Menu Close

Category: IOB Recruitment Exam Previous Paper

IOB Recruitment Exam Previous Paper

IOB Recruitment Exam Previous Paper
1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?
(A) 13.14
(B) 12.96
(C) 12.43
(D) 13.34-Answer
(E) None of these

2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?
(A) 867.8
(B) 792.31
(C) 877.5-Answer
(D) 799.83
(E) None of these

3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921
(A)20.2
(B) 24.2-Answer
(C)23.1
(D) 19.2
(E) None of these

4.576÷ ? x114=8208
(A)8-Answer
(B)7
(C)6
(D)9
(E) None of these

5. (1024?263?233)÷(986?764? 156) =?
(A)9
(B)6
(C)7
(D)8-Answer
(E) None of these

6. ?125÷5x ?=6265
(A)1253-Answer
(B) 1250
(C)1245
(D) 1550
(E) None of these

7.(42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?
(A)7182
(B) 7269
(C)7260
(D) 7240
(E) None of these-Answer

8.384×12×2=?
(A)9024
(B) 9216-Answer
(C)6676
(D) 6814
(E) None of these

9.6534÷40÷33=?
(A)3.06
(B) 5.25
(C)4.82
(D) 6.12
(E) None of these-Answer

10. ?2704 x ?2209=?
(A)1996
(B)2444-Answer
(C)2452
(D)1983
(E)None of these

11.2536+4851??=3450+313
(A)3961
(B)4532
(C)3624-Answer
(D)4058
(E) None of these

12. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =?
(A)7512
(B) 9746
(C)6523
(D) 8024-Answer
(E) None of these

13. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750
(A)73
(B)89
(C)82
(D)75-Answer
(E) None of these

14.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=?
(A)1824-Answer
(B) 1902
(C)1829
(D) 1964
(E) None of these

15. 486+32×25?59=?
(A) 514
(B) 528-Answer
(C) 599
(D) 507
(E) None of these

16. 1827÷ 36 x ?=162.4
(A)4.4
(B)3.2-Answer
(C)2.1
(D) 3.7
(E) None of these

17. 1008÷36=?
(A)28-Answer
(B) 32.5
(C)36
(D) 22.2
(E) None of these

18. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 ?21.4+1.5=?
(A)40.04
(B) 46.18
(C)44.08-Answer
(D) 43.12
(E) None of these

19. 65%of 320+?=686
(A) 480
(B) 452
(C)461
(D) 475
(E) None of these-Answer

20. 83250÷?=74×25
(A)50
(B) 45-Answer
(C)40
(D) 55
(E) None of these

21. ?7744=?
(A)88-Answer
(B)62
(C)58
(D)78
(E)None of these

22.35%of ?=242
(A)729
(B)652
(C)693-Answer
(D)759
(E) None of these

23. 1256+4813+765=?
(A)5642
(B) 5876
(C)6788
(D) 6878
(E) None of these-Answer

24. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2
(A) 81
(C) 27
(B) 9
(D) 64
(E) None of these-Answer

25. 432+2170+35=?
(A)494-Answer
(B) 475
(C)481
(D) 469
(E) None of these

26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number?
(A) 65-Answer
(B) 52
(C) 79
(D) 63
(E) None of these

27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same time?
(A)Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300-Answer
(C)Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
(E) None of these

28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?
(A)45 cms.
(B)40 cems.
(C)50 cms.-Answer
(D)55 cms.
(E)None of these

29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54,then what will be the original number?
(A)28
(B) 48
(C)39-Answer
(D) 93
(E) None of these

30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator.If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?
(A)5/18
(B)6/13
(C)13/6
(D)7/12-Answer
(E) None of these

31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number.What is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75-Answer
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these

32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12each. What will be the percentage profit?
(A) 25
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 17-Answer
(E) None of these

33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number series given below?
25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
(A)160-Answer
(B) 140
(C)153
(D) 190
(E)None of these

34. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the following question ?
?/144= 49 /?
(A)95
(B) 76
(C)82
(D) 84-Answer
(E)None of these

35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum ofthe smallest and the largest numbers?
(A)158
(B) 148
(C)168-Answer
(D) 198
(E) None of these

36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved.
What is Ajay?s income?
(A) Rs. 60,000-Answer
(B) Rs. 80,500
(C) Rs. 60,700
(D) Rs. 70,500
(E) None of these

37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ?CRISIS? be arranged ?
(A) 150
(B) 240
(C) 120
(D) 200
(E) None of these-Answer

38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of the remaining part of the park?
(A)984 Square m-Answer
(B) 789 Square m
(C) 1014 Square m
(D) 1024 Square m
(E) None of these

39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540, then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A)47m
(B) 39m
(C)52m
(D)40m-Answer
(E) None of these

40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be fourth?
(A)4/5
(B)5/4-Answer
(C)9/5
(D)8/5
(E) 7/2

41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7 respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14 respectively. What is the difference between their ages?
(A)9 years
(B) 4 years
(C)5 years
(D) 7 years
(E) None of these -Answer

42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many days will 18 men complete the same work?
(A)16 days
(B) 20 days
(C)26 days-Answer
(D) 30 days
(E) None of these

43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?
(A)29.2 cm
(B) 28.9 cm
(C)30.8 cm-Answer
(D) 40.2 cm
(E) None of these

44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish?s share of profit ?
(A) Rs. 5,500-Answer
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 6,600
(D) As. 5,900
(E) None of these

45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are 42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?
(A)60 years
(B) 49 years-Answer
(C)45 years
(D) 58 years
(E) None of these

46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty
initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank (leakage is still there) ?
(A) 8 minutes-Answer
(B) 7 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D)15 minutes
(E) None of these

47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?
(A) Rs. 690-Answer
(B) As. 520
(C) Rs. 517.5
(D) Rs. 499.2
(E) None of these

48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25 persons, then how much would each person get?
(A) Rs. 2,54,876
(B) Rs. 2,34,68-Answer
(C) Rs. 3,74,20
(D) Rs. 1,95,62
(E) None of these

49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random, then what is the probability that only one ball is white?
(A) 71/190
(B) 121/190
(C) 91/190
(D) 93/190
(E) None of these-Answer

50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?
(A) Rs. 1,320
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs.1,150
(D) Cannot be determined-Answer
(E) None of these

IOB Reasoning Questions papers

IOB Indian Overseas Bank 2009 PO Exam Reasoning solved question papers

TEST REASONING ABILITY
Q.1.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a)Black-Answer
b)Yellow
c)Red
d)reen
e)Violet

Q.2.How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FOREIGN each of which has as manyletters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
a)None
b)One
c)TwoAnswer
d)Three
e)More than three

Q.3.Each vowel in the word JOURNEY is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet andeach consonant is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet, then the substituted lettersare arrang
ed in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the fifth from the left end?
a)D
b)K
c)O
d)T
e)None of theseAnswer

Q.4.How many such digits are there in the number 5846937 each of which is as far away from thebeginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
a)None
b)One
c)TwoAnswer
d)Three
e)More than three

Q.5.In a certain code language, ?food is good ? is written as ? ho na ta?, ? eat food regularly ? is written as? sa ta la ? and ? keep good health ? is written as ? da na ja ?. How is ?eat? written in that code language?
a)sa
b)la
c)sa or laAnswer
d)Data inadequate
e)None of these

Q.6.In a row of thirty boys, R is fourth from the right end and W is tenth from the left end. How manyboys are there between R and W?
a)15
b)16Answer
c)17
d)Cannot be determined
e)None of these

q.7.Among A, B, C, D and E each having a different weight, D is heavier than A and E and B is lighter than C. Who amongthem is the heaviest?
a)D
b)B
c)C
d)Data inadequateAnswer
e)None of these

Q.8.In a certain code CORDIAL is written as ? SPDCMBJ ?. How is SOMEDAY written in that code?
a)NPTDEBZ
b)NPTFZBE
c)TPNDZBE
d)NPTDZBEAnswer
e)None of these

Q.9.How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EMLIusing each letter onlyonce in each word?
a)One
b)TwoAnswer
c)Three
d)Four
e)More than four

Q.10.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one thatdoes not belong to that group?
a)45
b)51
c)39
d)93
e)85Answer

Q.11.What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y AB C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
a)U
b)T
c)A
d)G
e)None of theseAnswer

Q.12.If ?P? denotes ?multiplied by?; ?R? denotes ?added to?; T? denotes ?subtracted from? and ?W denotes ?divided by?, then ?? 64 W 4 P 8 T 6 R 4 =?
a)96
b)2
c)130
d)126-Answer
e)None of these

Q.13.If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the sixth, the eighth andthe ninth letters of the word HOARDINGS , which of the following will be the third letter of thatword?
If no such word can be made, give ?X? as the answer and if more than one such word canbe made, give Y as the answer.
a)G-Answer
b)I
c)S
d)X
e)Y

Q.14.In a certain code DOES is written as ? 5$3% ? and SITE is written as ? %4#3 ?. How is EDIT writtenin that code?
a)354#Answer
b)3#54
c)3$4#
d)35$#
e)None of these

Q.15.D is brother of B. M is brother of B. K is father of M. T is wife of K. How is B related to T?
a)Son
b)Daughter
c)Son or DaughterAnswer
d)Data inadequate
e)None of thes
Indian Overseas Bank English Questions

IOB Sample Paper

IOB Indian Overseas Bank Previous Years Solved Question Papers

TEST ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phraseshave been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Rural India faces serious shortages-power, water, health facilities, roads, etc.-these are known and recognized. However, the role of technology in solving these and other problems is barely acknowledged and the actual availability of technology in rural areas is marginal. The back bone of the rural economy is agriculture; which also provides sustenance to over half the country’ s population. The “green revolution” of the 1970s was, in fact, powered by the scientific work in various agricultural research institutions. While some fault the green revolution for excessive exploitation of water and land resources through overuse of fertilizers, it did bring about a wheat surplus and prosperity in certain pockets of the country.

In rural India today, there is a dire inadeq uacyof both science (i.e. knowledge) and technology (which derives from science and manifests itself in physical form). The scope to apply technology to both farm and non-farm activities in rural areas is huge, as are the potential benefits. In fact, crop yields are far lower than what they are in demonstration farms, where science and technology are more fully applied. Technologies that reduce power consumption of pumps are vital; unfortunately, their use is minimal, since agricultural power is free or largely subsidized. Similarly, there is little incentive to optimize -through technology or otherwise -water use, especially in irrigated areas (a third of total arable land), given the water rates. Post-harvest technologi es for processing and adding value could greatly enhance rural employment and incomes, but at present deployment of technology is marginal. Cold storage and cold -chains for transportation to market is of great importance for many agricultural products -particularly, fruits and vegetables but are non -existent. These are clearly technologies with an immediate return on investment, and benefits for all; the farmer, the end – consumer, the technology provider .However, regulatory and structural barriers are holding back investments.

Power is a key requirement in rural areas, for agricultural as well as domestic uses. Technology can provide reliable power at comparatively low cost in a decentralized manner. However this needs to be upgraded and scaled in a big way, with emphasis on renewable and non -polluting technologies. Reliable and low cost means of transporting goods and people is an essential need for rural areas. The bullock-cart and the tractor-trailer are present vehicles of choice. Surely, technology can provide a better, cheaper and more efficient solution? Information related to commodity prices ,agricultural practices, weather etc. are crucial for the farmer. Technology can provide these through mobile phones ,which is a proven technology however the challenge to ensure connectivity remains. Thus there is a pressing need for technology as currently economic growth-though skewed and iniquitous-has created an economically attractive market in rural India

1 According to the author, which of the following is/are the problem/s facing India’s rural population?
(A)Unavailability of health care facilities.
(B)The technological advancements which have been borrowed from abroad have not been suitably adapted to the Indian scenario.
(C)Lack of awareness about the importance of utilizing technology in the agricultural sector.
a)Only (A)
b)Only (C)
c)Both (A) & (B)
d)Both (A) & (C)-Answer
e)None of these

2 Which of the following isNOT an impact of the green revolution?
a)Over utilization of water resources
b)Application of scientific research only in demonstration farms-Answer
c)Wealth creation restricted to certain areas
d)Damage caused to land by inordinate use of fertilizers
e)Supply of wheat surpassed demand

3 Why is there no motivation to reduce power consumption?
a)Freely available renewable sources of energy
b)Governmentwill have to subsidize the cost of technology required to reduce power consumption.
c)Power distribution has been decentralized.
d)The cost of implementing power saving technology is exorbitant for the customer.
e)None of these-Answer

4 What effect will the implementation of post-harvest technologies such as cold storage have?
a)Regulatory procedures will have to be more stringent.
b)Prices of commodities like fruits and vegetables will fall since there is now a stage from spoilage.
c)Incomes of rural population will fall.
d)Pollution of the environment.
e)None of these-Answer

5 The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to ?
a)censure scientists for not undertaking research
b)criticize farmers for not utilizing experimental, low cost post harvesting technology
c)exhort the government to subsidize the cost of utilizing technology
d)promote a second green revolution
e)advocate broadening the scope of research and use of technology in agriculture-Answer

6 Which of the following is NOTtrue in the context of the passage?
(A)In recent times the benefits of science and technology have not been felt in agriculture.
(B)The currentmeans of rural transportation are ideal i.e. low cost and non -polluting.
(C)Agriculture provides livelihood to over 50 percent of the Indian population.
a)Both (A) & (B)
b)Only (B)-Answer
c)Only (C)
d)Both (A) & (C)
e)None of these

7 What has hampered investment in post-harvest technologies?
a)Cost of implementing such technology is higher than the returns
b)No tangible benefits to technology suppliers-Answer
c)Obstacles from statutory authorities-Answer
d)Rapid economic growth has drawn investors away from agriculture to more commercially viablesectors.
e)None of these

8 What is the role of mobile technology in the rural economy?
(A)It will not play a large role since the technology is largely untested.
(B)It provides opportunities for farmers to manipulate commodity prices.
(C) It will largely be beneficial since such technology is cheap.
a)Both (A) & (C)
b)Only (A)
c)Both (B) & (C)-Answer
d)Only (B)
e)None of these

9 Which of the following Is currently NOTa threat to the rural economy?
(A)Inadequate rural infrastructure such as roads.
(B)Excessive utilization of technology.
(C)Fluctuating power supply.
a)Only(C)
b)Only (A)
c)Both (B) & (C)-
d)Only (B)
e)None of these-

10 Which of the following is TRUEin the context of the passage?
(A)About 33 percent of arable land in India is irrigated.
(B)There is hardly anymotivation to utilize technology to optimize water usage among farmers.
(C)Climatic information can easily bemade available to farmers.
a)All (A), (B) & (C)
b)Both (A) & (B)
c)Only (A)
d)Both (B) & (C)
e)None of these
11 Choose the word which is most nearly theSAMEin meaning as the word printed in bold asused in the passage.
marginal
a)austere
b)severe
c)detrimental
d)adverse
e)insignificant

12 fault
a)’defect
b)offend
c)imperfect
d)blame
e)sin-

13 dire
a)pessimistic
b)alarming
c)futile
d)frightened-
e)fraudulent-

14 Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used I the passage.
potential
a)unlikely
b)incapable
c)unable
d)ineffective
e)inherent

15 iniquitous
a)immoral
b)godly-
c)virtuous
d)right
e)just

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.Find out the appropriate word in each case.
In the(16) of India’s economic boom, Indian Professional Service Firms (PSFs) from management consultancies and investment banks to advertising agencies and law firms are (17) to attract the best and the brightest talent. But to be truly successful they have to do more than that. Like PSF s around the world they need to (18) their professionals rather than see them walk out of the door in (19) of opportunities. To achieve that, companies often rely on the (20) of sprawling campuses and luxurious facilities. But none of this gets to the (21)of the problem, which is when young professionals join PSFs they have expectations which go far(22) the nature of facilities.(23)onto do creative, thought provoking work, they often find themselves engaged in doing(24) activities. They feel underutilized , which is a formula for (25) in the long term.
Q.16.
a)depth
b)stage
c)midst-Answer
d)present
e)knowledge

Q.17.
a)opposing
b)rivaling
c)partial
d)competing-Answer
e)obsessed

Q.18.
a)transition
b)retain-Answer
c)advance
d)substitute
e)restrain
Q.19.
a)obtaining
b)pursuing
c)demand
d)direction
e)search-Answer
Q.20.
a)allure-Answer
b)control
c)reward
d)perk
e)allusion
Q.21.
a)solution
b)key
c)heart-Answer
d)precedence
e)occurrence
Q.22.
a)ahead
b)beyond-Answer
c)away
d)to
e)sighted
Q.23.
a)Deciding
b)Catching
c)Keen
d)Focusing
e)Signing-Answer
Q.24.
a)pivotal
b)productive
c)optional
d)mundane-Answer
e)allied
Q.25.
a)failure-Answer
b)motivation
c)success
d)innovation
e)potential

IOB Question Papers English
IOB Bank Question Paper

Indian Overseas Bank P.O. Exam., 2009 (Held on 5-4-2009) Previous Years solved question papers of aptitude, reasoning english general awareness computer knowledge

English Language : Solved Paper

Directions?(Q. 1?15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Goldman Sachs predicted that crude oil price would hit $200 and just as it appeared that alternative
renewable energy had a chance of becoming an economically viable option, the international price of oil fell by over 70%. After hitting the all-time high of $147 a barrel, a month ago, crude oil fell to less than $40 a barrel. What explains this sharp decline in the international price of oil? There has not been any major new discovery of a hitherto unknown source of oil or gas. The short answer is that the demand does not have to fall by a very sizeable quantity for the price of crude to respond as it did. In the short run, the price elasticity of demand for crude oil is very low. Conversely, in the short run, even a relatively big change in the price of oil does not immediately lower consumption. It takes months, or years, of high oil price to inculcate habits of energy conservation. World crude oil price had remained at over $60 a barrel for most of 2005-2007 without making any major dent in demand.The long answer is more complex. The economic slowdown in the US, Europe and Asia along with dollar depreciation and commodity speculation have all had some role in the downward descent in the international price of oil. In recent years, the supply of oil has been rising but not enough to catch up with the rising demand, resulting in an almost vertical escalation in its price. The number of crude oil futures and options contracts have also increased manifold which has led to significant speculation in the oil market. In comparison, the role of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) in fixing crude price has considerably weakened. OPEC is often accused f operating as a cartel restricting output thus keeping prices artificially high. It did succeed in setting the price of crude during the 1970s and the first half of the 80s. But, with increased futures trading and contracts, the control of
crude pricing has moved from OPEC to banks and markets that deal with futures trading and contracts. It is true that most oil exporting regions of the world have remained politically unstable fuelling speculation over the price of crude. But there is little evidence that the geopolitical uncertainties in west Asia have improved to weaken the price of oil. Threatened by the downward slide of oil price, OPEC has, in fact, announced its decision to curtail output. However most oil importers will heave a sigh of relief as they find their oil import bills decline except for those who bought options to import oil at prices higher than market prices. Exporting nations, on the other hand, will see their economic prosperity slip. Relatively low price of crude is also bad news for investments in alternative renewable energy that cannot compete with cheaper and non- renewable sources of energy.

1. Why are oil importing countries relieved ?
(A) Price of crude reached $ 147 not $ 200 as was predicted
(B) Discovery of oil reserves within their own territories
(C) Demand for crude has fallen sharply
(D) There is no need for them to invest huge amounts of money in alternative sources ofenergy
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2. Which of the following factors is responsible for rise in speculation in crude oil markets ?
1. OPEC has not been able to restrict the oil output and control prices
2. The supply of oil has been rising to match demand
3. Existence of large number of oil futures and oil contracts
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. What does the phrase ?the price elasticity of demand for crude oil is very low? imply ?
(A) When the price rises the demand for crude oil falls immediately
(B) A small change in demand will result in a sharp change in the price of crude
(C) Within a short span of time the price of crude oil has fluctuated sharply
(D) Speculation in oil does not have much of an impact on its price
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

4. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage ?
1. The decline in oil prices has benefited all countries
2. Renewable energy sources are costlier than non-renewable ones
3. Lack of availability of alternative renewable energy resulted in rise in demand for crude
(A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Both 2 & 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. What has been the impact of the drop in oil prices ?
(A) Exploration for natural gas resources has risen
(B) The dollar has fallen sharply
(C) OPEC has decided to restrict its production of oil
(D) Economic depression in oil importing countries
(E) Drastic fall in demand for crude oil
Ans : (C)

6. What led to alternative energy sources being considered economically feasible ?
(A) The price of oil rose by 70 per cent while renewable energy sources are cheap
(B) Exorbitant crude oil prices made alternative energy sources an attractive option
(C) Expert predictions that the price of oil would alternately escalate and plunge sharply (D)
Evidence that no new sources of oil and gas are available
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. What does the author want to convey by citing the statistic of 2005-2007 ?
(A) The prices of crude were rising gradually so people were not alarmed
(B) The dollar was a strong currency during that period
(C) Many people turned to alternative renewable energy sources because of high oil prices
(D) If the price of oil is high for a short time it does not necessarily result in a drop in consumption
(E) People did not control their demand for fuel then which created the current economic slowdown
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following factors is not responsible for the current drop in oil prices ?
(A) Economic crisis in America, European and Asian nations
(B) Speculation in oil markets
(C) Weakening of the dollar
(D) Political stability in oil exporting countries
(E) All the above are not responsible for the current drop in oil prices
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
1OPEC was established in 1970 to protect the interests of oil importing countries
2. When demand for oil exceeds supply there is a sharp rise in price
3. Today futures trading markets set the oil prices to a large extent
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Both 1 & 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. Which of the following is the function of OPEC ?
(A) Controlling speculation in oil
(B) Ensuring profits are equally distributed to all its members
(C) Monitoring inflation in oil prices and taking necessary steps to lower it
(D) Guaranteeing political instability in oil exporting countries does not impact output
(E) Determining prices of crude oil
Ans : (E)

Directions?(Q. 11?13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. INCULCATE
(A) Modify
(B) Construct
(C) Initiate
(D) Fix
(E) Instill
Ans : (D)

12. FUELLING
(A) Incentive
(B) Supplying
(C) Stimulating
(D) Irritating
(E) Restoring
Ans : (C)

13. DENT
(A) Reduction
(B) Break
(C) Tear
(D) Breach
(E) Split
Ans : (A)

Directions?(Q. 14?15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. CONVERSELY
(A) Compatibly
(B) Similarly
(C) Likely
(D) Aligning
(E) Resembling
Ans : (B)

15. WEAKEN
(A) Powerful
(B) Nourish
(C) Intense
(D) Boost
(E) Energise
Ans : (D)

Directions?(Q. 16?20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. We have hired an advertising agency to prepare a campaign to encourage people votes.
(A) People from voting
(B) Voting for people
(C) People to vote
(D) Votes by people
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

17. During the training programme the new recruits will be briefed about how their role in the new organisation.
(A) What their roles
(B) About their role
(C) For its roles
(D) Which are their role
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

18. The equipment is in such poor condition that we have no alternative to buy new ones.
(A) Many alternative like
(B) Any alternative except
(C) No other alternative
(D) No alternative but
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

19. Since the deadline has been changed from next week to this Thursday you should give this work priority.
(A) Be given this work priority
(B) Not give priority this work
(C) Prioritised this work
(D) Priority this work
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

20. After the success of our project we have been receiving more requests than we do not have the resources to handle them.
(A) Many requests but
(B) Most of the requests
(C) More requests that
(D) Too many requests
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

Directions?(Q. 21?25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D).One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ?All correct? as your answer.
21. The document (A) he gave me was long and complicated (B) and I struggled (C) to understand (D) it. All correct (E)

Ans : (E)
22. We shall have to await (A) and see if these measures (B) are sufficient (C) to address (D)the problem. All correct (E)

Ans : (A)
23. They are negotiating (A) to try and reach (B) an agreement which will beneficial (C) everyone concerned. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (C)
24. The company has decided (A) to allott (B) a substantial (C) portion (D) of its profits to research and development. All correct (E)

Ans : (B)
25. It remains (A) to be seen whether (B) these reforms (C) will be acceptable (D) by the Board. All correct (E)

Ans : (D)

Directions?(Q. 26?30) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) For instance, if we measure the room temperature continuously and plot its graph with time on Xaxis and temperature on the Y-axis,we get a continuous waveform, which is an analog signal.Analog is always continuous.
(2) The absence or presence of something can be used to plot a digital signal.
(3) An analog signal is a continuously varying signal, similar to a sinusoidal waveform.
(4) Any signal can be classified into one of the two types : analog and digital.
(5) In contrast, a digital signal takes the form of pulses,where we have something or nothing.
26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)
27. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
29. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)
Directions?(Q. 31?40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. He has taken care to (A) / compliance with the norms (B) / so he expects the proposal (C)/ to be approved without delay. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)
32. Under the terms of the new deal (A) / the channel can broadcast (B) / the next cricket tournament to be (C) / played among India and Australia. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)
33. Our equipment gets damage (A) / very often in summer (B) / because there are (C) /frequent power cuts. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (A)
34. We have received many (A) / of the letters from customers (B) / asking us to extend (C) /the deadline to repay their loans. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)
35. Since I had lived there (A) / for many years the villagers (B) / were very comfortable talked (C) / to me about their problems. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)
36. We have been under (A) / a lot of pressure to (B) / open fifty new stores (C) / by the ending of the year. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)
37. The government has (A) / launched many creative schemes (B) / to make banking services(C) / available to everyone. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (E)
38. The company is in debt (A) / and has been unable (B) / to pay their employees? salaries (C) / for the past six months. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)
39. This is turned out to be (A) / one of our most successful projects (B) / and we have made quite (C) / a large profit from it. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (A)
40. A non banking financial company is a (A) / financial institution similarly to a bank (B) / but itcannot issue (C) / cheque books to customers. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)

Directions?(Q. 41?50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested,one of whichfits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.On October 2, 1983 the Grameen Bank Project …(41)… the Grameen Bank. We invited the Finance Minister to be the Chief Guest at our …(42)… ceremony. But when the Ministry came to …(43)… that the ceremony would take place in a remote district, they said it would not be an …(44)… place to launch a Bank and that the ceremony should be …(45)… in Dhaka so that all the top Government Officials could …(46)… We stood firm and …(47)… to them that we did not work in urban areas so it
made no …(48)… to have the ceremony in a city …(49)… we had no borrowers. We had the ceremony in a big open field with the Finance Minister present as Chief Guest. For all of us who had worked so hard to …(50)… this it was a dream come true.

41. (A) reorganised
(B) merged
(C) named
(D) converted
(E) became
Ans : (E)

42. (A) opening
(B) closing
(C) dedicated
(D) inaugurate
(E) induction
Ans : (A)

43. (A) reveal
(B) know
(C) aware
(D) inform
(E) acquaint
Ans : (B)

44. (A) excellent
(B) available
(C) inauspicious
(D) appropriate
(E) obvious
Ans : (D)

45. (A) invited
(B) assembled
(C) done
(D) shifted
(E) held
Ans : (E)

46. (A) present
(B) accompany
(C) attend
(D) involve
(E) entertain
Ans : (C)

47. (A) apologised
(B) told
(C) explained
(D) denied
(E) refused
Ans : (C)

48. (A) difference
(B) sense
(C) difficulty
(D) meaning
(E) point
Ans : (B)

49. (A) where
(B) while
(C) that
(D) however
(E) which
Ans : (A)

50. (A) obey
(B) achieve
(C) discover
(D) built
(E) perform
Ans : (B)
Indian Overseas Bank Computer Kowledge-GK
IOB Placement Paper

Indian Overseas Bank IOB 2013 Recruitment of probationary officers Written Test Pattern and Selection Procedure

Computer Knowledge Questions for bank examinations

1.Which of the following is the product of data processing
a. information-Answer
b. data
c. software program
d. system

2.The process of putting data into a storage location is called
a. reading
b. writing-Answer
c. controlling
d. hand shaking

3.The process of copying data from a memory location is called
a. reading-Answer
b. writing
c. controlling
d. booting

4.A list of instructions used by a computer is called
a. program-Answer
b. CPU
c. text
d. output

5.The CPU consists of
a.input, output and processing
b.control unit, primary storage and secondarystorage
c.Control unit; arithmetic logic unit and primary storage-Answer
d.input, processing and storage

6.Which of the following is true about primarystorage
a. it is a part of the CPU
b. It allows very fast access to data
c. It is relatively more expensive
d. all of the above-Answer

7.Which of the following is the most powerful type of the computer
a. main frame
b. super conductor
c. micro computer
d. super computer-Answer

8.Software instruction intended to satisfy a user’s specific processing needs are called
a. system software
b. process software
c. documentation
d. application software-Answer

9.The computer device primarily used to provide hardcopy is the
a. CRT
b. line printer-Answer
c. computer console
d. card reader

10.Which one of the following can produce the final product of machine processing in a form usable by humans
a. storage
b. control
c. input device
d. output device-Answer

11.The term ‘memory’ applies to which one of the following
a. logic
b. storage-Answer
c. input device
d. output device

12.A program written in machine language is called…….. program.
a. object-Answer
b. computer
c. assembler
d. high level

13.A source program is the program written in ……….language.
a. English
b. symbolic
c. high level-Answer
d. object

14.A typical modern computer uses
a. magnetic cores for secondary storage
b. LSI chips-Answer
c. magnetic tape for primary memory
d. more than 10,000 vaccum tubes

15.A collection of 8 bits is called
a. byte-Answer
b. record
c. word
d. nibble

16.General purpose computers are those that can be adopted to countless uses simply by changing its
a. output device
b. input device
c. processor
d. program-Answer

17.The current generation of computers
a. second
b. fifth
c. fourth-Answer
d. third

18.Non volatility is an important advantage of
a. CCDs
b. magnetic tapes and disks
c. magnetic bubbles
d. both b and c-Answer

19.To implement all functions of the basic logic functions, it needs
a. OR gate
b. NOT gate
c. AND and NOT gates-Answer
d. None of these

20.In the binary number 110.101, the fractional part has the value
a. 0.625-Answer
b. 0.125
c. 0.875
d. 0.5

21.The fastest type of memory is
a. tape-Answer
b. semiconductor memory
c. disk
d. bubble mem

22 Which of the following statements is wrong
a. magnetic core memory, RAMs and ROMs have constant access time
b .magnetic tape is non volatile
c. semiconductor memories are used as mass memory medium-Answer
d. An EPROM can be programmed, erased and reprogrammed by the user with an EPROM programming instrument

23 The memory which is programmed at the time it is manufactured is
a. ROM-Answer
b. RAM
c. PROM
d. EPROM

24 Which memory is non volatile and may be written only once.
a. RAM
b. EE-PROM
c. EPROM
d. PROM-Answer

25The fastest type of memory is
a. tape
b. semiconductor memory-Answer
c. disk
d. bubble memory

26 In magnetic disks data is organized on the platter in a concentric sets or rings called
a. sector
b. track-Answer
c. head
d. block

27 When we move from the outer most track to the innermost track in a magnetic disk, the density
a. increases-Answer
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. either remains constant or decreases

28 Which of the following device can be used to directly input printed text
a. OCR-Answer
b. Mouse
c. MIC
d. Joystick

29 Which device can draw continuous lines
a. daisy wheel
b. plotter-Answer
c. chain printer
d. impact printer

30 In which storage device, recording is done by burning tiny pits on a circular disk
a. punched cards
b. floppy disk
c. magnetic tape
d. optical disk-Answer

31 Which of the following printers uses light beam and electrostatically sensitive black powder
a. dot matric printer
b. daisy wheel printer
c. chain printer
d. laser printer-Answer

32 The primary purpose of an operating system is
a. to make the most efficient use of the computer hardware-Answer
b. to allow people to use the computer
c. to keep system programmers employed
d. to make computers fast.

33 The operating system manages
a. memory
b. processor
c. disk and I/O devices
d. all of the above-Answer

34 Which of the following translator program converts assembly language program to objectprogram
a. assembler
b. compiler-Answer
c. macroprocessor
d. linker

35 Scheduling is
a. allowing job to use the processor-Answer
b. unrelated performance considerations
c. quiet simple to implement, even on large main frames
d. the same regardless of the purpose of the system

36.Which of the following items is not used in LAN
a. computers
b. modem-Answer
c. printer
d. cable

37.Which is the device that converts compuer output into a form that can be transmitted over a telephone line
a. teleport
b. multiplexer
c. concentrator
d. modem-Answer

38.What is the commonly used unit for measuring the speed of data transmission
a. bytes per second
b. bits per second
c. baud
d. either b or d-Answer

39.A kilobyte also referred to as KB, is equal to
a. 1000 bytes
b. 1024 bytes-Answer
c. 2048 bytes
d. 512 bytes

40. Inputs to your computer is accomplished using the
a. Screen
b. keyboard-Answer
c. printer
d. plotter

41.Which of the following is not used as secondary storage
a. Semiconductor memory-Answer
b. magnetic disks
c. magnetic drums
d. magnetic tapes

42.A collection of wires that connects several device is called
a. link
b. bus-Answer
c. cable
d. port

43.A offline device is
a. a device which is not connected to CPU-Answer
b. a device which is connected to CPU
c. a device which is in breakdown stage
d. None of these

44.Which of the following is the fastest
a. CPU-Answer
b. magnetic tapes and disks
c. video terminal
d. sensors, mechanical controllers

45.Memories in which any location can be reached in a fixed and short amount of time after specifying its address is called
a. sequential access memory
b. random access memory-Answer
c. secondary memory
d. mass storage

46.The register which contains the data to be written into or read out of the addressed location is known as
a. index register
b. memory address register
c. memory data register-Answer
d. program counter

47.The register which keeps track of the execution of a program and which contains the memory address of the next instruction to be executed is known as
a. index register
b. instruction register
c. memory address register
d. program counter-Answer

48.Which of the following is used as storage locations both in the ALU and in the control section of a computer
a. accumalator
b. register-Answer
c. adder
d. decoder

49.Accumulator is a
a. hardwired unit
b. sequential circuit
c. finite state machine
d. register-Answer

50.Which of the following memory is volatile
a. RAM-Answer
b. ROM
c. EPROM
d. PROM