago A was half of B age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3:4, What will be the total of their present ages?

(a) 8 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years

Answer: d.

3. Sushil was thrice as old as snehal 6 years back. Sushil will be 5/3 times as old as snehal 6 years hence. How old is snehal today?

(a) 18 years
(b) 24 years
(c) 12 years
(d) 15 years

Answer: c.

4. If 6 years are substracted from the age of Gulzar and remainder is devided by 18, then the present age of his grandson Anup is obtained. If Anup is 2 years younger to Mahesh whose age 5 years then what is the age of Gulzar?

(a) 90 years
(b) 84 years
(c) 48 years
(d) 60 years

Answer: d.

5. The tatal age of A,B and C is 90 years . Ten years age the ratio of their ages was 1:2:3. What is present age of B?

(a) 40 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 18 years

Answer: b

6. The sum of the ages of A,B and C is 96 years. To find out B age, which of the following information given in the statement P & Q is / are sufficent?
P:A is 6 years older than C Q: the total of B & C ages is 56 years

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) Both P & Q
(d) None of these

Answer: c

7. Snehs age is 1/6th of her fathers age. Snehs father age will be twice of Vimals age after 10 years. If Vimals 8th birthday was celebrated 2 years ago, what is Snehs present age?

(a) 24 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 6 2/3 years
(d) None of these

Answer: d

8. .02 = ? %?

(a) 20
(b) 2
(c) .02
(d) .2

Answer: b.

9 13937.869 ÷ 199.54 + 15% of 201 = ?

(a) 150
(b) 90
(c) 80
(d) 100

Answer: d.

10. 5% of (25% of Rs 1600) is = ?

(a) 5
(b) 17.50
(c) 20
(d) 25

Answer: c.

11. 8 1/3 % of ? = 150

(a) 1250
(b) 1800
(c) 1700
(d) 1400

Answer: b

12. An shopkeeper sold an article for Rs2504.36. Appx what was his profit %, if the cost prize of the article was Rs 2400?

(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 60

Answer: a

13. When a commodity is sold for Rs 34.80, there is a loss of 25%. What is the CP of it?

(a) 46.40
(b) 26.10
(c) 43
(d) 43.20

Answer: a

14. A shopkeeper bought an article for Rs 319.60. Appx, at what price should he sell to have 25% profit?

(a) 400
(b) 450
(c) 500
(d) 600

Answer: a

15. There would be 10% loss if toy is sold for Rs 10.80 per piece. At what price it should be sold to earn the profit of 20%?

(a) 12
(b) 12.96
(c) 14.40
(d) None

Answer: c

16. If books bought of price ranging from Rs200 to Rs 350 are sold at prices ranging from Rs300 to Rs 425, what is the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling eight books?

(a) 400
(b) 600
(c) Can’t be determined
(d) None of these

Answer: d

17. If a carton containing a dozen mirrors is dropped, which of the following can not be the ratio of broken mirrors to unbroken mirrors

(a) 2 : 1
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 7 : 5

Answer: c

18 The salaries of A,B,andC,are in the ratio of1:2:3.The salaries of Band C together is Rs.6000.By what percentage is the salary of C more than that of A?

(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 600%

Answer: b

19. The amount of money is to be distributed among P,Q & R in the ratio of 3:5:7. If Q’s share is Rs1500, what is the difference between P’s and R’s share?

(a) 1200
(b) 1500
(c) 1600
(d) 1900

Answer: a

20. A sum of money is to be distributed among P,Q & R in the ratio of 2:3:5. If total share of P & R together is Rs400 more than of Q, what is R’s share in it?

(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 600
(d) 750

Answer : b
Placement Paper
LIC aptitude question for practice LIC free solved sample placement papers,LIC Aptitude,reasoning general awareness moel questions for practice,LIC numerical ability ,LIC previous years solved sample placement papers

LIC Aptitude/Numerical/Analytical/general awareness

1.Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively. How many kgs of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg,given that the quntities of band c are equal
a)70,15,15
b)50,25,25
c)60,20,20
d)40,30,30
Ans: (b)

2.What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream (2 pt. =1 qt. and 4 qt. =1 gal)
A.16
B.24
C.30
D.64
Ans: D

3.There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed over a square. What is the ratio of area of inner to outer circle?
Ans: 1 : 2

4.In the following A B CDE F GH I

Each of the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 is:
a)Represented by a different letter in the figure above.
b) Positioned in the figure above so that each of A + B + C,C + D +E,E + F + G, and G + H + I is equal to 13.
Which digit does E represent?
Ans: E is 4

5.There are 12 boys and 15 girls, How many different dancing groups can be formed with 2 boys and 3 girls.48Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3
(a) 22/62
(b) 15/46
(c) 2/3
(d) 1
Ans: (b)

6.One of Mr. Horton,his wife,their son,and Mr. Horton’s mother is a doctor and another is a lawyer.
a)If the doctor is younger than the lawyer, then the doctor and the lawyer are not blood relatives.
b)If the doctor is a woman, then the doctor and the lawyer are blood relatives.
c)If the lawyer is a man, then the doctor is a man.
Whose occupation you know?
Ans: Mr. Horton:he is the doctor.

7.A person wants to buy 3 paise and 5 paise stamps costing exactly one rupee. If he buys which of the following number of stamps he won’t able to buy 3 paise stamps.
Ans: 9

8.Mr. and Mrs. Aye and Mr. and Mrs. Bee competed in a chess tournament.Of the three games played:
a)In only the first game werethe two players married to each other.
b)The men won two games and the women won one game.
c)The Ayes won more games than the Bees.
d)Anyone who lost game did not play the subsequent game.
Who did not lose a game?
Ans:Mrs.Bee did not lose a game.

9.Two cars are 15 kms apart. One is turning at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph . How much time will it take for the two cars to meet?
Ans: 3/2 hours

10.Three piles of chips–pile I consists one chip, pile II consists of chips, and pile III consists of three chips–are to be used in game played by Anita and Brinda.The game requires:
a)That each player in turn take only one chip or all chips from just one pile.
b)That the player who has to take the last chip loses.
c)That Anita now have her turn.
From which pile should Anita draw in order to win?
Ans:Pile II

11. 9.In a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the class is composed of girls
A.y/(x + y)
B.x/xy
C.x/(x + y)
D.y/xy
Ans:C

12.One of the following is my secret word:AIM DUE MOD OAT TIE.With the list in front of you, if I were to tell you any one of my secret word,then you would be able to tell me the number of vowels in my secret word.Which is my secret word?
Ans:TIE

13.If the operation,^ is defined by the equation x ^ y = 2x + y,what is the value of a in 2 ^ a = a ^ 3
A.0
B.1
C.-1
D.4
Ans:B

14.A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee,putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1 part of a 24p. a gm.If the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of the less expensive grade,how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms.
A.Rs.90
B.Rs.1.00
C.Rs.3.00
D.Rs.8.00
Ans:C

15.There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination.Among these questions are 50 mathematics problems.It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each maths problem as for each other question.How many minutes should be spent on mathematics problems
A.36
B.72
C.60
D.100
Ans:B

16.In a group of 15,7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek, and 3 have not studied either.How many of these studied both Latin and Greek A.0 B.3 C.4 D.5
Ans.B

17.If 13 = 13w/(1-w) ,then (2w)2 =
A.1/4
B.1/2
C.1
D.2
Ans:C

18. If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then
(A) b < a
(B) b > a
(C) b = a
(D) b >= a
Ans: A

18. In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?
A. 12
B. 20
C. 24
D. 30
Ans: C

19. M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift/
A. D/(M-3)
B. MD/3
C. M/(D-3)
D. 3D/(M2-3M)
Ans: D

20. A company contracts to paint 3 houses. Mr.Brown can paint a house in 6 days while Mr.Black would take 8 days and Mr.Blue 12 days. After 8 days Mr.Brown goes on vacation and Mr. Black begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take Mr.Blue to complete the contract?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 11
D. 12
Ans:C

21. 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train was?
A. 30
B. 40
C.58
D. 60
Ans: B

22. If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?
A.-5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8
Ans: D

23. There are 5 red shoes, 4 green shoes. If one draw randomly a shoe what is the probability of getting a red shoe
Ans: 5c1/ 9c1

24. What is the selling price of a car? If the cost of the car is Rs.60 and a profit of 10% over selling price is earned
Ans: Rs 66/-

25. 1/3 of girls , 1/2 of boys go to canteen .What factor and total number of classmates go to canteen.
Ans: Cannot be determined.

26. The price of a product is reduced by 30% . By what percentage should it be increased to make it 100%
Ans: 42.857%

27. There is a square of side 6cm . A circle is inscribed inside the square. Find the ratio of the area of circle to square.
Ans: 11/14

28. There are two candles of equal lengths and of different thickness. The thicker one lasts of six hours. The thinner 2 hours less than the thicker one. Ramesh lights the two candles at the same time. When he went to bed he saw the thicker one is twice the length of the thinner one. How long ago did Ramesh light the two candles .
Ans: 3 hours.

29. If M/N = 6/5,then 3M+2N = ?

30. If p/q = 5/4 , then 2p+q= ?

31. If PQRST is a parallelogram what it the ratio of triangle PQS & parallelogram PQRST .
Ans: 1:2

32. The cost of an item is Rs 12.60. If the profit is 10% over selling price what is the selling price ?
Ans: Rs 13.86/-

33. There are 6 red shoes & 4 green shoes . If two of red shoes are drawn what is the probability of getting red shoes
Ans: 6c2/10c2

34. To 15 lts of water containing 20% alcohol, we add 5 lts of pure water. What is % alcohol.
Ans : 15%

35. A worker is paid Rs.20/- for a full days work. He works 1,1/3,2/3,1/8.3/4 days in a week. What is the total amount paid for that worker ?
Ans : 57.50

36. If the value of x lies between 0 & 1 which of the following is the largest?
(a) x
(b) x2
(c) -x
(d) 1/x
Ans : (d)

37. If the total distance of a journey is 120 km .If one goes by 60 kmph and comes back at 40kmph what is the average speed during the journey?
Ans: 48kmph

38. A school has 30% students from Maharashtra .Out of these 20% are Bombey students. Find the total percentage of Bombay?
Ans: 6%

39. An equilateral triangle of sides 3 inch each is given. How many equilateral triangles of side 1 inch can be formed from it?
Ans: 9

40. If A/B = 3/5,then 15A = ?
Ans : 9B

41. Each side of a rectangle is increased by 100% .By what percentage does the area increase?
Ans : 300%

42. Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel.What is the distance?
Ans : 315 feet.

43. Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How many revolutions will the back wheel take?
Ans: 360 times

44. 20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What percentage of the mixture of solution
Ans: 36%

45.City A’s population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities will have same population?
Ans: 130 years

46 It was calculated that 75 men could complete a piece of work in 20 days. When work was scheduled to commence, it was found necessary to send 25 men to another project. How much longer will it take to complete the work?
Answer:
30 days.
Explanation:
Before:
One day work = 1 / 20
One man’s one day work = 1 / ( 20 * 75)
Now:
No. Of workers = 50
One day work = 50 * 1 / ( 20 * 75)

47 A student divided a number by 2/3 when he required to multiply by 3/2. Calculate the percentage of error in his result.
Answer:
0 %
Explanation:
Since 3x / 2 = x / (2 / 3)

48 A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell pulses at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 950gm. for a kg. His gain is …%.
Answer:
5.3 %
Explanation:
He sells 950 grams of pulses and gains 50 grams.
If he sells 100 grams of pulses then he will gain (50 / 950) *100 = 5.26

49 A man was engaged on a job for 30 days on the condition that he would get a wage of Rs. 10 for the day he works, but he have to pay a fine of Rs. 2 for each day of his absence. If he gets Rs. 216 at the end, he was absent for work for … days.
Answer:
7 days
Explanation:
The equation portraying the given problem is:
10 * x – 2 * (30 – x) = 216 where x is the number of working days.
Solving this we get x = 23
Number of days he was absent was 7 (30-23) days.

50 A man bought a horse and a cart. If he sold the horse at 10 % loss and the cart at 20 % gain, he would not lose anything; but if he sold the horse at 5% loss and the cart at 5% gain, he would lose Rs. 10 in the bargain. The amount paid by him was Rs.¬¬¬¬_______ for the horse and Rs.________ for the cart.
Answer:
Cost price of horse = Rs. 400 & the cost price of cart = 200.
Explanation:-
Let x be the cost price of the horse and y be the cost price of the cart.
In the first sale there is no loss or profit. (i.e.) The loss obtained is equal to the gain.

Therefore (10/100) * x = (20/100) * y

X = 2 * y —————–(1)
In the second sale, he lost Rs. 10. (i.e.) The loss is greater than the profit by Rs. 10.

Therefore (5 / 100) * x = (5 / 100) * y + 10 ——-(2)
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
(10 / 100) * y = (5 / 100) * y + 10
(5 / 100) * y = 10
y = 200
From (1) 2 * 200 = x = 400
Placement Paper
LIC Numerical Ability questions with answers

Directions (Q. 1- 25): What should come in place of question mark(?) in each of the following questions?
1. 47% of 492 = ?
1) 232.06
2) 418.23
3) 362.16
4) 231.24 (Ans)
5) 232.64

2. 1825 – ( 46 x 1.65)=?
1) 24.04 (Ans)
2) 26.05
3) 28.04
4) 25
5) 28.06

3. 6/5 of 7/4 of 12184 = ?
1) 25841.64
2) 25782.72
3) 23284.01
4) 25586.4 (Ans)
5) None of these

4. 67.80 + 4235 + 64.52 + ?= 5321.32
1) 957.64
2) 954 (Ans)
3) 952.72
4) 948.48
5) None of these

5. 12% of 140 + 20 = ?
1) 34.2
2) 36.8 (Ans)
3) 38.6
4) 42.4
5) None of these

6. 28% of 420 – ? % of 320 = 80
1) 11.75 (Ans)
2) 12.8
3) 10 and 1/2
4) 16.08
5) 20.24
Exp: 28 x 420 – 80 = 320 x ?
100 100

117.6 – 80 = 320 x ? :. ? = 37.6 x 100 = 11.75
100 320
7. 57. 2.65 x 4.8 x 17.3 – 42.36 =?
1) 174.696
2) 167.696 (Ans)
3) 182.696
4) 177.696
5) 162.62

8. 67562 + 77320 =? + 52314
1) 92567
2) 92568 (Ans)
3) 95568
4) 82568
5) None of these

9. 203 x 53-(600) ” = (?)2
1) 700
2) 600
3) 800 (Ans)
4) 500
5) 900

10. 6.8 x ? = 530. 2
1) 77.102
2) 76.230
3) 77.800
4) 77.501
5) 77.970 (Ans)

11. 1836 + 2301 =21 x?
1) 195
2) 196
3) 197 (Ans)
4) 198
5) 199

12. 144 12 0.3= ?
1) 42
2) 44
3) 46
4) 48
5) None of these (Ans)
Exp : ? = 144 = 40
12 x 0.3

13. I82 x l63 = ?
1) 1327104 (Ans)
2) 1227104
3) 1237104
4) 132706
5) None of these

14. 16 and 1/4 ÷ 4 and 1/3 = ?
1) 3and 2/4
2) 3 and 1/4
3) 3 and 3/4 (Ans)
4) 4 and 3/4
5) None of these

15. 68% of 548 + ? = 772
1) 329.36
2) 299.36
3) 399.36 (Ans)
4) 423.36
5) None of these

16. 12841+ 84101-636 = ? x 82
1) 1174.463 (Ans)
2) 1274.463
3) 1324.463
4) 2164.563
5) None of these

17. ? ÷ 18 x 14 = 438
1) 663.142
2) 563.142 (Ans)
3) 426.142
4) 436.423
5) 1362.631

18. 3156+ 1482 = ? x 24
1) 192.25
2) 193.25 (Ans)
3) 194.25
4) 182.25
5) 183.25

19. v ? + 84 = v 33856
1) 100000
2) 2209
3) 6250000
4) 10000 (Ans)
5) None of these
Exp : :. v ? = 184 – 84 = 100
:. = (100)2 = 10000

20. 64032 ÷ v ? = 24 x 8
1) 111222.25 (Ans)
2) 122112.25
3) 112211.25
4) 121212.25
5) None of these
Exp : 64032 = 24 x8
v ?
:. v ? = 64032 = 333.5
24 x 8
:. v ? = (333.5)2 = 111222.25

21. 45 x ? = 7884 ÷ – 6
1) 39.2
2) 29.2 (Ans)
3) 28.2
4) 29.5
5) 27.2

22. (91)52 x (91) _ 39 = ?
l) (9iy
2) (91f
3) (91)13
4) (91)13 (Ans)
5) None of these

Ans : (1)

24. (.04)3= ? .
1) 2
2) 4
3) 5 (Ans)
4) 25
5) None of these
Expl :

25. 729.29 + 72.20+ 12+ 2.20 + 0.02 = ?
1) 820.32
2) 815.92
3) 815.71 (Ans)
4) 815
5) None of these
Placement Paper
LIC Mathematical Aptitude for Upcoming Exams Bank PO, RRB,LIC previous years solved question papers with detailed explanations

LIC Mathematical Aptitude Questions
1. Two numbers are respectively 25% and 20% less than a third number. What percent is the first number of the second.
(A) 5.85%
(B) 75.85%
(C) 80.60%
(D) 93.75%
Ans (D)
2. A pump can fill a tank with water in two hours. Because of a leak in the tank it was taking two 1/3 hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water off the tank in.
(A) 8 hours
(B) 7 hours
(C) 13/3 hours
(D) 14 hours
Ans (D)
3. A can do a peace of work in 4 hours. B and C can do it in 3 hours. A and C can do it in two hours. How long will B take to do it?
(A) 10 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 24 hours
Ans (B)
4. The difference between the simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money at 5% rate of interest p.a. for two years is Rs.15. Then the sum is _____
(A) Rs.6500
(B) Rs.5500
(C) Rs.6000
(D) Rs.7000
Ans (C)
5. A sum borrowed under compound interest doubles itself in 10 years. When will it become four fold of itself at the same rate of interest?
(A) 15 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 24 years
(D) 40 years
()Ans (B)
6. The students in three classes are in the ratio of 2:3:5 if 40 students are increased in each class the ratio changes to 4:5:7 if 40 students are increased in each class the ratio changes to 4:5:7 originally the total number of students was _______
(A) 100
(B) 180
(C) 200
(D) 400
Ans (C)
7. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 5:3 and that of their expenditure is 9.5. Find the income of each person if they save Rs.1300 and Rs.900 respectively.
(A) Rs.4000, Rs.2400
(B) Rs.3000, Rs.1800
(C) Rs.5000, Rs.3000
(D) Rs.4500, Rs.2700
Ans (A)
8. A fort has provision for 50 days if after 10 days they are strengthen by 500 men and the remaining food lasts 35 days. How many men were there in the fort initially?
(A) 3500
(B) 3000
(C) 2500
(D) 4000
Ans (A)
9. A number is increased by 20% and then it is decreased by 10%. Find the net increase or decrease in %
(A) 10% increase
(B) 10% decrease
(C) 8%increase
(D) 8% decrease
Ans (C)
10. The product of two positive numbers is 2500 if one number is 4 times the other, the sum of the two numbers is ______
(A) 25
(B) 125
(C) 225
(D) 250
Ans (B)
11. Which of the following is the largest number which is exactly devisable by 7,9 and 15?
(A) 9450
(B) 9765
(C) 9865
(D) 9550
Ans (B)
12. What percent of 5/8 is 8/5?
(A) 100
(B) 64
(C) 256
(D) 1024
Ans (C)
13. 2.3 + 6.5 – 7.1 + 4.9 -1.4 + 8.6 – 5.3?
(A) 8.5
(B) 8.6
(C) 8.7
(D) 8.4
Ans (A)
14. Example of a mathematical statement is ______
(A) (10+8)-9
(B) 2x+3=5
(C) 5<9+3
(D) x+3
Ans (C)
15. If 4x = 10 then X=?
(A) 10-4
(B) 10 X 4
(C) 10 +4
(D) 10/4
Ans (D)
16. a and b are two numbers. The property of a = b then b=a is called _______
(A) Reflexive property
(B) Transitive property
(C) Symmetric property
(D) Associative property
Ans (C)
17. “10 added to 5 times x is equal to 20” in symbolic form is _______
(A) 5(x+10)=20
(B) 5x+10=20
(C) x/5+10=20
(D) 5x-10=20
Ans (B)
18. The point equidistant from the vertices of a triangle is its_____
(A) Orthocentre
(B) Centroid
(C) circumcentre
(D) Incentre
Ans (C)
19. The centroid of a triangle is the point of concurrence of its
(A) angle bisectors
(B) perpendicular bisector
(C) altitudes
(D) medians
Ans (D)
20. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:2:7 then the triangle is ______
(A) acute angled
(B) obtuse angled
(C) right angled
(D) isosceles
Ans (D)
21. Two sides of a triangle are 8cm and 11cm then the possible third side is____
(A) 1 cm
(B) 2 cm
(C) 3 cm
(D) 4 cm
Ans (D)
22. A triangle always has exactly
(A) one acute angle
(B) at least two acute angles
(C) exactly one right angle
(D) exactly two acute angles
Ans (B)
23. Two trains A and B are running at the speeds of 45 KMPH and 25 KMPH respectively in the same direction. The faster train i.e. train A crosses a Man sitting in the slower train B in 18 secs. Find the length of the train A?
(A) 100 metres
(B) 120 metres
(C) 150 meters
(D) 180 meters
Ans (A)
24. A circular road runs round a circular ground. If the difference between the circumference of the outer circle and inner circle is 44 meters, find the width of road.
(A) 8 meters
(B) 7 meters
(C) 17 meters
(D) 9 meters
Ans (B)
25. A and B started a business in partnership. A invested Rs.2000/- for six months and B invested Rs.1500 for 8 months. What is the share of A in total profit of Rs.510?
(A) Rs.250
(B) Rs.255
(C) Rs.275
(D) Rs.280
Ans (B)
LIC Aptitude-Numerical

LIC AAO Exam Paper – Numerical Aptitude

1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?
(A) 13.14
(B) 12.96
(C) 12.43
(D) 13.34
(E) None of these

2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?
(A) 867.8
(B) 792.31
(C) 877.5
(D) 799.83
(E) None of these

3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921
(A)20.2
(B) 24.2
(C)23.1
(D) 19.2
(E) None of these

4.576÷ ? x114=8208
(A)8
(B)7
(C)6
(D)9
(E) None of these

5. (1024?263?233)÷(986?764? 156) =?
(A)9
(B)6
(C)7
(D)8
(E) None of these

6. ?125÷5x ?=6265
(A)1253
(B) 1250
(C)1245
(D) 1550
(E) None of these

7.(42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?
(A)7182
(B) 7269
(C)7260
(D) 7240
(E) None of these

8.384×12×2=?
(A)9024
(B) 9216
(C)6676
(D) 6814
(E) None of these

9.6534÷40÷33=?
(A)3.06
(B) 5.25
(C)4.82
(D) 6.12
(E) None of these

10. ?2704 x ?2209=?
(A)1996
(B)2444
(C)2452
(D)1983
(E)None of these

11.2536+4851??=3450+313
(A)3961
(B)4532
(C)3624
(D)4058
(E) None of these

12. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =?
(A)7512
(B) 9746
(C)6523
(D) 8024
(E) None of these

13. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750
(A)73
(B)89
(C)82
(D)75
(E) None of these

14.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=?
(A)1824
(B) 1902
(C)1829
(D) 1964
(E) None of these

15. 486+32×25?59=?
(A) 514
(B) 528
(C) 599
(D) 507
(E) None of these

16. 1827÷ 36 x ?=162.4
(A)4.4
(B)3.2
(C)2.1
(D) 3.7
(E) None of these

17. 1008÷36=?
(A)28
(B) 32.5
(C)36
(D) 22.2
(E) None of these

18. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 ?21.4+1.5=?
(A)40.04
(B) 46.18
(C)44.08
(D) 43.12
(E) None of these

19. 65%of 320+?=686
(A) 480
(B) 452
(C)461
(D) 475
(E) None of these

20. 83250÷?=74×25
(A)50
(B) 45
(C)40
(D) 55
(E) None of these

21. ?7744=?
(A)88
(B)62
(C)58
(D)78
(E)None of these

22.35%of ?=242
(A)729
(B)652
(C)693
(D)759
(E) None of these

23. 1256+4813+765=?
(A)5642
(B) 5876
(C)6788
(D) 6878
(E) None of these

24. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2
(A) 81
(B) 9
(C) 27
(D) 64
(E) None of these

25. 432+2170+35=?
(A)494
(B) 475
(C)481
(D) 469
(E) None of these

26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number?
(A) 65
(B) 52
(C) 79
(D) 63
(E) None of these

27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same time?
(A)Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C)Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
(E) None of these

28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?
(A)45 cms.
(B)40 cems.
(C)50 cms.
(D)55 cms.
(E)None of these

29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the original number?
(A)28
(B) 48
(C)39
(D) 93
(E) None of these

30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator. If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?
(A)5/18
(B)6/13
(C)13/6
(D)7/12
(E) None of these

31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number. What is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these

32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12 each. What will be the percentage profit?
(A) 25
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 17
(E) None of these

33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number series given below 25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
(A)160
(B) 140
(C)153
(D) 190
(E)None of these

34. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the following question ? ?/144= 49 /?
(A)95
(B) 76
(C)82
(D) 84
(E)None of these

35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of the smallest and the largest numbers?
(A)158
(B) 148
(C)168
(D) 198
(E) None of these

36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved. What is Ajay?s income?
(A) Rs. 60,000
(B) Rs. 80,500
(C) Rs. 60,700
(D) Rs. 70,500
(E) None of these

37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ?CRISIS? be arranged ?
(A) 150
(B) 240
(C) 120
(D) 200
(E) None of these

38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of the remaining part of the park?
(A)984 Square m
(B) 789 Square m
(C) 1014 Square m
(D) 1024 Square m
(E) None of these

39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540, then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A)47m
(B) 39m
(C)52m
(D)40m
(E) None of these

40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be fourth?
(A)4/5
(B)5/4
(C)9/5
(D)8/5
(E) 7/2

41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7 respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14 respectively. What is the difference between their ages?
(A)9 years
(B) 4 years
(C)5 years
(D) 7 years
(E) None of these

42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many days will 18 men complete the same work?
(A)16 days
(B) 20 days
(C)26 days
(D) 30 days
(E) None of these

43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?
(A)29.2 cm
(B) 28.9 cm
(C)30.8 cm
(D) 40.2 cm
(E) None of these

44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish?s share of profit ?
(A) Rs. 5,500
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 6,600
(D) As. 5,900
(E) None of these

45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are 42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?
(A)60 years
(B) 49 years
(C)45 years
(D) 58 years
(E) None of these

46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank (leakage is still there) ?
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 7 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D)15 minutes
(E) None of these

47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?
(A) Rs. 690
(B) As. 520
(C) Rs. 517.5
(D) Rs. 499.2
(E) None of these

48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25 persons, then how much would each person get?
(A) Rs. 2,54,876
(B) Rs. 2,34,68
(C) Rs. 3,74,20
(D) Rs. 1,95,62
(E) None of these

49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random, then what is the probability that only one ball is white?
(A) 71/190
(B) 121/190
(C) 91/190
(D) 93/190
(E) None of these

50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?
(A) Rs. 1,320
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs.1,150
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Placement Paper
LIC Apprentice Development officeres written test model questions for practice,LIC aptitude reasoning solved question papers to practice,LIC free solved sample placement papers with detailed explnations

LIC Reasoning and aptitude questions

1 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) Violin

(2) Harp

(3) Guitar

(4) Flute (Ans)

2 In a certain language ‘give me more’ is coded as ‘7 3 5’, ‘she has more’ is coded as ‘9 7 1’ and ‘she asked me gently’ is coded as ‘6 3 2 1’. Which of the following is the code for ‘give’ in that language?

(1) 5 (Ans)

(2) 7

(3) 6

(4) 9

(5) 1

Explanation : give me more ? 7 3 5

she has more ? 9 7 1

she asked me gently = 6 3 2 1

So, give = 5

(5) Sitar

3 If each of the vowels in the word GOLIATHS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be sixth from the left of the new arrangement thus formed?

(1) S

(2) P (Ans)

(3) G

(4) J

(5) F

Explanation : After changing the word GOLIATHS will be F P K J B S G R

The new word will be in alphabetical order

B F G J K P R S

So, sixth letter from left = P

4 In a certain language ‘WEAK’ is coded as 4$9ß’ and REST’ is coded as 7$8#’ and ‘WREK’ is ceded as ‘4$ß7’. How will ‘KEWRA’ be coded in the same code?

(1) 7 4 $ ß #

(2) ß 7 $ 8 #

(3) # ß 9 7 4

(4) $ ß 7 9 4 (Ans)

(5) 4 7 8 ß $

Explanation : WEAK ? 4 $ 9 8, REST ? 7 $ 8 #

and WREK ? 4 $ 8 7

So, KEWRA ? 4 $ 9 8 7

5. What should come in place of question Mark (?) in the following questions?

92.5% of 550 = ?

(1) 506.45

(2) 521.65

(3) 518.55

(4) 508.75 (Ans)

(5) None of these

6 If (9)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 567. What is the number?

(1) 36 (Ans)

(2) 28

(3) 42

(4) 48

(5) None of these

Explanation : x2 – 93 = 567 ? x = 36

7 The product of two successive numbers is 8556. What is the smaller number?

(1) 89

(2) 94

(3) 90

(4) 92 (Ans)

(5) None of these

Explanation : x(x +1) = 8556 ? x = 92

8 45% of a number is 255.6. What is 25% of that number?

(1) 162

(2) 132

(3) 152

(4) 142 (Ans)

(5) None of these

Explanation : 45/100 of x = 255.6 ? x = 255.6 x 100/45

? 25/100 x 255.6 x 100/45 = 142

9 If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of the number, the answer so obtained is 6,460. What is the number?

(1) 109

(2) 111

(3) 113

(4) 115

(5) None of these (Ans)

Explanation : x2 – 782 = 6460 ? x =112

10 Pinku, Rinku and Tinku divide an amount of Rs. 4,200 amongst themselves in the ratio of 7 : 8 : 6 respectively. If an amount of Rs. 200 is added to each of their shares, what will be the new respective ratio of their shares of amount?

(1) 8 : 9 : 6

(2) 7 : 9 : 5

(3) 7 : 8 : 6

(4) 8 : 9 : 7 (Ans)

(5) None of these

Explanation : Share of Pinku, Rinku and Tinku in

Rs. 4200 are 7/ 7 + 8 + 6 x 4200, 8/ 21 x 4200, 6/ 21 x 4200 i.e. 1400, Rs. 1600, Rs. 1200

Reqd. ratio

= (1400 + 200) : (1600 + 200) : (1200 + 200)

= 8 : 9 : 7

11 If an amount of Rs 41,910 is distributed equally amongst 22 persons. How much amount would each person get?

(1) Rs. 1,905 (Ans)

(2) Rs. 2,000

(3) Rs. 1,885

(4) Rs. 2,105

(5) None of these

12 The cost of 4 Cell-phones and 7 Digital cameras is Rs 1,25,627. What is the cost of 8 Cell-phones and 14 Digital cameras?

(1) Rs. 2,51,254 (Ans)

(2) Rs. 2,52,627

(3) Rs. 2,25,524

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Explanation : 4x + 7y = 125627] x 2

? 8x + 14y = 251254

13 A car covers a distance of 200 kms in 2 hours 40 minutes, whereas a jeep covers the same distance in 2 hours. What is the ratio of their speeds?

a) 3 : 4 (Ans)

b) 4 : 3

c) 4 : 5

d) 5 : 4

14 In a certain code language CROWN is written as DPRSS. How will PRINT be written in that code language

a) QTMJU

b) QPLJY (Ans)

c) QTLJO

d) QTLKO

15 Which word cannot be made from the letters of following word: ‘OBSTETRICIAN’

a) SIREN

b) TERMITE (Ans)

c) RETAIN

d) SOBER

16 Which one of the numbers is wrong in the following series?

4, 8, 7, 14, 12, 24, 19, 36, 28

a) 12

b) 24 (Ans)

c) 28

d) 36

17 Starting from a point ‘P’ Dinesh walked 18 metres towards south. He turned to his left and walked 25 metres. He then turned to his left and walked 18 metres. He gain turned to his left and walked 35 metres and reached a point ‘Q’. How far is Dinesh from the point ‘P’ and in which direction?

a) 10 metres East

b) 10 metres West (Ans)

c) 35 metres West

d) 10 metres South

18 Sun : Star ::

a) Day : Night

b) Lamp : Light

c) Bed : Sleep

d) Dove : Bird (Ans)

19 ‘Hillock’ is related to ‘Mountains’ in the same way as Bush is related to

a) Ground

b) Jungle (Ans)

c) Plant

d) Tree
20. Find the odd one out

a) Swan (Ans)

b) Vulture

c) Ostrich

d) Eagle

21. The total cost price of two watches is Rs.840. One is sold at a profit of 16% and other at a loss of 12%. There is no loss or gain in the whole transaction the cost price of the watch on which the shopkeeper gains is

a) Rs.360 (Ans)

b) Rs.370

c) Rs.380

d) Rs.390

21. If a person repaid Rs.22,500 after 10 years of borrowing a loan at 10% per annum simple interest find out what amount did he take as loan

a) Rs.11,225

b) Rs.11,250 (Ans)

c) Rs.10,000

d) Rs.7500

22 ‘A, B’ and ‘C’ entered into partnership ‘A’ invested Rs.2,560 and ‘B’ Rs. 2,000. At end of the year they gained Rs. 1,105 out of which ‘A’ got Rs.320, ‘C’s capital was

a) Rs.4280 (Ans)

b) Rs.2840

c) Rs.4820

d) Rs.4028

23. The average age of 24 boys and their teacher is 15 years. When the teachers age is excluded the average age decreases by one year. The age of the teacher is

a) 38 years

b) 39 years (Ans)

c) 40 years

d) 41 years

24. A tank can be filled by two pipe in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. When the tank was empty the two pipes were opened. After sometime, the first pipe were opened. After sometime, the first pipe was stopped and the tank was filled in 18 minutes. After how much time of the start was the first pipe stopped

a) 5 minutes

b) 8 minutes (Ans)

c) 10 minutes

d) 12 minutes

25 Complete the following series : 380, 465, 557, 656, 762, 875 ….

a) 995 (Ans)

b) 992

c) 975

d) 985

26 . Two trains are moving on two parallel tracks but in opposite directions. A person sitting in the train moving at the speed of 80 km/hr passes the second train in 18 seconds. If the length of the second train is 1000 metres, its speed is

a) 100 km/hr

b) 120 km/hr (Ans)

c) 140 km/hr

d) 160 km/hr

27. Fill in the blank

BLOCKED : YOLXPVW :: ……..?…….. OZFMXS

a) RESULT

b) LAUNCH (Ans)

c) LABOUR

d) NAUGHT
28 . If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 and RISK is coded as 2098 how is RIVETS coded in that language?

a) 687543

b) 234769 (Ans)

c) 496321

d) 246598

29. In an examination 65% of the total examinees passed. If the number of failures was 420 what was the total number of examinees?

a) 1200 (Ans)

b) 685

c) 690

d) 1000

30. Dr. Sharma bought a car and got 15% of its original price as dealers discount. He then sold it with 20% profit on his purchase price. What percentage profit did he get on the original price

a) 2% (Ans)

b) 12%

c) 5%

d) 17%

31 A and B together can complete a work in 8 days and B and C together in 12 days. All of the three together can complete the work in 6 days. In how much time can A and C together complete the work?

a) 8 days (Ans)

b) 10 days

c) 12 days

d) 14 days
Read the following information carefully and then answer the questions. Four friends W, X, Y and Z are students of Class 10th. W and X are good in Hindi but poor in English. W and Y are good in Science but poor in Mathematics. Y and Z are good in English but poor in Social Studies. Z and X are good in Mathematics as well as in Science.

32 Who amongst the following friends is not good in Mathematics but good in Hindi?

(A) W (Ans)

(B) Y

(D) Z

33. Which of the following pairs of friends are good, both in English and Science?

(A) W and Y

(B) W and Z

(D) Z and X
34 . Which of the following statements is definitely true?

(A) Y and Z are good in English as well as in Hindi

(B) All four friends are good in Science (Ans)

(D) Y is not good in Mathematics, Hindi and Social Studies

35 If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, we obtain 27 cm. The radius of the sphere is

(A) 9 cm.

(B) 81 cm. (Ans)

(D) 24 cm.

36 One-third of one fourth of a number is 12. Then the number is

(A) 96

(B) 144 (Ans)

(D) 36

37 In the number series 4,10,23,50,104,216,439 the wrong number is

(A) 10

(B) 23

(D) 50

38 The price of 2 trousers and 4 shirts is Rs. 1,600. With the same amount one can buy 1 trouser and 6 shirts. If one wants to buy 12 shirts, he has to pay

(A) Rs. 2400 (Ans)

(B) Rs. 4800

(D) Rs. 3700

39 In a factory, the production of scooters rose to 48400 from 40000 in 2 years. The rate of growth per annum is

(A) 20%

(B) 10% (Ans)

(D) 8%

40 The sum of two numbers is 2490. If 6.5% of one number is equal to 8.5% of the other, the numbers are

(A) 1411 and 1079 (Ans)

(B) 1412 and 1080

(D)1214 and 1800

Placement Paper
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LIC Reasoning Questions with answers

1. If in the word VITREOUS all the consotants are first arranged alphabetically, and then all the vowels are arranged alphabetically, which letter will be second to the right of fourth from the left ?
(a) S
(b) T
(c) I (Ans)
(d) E

2. If ÷ means ‘-‘ ‘-‘ means ‘+’ ‘+’ means ‘x’ and ‘x’ means ‘ ÷’ then what is the value of 16+5 -90 ÷15x 3 ?
(a) 165 (Ans)
(b) 185
(c) 98
(d) 62

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(a) Apple
(b) Pear
(c) Papaya
(d) Orange (Ans)

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group
(a) 48
(b) 54
(c) 42
(d) 46 (Ans)

5. In a certain code language, ‘go home now’ is written as ‘ho ka pa’ and ‘come home again’ is written as ‘ka da sa’. How is ‘now’ written in that code language ?
(a) ka
(b) ho
(c) pa
(d) ho or pa (Ans)

6. Q is taller than P.H is not as tall as P.J and R are shorter than H. Who among them is the tallest?
(a) P
(b) H
(c) Q (Ans)
(d) J

7. SORROW :CRY::MIRTH:?
(a) JOY
(b) LAUGHTER (Ans)
(c) FROWN
(d) WEEP

8. LJH:KKI:: CIA:?
(a) DBB
(b) BJB (Ans)
(c) CBZ
(d) BBZ

9. Ramu walks 2 km towards North and turn to his right and walks 4 km more. He then turns to his right and walk 4 km and turns again to his right and walks another 4 km.
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West (Ans)

10. A is the sister of B, B is the brother of C, C is the son of D. How is D related to A ?
(a) Mother (Ans)
(b) Daughter
(c) Son
(d) Uncle

11. A and B alone can complete work in 9 days and 18 days respectively. They worked together. However 3 days before the completion of the work A left. In how many days was the work completed ?
(a) 13
(b) 8 (Ans)
(c) 6
(d) 5

12. The ratio of two numbers is 4:5 when the first is increased by 20% and the second is decreased by 20%, the ratio of the resulting number is
(a) 4:5
(b) 5:4
(c) 5:6
(d) 6:5 (Ans)

13. Two trains are running in opposite direction with the same speed. If the length of each train is 120 metres and they cross each other in 12 seconds, the speed of each train (in km/hours) is
(a) 72
(b) 10
(c) 36 (Ans)
(d) 18

14. A bag contains Rs.90 in coins of denominations of 50 paise, 25 paise and 10 paise. If coins of 50 paise, 25 paise and 10 paise are in the ratio 2:3:5, then the number of 25 coins in the bag is
(a) 80
(b) 120 (Ans)
(c) 100
(d) 135

15. Difference of two numbers is 1660. If 6% of one number is 8% of the other number, the smallest number is
(a) 7055
(b) 5395 (Ans)
(c) 3735
(d) 2076

16. The average age of 15 student of a class in 15 years. Out of these the average age of 5 students is 14 years and that of the other 9 students is 16 years. The age of the 15th student is
(a) 11 years (Ans)
(b) 15 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 14 years

17. The product of two numbers is 4107. If the H.C.F of the numbers is 37, the greater number is
(a) 185
(b) 111 (Ans)
(c) 107
(d) 101

18. In an examination 80% of the candidates passed in English and 85% in Mathematics; while 75% passed in both English and Mathematics. If 45 candidates failed in both these subjects then the total number of candidates was
(a) 225
(b) 450 (Ans)
(c) 400
(d) 350

19. In a box, there are 10 white socks and 16 black sock. what is the minimum number of socks that a blindfolded man should take out to get one pair?
(a) 5
(b) 3 (Ans)
(c) 2
(d) 4

20. 10 goats jum over a fence one after the other in 10 minutes. Then how many goats will jump over the same fence at the same rate in one hour ?
(a) 60
(b) 54
(c) 55 (Ans)
(d) 61

21. ——-bits equal one byte
(a) Eight (Ans)
(b) Two
(c) One thousand
(d) One million

22. ——- controls the way in which the computer, responsible for processing data
(a) The platform
(b) The operating system (Ans)
(c) Application software
(d) The motherboard

23. The —- also called the “brains” of the computer, is responsible for processing data
(a) Motherboard
(b) Memory
(c) RAM
(d) Central processing Unit (CPU) (Ans)

24. The operation system is the most common type of —–software
(a) Communication
(b) Application
(c) System (Ans)
(d) Word -processing

25. When you quickly press and re-lease the left mouse button, twice, you are ——-
(a) Primary – Clicking
(b) Pointing
(c) Double -clicking (Ans)
(d) Secondary – clicking

26. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called ——
(a) Cells
(b) Sheets
(c) black lines
(d) gridlines (Ans)

27. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ——– to erase to the right of the insertion point
(a) Press the left mouse key
(b) double-click the right mouse key
(c) press the BACKSPACE key
(d) press the delete key (Ans)

28. The ‘Hollerith’ code is used with :
(a) Magnetic tape
(b) Punched card (Ans)
(c) Floppy disk
(d) Paper tape

29. Volatile memory means:
(a) Fixed memory
(b) Can make changes
(c) Content will lose if power fails (Ans)
(d) Cannot be erased

30. A ‘T State’ means:
(a) Portion of operation in a cycle (Ans)
(b) Total time to execute an instruction
(c) Time to complete one machine cycle
(d) Operations performed for an instruction

31. Diamond is harder then grahite because if
(a) its tetrahedral structure
(b) Difference in layers of atoms
(c) Difference of crystalline structure (Ans)
(d) Being dried in the sun

32. A foreign particle that stimulates the formation of antibodies is called a/am
(a) Receptor
(b) Histone
(c) Antibiotic
(d) Antigen (Ans)

33. The function of the tongue is snakes is to —- the food.
(a) Detect
(b) Smell (Ans)
(c) Catch
(d) Taste

34. An enzyme that work in an acidic medium is
(a) Maltose
(b) Trypsin
(c) Pepsin (Ans)
(d) ptyalin

35. How many pairs of salivate glands does the human body have ?
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 3 (Ans)

36. Wilson’s disease is caused by an excess in the human body of
(a) Cobalt
(b) Copper (Ans)
(c) Iron
(d) Sodium

37. The specific test for the detection of tuberculosis is the —–test.
(a) Kahn’s
(b) Widal’s
(c) Robert’s
(d) Mantoux’s (Ans)

38. Mirage is an optical illusion caused by
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Total internal reflection (Ans)
(d) Scattering

39. Which of the following regulates the amount of light entering the eye by adjusting the size of the pupil ?
(a) Ciliary muscles
(b) Retina
(c) Iris (Ans)
(d) none of these

40. In a dry cell, the depolaizer is
(a) MnO2 (Ans)
(b) NH4CL
(c) ZnCL2
(d) none of these

41. What is ‘Zero Hour’?
(a) When the proposals of the opposition are considered
(b) When matters of utmost importance are raised (Ans)
(c) Interval between the morning and afternoon session
(d) When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok-Sabha

42. When the Lok Sabha is dissolve, the Speaker continues in office till a new
(a) Lok Sabha is formed
(b) Speaker is appointed by the president
(c) Speaker is elected when the new House meets (Ans)
(d) Government is formed

43. The first no confidence motion was moved in the Lok Sabha after independence was in the year
(a) 1954
(b) 1960
(c) 1963 (Ans)
(d) 1975

44. The preamble includes all of the following except
(a) Fraternity
(b) Adult franchise (Ans)
(c) Justice
(d) Equality of status

45. Free and compulsory education for children up to the age of 14 years has been envisaged in the Constitution under its Article
(a) 14
(b) 19
(c) 32
(d) 21(A) (Ans)

46. In the Constitution, there is a reference to the development of scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform, in the
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental right
(c) Fundamental duties (Ans)
(d) Directive principles

47. The part of the Constitution that deals with the directive principle of state policy is part
(a) II
(b) III
(c) IV (Ans)
(d) V

48. The Constitution confers special responsibility for the enforcement of fundamental rights upon the
(a) State legislature
(b) President
(c) Supreme Court (Ans)
(d) Parliament

49. When is Windows 8 set to be released by Microsoft ?
(a) October 26 2012 (Ans)
(b) January 1st 2012
(c) August 10th 2012
(d) March 23rd 2013

50. Who is the first Indian defence Minister to visit Saudi Arabia
(a) A.K. Antony (Ans)
(b) George Fernandez
(c) V. R. Krishnayyar
(d) Beldev

51. Find out the wrongly spelt word
(a) Moustache
(b) hipcrasy (Ans)
(c) omission
(d) maitre

52. ‘Chaos’ means
(a) Paradise
(b) Complete disorder or confusion (Ans)
(c) busy
(d) solutide

53. Few people knew the answer ?
(a) didn’t they
(b) did they (Ans)
(c) don’t they
(d) will they

54. The children were warned ——–
(a) to commit the mistake
(b) for committing the mistake
(c) Against committing the mistake (Ans)
(d) with committing the mistake

Direction (5-6) chose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold
55. Emerging
(a) Satisfied
(b) profiting
(c) Modern
(d) dull (Ans)

56. Reverse
(a) Remove
(b) destroy
(c) motivate
(d) establish (Ans)

Direction (7-8) choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning of the word/of words printed in bold
57. Centred on
(a) Gets boost
(b) revolves around
(c) inspired from (Ans)
(d) thrives on

58. Mitigate
(a) Migrate
(b) take off
(c) out
(d) reduce (Ans)

59. The jailer saw——the prisoner’s scheme
(a) to
(b) through (Ans)
(c) about
(d) into

60. His company is greatly so sought ——
(a) for
(b) at
(c) after (Ans)
(d) out

61. The chief guest came into the room —-by the chairman of the company
(a) Preceded (Ans)
(b) Coupled
(c) Joined
(d) allowed

62. A jaundiced eye
(a) Jealously
(b) a generous view
(c) Angry
(d) prejudice (Ans)

63. To see red
(a) To be very angry
(b) To victimize someone
(c) To find fault with (Ans)
(d) To criticise others

64. Butter is made —–milk
(a) of
(b) from (Ans)
(c) with
(d) by

Complete the sentence
65. It you come to me
(a) I would help you (Ans)
(b) will help you
(c) had helped you
(d) would have helped you

66. Cows—-grass
(a) eats
(b) has eaten
(c) eat (Ans)
(d) eating

67. The prime minister called —— the president
(a) at
(b) an (Ans)
(c) of
(d) with

68. You may sit ——
(a) Wherever you liked
(b) When you are tired (Ans)
(c) When you got permission
(d) Whenever you liked

69. Though he refused at first he—- in the end
(a) came out
(b) came away
(c) came up
(d) came around (Ans)

70. The new manager has —– many changes
(a) brought about (Ans)
(b) brought round
(c) brought up
(d) brought off

71. Who declared as his ultimate aim that, to wipe ‘every tear from every eye’?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehu
(b) Gandhiji (Ans)
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

72. The Lahore session of congress of 1929 is historic as
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru was made president of the congress party
(b) son had succeeded father as the official head of the national movement
(c) it marked a unique family triumph in the annals of modern history
(d) it passed a resolution declaring Poorna Swaraj to be the congress objective (Ans)

73. The system of separate electorates was introduced by the act of
(a) 1813
(b) 1833
(c) 1858
(d) 1909 (Ans)

74. The British Prime Ministers who opposed to the continuation of British Rule over India was
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) Atlee (Ans)
(c) Chamberlain
(d) Lloyd George

75. IT amendment Act
(a) 2006
(b) 2008 (Ans)
(c) 2010
(d) 2005

76. Present Union Minister of IT and Communication
(a) A. K. Antony
(b) Kapil Sibal (Ans)
(c) Ajit Sigh
(d) none of these

77. Present world Bank president
(a) Haruhiko
(b) Donald Kaberuka
(c) Christine Lagarde
(d) Jim Yong Kim (Ans)

78. United Nations University is located at
(a) Washington
(b) Newyork
(c) Tokyo (Ans)
(d) London

79. The first Indian to get Pulitzer Prize
(a) U Thant
(b) Gopal Reddy
(c) Sasi Tharoor
(d) Jhumpa lahiri (Ans)

80. Which city is set to host 2017 world athletic champion ship
(a) Newyork
(b) Parris
(c) London (Ans)
(d) Delhi

81. Consumer Protection Act was passed in
(a) 1986 (Ans)
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 1964

82. The ‘Garibi hatao’ (eradicate poverty) slogan was coined by Indira Gandhi during the
(a) First plan
(b) Second plan
(c) Third plan
(d) fifth plan (Ans)

83. Where is STARS (Satellite Tracking and Ranging station)?
(a) Ahmadabad
(b) Kavalur (Ans)
(c) Sreeharikotta
(d) Bangalore

84 Dry farming in India is extensively practiced in
(a) Kanara Plains
(b) Deccan region (Ans)
(c) Coromandal plains
(d) Punjab plains

85. Coconut island is located at
(a) Kamala sager
(b) Dumboorlake (Ans)
(c) Wularlake
(d) Vembanad lake

86. The District in Kerala with highest schedule caste population is
(a) Idukki
(b) Wayanad
(c) Malappuram
(d) Palakkad (Ans)

87. The first ministry of E.M. Sankaran Namboothiripad ruled Kerala for —– months
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28 (Ans)

88. The sex ratio in Kerala according to the census conducted in 2011
(a) 1006/1000
(b) 1020/1000
(c) 1084/1000 (Ans)
(d) 1133/1000

89. The woman’s reservation bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha on
(a) 09.01.2010
(b) 09.01.2009
(c) 09.03.2010 (Ans)
(d) 01.03.2010

90. ‘Syananduram ‘ is the Sanskrit name for
(a) Kannur
(b) Kozhikode
(c) Kochi
(d) Thiruvananthapuram (Ans
Placement Paper
LIC practice questions,LIC previous years solved question papers,LIC aptitude numerical ability,reasoning,general awareness questions with answers,LIC largest collection of model questions for practice

LIC practice questions

1. In a certain code BASKET is written as ‘5%3#42’ and ARM is written as ‘ % @ 9 ‘ . How i s TERM written in that code ?
(1) 23@9
(2) 249®
(3) 42@9
(4) 24@9
(5) None of these

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHRONICLE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. The positions of how many digits in the number 53269718 will remain unchanged if the digits with-in the number are rearranged in ascending order ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. In a Certain code ARCHIVE is written as DSBGFWJ. How is SYSTEMS written in that code ?
(1) TZTSTNF
(2) TZTUTNF
(3) TZTSFNT
(4) RXRSTNF
(5) None of these

5. If ‘R’ denotes ‘divided by’; T’ denotes ‘added to’; ‘W denotes ‘subtracted from’ and ‘B’ denotes ‘multiplied by’, then—
15 W 12 T 8 R 2 B 6 = ?
(1) 11/12
(2) 3 and 2/3
(3) 27
(4) 3
(5) None of these

6. What should come next in the following letter series ?
I H G F E D C B A 1 H G F E D C
I H G F E
(1) I
(2) D
(3) B
(4) A
(5) None of these

7. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TSFI using each letter only once in each word ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

8. Pointing to a boy, Sunita said “He is the son of my grandfather’s only son”. How is the boy related to Sunita ?
(1) Son
(2) Nephew
(3) Uncle
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

9. The positions of the first and the fifth digit in the number 89123654 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged
and so on. Which of the following will be the second digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(1) 9
(2) 8
(3) 1
(4) 2
(5) None of these

10. ‘MP’ is related to ‘HK’ in the same way as ‘WZ’ is related to ?
(1) QS
(2) RU
(3) PS
(4) QU
(5) None of these

Answers with explanation :

7. (3) Meaningful Words => FIST, SIFT
8. (4) The only son of Sunita’s grandfather means either father or maternal uncle of Sunita. Therefore, the boy is either or cousin of Sunita.
9. (3)
10.(2)

Directions ( 11 – 16 ) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and—Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

11. How is ‘sure’ written in a code language ?
I. ‘he is sure’ is written as ja ha ma’ in that code language.
II. ‘is she sure’ is written as ‘ka ja ma’ in that code language.

12. What is Rs position from the left end in a row ?
I. M is tenth from the left end of the row.
II. There are sixteen children between M and R.

13. How is J related to M ?
I. M has only one brother and two sisters.
II. J is daughter of T who is wife of M.

14. Town P is towards which direction of town T ?
I. Town T is towards South of town K which is towards West of town P.
II. Town R is towards South of town V and towards East of town T.

15. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having different age, who is the youngest among them ?
I. Q is younger than only P.
II. S is older than only R.

16. On which day of the week did Sourav visit Delhi ?
I. Sourav visited Delhi after Monday but before Thursday but not on an odd day of the week.
II. Sourav visited Delhi before Friday but after Monday.

Answers : 11.(4), 12(5), 13(2), 14(1), 15(5), 16(1)

Directions (17-22) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered 1,’ II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements is regarding commonly known facts.

17. Statements:
All chairs are fires.
Some fires are winds.
AllWinds are nets.
Some nets are clocks.
Conclusions:
I. Some clocks are winds.
II. Some nets are fires.
III. Some winds are chairs.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only II and III follow

18. Statements:
Some tyres are ropes.
Some ropes are tents.
Some tents are walls.
Some walls are buildings.
Conclusions:
I. Some buildings are ropes.
II. Some walls are ropes.
III. Some tents are tyres.

(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow

19. Statements:
All desks are pillars.
All pillars are circles.
Some circles are squares.
Some squares are rectangles.
Conclusions:
I. Some rectangles are pillars.
II. Some circles are desks.
III. Some squares are desks.
(1) Nonefollows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow

20. Statements:
Some beads are rings.
Some rings are bangles.
All bangles are clothes.
All clothes are boxes.
Conclusions:
I. Some boxes are bangles.
II: Some clothes are rings.
III. Some bangles are beads.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
Conclusions:
I. Some boxes are bangles.
II: Some clothes are rings.
III. Some bangles are beads.

(1) Nonefollows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow

Answers :17(3), 18(1), 19(3), 20(5)
LIC Aptitude and Reasoning Question Paper
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LIC Aptitude, Reasoning ,English Language and General Awareness Questions

LIC Numerical Ability Questions

1.Which of the following numbers is exactly divisible by 99?

a.114345

b.135792

c.3572404

d.913464

2.In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder, if the remainder is 46 the dividend

a.4356

b.4816

c.5096

d.5336

3.On 1 st January every year a person buys NSC of value exceeding that of his last year’s purchase by Rs.100 After 10 years, he finds that the total value of the certificate held by him is Rs. 54,500. Find the value (in Rupee)of the certificates purchased by him in the first year?

a.4,00

b.4800

c.5000

d.6000

4.A tennis ball bounds each time to a height equal to one-half of the height of the previous bounce if it is first dropped from a height of 8 meters, find the total vertical distance (in metres) it hs traveled when it hits the ground for the 10th time

a.21,969

b.22,969

c.23,969

24,969

5. The L.C.M of 1/3,5/6,2/9,4/27 is

a.1/54 b.10/27 c.20/3 d.27/4

6.4.8438?0.069

a.60.2 69.2 c.70.2 71.2

7.In a certain city there are 5 colleges and20 schools Each school has 3 persons,1 clerk and 1 head clerk, whereas a college has 5 peons,3 clerks,1 head clerk and an additional staff as caretaker. The monthly salary of each of them is as follows

Peon=Rs.1,100:Head clerk = Rs.3,000 clerk+Rs.1,700,Caretaker+Rs 2,500 The total monthly salary bill (in Rupees) of Schools and colleges of the city is

a.2,10,800

b.2.20.600

c.2.30.400

d.2.40,500

8.what fraction must be subtracted from the sum of 1/4 and 1/6 to have an average of 1/12 of all the three fractions?

a.1/2 b.1/3 c.1/4 d.1/6

9.The value of square root of 0.4 is:

a.0.2 b.0.02 c.0.063 d.0.51

10.A team of 8 persons joins in a shooting completion. The best marksman scored 85 points. If he had scored 92 points, the average score for the team would have been 84. The number of points, the team scored was:

a.64.5 b.66.5 c.588 d.672

11.The sum of three numbers is 136 If the ratio between first and second be 2:3 AND THAT BETWEEN SECOND AND THIRD IS 5:3 THEN THE SECOND NUMBER IS

A.40 B.48 c.52 d.60

12 A is as much younger to B as he is elder to C. If the sum of the ages of B and C is 48 years, What is the age of A in years

a.20 b.24 c.30 d.32

13 P is six times as large as q. The percent that q is less than p is

a.83 and 1/3 b,16 and 2/3 c.90 d.60

14 The income of a broker remains unchanged though the rate of commission is increased from 4% to 5% The percentage of slump in business is:

a.10% b.15% c.20% d.40%

15 A man purchased 35kg of rice at the rate of Rs.9.50 pe rkg and 30kg @of Rs.10.50 per kg He mixed the two Approximately at what price per kg should he sell the mixture to make 35% profit in the transaction

a.12 b.12.50 c.13 d.13.50

LIC Reasoning Questions

16 What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ?

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3

17. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?

(a) 30 minutes-Ans

(b) 25 minutes

(d) 34 minutes

Directions (questins 18 to 22): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.

18. What does ‘Ne’ stands for in the code language?

I. ‘Na Ni Nok Ne’ means ‘I will tell you’ and ‘Ni Nok Ne Nam’ means ‘he will tell you’ in that code language.

II. ‘Ni Ne Mo Nam’ means ‘will he call you’ and ‘Ne Mok Sac Ni’ means ‘how will you go’ in that code language.

Ans (d)

19. Who amongst P, Q, R, S, T and U is the tallest?

I. P is taller that R and T but not as tall as U, who is taller than Q and S.

II. R is the third in height in the ascending order and not as tall as U, P and Q, Q being taller than P but not the tallest.

Ans (c)

20. Who among A, B, C, D, E & F read the book last?

I. F, who gave the book to B after reading, was third to read the same.

II. C, who read the book after A, was the third person to read the book before it reached E.

Ans (d)

21. Who is paternal uncle of Pavan?

I. Pavan is brother of Poornima, who is daughter of Meena, who is sister of Kumar, who is brother Smrithi.

II. Prithvi is brother of Indrajith, who is husband of Poornima, who is mother of Ganga, who is sister of Pavan.

Ans (b)

22. What is Milan’s rank in the class of 44 students?

I. Ramesh, whose rank is 17th in the class, is ahead of Shyam by 6 ranks, Shyam being 7 ranks ahead of Milan.

II. Suketu is 26 ranks ahead of Milan and Shyamala is 6 ranks behind Milan while Savita stands exactly in the middle of Shyamala and Suketu in ranks, her rank being 17.

Ans (c)

23. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?

19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E

(a) 8

(b) 9

(d) 7

(e) None of these

Ans (e)

24. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?

(a) five

(b) one

(d) Two

(e) Three

Ans (a)

25. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT

(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ

(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP

(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF

Ans (d)
LIC Reasoning paper
LIC Latest Placement Paper| LIC written test pattern and Written Questions

LIC Sales Aptitude ,Reasoning, General Awareness and English Language Questions

LIC Test-1

Reasoning ability

Directions (Q.No. 1-5): Find out the correct answer out of the four alternatives given below each question and then mark it in your answer sheet

1.Ice : Coolness :: Earth : ?

a. Forest

b. Weight

c.Gravitation-Ans

d.Ocean

2.Coconut:Shell :: Letter : ?

a.Mail

b.Letter-box

c.Stamp

d.Emvelope-Ans

3.Income is related to profit in the same way as expenditure is related to

a.Loss-Ans

b.Surplus

c.Balance

d.Sale

4.Much is related to many in the same way as measure is related to

a.Calculate

b.Count

c.Weigh

d.Measurement-Ans

5.Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as warning is related to

a.Precaution-Ans

b.Disaster

c.Risk

d.Danger

6.Directions (Q.No.6-10) : Find out the missing term in the following letter-number series:

6.H 4 W, I 18 V, K 48 T, N 100 Q, ? ,W 294 H

a.P1485 S

b.R 180 M-An

c.S 198 1

d.T 206 K

7.I ED, 2 FD, 3 KH, ? 15 KG 48 KF

a. 12 PX

b.6 RI

c.9LV

d.8TQ

8M4, T7, P7, Q 10, S 10, N 13 ? K 16

a.V 4

b.K 7

c.T 13

d. G15

9.R 5 P, T 6 M, V 9 J, X 15 G, ?

a. A 12 L

b. I 18 X

c. T 13

d. G 15

10.DGK0, GKP3, ? PVC 15

a. GKV 5

b. KPV 8

c. PVZ 9

d. KPU 11

Tips -Objective tests require a lot of practice. Particularly for the Reasoning and Numerical Ability tests, practice pays. It not only enables a candidate to solve the problems correctly by indicating the methods to be used but also by achieving the required speed. Regular practice also generates a lot of confidence in the mind of the candidate to attempt the paper.

11. If the first 6 letter of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letter are written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged Z, then which letter is fourth letter to the right of 13th letter from the left?

a.M b.N c. Q d.P

12 If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the alphabet series?

a.L b.O c.M d.N

13 If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rrearranged ias in a dictionary,which letter group would have its group of letter in the MIDDLE among the five letter-groups?

a.LACK

b.MEET

c.ROAD

d.DEAF

14 Find the odd man out

a.MOndAy

b.tUESdAy

c.WEdNESdAy

d.thUrSdAy

15 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

a.CUSTOMER :SGPSYYBK

b.INTEREST : UUHVJYUQ

c.OVERSEAS: TCHWWKCW

d.BANKING : HPLOSGI

16 Three of the four groups of letter given below are alike in a certain way while one is different Choose the odd one

a.PROFIT : RPQCKR

b.OTHERS : QRJCTQ.

c.LEGUME : NCISOC

dCANKER : EYPIGP

17 Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while oneis different Choose the odd one

a.GOWOURV

b.LZKMSU

c.JOEHNP

d.SFXPMG

18 Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different choose the odd one

a.TW

b.MS

c.FT

19 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
a. Pineapple

b.Guava

c.Grapes

d.Papaya

e.Pea-Ans

20 If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?
aS
b.B
c.A
d.K

21 If ‘ P Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’, ‘P+Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’ and ‘P Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’ then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?

a.Cannot be determined

b.Mother-ans

c.Niece

d.Aunt

e.None of these

22Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?

a. IB

b.LF

c.IE-Ans

d.FL

e TL

23 In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?

5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3

a.4-a

b.6

c.3

d.5

e None of these

24 Accident is related to Carefulness in the same way as Disease is related to
a.Sanitation-Ans (a) Lack of second results in the first

b.Treatment

c.Medicine

(Doctor

Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

a. BROTHER : DORVEHT

b.ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ

c.ANOTHER : CONVEHT

d.BETWEEN : DTEZEEP-Ans (d)

e HUSBAND : JSUDNAF

LIC Aptitude Reasoning Questions

LIC upcoming written tests aptitude, reasoning data analysis solved questions with detailed explanations LIC previous years solved question papers.LIC aptitude,reasoning,general awareness questions with answers

Directions (Q.1-5) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by your conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

1. Statements All cups are bottles. Some bottles are jugs. No jug is plate. Some plates are tables.
Conclusions
I. Some tables are bottles
II. Some plates are cups.
III. No table is bottle
IV. Some jugs are cups

(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only IV follows
(5) Only either I or III follows

Ans : (5) Expl :
Conclusions
I. X ]
II. X ] or
III. ? ]
IV. X
Either I or III is true

2. Statements All birds are horses. All horses are tigers. Some tigers are lions. Some lions are monkeys.
Conclusions
I. Some tigers are horses
II. Some monkeys are birds
III. Some tigers are birds
IV. Some monkeys are horses

(1) Only I and III follow
(2) Only I, II and III follow
(3) Only II, III and IV follow
(4) All I, II, III and IV follow
(5) None of the above

Ans : (1)
Conclusions
I. ?
II. X
III. ?
IV. X
So, I and III follows only.

3. Statements Some chairs are handles. All handles are pots. All pots are mats. Some mats are buses.
Conclusions
I. Some buses are handles.
II. Some mats are chairs
III. No bus is handle
IV. Some mats are handles

(1) Only I, II and IV follow
(2) Only II, III and IV follow
(3) Only either I or III and II follow
(4) Only either I or III and IV follow
(5) Only either I or III and II and IV follow

Ans : (5)
Conclusions
I. X ]
II. ? ] or
III. ? ]
IV. ?
Either I or III and II, IV are true.

4. Statements Some sticks are lamps. Some flowers are lamps. Some lamps are dresses. All dresses are shirts
Conclusions
I. Some shirts are sticks
II. Some shirts are flowers
III. Some flowers are sticks
IV. Some dresses are sticks

(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only IV follows

Ans : (1)
Conclusions
I. X
II. X
III. X
IV. X
None is true

5. Statements Some benches are walls. All wall are houses. Some houses are jungles. All jungles are roads.
Conclusions
I. Some roads are benches
II. Some jungles are walls
III. Some houses are benches
IV. Some roads are houses

(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only III and IV follow
(4) Only II , III and IV follow
(5) None of the above

Ans : (3) SBI Qnos.15 Explanation
Conclusions
I. X
II. X
III. ?
IV. ?
Only III and IV follow.

Directions (Q. 6-10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization working in three department viz. Personnel Administration and Marketing with not more than three of them in any department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from football, cricket, volleyball badminton, lawn tennis, basketball, hockey and table tennis not necessarily in the same order.
D works in Administration and does not like either football or cricket. F works in Personnel with only A who likes table tennis. E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes hockey and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in Administration and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who work in Administration likes football. The one who likes volley ball works in personnel. None of those who work in Administration likes either badminton or lawn tennis. H does not like cricket.

6. Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department ?
(1) EGH
(2) AF
(3) BCD
(4) BGD
(5) Data inadequate

Ans : (3)

7. In which department does E work ?
(1) Personnel
(2) Marketing
(3) Administration
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Ans : (2)

8. What is E’s favourite sport ?
(1) Cricket
(2) Badminton
(3) Basketball
(4) Lawn Tennis
(5) None of these

Ans : (1)

9. Which of the following combinations of employee department – favourite sport is correct ?
(1) E-Administration – Cricket
(2) F-Personnel -Lawn Tennis
(3) H-Marketing -Lawn Tennis
(4) B-Administration -Table Tennis
(5) None of these

Ans : (5)

10. What is G’s favourite sport ?
(1) Cricket
(2) Badminton
(3) Basketball
(4) Lawn Tennis
(5) None of these

Ans : (4)

1. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the third digit from the left end after the rearrangement ?
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
(5) None of these

Ans : (2) Expl: Given number —> 5 2 6 3 1 8 7
After rearrangement —> 6 1 5 4 2 7 8
Arranged in ascending order 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
so, the third digit from left end is 4

2. Town D is towards East of town F. Town B is towards North of town D. Town H is towards South of town B. Towards which directions is town H from town F ?
(1) East
(2) South – East
(3) North – East
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Ans : (4) Expl : According to question, H is South of B. Therefore the position of H may be between B and D or it may be South of D. So, the position of H cannot determined

3. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest ?
(1) B
(2) E
(3) C
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Ans : (4) Expl : D> A
(B, E) >C
D is heavier than only A
So, (B,E) > C> D> A
So, heaviest is either B or E

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

Ans : (4) Expl : SBI Qnos.4 Explanation

5. If ‘÷’ means ‘+’, ‘-‘ means ‘x’, ‘x’ means ‘÷ ‘ and ‘+’ means ‘-‘ then
15-8 x 6 ÷12+4 = ?

(1) 20
(2) 28
(3) 8 and 4/7
(4) 2 and 2/3
(5) None of these

Ans : (2) Expl : 15 – 8 x 6 ÷ 6 + 12-4 = ?
After changing the sign
15 x 8 ÷ 6 + 12 -4 = ?
LIC Aptitude-Reasoning

Candidates who are going to write LIC ADO online exam they must and should check solved question papers, last year question papers PDF, books, study material, syllabus and pattern for better preparation. All the best to all LIC ADOs.

LIC ADO Previous Year Solved Paper

Reasoning Ability

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRANSFER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

2. D is sister of F. M is brother of F. K is brother of D and son of T. R is wife of T. How is F related to T?
1) Son
2) Daughter
3) Son or daughter
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

3. The positions of how many digits in the number 8359614 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

4. In a certain code ‘STAGE’ is written as ‘4@Ù59’ and ‘EARN’ is written as 9Ù87′. How is ‘NEST’ written in that code?
1) 497@
2) 794@
3) @Ù79
4) 79@Ù
5) None of these

5. In a certain code TRILOGY is written as HQSMXFN. How is CREDITS written in that code?
1) DQBERSH
2) FSDCTUJ
3) DQBETUJ
4) FSDCRSH
5) None of these

Directions (6 – 10) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
H 3 $ E K 5 @ M % I 8 2 T A F 6 W I Ù N V ? P 4 Q ä R D Z

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) FAW
2) NÙ?
3) 4Pä
4) MÙI
5) SEH

7. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

8. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the sixteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?
1) 2
2) Ù
3) 8
4) 6
5) None of these

9. If all the symbols and numbers are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be the fourteenth from the right end?
1) T
2) K
3) N
4) P
5) None of these

10. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

Directions (11 – 15): In these questions, certain symbols have been used to indicate relationships between elements as follows:
‘P Ù Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q. ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q. ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q.
‘P % Q means P is not greater than Q.
‘P ? Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
In each question, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is /are definitely true?

11. Statement:
R % T, T Ù K, K $ M, M @ V
Conclusions: I. M Ù T II. R Ù K III. K $ V
1) None is true
2) Only I and II are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) Only I and III are true
5) All I, II and III are true

12. Statements:
W $ N N Ù R, R @ K, K % F
Conclusions: I. F ? R II. R $ W III. N Ù K
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only II and III are true

13. Statements:
F @ M, M % W, W $ R, R Ù V
Conclusions: I. V $ M II. F $ W III. R Ù F
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only I and III are true

14. Statements:
B $ D, D @ M, M % K, K Ù R
Conclusions: I. R $ M II. K@D III. B $ M
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these

15. Statements:
N@W, W?K, KÙV, V$F
Conclusions: I. K?N
II. K@N III. FÙW
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only III is true
4) Only either I or II is true
5) None of these

Directions (16-20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P.Q.R.S.T.V.W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. S is second to the right of V who is third to the right of T.Q. is second to the left of T and fourth to the right of Z, W is third to the right of P who is not an immediate neighbour of T.

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions is the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) ZRV
2) SPQ
3) VZP
4) TWR
5) QWT

17. Who is to the immediate left of W?
1) Q
2) T
3) S
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

18. Who is second to the left of R?
1) T
2) Q
3) W
4) Data Inadequate
5) None of these

19. Who is fourth to the left of P?
1) R
2) Z
3) W
4) T
5) Data inadequate

20. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?
1) SQ
2) TW
3) ZV
4) PS
5) QW

Directions (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Manager- Accounts in an organisation. The Candidate must:
i. be at least 28 years and not more than 33 years as on 01.06.2010.
ii. be agraduate with at least 55 percent marks.
iii. be a post graduate dergee/ diploma holder in financial management with atleast 60 percent marks.
iv. have post qualification work experience of atleast seven years in the Finance department of an organisation.
v. have secured 40 percent marks in the personal interview.
In the case of a candidates who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT:
A) at (iii) above but has completed CA/ICWA/CFA after his/ her graduation, the case is to be referred to executive Director- Finance.
B) at (v) above but has secured atleast 35 percent marks in the personal interview and at least 65 percent marks in graduation. The case is to be referred to General Manager – Finance.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub- conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other that the information provided in each question. All These cases are given to your as on 01.06.2010.
Mark Answer (1) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director – Finance.
Mark answer (2) if the case is to be referred to General Manager- Finance.
Mark answer (3) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (4) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer (5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision

21. Subodh Saha has been working in the finance department of an organisation for the past seven years after completing his post Graduate degree in Financial Management with 60 percent marks. He has secured 53 percent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th may 1984.
Ans: 4

22. Abhiram Gupta was born on 8th July 1980. He has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past nine years after completing his post graduation degree in Financial Management with 68 percent marks. He has secured 37 percent marks in personal interview and 70 percent marks in graduation.
Ans: 2

23. Suchitra Kulkarni has been working in the finance department of an organisation for the past eight years. She was born on 12th April 1979. She has secured 65 percent marks in both graduation and post graduate diploma in financial management. She has also secured 50 percent marks personal interview.
Ans: 3

24. Atul Sangma was born on 24th March 1980. He has secured 45 percent marks in the personal interview and 60 percent marks in graduation. He has been working organisation for th past seven yeas after completing his post graduate degree in Financial Management with 65 percent marks.
Ans: 3

25. Neha Juneja was born on 4th September 1981. She has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past eight years after completing her ICWA after obtaining 58 percent marks in graduation. she has secured 48 percent marks in the personal Interview.
Ans: 1

Placement Paper
L.I.C. (ADO) Recruitment Exam Solved Paper (Held on 10-6-2007)LIC model questions papers for practice,LIC free solved sample placement papers,LIC 2010,2011,2013 free mock tests and sample test for practice, LIC aptitude, reasoning, general awareness and English language questions and answers,LIC previous years solved question papers,LIC Apprentice Development Officers job recruitment questions with answers for practice ,LIC Examination preparation materials ,LIC free Mock on line Test
LIC -English Language
Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Politicians and generals talk of military strategies and manoeuvers but something completely different is needed. Stability will come only when economic opportunities exist, when youth can find jobs and support families rather than seeking their livelihood in violence. Peace can only be achieved with a withdrawal of foreign troops, sanctions and peace-keepers and the arrival of jobs, productive farms and factories, healthcare and schools. Repeatedly the fragile peace in impoverished countries has broken down because of the lack of economic follow-up. Despite promises of aid, the actual record of international aid to post war reconstruction is deficient.
Once the war ends agencies involved in post war relief efforts fail to understand how to start or restart economic development in a low income setting. They squander time, surplus aid funds and opportunities because they are not familiar with local conditions and do not under-stand their point of view. There are distinct phases of outside help to end a conflict. In the first phase focus is on providing food, water, shelter and medicine to refugees i.e., humani-tarian. In the second, emphasis is on the refugees returning home while in the last phase long term investments and strengthening of courts is the main focus.

However once a conflict is over aid agencies sanctioned by the World Bank send study groups instead of requisite personnel. There is a gap of several years before moving from humanitarian relief to economic development. By the time such help arrives the war has restarted. It is possible to restart economic develop-ment through targeted ‘quick impact’ initiatives. Most economies in post conflict countries are based on agri-culture. Providing free packages of seeds, fertilizers and low cost equip-ment quickly will ensure that former soldiers will return to their farms and establish their livelihood. But the window of opportunity closes quickly and one has to implement these measures almost immediately.

1. Which of the following is a reason, post conflict reconstruc-tion efforts have failed ?
(A) Aid organizations do not understand issues from the pers-pective of the poor
(B) Rapid economic develop-ment in low income countries-Answer
(C) World Bank studies are not valid
(D) International aid organiza-tions become too involved in reconstruction efforts
(E) None of these

2. Where does the problem lie in implementing post war relief measures ?
(A) Aid agencies fail to study the situation-Answer
(B) Economic development measures are too rapid
(C) Focus on economic deve-lopment not humanitarian aid
(D) Lack of funds to implement programmes
(E) Lack of essential and quali-fied personnel

3. According to the author how can political stability be achieved ?
(A) Increasing the number of foreign troops in areas of conflict
(B) Depending more on foreign aid
(C) Following recommendations given by the World Bank
(D) Providing economic oppor-tunities-Answer
(E) None of these

4. Which of the following is not true in the context of the pas-sage ?
(A) Focus in the first phase of a war is on providing humani-tarian aid
(B) Sanctions are not a means to ensure peace
(C) Adequate time must be taken to plan and implement quick impact strategies
(D) Providing employment to the younger generation will prevent wars
(E) Focus on delivering justice through courts should be in the last phase of conflict aid-Answer

5. How can economic development be restarted in an impoverished country ?
(A) Long term studies should be commissioned
(B) Retaining soldiers in the army to ensure law and order
(C) Restrict number of aid agencies to avoid waste
(D) Focusing on agricultural ini-tiatives-Answer
(E) Deploying peace keepers in the country

6. What is the benefit of ‘quick impact’ aid ?
(A) Soldiers earn income from the army and their farms
(B) Providing alternate liveli-hood to soldiers before war can restart
(C) Free land is given to soldiers
(D) Price of equipment is low
(E) None of these-Answer

Directions—(Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
7. exist
(A) live
(B) fit
(C) create
(D) occur-Answer
(E) survive

8. squander
(A) lavish
(B) spend-Answer
(C) displace
(D) lose
(E) misuse

Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. fragile
(A) weak
(B) lasting
(C) long
(D) strong-Answer
(E) unstable

10. deficient
(A) surplus -Answer
(B) valued
(C) short
(D) secure
(E) repaired

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it—
A. Strict obedience to these rules is called discipline.
B. In the same way, a society where rules are not followed cannot survive for long.
C. Only then a society can be run in an orderly fashion.
D. A society can exist properly only when men living in it agree upon certain rules of conduct.-Answer
E. For example, if the people on the road do not obey traffic rules there will be complete disorder and con-fusion.
F. Students must obey their teachers, children their parents, citizens the laws and so on and so forth.
11. Which of the following is the fifth sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E-Answer
(E) F

12. Which of the following is the sixth (Last) sentence ?
(A) A -Answer
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

13. Which of the following is the second sentence ?
(A) A -Answer
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

14. Which of the following is the first sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E-Answer

15. Which of the following is the third sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
(E) F-Answer

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully com-plete.
16. She did not like to…………her decision like a dictator on her subordinates.
(A) divulge
(B) prompt
(C) enforce -Answer
(D) deploy
(E) make

17. People unfortunately………that money brings happiness.
(A) assume-Answer
(B) deny
(C) object
(D) rely
(E) conscious

18. The public have………a protest against the new rules of the budget.
(A) organize
(B) demonstrated
(C) compiled
(D) pursued
(E) launched-Answer

19. Sarojini Naidu will always be remembered for her……… to the national cause.
(A) blessing
(B) involvement
(C) pursuit
(D) dedication-Answer
(E) command

20. Poverty has to be………and the basic necessities of life should be made available to everyone.
(A) destroyed
(B) eliminated-Answer
(C) finished
(D) magnified
(E) considered

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of these questions, two of the words are related in some way i.e., they are similar or opposites. Pick out the option which represents that pair.
21. 1. moderate -Answer
2. easy
3. significant
4. strenuous
(A) 2–4
(B) 1–2
(C) 1–3
(D) 2–3
(E) 3–4

22. 1. focus
2. trivial
3. vital
4. site
(A) 1–2
(B) 2–4
(C) 1–3
(D) 3–4
(E) 2–3-Answer

23. 1. defer
2. dispute
3. prefer
4. challenge
(A) 2–3
(B) 1–3-Answer
(C) 2–1
(D) 2–4
(E) 3–4

24. 1. consequence
2. potential
3. influence
4. ability
(A) 4–3
(B) 2–4-Answer
(C) 2–3
(D) 1–3
(E) 4–1

25. 1. rebuke
2. oppose
3. praise
4. distrust
(A) 1–2
(B) 2–3
(C) 1–3-Answer
(D) 3–4
(E) 2–4

Directions—(Q. 26–35) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Delinking of jobs from degrees is one of the …(26)… features of our education …(27)…. There has been a …(28)… fall in …(29)… in the acade-mic field in recent years. There is a …(30)… of degree holders in the country, as a result, university degrees have …(31)… their value and charm while the number of students in colleges and universities of the country has been …(32)… rising. Consequently thousands of graduates and post graduates come out of these institutions and stand in queues waiting to get some …(33)… jobs …(34)… in the country. Moreover, these degree holders do not have any technical or vocational knowledge needed for a particular job. As a result, the number of educated unemployed has been rising …(35)…. It has created a very serious problem.

26. (A) minor
(B) trivial
(C) unachievable
(D) irrelevant
(E) salient-Answer

27. (A) process
(B) policy-Answer
(C) development
(D) guideline
(E) procedures

28. (A) expected
(B) sheer
(C) rough
(D) steep-Answer
(E) gentle

29. (A) assessment
(B) evaluation
(C) competence-Answer
(D) fees
(E) value

30. (A) flood -Answer
(B) class
(C) party
(D) mob
(E) rabble

31. (A) mislaid
(B) lost-Answer
(C) increase
(D) found
(E) establish

32. (A) slowly
(B) hastily-Answer
(C) deeply
(D) waiting
(E) out

33. (A) suitable -Answer
(B) remain
(C) study
(D) live
(E) place

34. (A) frequency
(B) occurrence
(C) event
(D) chance-Answer
(E) blocking

35. (A) fever
(B) outshine
(C) lean
(D) dwarfed
(E) horribly-Answer

Placement Paper
LIC English questions for practice,LICsptitude,reasoning,general awareness questions with answers

LIC English Questions with answers

Directions (For Questions 1 to 4): In these questions, out of the four alternatives choose the one which express the correct meaning of the given word printed in bold.

1. Encompassing

a) Surrounding

b) Incorporating (Ans)

c) Enveloping

d) Accepting

2. Prudence

a) Wisdom (Ans)

b) Gentleness

c) Providence

d) Pride

3. Fetter

a) Restore

b) Lavish

c) Squander

d) Chain (Ans)

4. Diligent

a) Slack

b) Steady

c) Careful

d) Laborious (Ans)

Directions (For Question 5 and 6) : In these questions, out of the four alternatives choose the one which is the most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold

5. Commendable

a) Invaluable

b) Undeserved

c) Unreliable

d) Unworthy (Ans)

6. Frugality

a) Luxury

b) Extravagance (Ans)

c) Providence

d) Familiarity

7. Substitute a single word for One who hates mankind

a) Mercenary

b) Philanthropist

c) Neurotic

d) Misanthropist (Ans)

8. Substitute a single word for ‘Violation of something holy and sacred’

a) Pollution

b) Pilferage

c) Sacrilege (Ans)

d) Pittance

9. Fill in the blank with a suitable word

He was apprised ……… the latest developments on the war front

a) of (Ans)

b) about

c) on

d) for

10. Find out the word which is spelt incorrect

a) Proficient

b) Efficient

c) Sufficient

d) Magnificient (Ans)

Qs. 11-15. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
11. The price of (1) all petroleum products (2) is controlled (3) by the government. (4) No error. (5)

(Ans : 5) No error.

12. There is a (1) tax benefit for (2) the income of (3) senior citizens. (4) No error. (5)

(Ans : 2) ‘tax benefit on’.

13. In my opinion (1) Vikas has (2) failed to follow (3) none of the instructions. (4) No error.(5)

(Ans : 4) ‘any of the instructions’.

14. At least of (1) three per cent of (2) those who applied (3) will be selected. (4) No error. (5)

(Ans : 1) ‘At least’.

15. He was (1) well known economist (2) who usual wrote (3) for international journals. (4) No error. (5)

(Ans : 3) ‘who usually wrote’.

Qs. 16-20. Which of the phrases (1),(2),(3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer

16. Occupying by many meetings, he did not reach home till late.

(1) By occupying

(2) While occupied

(3) Occupation of

(4) Occupied with (Ans)

(5) No correction required

17. We were nervous while the auditor was going by the accounts.

(1) had gone through

(2) was going over (Ans)

(3) gone through

(4) went by

(5) No correction required

18. Parents have to take some of this precaution while allowing their children to use the internet.

(1) each of these precaution

(2) every precautions

(3) all these precaution (Ans)

(4) No correction required

(5) No correction required

19. An employee will get the incentive, only if he deserves it.

(1) he himself deserves

(2) they deserving it

(3) he deserved for it

(4) he was deserving

(5) No correction required (Ans)

20. Sunita has been posted in Chennai, where is her birthplace.

(1) which is her (Ans)

(2) that is her

(3) that she has

(4) there is her

(5) No correction required

Qs. 21-25. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) The old lady however refused to pay him and was taken to court.

(B) The doctor, confident of his abilities, agreed.

(D) He then saw her furniture, realized its value and decided to delay curing her till he could steal it.

(E) A blind old lady promised to pay the doctor a large sum of money if she was cured and nothing if she wasn’t.

(F) She was asked why she refused to pay by the judge. “I am not cured. I cannot see all my furniture!” was the reply.

21. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) B

(2) C

(3) D

(4) E

(5) F (Ans)

22. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1) B

(2) C

(3) D (Ans)

(4) E

(5) F

23. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (Ans)

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

24. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B (Ans)

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

25. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) B

(2) C

(3) D

(4) E (Ans)

(5) F

Qs. 26-30. In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3), and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

26. There were many objectives (1) from employees to the proposal (2) to amend (3) the regulations. (4) All correct (5).

(Ans : 1) ‘objections’

27. Since he has provided (1) over halve (2) the finance for the infrastructure (3) he should be in charge. (4) All correct (5).

(Ans : 2) ‘half’

28. The scheme permits (1) investors (2) to buy the shares from foreign (3) companies at a ficsed. (4) price, All correct (5).

(Ans : 4) ‘fixed’

29. A leader who relies (1) on his team members (2) for advice (3) is respected. (4) All correct (5).

(Ans : 5) All correct

30. He is in complete (1) agreement (2) with your analyze (3) of the situation. (4) All correct (5).

(Ans : 3) ‘analysis’

Qs. 31-40. In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Most of the employees had no (31) in the oil industry. Employees were paid a (32) salary but they were loyal and hardworking. They often worked without breaks – they once worked (33) for 72 hours to discharge oil from a Russian tanker. (34) made the difference was the support they (35) from their bosses. On (36) occasions the barrier between boss and subordinate vanished. We all worked like a team and (37) unexpected results. The air force (38) presented a letter of (39) to the determined (40) poorly paid employees have built the company into what it is today.

31. (1) practise

(2) contact

(3) discipline

(4) experience (Ans)

(5) knowledge

32. (1) minor

(2) low (Ans)

(3) less

(4) cheaper

(5) little

33. (1) continuously (Ans)

(2) fully

(3) running

(4) near

(5) slowly

34. (1) Which

(2) They

(3) What (Ans)

(4) There

(5) That

35. (1) showed

(2) taken

(3) wanted

(4) needed

(5) received (Ans)

36. (1) any

(2) many (Ans)

(3) couple

(4) regularly

(5) this

37. (1) achieve

(2) seen

(3) given

(4) contribute

(5) produced (Ans)

38. (1) was

(2) yet

(3) even (Ans)

(4) instead

(5) still

39. (1) compliment

(2) thank

(3) regret

(4) appreciation (Ans)

(5) reward

40. (1) though (Ans)

(2) not

(3) enough

(4) beside

(5) despite
Placement Paper
LIC (ADO) RECRUITMENT EXAM ; 2007 SOLVED PAPER (HELD ON 10-06-2007)LIC Previous years solved question papers,LIC Aptitude,Reasoning,General awareness model questions for practice

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS

1. The pumch line of the advertisement of which of the following organization is “Ji ndagi ke sath bhi Jindagi ke bad bhi” ?
(A) New India Assurance
(B) General Insurance Corporation
(C) ICICI Prudential
(D) Life Insurance Corporation Of India
(E) None of these
ANS- D
2. The central office of the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) is located at –
(A) Kolkata
(B) New Delhi
(C) Chennai
(D) Pune
(E) Mumbai
ANS- E
3. Th Life Insurance Corporation Of India has how many Zonal offices in India ?
(A) Five
(B) Seven
(C) Ten
(D) Fifteen
(E) None of these
ANS- B
4. Which of the following schemes was launched by the LIC in December 2001 with the object to lessen the burden of parents in meeting the educational expenses of their children ?
(A) Krishi Shramik Samajik Suraksha Yojana
(B) Jan Shree Bima Yojana
(C) Shiksha Sahyog Yojana
(D) Bhagyashree Child Welfare Bima Yojana
(E) None of these
ANS- C
5. If an organization wishes to venture into Insurance Business it has to obtain a licence first from which of the following ?
(A) Indian Bnaks Association (IBA)
(B) Security and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(C) Tariff Advisory Committee (TAC)
(D) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)
(E) None of these
ANS- D
6. Which of the following schemes launched in the year 2000 by the LIC replaced social Securitty group Insurance Schemes (SSIGS) and Rural Group Life Insurance Schemes (RGLIS) ?
(A) Janshree Bima Yojana
(B) Bhagyashree Child Welfare Bima Yojana
(C) Jan Arogya Bima Yojana
(D) Raj Rajeshwari Mahila Kalyan Yojana
(E) None of these
ANS- A
7. How many maximum children from a family are covered for the benefits under the Shiksha Sahyog Yojana launched by the LIC ?
(A) One only
(B) Two only
(C) Three only
(D) One Girl Child only
(E) None of these
ANS- B
8. Which of the following Scheme was launched by the LIC to provide life insurance protection, perodical lumpsum survival benefit and pension to the agricultural workers in India ?
(A) Krishi Shramik Samajik Suraksha Yojana
(B) Jan Shree Bima Yojana
(C) Mahila Kalyan Yojana
(D) Sampurna Arogya Bima Policy
(E) None of these
ANS- A
9. On December 6yh 2006, the president of India launched on exclusive health Insurance Scheme for senior citizens. Which of the following insurance company has launched the schemes ?
(A) National Insurance Company
(B) Life Insurance Corporation Of India
(C) ICICI Prudential
(D) HDFC Life
(E) None of these
ANS- A
10. Which of the following cities does not have one of the zonal offices of the Life Insurance Corporation Of India ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Chennai
(D) Hyderabad
(E) Jhansi
ANS- E
11. Which of the following is the Basic Life Insurance Plan of the Life Insurance Corporation Of India ?
(A) Jeevan Tarang
(B) Jeevan Nidhi
(C) Jeevan Adhar
(D) Jeevan Umang
(E) None of these
ANS- E
12. Anmol Jeevan is a …….. of the LIC
(A) Basic Life Insurance Plan
(B) Term Insurance Plan
(C) Children’s Plan
(D) Pension Plan
(E) None of these
ANS- B
13. As per policy of the LIC, loans are granted on unencumbered policies upto what per cent of the surrender value ?
(A) 60 %
(B) 70 %
(C) 80 %
(D) 90 %
(E) None of these
ANS- D
14. Which of the following group Schemes of the LIC Provides pensiobn to employees on their retirement from service ?
(A) Group Term Insurance Scheme
(B) Group Insurance in Liew of EDLI
(C) Group Gratuity Scheme
(D) Group Supeannuation Scheme
(E) None of these
ANS- D
15. Which of the following is the pension plam of the LIC
(A) Jeevan Adhar
(B) Jeevan ANAND
(C) Jeevan Akshay
(D) Amulya Jeevan
(E) None of these
ANS- C
16. Which of the following is not a scheme of the LIC ?
(A)Jeevan Sangam
(B) Jeevan Saral
(C) Jeevan Adhar
(D) Jeevan Pramukh
(E) None of these
ANS- A
17. Which of the following is a term Assurance plan of the LIC ?
(A) Jeevan Akshay
(B) Jeevan Adhar
(C) Jeevan Nivesh
(D) Jeevan Nidhi
(E) None of these
ANS- E
18. Premium to LIC policies can be paid by which of the following modes ?
(a) Cash
(b) Cheque
(c) Electronic Charging Machine
(A) Only a
(B) Only b
(C) Only c
(D) Both a and b
(E) All a, b and c
ANS- E
19. Customers of Lic can now get information about their policies by dialing which of the following telephone numbers in most of the centres ?
(A) 101
(B) 135
(C) 136
(D) 1251
(E) None of these
ANS- D
20. Lic policy holders do not get any income tax benefit under which of the following sections of the income tax act ?
(A) Section 80C
(B) Section 68 A, B and C
(C) sECTION 80 CCC
(D) Section 80 CD
(E) None of these
ANS- B
21. Who amongst the following is not a Bharat Ratna Awardee ?
(A) Dr. A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(B) Dr. V.VGiri
(C) Dr. Rajendra Parsad
(D) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(E) None of these
ANS- D
22. Duran Lineb devides which of the following pair of the countries ?
(A) China – Afghanistan
(B) Afghanistan – Pakistan
(C) India – Pakistan
(D) India – Nepal
(E) Bangladesh – India
ANS- B
23. Who has become the second person of Indian origin to go into space after Kalpana Chawala ?
(A) Koneru Humpi
(B) Indra Nooyi
(C) Sunita Williams
(D) Sudha Murti
(E) None of these
ANS- C
24. Shinzo Abe is the new elected –
(A) Prime minister of Singapore
(B) Prime minister of South Korea
(C) President of Soth Korea
(D) President of North Korea
(E) Prime minister of Japan
ANS- E
25. Which of the following cups is associated with the game of Hockey ?
(A) Whiteman Cup
(B) Evert Cup
(C) Agha Khan Cup
(D) Hafed Open Cup
(E) None of these
ANS- C
Placement Paper

LIC general awareness questions with answers,LIC aptitude, reasoning and general awareness questions with answers

1 In which year did Gandhiji start Satyagraha Movement ?
A) 1919-Answer
B) 1927
C) 1934
D) 1942
2. An ecosystem consists of

A) producers, consumers and decomposers in a particular area.-Answer
B) all the plants and animals of an area.
C) a living community and its environment.
D) carnivorous and herbivorous of an area

3. The telephone was invented by
A) G. Marconi
B) Alexander Graham Bell-Answer
C) J.L Baird
D) Thomas Barrow

4. The crop mainly grown in hills is
A) Sweet corn
B) Sweet jowar-Answer
C) Sweet potato
D) Sweet pea

5. Who is called as the ‘Prophet of New India ‘
A) Dayanand Saraswati
B) Sri Ramakrishna-Answer
D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D) Swami Vivekananda

6. Ethnic group Mongoloids are found in India in
A) Southern region
B) South-central region
C) North-western region
D) North-eastern region-Answer

7. When a vibrating tuning fork is placed on table, a loud sound is heard. This is due to
A) reflection
B) refraction
C) forced vibrations
D) damped vibrations-Answer

8. An insect-catching plant is
A) Australian Acacia
B) Smilax
C) Nepenthes-Answer
D) Nerium

9. The method not used as a Biological control is
A) Use of predators of a pest.
B) Pheromone traps
C) Use of pesticides
D) Use of neem extracts

10. The States in India are demanding greater autonomy from the centre in the ___ field ,
A) Legislative
B) Administrative
C) Financial
D) All the above-Answer

11. Light houses are places with powerful lights to
A) guide and resolve traffic jams in crowded metro-cities during nights
B) guide and help large crowds at religious gatherings during nights
C) indicate to the incoming war-ships, the location of a harbour during night
D) guide and warn the ships coming from different directions in the oceans.-Answer

12. In a Capitalistic Economy, the Prices are determined by
A) Demand and Supply-Answer
B) Government Authorities
C) Buyers in the Market
D) Sellers in the Market

13. Who of the following has not been an interlocutor on Jammu & Kashmir ?
A) M.M. Ansari
B) Radha Kumar
C) Shujaat Bukhari-Answer
D) Dilop Padgaonkar

14. The Zone of Earth’s atmosphere immediately above its surface up to a height of about 16 kms above equator and 8 Kms over the poles is known as
A) Mesosphere
B) Thermosphere
C) Troposphere-Answer
D) Stratosphere

15. The term ‘Pitcher’ is associated with
A) Wrestling
B) Boxing
C) Baseball-Answer
D) Basketball

16. The filament of electric bulb is made up of
A) Copper
B) Nichrome
C) Lead
D) Tungsten-Answer

17. Which of the following is called ‘ Brown paper ”
A) Jute
B) Cotton-Answer
C) Rubber
D) Tea

18. A Secular State is one which :
A) has no religion of its own-Answer
B) is irreligious
C) is anti- religion
D) takes into consideration the religious sentiments of the people

19. What does Jahangir means ?
A) National Monarch
B) The Grand Monarch
C) Conqueror of the world-Answer
D) Hero of hundred battles

20. Gol Gumbaz is in
A) Konark
B) Hyderabad
C) Puri
D) Bijapur-Answer

21. The early Buddhist scriptures were composed in
A) Prakrit texts
B) Pali texts-Answer
C) Sanskrit texts
D) Pictographical text

22. In Mohanjadaro, the Largest building is
A) the great bath-Answer
B) a granary
C) the Pillared hall
D) a two storeyed house

23. Where was the Royal Durbar held on November 1st 1858 to issue the Queen’s proclamation ?
A) Lucknow
B) Kanpur
D) Delhi-Answer
D) Allahabad

24. Male(Anopheles) mosquito feeds on:
A) Blood of man-Answer
B) Nectar of flower
C) Blood of Culex
D) Blood of leech

25. Tooth paste is a product sold under :
A) Monopolistic Competition-Answer
B) Perfect Competition
C) Monopoly
D) Duopoly

26. The National Development Council includes :
A) all central Cabinet Ministers-Answer
B) Chief Ministers of all the States-Answer
C) Cabinet Ministers of all the States and the Centre
D) Members of the Estimates Committee of the Parliament

27. Which of the following is not a cause of low productivity in Indian agriculture
A) Co-operative farming-Answer
B) Inadequate inputs availability
C) Sub-division and fragmentation of Land
D) Poor finance and marketing facilities.

28. The gas that is used in the manufacture of vanaspati ghee is
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Hydrogen-Answer
D) Nitrogen

29. Cement is usually a mixture of
A) Calcium silicate and calcium aluminate-Answer
B) Calcium silicate and calcium ferrate
C) Calcium aluminate and calcium ferrate
D) Lime stone and silicon dioxide

30. Which of the following is not a Hardware ?
A) Processor chip
B) Printer
C) Mouse
D) Java-Answer

31. Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of :
A) Vitamin- D
B) Vitamin – K
C) Vitamin – E
D) Vitamin – C-Answer

32. According to a study conducted by Hyderabad’s National Institute of Nutrition, The healthiest of 14 fresh fruits commonly consumed in India with maximum’ Goodness Index’ is
A) Indian Plum
B) Mango
C) Guava-Answer
D) Custard apple

33. The Parliament can legislate on subjects given in the Union List only in consultation with the State Government for the State of :
A) Assam
B) Rajasthan
C) Jammu & Kashmir-Answer
D) Kerala

34. Tsunamis are waves generated by
A) Earthquakes beneath the Sea-Answer
B) Moon’s pull
C) High tides of the oceans
D) Cyclones

35. Which is the largest State of India ?
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Rajasthan-Answer
D) Maharashtra

36. Which one of the following is a system software
A) Database programs
B) Word processors-Answer
C) Spreadsheets
D) Compilers

37. A piece of wood is held under water. The upthrust on it will be :
A) Equal to the weight of the wood-Answer
B) less than weight of the wood
C) more than weight of the wood
D) zero

38. Kamakhya temple is an important place of tourism in the State of
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Assam-Answer
C) Himachal Pradesh
D) Manipur

39. Electric bulbs are filled with
A) Nitrogen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Argon-Answer
D) Oxygen

40. The atmospheric gas that is mainly responsible for Green House effect:
A) Ozone
B) Oxygen
C) Nitrogen
D) Cabondioxide-Answer

41. Wisdom teeth is the
A) 1st molar teeth
B) 2nd molar teeth
C) 3rd molar teeth-Answer
D) 4th molar teeth

42. Who of the following pairs of Nobel Laureates in Physics was awarded 2010 Nobel Prize ?
A) John C Mather, George F. Smoot
B) Albert fert, Peter Grunberg
C) David J Gross, Frank. Wilczek
D) Andre Geim, Konstantin Novoselov-Answer

43. “Tabal Chongli” is a form of folk dance associate with the State of
A) West Bengal
B) Assam-Answer
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Maharashtra

44. Who is the supreme Commander-in-Chief of armed forces of the country ?
A) Defence Minister
B) Prime Minister
C) Senior-most among the three service Chiefs.
D) President-Answer

45. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
A) Assam-Itanagar
B) Arunachal Pradesh-Guwahati
C) Tripura-Agartala-Answer
D) Nagaland-Shillong

46. The purest form of Iron is
A) Cast iron
B) Steel
B) Pig iron
D) Wrought iron-Answer

47. The caste system of India was created for :
A) Immobility of labour
B) recognition of the dignity of labour
C) economic uplift
D) occupational division of labour-Answer

48. The iron ore which contains 72 % of iron is
A) Magnetite-Answer
B) Limonite
C) Haematite
D) Siderite

49. Surat is located on the banks of the river :
A) Narmada
B) Sharavathi
C) Mahi
D) Tapti-Answer

50. The tusk of elephant is an enormously enlarged:
A) Upper incisor-Answer
B) Upper canine
C) lower canine
D) lower incisor

51. Megasthenes lived for many years at the court of the :
a) Magadha kings
b) Nanda kings
c) Mauryas-Answer
d) Guptas

52. As per the provisional data of the 2011 census of India, the gap in literacy between men and women stands reduced to percentage points:
a) 10.8
b) 16.5-Answer
c) 18.4
d) 20.3

53. The people of the Indus Valley worshiped :
a) Brahma
b) Vishnu
c) Pashupathi-Answer
d) Vayu

54. Haemoglobin of the blood forms carbonyl haemoglobin with:
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Carbon monoxide-Answer
c) Sulphur dioxide
d) Nitrogen dioxide

55. What should be the minimum size of a plane mirror to have the full image of a person, when he stands at a distance?
a) same size as the person
b) double the size of the person
c) half the size of the person-Answer
d) 1/4th of the size of the person

56. Banana leaf tears easily because :
a) leaf blade is thin
b) leaf blade has no veins
c) leaf blade has veins arranged in parallel manner-Answer
d) leaf blade has undeveloped veins

57. Who was the Judge against whom the Parliament initiated impeachment proceedings, but failed ultimately?
a) Justice Bhagawati-Answer
b) Justice Ajit Ray
c) Justice Sikri
d) Justice Ramaswami

58. A heavy and a lighter body of same size are dropped from a height. Which one of them will reach
a) Lighter body
b) Heavier body-Answer
c) Both of them together
d) Cannot be predicted

59. The Atomic Energy Commission was set up in :
a) 1948-Answer
b) 1950
c) 1952
d) 1960

60. The humidity of air is measured by the instrument called
a) Hydrometer
b) Hygrometer-Answer
c) Seismometer
d) Barometer

61. The term ‘Gambit’ is associated with:
a) Chess-Answer
b) Tennis
c) Basketball
d) Baseball

62. The most common indicator organism that indicates level of water pollution is :
a) E.coli
b) P.typhi
c) C.vibrio
d) Entamoeba-Answer

63. Which of the following States of India has the largest length of surface roads?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Maharashtra-Answer
d) Tamilnadu

64. Chhatrapati Shivaji’s Court was adorned by the Ministers called:
a) Nayanmars
b) Ashtadiggajas
c) Navaratnas
d) Ashtapradhans-Answer

65. Hot water bag is used for fomentation because:
a) Water is a cheap liquid
b) Water has high specific heat capacity-Answer
c) Water has high latent heat
d) Water is easily available

66. ‘Tappatikkali’ is a folk dance associated with the State of :
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala-Answer
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Gujarat

67. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 due to the initiative of :
a) Gopal Krishna -Answer
b) Dadabhai Naoroji
c) W.C. Banerjee
d) Allan Octavian Hume

68. From where are the words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India taken?
a) Rigveda
b) Mundaka Upanishad-Answer
c) Padam Purana
d) Ramayana

69. Real National Income is equal to the size of Population multiplied by :
a) Per Capita Real Income-Answer
b) Personal Income
c) Personal Disposable Income
d) Market Prices

70. The tree which releases oxygen even during night is :
a) Neem
b) Banyan
c) Mango
d) Pipal-Answer
71. Quagga is an extinct species of :
a) Cat
b) Horse
c) Zebra-Answer
d) Antelope

72. Martyr’s day is observed on the death anniversary of :
a) Mahatma Gandhi-Answer
b) Smt. Indira Gandhi
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
d) Rajiv Gandhi

73. The expansion of the term HTML is:
a) Higher Text Markup Language
b) Higher Text Machine Language
c) Hyper Text Machine Language
d) Hyper Text Markup Language-Answer

74. The blood group that lacks antigen is :
a) A
b) B
c) AB-Answer
d) O

75. Lightning conductor is made of :
a) Copper-Answer
b) Glass
c) Ebonite
d) Plastic

76. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is :
a) calcium
b) aluminium-Answer
c) iron
d) magnesium

77. When Indian leaders stress upon making with indigenous resources, they advocate :
a) stopping imports-Answer
b) promoting exports
c) self-reliance
d) national pride

78. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is _______.
a) 543
b) 555
c) 553
d) 552-Answer

79. The golden fibre of India is
a) Cotton
b) Hemp
c) Jute-Answer
d) Silk

80. Which one of the following is known as ‘Brown Coal’?
a) Bituminous
b) Anthracite
c) Peat
d) Lignite-Answer

81. The new agricultural strategy called ‘Green Revolution’ was initiated in :
a) 1947
b) 1951
c) 1965-Answer
d) 1972

82. The State of Assam has :
a) five National Parks and eleven wildlife sanctuaries-Answer
b) three National Parks and nine wildlife sanctuaries
c) three National Parks and eight wildlife sanctuaries
d) two National Parks and six wildlife sanctuaries

83. The decision of how much to produce is determined by the individuals in a :
a) Socialistic Economy
b) Mixed Economy
c) Capitalistic Economy-Answer
d) All the above

84. The famous ‘Dilwara Temples’ are situated in :
a) Rajasthan-Answer
b) Maharashtra
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Andhra Pradesh

85. To edit text read by an optical scanner, one needs ____________ to translate the image into ASCII characters
a) an OMR
b) an OCR-Answer
c) a MICR
d) a digitizer

86. In mammals, the cheek teeth are :
a) Incisors-Answer
b) Premolar
c) Molar
d) Premolar and Molar

87. Who discovered Insulin?
a) William Harvey
b) Louis Pasteur
c) F.G. Banting-Answer
d) Alexander Fleming

88. The term ‘operation flood’ refers to :
a) Flood Control
b) Milk Production-Answer
c) Food grain Production
d) Population Control

89. PVC is obtained by the polymerisation of :
a) Propene
b) Vinyl Chloride-Answer
c) Styren
d) Acetylene

90. The fundamental rights have :
a) moral force behind them.
b) force of public opinion behind them.
c) legal force behind them.-Answer
d) no force behind them.

91. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a) Assam – Itanagar
b) Arunachal Pradesh – Guwahati
c) Manipur – Imphal-Answer
d) Nagaland – Shilong

92. A candidate contesting for Lok Sabha must have attained the age of :
a) 21 years
b) 18 years
c) 25 years-Answer
d) 30 years

93. The second session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by :
a) W.C. Banerjee
b) Badruddin Tyabji
c) Dadabhai Naoroji-Answer
d. Surendra Nath Banerjee

94. For controlling pollution, dust escaping from factory chimneys is to be prevented. For this :
a) metal grid or wire-mesh is placed over it.
b) a metal grid coated with an insulator is placed on it.
c) a wire-mesh coated with grease is placed on it
d) an electrically charged wire-mesh is placed on it to attract dust.-Answer

95. Which of the following is the worst flood affected area in India?
a) Assam-Answer
b) Nagaland
c) Manipur
d) Tripura

96. Which of the following is correct about Socialism?
a) State is a necessary evil.
b) State is a march of God on earth.
c) State is an unnecessary evil.
d) State promotes common goods.-Answer

97. Full form of BCG is :
a) Bacillus Cholera Germ
b) Bacillus Calmette Guerin-Answer
c) Bacillus Curative Gene
d) Bacillus Cholera Guerin

98. The organic compounds present in petroleum are separated by :
a) Distillation
b) Fractional crystallisation
c) Frractional distillation-Answer
d) Sublimation

99. Who of the following is NOT a recepient of 2011 Nobel Peace Prize?
a) Hu Jintao-Answer
b) Leymah Gbowee
c) Ellen Jhonson-Sirleaf
d) Tawakkol Karman

100. The pH of human blood is :
a) 2
b) 10
c) 5.5
d) 7.3-Answer

1. Ankaleswar is famous for :
(A) Silk
(B) Gold
(C) Petrol-Answer
(D) Iron

2. The largest city in India is :
(A) Lakshadweep-Answer
(B) Kanakumari
(C) Indira Point
(D) Rameshwaram

3. The southern most tip of India is :
(A) Lakshadweep
(B) Kanyakumari
(C) Indira Point-Answer
(D) Rameshwaram
4. In which city is the countrys largest stadium located?
(A) Kolkata-Answer
(B) Delhi
(C) Patiala
(D) Chandigarh

5. Who was the oldest person to become the Prime Minister of India?
(A) Charan Singh
(B) Morarji Desai-Answer
(C) H. D. Deve Gowda
(D) P. V. Narasimha Rao

6. Which was the first feature film shown on the TV in colour?
(A) Mughal-e-Azam
(B) Mother India
(C) Shatranj Ke Khiladi-Answer
(D) Sholay

7. In which city is the country s largest prison located?
(A) Lucknow
(B) Kolkata
(C) Kanpur
(D) Delhi-Answer

8. Which is the largest orange-growing state?
(A) Maharashtra-Answer
(B) Punjab
(C) Orissa
(D) Madhya Pradesh

9. Who was the first Indian to win an individual Olympic medal?
(A) Norman Pritchard-Answer
(B) Milkha Singh
(C) Leander Paes
(D) P.T. Usha

10. Which is Indias largest religious community?
(A) Muslims
(B) Hindus-Answer
(C) Jews
(D) Christians

11. Which is the largest chilli-producing state?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Jammu & Kashmir
(C) Asom
(D) Andhra Pradesh-Answer

12. Name the first Indian soap opera which was telecast from July 1984 to December 1985.
(A) Hum Log-Answer
(B) Buniyad
(C) Rajani
(D) Khaandan

13. In which state is the longest canal located?
(A) Rajasthan-Answer
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana

14. In which city was the first engineering college set up?
(A) Roorkee-Answer
(B) Ranchi
(C) Pilani
(D) Kanpur

15. Which regiment of the Indian Army has won the heighest number of gallantry awards?
(A) Rajputana Rifles
(B) Punjab Regiment
(C) Madras Regiment
(D) Sikh Regiment-Answer

16. In which city was the first underground bazar constructed?
(A) Delhi-Answer
(B) Mumbai
(C) Bangalore
(D) Hyderabad

17. Who was the first Indian President to cast his vote in a General Election while in office?
(A) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(B) Dr. S.D. Sharma
(C) K. R. Narayanan-Answer
(D) R. Venkataraman

18. In which year did All India Radio begin broadcasting news?
(A) 1921
(B) 1927-Answer
(C) 1935
(D) 1942

19. In which city was the first milk powder plant set up?
(A) Anand-Answer
(B) Delhi
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Patiala

20. Who among the following was not a Vice-President?
(2A) Gulzarilal Nanda-Answer
(B) Gopal Swarup Pathak
(C) B. D. Jatti
(D) M. Hidayatullah
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LIC On-line Test:
On-line test will be of objective type, multiple choice of two hours duration comprising of the following two papers:

1. Test of Reasoning and Numerical Ability.

2. General Knowledge, Current Affairs and English Language with Special emphasis on Grammar and Vocabulary.

1. Which 3 eminent persons nominated by the government for as members of Rajya Sabha on April 26, 2012 ?
Ans:- Sachin Tendulkar, actress Rekha and industrialist Anu Aga

2. Which indian Bollywood actress passed away recently ?
Ans:- Achla Sachdev

3. Who won India Open badminton 2012 Men’s singles title ?
Ans:- Shon Wan Ho (South Korea)

4. Who won India Open badminton 2012 Women’s singles title ?
Ans:- Li Xuerui(China)

5. Who won 6 NTR National Literary Award ?
Ans:- Ashokamitran (Tamil writer)

6. Name of new web-enabled mobile Phone launched by Nokia ?
Ans:- Asha 202

7. Who win 28th Asian snooker title ?
Ans:- Aditya Mehta (defeated Pankaj Advani)

8. Who has been elected as New President of France ?
Ans:- Francois Hollande (defeating the incumbent Nicolas Sarkozy)

9. Who became the first batsman to hit five consecutive Twenty20 half-centuries ?
Ans:- Virender Sehwag (In IPL-5)

10. Who were awarded with Kalpana Chawla excellence award on 6 May 2012 ?
Ans:- Miss India World Vinya Mishra and actress Sushma Seth

11. Which indian discus thrower created a new national record bywinning the silver medal at the Altius Track Crew Throwdown meet in Maui Island, Hawaii ?
Ans:- Krishna Poonia (64.76 meters)

12. Who became the first-ever batsman to cross 2000 runs in the Indian Premier League ?
Ans:- Suresh Raina

13. Who has re-appointed as Attorney General of india ?
Ans:- Goolam E.Vahanvati

14. Which missile was successfully test-fired by pakistan on May 012 ?
Ans:- Hatf III Ghaznavi missile (Range – 290 km)

15. What is HSRP ?
Ans:- High Security Registration number Plates

16. when was India’s first Parliament session held ?
Ans:- 13th May, 1952 ( On 13 may, 2012 Indian Parliament celebrate 60th anniversary)

17. When was the World red cross day celebrated?
Ans:- May 8th (every year)

18. Who won Junior Hockey World Cup 2012 ?
Ans:- Malaysia (defeated Pakistan)

19. Which mobile manufacturer became Number One Mobile Company in the World ?
Ans:- Samsung (Korean mobile company)

20. Who is elected as new chairman of Atomic Energy Commission of India ?
Ans:- Dr.Ratan Kumar Sinha

21. Who has been elected New Chairman of the Standing Committee of Parliament on Personnel Public Grievances, Law and Justice ?
Ans:- Shantaram Naik

22. Which 2 Indian women Squash Players won the 16th Asian Team Squash Championship in Kuwait?
Ans:- Dipika Pallikal (ranked 14th) and Joshna Chinnappa (ranked 71st)

23. Name of The joint exercise carried out by the Army and the Indian Air Force in the desert of Rajasthan ?
Ans:- Operation Shoorveer

24. Who has been elected as Chair of the ADB’s( Asian Development Bank) Board of Governors, India ?
Ans:- Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee

25. Who was sworn in as Russian president for 3rd time?
Ans:- Vladimir Putin

26. who has been selected as the brand ambassador of ‘Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan’ (a programme of the rural development ministry to spread awareness about sanitation and cleanliness in india) ?
Ans:- Vidya Balan

27. Who became the 1st player to win Barcelona title for 7 times?
Ans:- Rafael Nadal

28. Which English team won 2012 FA Cup Final ?
Ans:- Chelsea (defeat Liverpool by 2-1)

29. Who has been conferred with his first American Honorary Doctorate by the Miami University ?
Ans:- A.R.Rahman

30. Which 3 northeastern Indian states will have its own high courts?
Ans:- Tripura, Manipur and Meghalaya

31. Who won the Madrid Masters woman single’s title 2012 ?
Ans:- Serena Williams

32. Who won the men single’s Madrid Masters title 2012?
Ans:- Roger Federer

33. Who became World’s Oldest Women to climb the Mount Everest the world’s highest mountain peak ?
Ans:- Tamae Watanabe (73-year-old)

34. who became the youngest Indian to win Asian Chess Championship 2012 ?
Ans:- Primarjan Negi (Negi is also the third Indian afer Krishnan Sasikaran (2003), Surya Sekhar Ganguly (2009) and Pendyala Harikishna (2011) to win the Asian title.)

35. Who has been appointed as TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India) chairman for a 3 year term?
Ans:- Rahul Khullar

36. Who is sworn in as the 24th President of France?
Ans:- Francois Hollande

37. Who is sworn in as the Prime Minister of France?
Ans:- Jean-Marc Ayrault

38. Which football club won the 2012 English Premier League Championship after 44 years?
Ans:- Manchester city

39. Who won the Football Champions League 2012 ?
Ans:- Chelesa

40. where was held 38th G-8 summit recently(May -2012) ?
Ans:- Camp David, Maryland (USA)

41. Who sworn in as the 19th Governor of Rajasthan ?
Ans:- Margaret Alva

42. Who won the men’s Rome Masters (Italian Open ) 2012 for a record 6th time?
Ans:- Rafael Nadal (Spain)

43. Who won the women’s Rome Masters 2012 (Italian Open) for 2nd time?
Ans:- Maria Sharapova (russia)

44. Who won the Men’s doubles Rome Masters 2012 title?
Ans:- Marcel Garnollers and Marc Lopez

45. Who won the Women’s doubles Rome Masters 2012 title?
Ans:- Sara Errani and Roberta Vinci

46. Name of the bollywood movie, which has figured in the TIME magazine’s 10 greatest movies of the millenium ?
Ans:- Devdas (directed by Sanjay Leela Bhansali)

47. Who is set to be India’s next football coach ?
Ans:- Wim Koevermans (former Dutch central defender)

48. Which indigenously built Missile was test- fired by india, at Chandipur, Odisha on 24 May 2012 ?
Ans:- Akash missile

49. Who won Indian Premier League Season 5 (IPL 2012) ?
Ans:- Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR) defeated the Chennai Super Kings (CSK)

50. Who won won the Man of the Tournament award in IPL 2012 ?
Ans:- Sunil Naraine (KKR)

51. Who won Orange Cap(highest run getter) of IPL-2012 ?
Ans:- Chris Gayle (Royal Challengers Banglore) – 733 runs

52. Who Won Purple Cap (highest wicket- taker) of IPL 2012 ?
Ans:- Morne Morkel (Delhi Daredevils) – 25 wickets

53. Who won the Chennai Open 2012 Squash title ?
Ans:- Joshna Chinappa

54. Who won FIDE World Chess Championship 2012 title for the record fifth time ?
Ans:- Vishwanathan Anand (defeated Boris Gelfand-isreal)

55. Who became the first Indian Prime Minister to visit Myanmar after 25 years ?
Ans:- Dr.Manmohan Singh

56. Who won the 66th Santosh Trophy?
Ans:- Services team against Tamil Nadu

57. What is current economic growth rate of india in the January-March quarter of 2011-12 ?
Ans:- 5.3 percent (The figure is lowest in the past 9 years.)

58. Who assumed the charge as the 25th Chief of the Indian Army ?
Ans:- General Bikram Singh (He succeeded General V K Singh.)

59. As per Latest India state of forest Report 2011, Which indian state has the maximum forest cover area in Country ?
Ans:- Madhya Pradesh

60. 2012 summer olympic games is of which Olympiad ?
Ans:- 30th (XXX) Olympiad
61. India conducted its first underground nuclear test
Ans. Rajasthan

62. Which of the following states in India is the largest in area?

Ans. Madhya Pradesh

63. A large sized nitrogenous plant based on the gas supplied through Hazira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur pipeline is being set up at

Ans. Hazira

64. Fazilka-Abohar region is noted for

Ans.prosperous cotton textile industry

65. In which industry is sal wood used mostly?

Ans. Railway sleepers

66. Which of the following is the principal reason for the concentration of heavy industries in the South Bihar region?
Ans. Availability of raw materials in the region

67. Out of the following, India earns the maximum foreign exchange from the export of

Ans. handicrafts

68. Kandla, situated on the Gulf of Kachchh, is well known for which of the following?

Ans. Export processing zone

69. The main centre of diamond cutting industry in India is
Ans.Jaipur
70 The Himalayan region inspite of having raw material for paper and pulp industry could not develop so far. Which of the following is the most important factor for this?

Ans. Poor means of transport in the region
71. As per the latest figures available, out of the total sugar production in India, Maharashtra contributes about
Ans. 23%

72. Where is the Hindustan Shipyard located?

Ans. Vishakhapatnam

73. The ‘satellite freight city’ is being developed near which of the following cities?

Ans. Gurgaon

74. Which of the following states accounts for the largest share of industrial production and capital investment?

Ans.Maharashtra

75. Consider the following statements:

The Rourkela steel plant obtains

1. hydel power from the Hirakud dam

2. coking coal from Jharia coalfields

3. iron ore from Baba Budon hills

Of these statements, the correct ones are:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

76. A group of tourists is interested in visiting some beaches in India. Which of the following groups of cities would you suggest?

A. Calcutta, Bangalore, Baroda

B. Ahmedabad, Ranchi, Hyderabad

C. Bombay, Goa, Madras

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Both A and B

(e) Both A and C

Ans. (c)

77. Which of the following cities is situated on the bank of river Saryu?

Ans.Ayodhya

78. Railway rolling stock is not manufactured at

Ans.Ahmedabad

79. Of the following cities, which one is situated along the banks of river Sabarmati?

Ans. Ahmedabad

80 .Which industry in India was worst affected be cause of the partition?
Ans.Jute and Cotton

81. Which of the following cities is known as ‘Pink City’?
Ans.Jaipur

82. Indian Standard Time is the time at which of the following longitudes East of Greenwich?

Ans. 82 .5 °

83. Which of the following places is not associated with India’s space programme?

Ans. Trombay
84. Garo and Khasi tribes are mainly found in

Ans.Meghalaya

85. In terms of the area of the countries, India ranks in the world.

Ans.7th

86. Which is the most urbanized state in India?

Maharashtra

87 In addition to the entire Union Territory of Delhi, the National Capital Region covers parts of the states of

Ans. Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh

88. ‘Ghotul’, a tribal youth dormitory is found among the

Ans. M of Madhya Pradesh

89 Which one of the following organizations is responsible for production of topographical sheets?

Ans.Survey of India (501)

90. In terms of area, which of the following is the smallest state in India?

Ans.Sikkim

91. India’s oldest planetarium is located at

Ans. Calcutta

92. Consider the following satellites put into orbit by India

1. Bhaskara

2. INSAT-1 B

3. Rohini

4. APPLE

Ans. 2 and 4

93. What is SLV-3?

Ans. India’s space launching vehicle

94. Which one of the following is the most important reason for the establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?

Ans.The sea is near to the place in the East, West and South directions.

95. The first submarine built by India is

Ans. INS Shalki

96. The satellite Aryabhatta was built at

Ans.Bangalore

97. In which of the following regions is ‘Dandakaranya’ located?

Ans.Orissa, MR and Andhra Pradesh

98. Onge tribe is mainly settled in which of the following States / Union Territories?
Ans.Meghalaya

99. Which of the following places is not associated with the launching of the space satellites?

Ans.Hassan
100. INSAT – 2B was launched from

Ans. Kourou

1. What is the percentage of geographical area of India in the world area?

(a) 2.3%

(b) 3.2%

(d) 5%

Ans. (a)

2. India- built remote sensing satellite Bhaskara II was put into space with the help of

(a) an intercosmos rocket from a soviet cosmodrome

(b) an SLV-3 rocket from Thumba

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

3. Which one of the following is known as the Pearl City?

(a) Cochin

(b) Tuticorin

(d) Rameshwaram

Ans. (b)

4. In which of the following places is India’s second satellite launching station being developed?

(a) Sriharikota

(b) Trombay

(d) Vishakhapatnam

(e) Balasore

Ans. (e)

5. The highest number of tribal population in Tamil Nadu is

(a) Todas

(b) Irulas

(d) Malayalis

Ans. (a)

6. Kukis belong to which state?

(a) Nagaland

(b) Tripura

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

(e) Mizoram

Ans. (c)

7. Which one of the following pairs is not correct?

(a) Sriharikota – India’s satellite launching centre

(b) Bangalore – India’s space application centre

(d) SLV-3 – India’s four stage rocket

Ans. (c)

8. In Mizoram, the settlement pattern is mostly of ‘linear type’ along the ridges because

(a) the ridges are cooler than the valleys

(b) the valleys are densely forested

(d) accessibility is easier on the ridge tops

Ans. (c)

9. The first district in India to have telephones in all its villages is

(a) Dakshina Kannada

(b) Nellore

(d) Ahmednagar

Ans. (a)

10.The city of Surat is situated on the bank of the river

(a) Krishna

(b) Kaveri

(d) Godavari

Ans. (c)
11. What does Yugoslavia mean?
a. The land of the rising sun
b. The land of the midnight sun
c. The land of the Southern Slavs
d. The land of Yahoos
Ans. C

12. Which state of USA was once part of Russia?
a. Alaska
b. Louisiana
c. Florida
d. California
Ans. A

13. What did the Greeks call the present day Amu River in Iran?
a. Indus
b. Ganges
c. Jhelum
d. Oxus
Ans. D

14. Which of these is not a metal?
a. Gold
b. Diamond
c. Silver
d. Copper
Ans. B

15. Who won Wimbledon Men’s Singles Championship in 2011?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. Andy Roddick
c. Roger Federer
d. Novak Djokovic
Ans. D

16. Who won the Olympic Gold Medal for hockey in 1980 Moscow Olympics?
a. India
b. UK
c. USA
d. USSR
Ans. A

17. What name was taken by Cardinal Joseph Sarto when he became pope?
a. John XXIII
b. Paul VI
c. Benedict XVI
d. Pius X
Ans. D

18. How many metres is one mile?
a. 1000
b. 100
c. 1609.344
d. 1705.212
Ans. C

19. What are vertebrates that live both under water and on land called?
a. Amphibians
b. Cats
c. Grasshoppers
d. Frogs
Ans. A

20. Who is the first President of the United States of America?
a. George Washington
b. Thomas Jefferson
c. James Monroe
d. John Adams
Ans. A

21. Who was born on August 15, 1769?
a. Winston Churchill
b. Queen Victoria
c. Napoleon Bonaparte
d. George V
Ans. C

22. Which city was previously known as Salisbury?
a. London
b. Paris
c. Harare
d. New York
Ans. C

23. Who is the author of “The Namesake”?
a. Jhumpa Lahiri
b. Tennessee Williams
c. Ian Fleming
d. Salman Rushdie
Ans. A

24. What is the number of squares on a chess board?
a. 72
b. 64
c. 32
d. 48
Ans. B

25. Which city was the summer capital of India during British Rule?
a. Nainital
b. Darjeeling
c. Simla
d. Ooty
Ans. C

26. The name of which city was changed to Petrograd and Leningrad?
a. Moscow
b. Tashkent
c. Kiev
d. St. Petersburg
Ans. D

27. Which film is in Aramaic and Latin?
a. The Ten Commandments
b. Ben-Hur
c. Apocalypto
d. The Passion of the Christ
Ans. D

28. Which of the following books is not part of Pentateuch?
a. Genesis
b. Numbers
c. Ruth
d. Exodus
Ans. C

29. Which of the following countries is landlocked?
a. Brazil
b. Cuba
c. Bolivia
d. Colombia
Ans. C

30. Which language is written in five scripts?
a. Hindi
b. Urdu
c. Konkani
d. Telugu
Ans. C

31. Which British monarch in 20th century was not crowned?
a. George V
b. Edward VIII
c. George VI
d. William IV
Ans. B

32. Who was told “Beware the Ides of March.”?
a. Julius Caesar
b. Augustus Caesar
c. Mark Antony
d. Cleopatra
Ans. A

33. Which country’s postal stamps have the name Helvetia?
a. Finland
b. Iceland
c. Switzerland
d. Swaziland
Ans. C

34. Yen is the currency of which country?
a. Japan
b. China
c. Nepal
d. Bhutan
Ans. A

35. Which is the national flower of Australia?
a. Red Rose
b. Lotus
c. Tulip
d. Golden Wattle
Ans. D
36 Literacy in India according to 2011 census:
(A) 74.06 %
(B) 75.06%-Answer
(C)76.08%
(D)77.01%

37. Name of the director of the film ” The dirty picture” which got thumbs up from film critics recently:
(A) Ekta kapoor
(B) Abhinav Kashyap
(C) Gurvinder Singh
(D) Milan Luthria-Answer

38.Besides USA and France, India has a Civil Nuclear Deal with

a) Britain
b) Russia-Answer
c) Germany
d) Australia

39.Name the gene found by the neuroscientists, which could help in creating and altering memory.

a) Mpas 4
b) Npas 4-Answer
c) Npas 3
d) Mpas 2

5.Which of the following is NOT a missile developed by the Defence Research and Development. Organisation (DRDO) ?

a) Shaurya
b) Pinaka-Answer
c) Brahmos
d) Agni

40.Who is crowned Miss India Earth 2012?
A) Prachi mishra-Answer
B) Vanya mishra
C)Rochelle maria rao
D)Erica fernandez

41 Highest divident paying company
a. TCS
b. Reliance Mobile
c. ITC
d. None of these-Answer(ONGC)

42. Recently RBI changed repo rate in % :
a. 7.75%
b. 7.5%
c.8%-Answer
d.8.5%

43 Pradeep Saurabh bagged the prestigious International Indu Sharma Katha Samman-2012 for his novel…………..
a) Teesari Aankh
b) Teesri Tali-Answer
c) Teesri Manjil
d) Teesri Tasveer

44. The Union cabinet of India on 22 December 2011 approved __ percent share for minorities within the 27% OBC quota in jobs and university seats.

a) 4.5-Answer
b) 5.6
c) 3.4
d) 5
Placement Paper

LIC general awareness questions with answers,LIC aptitude, reasoning and general awareness questions with answers

1 In which year did Gandhiji start Satyagraha Movement ?
A) 1919-Answer
B) 1927
C) 1934
D) 1942

2. An ecosystem consists of