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Indian Air force model question paper for practice

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1. The expression (1 + tan x + tan2 x) (1 – cot x + cot2 x) has the positive values for x, given by

(a) 0 = x = p

(b) 0 = x = p/2

(c) ? x Î R (Ans)

(d) x = 0

Solution : Now, (1 + tan x + tan2 x) (1 – cot x + cot2 x)

= (1 + tan x + tan2 x) (1 + tan2 x – tan x) / tan2 x

= (1 + tan2 x)2 – tan2 x / tan2 x

Since, (1 + tan2 x)2 > tan2 x ? x Î R

Hence, given expression is always positive.

2. The period of the function f(x) = sin px/2 + 2cos px/3 – tan px/4 is

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 12 (Ans)

Solution : Given f(x) = sin px/2 + 2cos px/3 – tan px/4

Period of sin px/2 = 2p/p/2 = 4

Period of cos px/3 = 2p/p/3 = 6

Period of tan px/4 = p/p/4 = 4

? Period of f(x) = LCM (4, 6, 4) = 12

3. If in a ? ABC cos A + 2 cos B + cos C = 2, then a, b, c are in

(a) HP

(b) GP

(c) AP (Ans)

(d) AGP

Solution : Given, cos A + 2 cos B + cos C = 2

? cos A + cos C = 2 (1 – cos B)

? 2 cos (A + C / 2) cos (A – C / 2) = 4 sin2 B/2

? 2 cos (A – C / 2) = 4 sin B/2

? 2 cos B/2 cos (A – C / 2) = 2 (2 sin B/2 cos B/2)

? 2 sin (A + C / 2) cos (A – C / 2) = 2 sin B

? sin A + sin C = 2 sin B

? a + c = 2b (by sine rule’s)

4. The set of values of a such that a2 – 6 sin x – 5a = 0, ? x is

(a) [-1, 6]

(b) [2, 3] (Ans)

(c) (-1, 6)

(d) None of these

Solution : Given, a2 – 6 sin x – 5a = 0

? a2 – 5a / 6 = sin x

? a2 – 5a / 6 = – 1

? a2 – 5a + 6 = 0

? (a – 2) (a – 3) = 0

? a Î [2, 3] .

5. cos 1700. cos 1500. cos 1300. cos 1100 is equal to

(a) 1/16

(b) 3/16 (Ans)

(c) 5/16

(d) 7/16

Solution : cos 1700. cos 1500. cos 1300. cos 1100

= cos 100. cos 300. cos 500. cos 700

= v3/4 cos 500 (cos 800 + cos 600)

= v3/8 (cos 1300 + cos 300 + cos 500) = 3/16

6. A flag staff stands in the centre of a rectangular field whose diagonal is 1200 m and subtends angles 150 and 450 at the mid points of the sides of the field. The height of the flag staff is

(a) 200 m

(b) 300 v2 + v3 m

(c) 300 v2 – v3 m (Ans)

(d) 400 m

Solution : Let OP be the flag staff of height h standing at the centre O of the field.

image – Practice Paper – Mathematics – Ans No. 06

In ? OEP, OE = h cot 150 = h (2 + v3)

and in ? OFP, OF = h cot 450 = h

? EF = h v1 + (2 + v3)2

= 2h v2 + v3

? 2EF = 4h v2 + v3

? 1200 = 4h v2 + v3 [? 2EF = BD]

? h = 300/v2 + v3

= 300 v2 – v3 m

7. The domain of definition of the function f(x) = 3e vx2-1 log (x – 1) is

(a) (-8, -1) È (1, 8)

(b) [-1, 8]

(c) (1, 8) (Ans)

(d) None of these

Solution : Given, f(x) = 3e vx2-1 log (x – 1)

For f(x) to be defined

x2 – 1 = 0 and x – 1 > 0

? – 1 = x or x = 1 and x > 1

? x Î (1, 8)

8. The function f : (-8, -1] ? (0, e5] defined by f(x) = ex3 – 3x + 2 is

(a) One-one into (Ans)

(b) one-one onto

(c) many-one onto

(d) many-one into

Solution : Given, f(x) = ex3 – 3x + 2

Let g(x) = x3 – 3x + 2

? g'(x) = 3×2 – 3 = 3 (x2 – 1)

For xÎ (-8, -1], g'(x) = 0

? g(x) is an increasing function.

We know as x is increasing, ex is increasing.

? f(x) is an increasing function.

? f(x) is one-one function.

For xÎ(-8, -1], range of f(x) is (0, e4)

But it is given (0, e5), therefore it is into function.

9. Out of 800 boys in a school, 224 played in cricket, 240 played hockey and 336 played basketball, of the total 64 played both basketball and 40 played cricket and hockey, 24 played all the three games. The number of boys who did not play any game is

(a) 128

(b) 160 (Ans)

(c) 216

(d) 240

Solution : Given n(C) = 224, n(H) = 240, n(B) = 336,

n(B Ç H) = 64, n(H Ç C) = 40, n(C Ç H Ç B) = 24

? n(Cc Ç Hc Ç Bc) = n[(C È H È B)c]

= n (U) – n(C È H È B)

= 800 – [n(C) + n(H) + n(B) – n(H Ç C) – n(H Ç B) – n(C Ç B) + n(C Ç H Ç B)]

= 800 – [224 + 240 + 336 – 64 – 80 – 40 + 24]

= 800 – 640 = 160

10. The relation R defined on the set N of natural numbers by x Ry ? 2×2 – 3xy + y2 = 0 is

(a) symmetric but not reflexive

(b) only symmetric

(c) not symmetric but reflexive (Ans)

(d) None of the above

Solution : x R x ? 2×2 – 3x . x + x2 = 0

? 0 = 0

? R is reflexive.

(ii) At x = 1,

2(1)2 – 3(1) . y + y2 = 0

? y2 – 3y + 2 = 0

? c1, 2

At x = 2,

2(2)2 – 3(2)y + y2 = 0

? y2 – 6y + 8 = 0

? y = 4, 2

? 1 R 2 ? 2 R 1

? R is not symmetric.

11. The root of the equation 1 + z + z3 + z4 = 0 are represented by the vertices of

(a) a square

(b) an equilateral triangle (Ans)

(c) a rhombus

(d) None of the above

Solution : Given, 1 + z + z3 + z4 = 0

? 1(1 + z) + z3 (1 + z) = 0

? (1 + z)(1 + z3) = 0

? z = – 1, z3 = – 1

? z = – 1, z = – 1, 1 ± v3 i / 2

? z = – 1, – w2, -w

Let A(z) = – 1, B(z) = – w2 and C(z) = – w

Now, AB = |-1 + w2| = |w2(w – 1)|

= |w2||w – 1| = |w – 1|

BC = |w2 – w| = |w||w – 1| = |w – 1|

CA = |w – 1|

? AB = BC = CA

12. If f(z) = 7 – z / 1- z2, where z = 1 + 2i, then |f(z)| is equal to

(a) (|z|) / 2 (Ans)

(b) |z|

(c) 2|z|

(d) None of these

Solution : Given, f(z) = 7 – z / 1- z2, where z = 1 + 2i

Now, |z| = v1 + 4 = v5

? f(z) = 7 – (1 + 2i) / 1 – (1 + 2i)2

= 6 – 2i / 1 – (1 + 4 + 4i)

= 3 – i / -2 – 2i

? |f(z)| = |3 – i / 2 + 2i| = v9 + 1 / v4 + 4

= v10 / 2v2 = v5/2 = |z| / 2

13. The number of solutions of |[x] – 2x| = 4, where [x] is the greatest integer = x is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4 (Ans)

Solution : Given, |[x] – 2x| = 4

If x = nÎI

? |n – 2n| = 4 ? |n| = 4

? n = ± 4

If x = n + k, nÎI and 0 < k < 1

then |n – 2 (n + k)| = 4

? |- n – 2 k| = 4.

It is possible, if k = 1/2. Then,

|- n – 1| = 4 ie n + 1 = ± 4.

? n = 3, – 5

Hence, number of solutions are 4

14. If both the roots of the equation x2 – ax + 2 = 0 lie in the interval (0, 3), then a lies in

(a) (-1, -3)

(b) (-2, 7)

(c) (-11/3, -2/v2)

(d) None of these (Ans)

Solution : Given, x2 – ax + 2 = 0

(i) D = a2 – 4(2) > 0

? a < – 2 v2 or a > 2 v2

(ii) – B2 / 2A = a/2 Î (0, 3)

? a Î (0, 6)

(iii) f(0) = 2 > 0

and f(3) = 9 – 3a + 2 > 0

? a < 11/3

From Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get 2v2 < a < 11 / 3

15. If the roots of the equation 1/ x + p + 1/ x + q = 1/r are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign, then the product of the roots will be

(a) p2 + q2 / 2

(b) – (p2 + q2) / 2 (Ans)

(c) p2 – q2 / 2

(d) – (p2 – q2) / 2

Solution : Given equation can be rewritten as

x2 + x (p + q – 2r) + (pq – pr – qr) = 0 ……..(i)

Let roots are a and – a.

? Sum, a – a = – p + q – 2r / 1

? r = p + q / 2

Product a (-a) = pq – p + q / 2 (p + q)

= – 1/2 {(p + q)2 – 2pq}

= – (p2 + q2) / 2
Placement Paper

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Direction (Q.1-5) (i) In this section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are marked in three separate parts and each one is labelled a, b and c. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any marked part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the marked parts a, b or c indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter d will signify a ‘No error’ response. (ii) You have to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet (If you indicate more than one response, Your answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed. (iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

1. You are welcome to join us for dinner(a),/as such it is(b) /we are only having soup and bread (c)/No error (d)
Ans : b
2. The entire locality(a)/ has been effected by (b)/the new motor way(c)/No error(d).
Ans : b
3. The rock star turned his back(a)/ at his family(b) /when he became famous (c)/ No error (d).
Ans : b
4. Neelam wanted to be actress, (a)/but her father soon(b)/nipped that idea in the bud(c)/No error(d).
Ans : a
5. The team’s captain lobbed(a)/the ball over her opponent’s head(c)/to the back of the court(c)/No error(d).
Ans : d

Direction (Q.6-9) In each of the following items, a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words . Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
6. SCOTCH : RUMOUR
(a) Spread : Gossip
(b) Broach : Topic
(c) Quash : Riot Ans
(d) Restrain : Effusive

7. DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM
(a) Distract : Attention
(b) Mute : Sound Ans
(c) Decrepit : Demolition
(d) Reverse : Direction

8. INDIGENT : WEALTH
(a) Contented : Happiness
(b) Apologetic : Deny
(c) Marathon : Stamina
(d) Emaciated : Nourishment Ans

9. INFALLIBLE : ERROR
(a) Intolerable : Defect
(b) Invulnerable : Emotion
(C) Irreversible : Cure
(d) Impeccable : Flaw Ans

Direction (Q.10-19) In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence in each case.
10. With rise
P : like Bangladesh would experience severe flooding and erosion of land
Q : in sea levels now
R : island countries like the Maldives and low-lying coastal countries
S : an unequivocal cetainly
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) QPRS
(b) RSQP
(c) QSRP Ans
(d) RPQS

11. In medicine
P : Mind, emotions, social environment and spirit
Q : often ignored a holistic perspective, that is the body’s interaction with
R : the emphasis has tended
S : to focus on the human body, but it has
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) QPSR
(b) RSQP Ans
(c) RPSQ
(d) QSPR
12. Climatologists are
P : the earth as a whole is becoming warmer
Q : Antarctica would seem to be bucking the trend
R : and largely due to incr
Placement Paper

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Test No. 1

1. Write the next number in the series. 16, 13, 17, 12, 18, 11, …..

(a) 12

(b) 19 (Ans)

(c) 22

(d) 14

(e) None

Ans : See the alternate numbers.

2. If ‘APPEAR’ is coded as ‘PAEPRA’, then ‘PROVIDENCE’ can be coded as

(a) PROIVEDNLNE

(b) PROVPINECE

(c) RPVODINEEC (Ans)

(d) EORIVEOCEP

(e) None

Ans : The word ‘APPEAR’ has been coded by interchanging the two letters at a time. Hence PROVIDENCE is coded as in (C)

3. Find the next number in the series : 1, 4, 9, 61, 52, …. ?

(a) 63 (Ans)

(b) 50

(c) 55

(d) 70

(e) None

Ans : 12 = 1; 22 = 4; 32 = 9; 42 = 16. Now reversed 16 and is written as 61, 52 = 25 if reversed you get 52; the first three being single digits which even if reversed will be the same numbers.

4. If 2 * 8 = 4, 3 * 15 = 5, 4 * 24 = 6 then 5 * 40 = ?

(a) 10

(b) 8 (Ans)

(c) 6

(d) 14

(e) None

Ans : 8 ÷ 2 = 4, 15 ÷ 3 = 5, 24 ÷ 4 = 6. Hence 40 ÷ 5 = 8

5. I am seventh in the queue from either end. How many people are there in the queue ?

(a) 10

(b) 11

(c) 13 (Ans)

(d) 14

(e) None

6. Write the next number in the series : 2, 6, 9, 12, 16, 18, …….

(a) 24

(b) 23 (Ans)

(c) 32

(d) 28

(e) None

Ans : See alternate numbers.

7. Insert the missing number :

2 5 7

4 7 5

3 6

(a) 12

(b) 4

(c) 8

(d) 6 (Ans)

(e) None

Ans : See the vertical rows 2 + 4 ? 3, 5 + 7 ? 6, 7 + 5 ? 6,
2 2 2

8. A cowherd had 19 cows. All but eight died. How many will he have left ?

(a) 7

(b) 11

(c) 8 (Ans)

(d) 9

(e) None

9. The Twenty First Century will start on Ist January in the year

(a) 2001 (Ans)

(b) 2000

(c) 2101

(d) 2100

(e) None

10. Complete the series : 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, …. ?

(a) 24 (Ans)

(b) 22

(c) 18

(d) 14

(e) None

Ans : Here the difference between the successive numbers is 4. Hence, ? = 20 + 4 = 24

11. Complete the series : 23, 27, 49, ?, 72, 32

(a) 88

(b) 90

(c) 92

(d) 94 (Ans)

(e) None

12. Complete the series : 240, 240, 120, 40, ?, 2

(a) 6

(b) 8

(c) 10 (Ans)

(d) 20

(e) None

13. If JOEJB means INDIA then BSNZ means

(a) BASF

(b) ARMY (Ans)

(c) KRAL

(d) CTOA

(e) None

14. Supply the missing figure 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, …..

(a) 42 (Ans)

(b) 38

(c) 46

(d) 56

(e) None

Ans : The series has difference of 4, 6, 8, 10 and so on. Hence the missing number must be 42.

15. Find out the ODD pair :

(a) Nice – good

(b) Heavy – light (Ans)

(c) Bulky – fat

(d) Sturdy – Healthy

(e) None

16. Find out the ODD pair :

(a) 3 – 9 (Ans)

(b) 4 – 16

(c) 6 – 36

(d) 8 – 64

(e) 2 – 4

17. The sum of any 4 consecutive even numbers is divisible by a number. Can you find out the correct choice ?

(a) by 6

(b) by 8

(c) by 4 (Ans)

(d) by 3

(e) None

18. Which is the number if it comes to 15 when divided by 4 and added by 9 ?

(a) 21

(b) 26

(c) 24 (Ans)

(d) 22

(e) None

19. 36 is to 4 as 9 is to

(a) 27

(b) 1 (Ans)

(c) 5

(d) 18

(e) None

20. 91 : 7 : :

(a) 10 : 3

(b) 21 : 9

(c) 13 : 1 (Ans)

(d) 15 : 7

(e) None
Placement Paper
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AFCAT Logical Reasoning Test No. 2

1. Given below are some paragraphs. At the end of each paragraph are conclusions which could/could not be drawn from what has been stated in the paragraph. Mark the right conclusions as follows :

A) Definitely True

B) Probably True

C) Cannot Say

D) Probably False

E) Definitely False

(I) A good part of the untaxed income of the Indian farmers is certainly being invested in the accumulation of farm capital: In other words, to the extent that the farmers could finance from their internal resources part of their own requirements of capital, the need for state providing for this purpose out of its resources for development finance is reduced.

1. Farmers should not be taxed as it will hamper the accumulation of capital A B C D E
Ans : A

2. Government must provide finance to farmers
A B C D E
Ans : A

3. Need for farm finance is maximum in India
A B C D E
Ans : C

4. The author of the paragraph favours taxation of farmers
A B C D E
Ans : E

5. Government is spending a huge amount on development
A B C D E
Ans : B

(II) There are many schemes included in the Indian plans of the local bodies which need a large volume of unskilled and semi-skilled schemes, afforestation, soil conservation, road development, etc., which can be done with more of labour and less of capital. The assignment of such works can be entrusted to labour co-operatives so that the workers who live in a particular area can take the contract on their own without the intervention of professional contractors.

6. Indian planning is aimed at increasing employment
A B C D E
Ans : A

7. There is a huge backlog of unemployment of semi-skilled workers in India A B C D E
Ans : B

8. Most of the schemes adopted under out plans are labour intensive
A B C D E
Ans : A

9. We should encourage the implementation of labour intensive techniques
A B C D E
Ans : C

10. Labour intensive projects should be assigned to labour co-operative with a view to increasing employment A B C D E
Ans : A

(III) Experience is crystallized out of the abortive and successful efforts of a man. As such, experience serves as a guide and a guardian, experience even injects moral attitudes and fine qualities. Man’s only advantages are some pitfalls, snags if the previous efforts prove abortive. Mere experience without judgement and intention is of no avail. Even if a person is supposed to gain some working knowledge through it, the man must be sensitive enough to record his reactions.

11. Man is superior to animals
A B C D E
Ans : A

12. Experience without judgement is useless
A B C D E
Ans : A

13. Only a sensitive man can gain from experience
A B C D E
Ans : A

14. Experience helps to obviate some snags
A B C D E
Ans : A

15. Practice makes a man perfect
A B C D E
Ans : C

2. In deriving some conclusions it is important to distinguish between strong and weak arguments. On basis of this, mark the answer for the following questions.

A) Only I is a strong argument

B) Only II is a strong argument

C) Both I and II are strong arguments

D) Either I or II is a strong argument

E) Neither I nor II is a strong argument

16. Should censorship be imposed on films in India ?

(i) Yes, otherwise, unscrupulous producers will exploit the situation to their advantage

(ii) No, as it is not imposed in the Western Countries

A B C D E
Ans : A

17. Should India drop its policy of non-alignment ?

(i) Yes, the situation in the world has changed and India can no longer afford to remain complacent

(ii) No, it is the best policy which India can pursue

A B C D E
Ans : A

18. Should caste-based reservation policy for SCs be dropped ?

(i) Yes, it is not benefiting the actually deserving

(ii) No, it is not easy to find out the actually deserving

A B C D E
Ans : B

19. Is caste-based reservation policy harmful for the nation ?

(i) Yes, it is an attack o the brilliance of others

(ii) No, it helps providing equality of opportunity to all

A B C D E
Ans : A

20. Will the adult education programme benefit the nation ?

(i) Yes, it will make a large number of persons capable of reading and writing

(ii) No, it is just a wastage of precious resources of the country

A B C D E
Ans : A

3. Given below are some statements. On the basis of these statements some conclusions have been drawn. Mark the conclusions as follows.

A) Only I follows

B) Only II follows

C) Both I and II follow

D) Either I or II follow

E) Neither I nor II follow

21. (A) Some chairs are tables

(B) Alpine is a table
Conclusion :

(i) Alpine is a chair;

(ii) Some tables are chairs
A B C D E
Ans : B

22. (A) Sham is a parrot

(B) All dogs are parrots
Conclusion :

(i) Sham is a dog

(ii) Some parrots are dogs
A B C D E
Ans : B

23. (A) All books are men

(B) All books are women
Conclusion :

(i) All men are women

(ii) All women are men
A B C D E
Ans : E

24. (A) All mammals are vertebrates

(B) Some vertebrates are mountains

Conclusion :

(i) All vertebrates are mammals

(ii) All mountains are mammals

A B C D E
Ans : E

25. (A) “Frailty” thy name is woman

(B) Sunita is frail
Conclusion :

(i) Woman is frail

(ii) Those who are frail are women

A B C D E
Ans : C

AFCAT Air Force Common Admission Test English model question paper
Directions (Qs. 1-20): Read the following passages carefully to answer the questions that fallow each passage.
Passage-I
Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer States, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of the poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of the poor, gains in agricultural productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low income groups.

Modeling of the linkages between agricultural and industrial growth has shown that a I0 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5 per cent and urban workers.would benefit by both increased industrial employment and price deflation. However, there is a symmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non- *agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving re-allocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Interdependencies in food and labour market are
important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve.

Similarly, an upward shift in the labour I supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55-0.60 and that for cereals is 0.25-0.30. The other important inter-dependency, which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price levels a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand an increase in the food price would
increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the mostfavorable situation in India is one in which labour demand outpaces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand. Wage rate cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate.

Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work in compensated by the energy provided by food. Food grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food grains account for about four-fifth of the calorie intake of the poor.
1. Which of the following is meant by “the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate” as used in the passage?
A. People refuse to work at the minimum wage rate
B. People are eager to work at the minimum wage rate
C. People still work at the minimum wage rate
D. People have no option but to work at the minimum wage rate.
Ans.C

2. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?
A. Increase in labour productivity in agriculture can reduce poverty.
B. Agricultural sector can increase the is demand for labour forces.
C. Agricultural sector can provide the impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost.
D. All are true.
Ans.D

3. Which of the following in addition to employment output elasticity, according to the passage,creates indirect employment?
A. Inter-linkage of demand of food and other sectors.
B. Income elasticity of demand for food.
C. Inter-dependence of forces of labour supply and food demand.
D. All the above
Ans.D

4. Why, according to the passage, does lower food price stimulate employment in the Industrial and service sectors?
A. Poorer people cannot afford to buy non-food products
B. The production cost of non-agricultural products and services reduces.
C. Lower price of food items provides the poor with extra funds to buy other products and services.
D. Industrial sector can afford to employ more people at lower cost.
Ans.C

Passage—II
The lithosphere, or outer shell, of the earth is made up of about a dozen rigid plates that move with respect to one another. New lithosphere is created at mid-ocean ridges by the upwelling and cooling of magma from the earth’s interior. Since new lithosphere is continuously being created and the earth is not expanding to any appreciable extent, me question arises: what happens to the “odd” lithosphere? The answer came in the late 1960s as the last major link in the theory of sea floor spreading and plate tectonics that has revolutionized our understanding of tectonic processes, or structural deformation, in the earth and has provided a unifying theme for many diverse observations of the earth sciences. The old lithosphere is subducted, or pushed down, into the earth’s mantle (the thick shell of red-hot rock beneath the earth’s thin, cooler crust and above its metallic, partly melted
core). As the formerly rigid plate descends it slowly heats up, and over a period of millions of years it is absorbed into the general circulation of the earth’s mantle. The subduction of the lithosphere is perhaps the most significant phenomenon in global tectonics.

Subduction not only explains what happens to old lithosphere but also accounts for many of the geologic processes that shape the earth surface. Most of the world’s volcanoes and earthquakes are associated with descending lithosphere plates. The prominent island arcs chains of islands such as the Aleutians, the Kuriles, the Marianas, and the islands of Japan are surface expressions of thesubduction process. The deepest trenches of the world’s oceans, including the Java and Tonga trenches and all others associated with island arcs, mark the seaward boundary of subduction zones; Major mountain belts, such as the Andes and the Himalayas, have resulted from the convergence and subduction of lithosphere plates To understand the subduction process it is necessary to look at the thermal regime of the earth. The temperatures within the earth at first increase rapidly with depth, reaching about 1,200 degrees Celsius at a depth of 100 kilometers. Then they increase more gradually, approaching 2,000 degrees C at about 500 kilometers. The minerals in peridotite, the major constituent of the upper mantle, start to melt at about-1200 C, or typically at a depth of l00 kilometers. Under the ocean-s the upper mantle is fairly soft and may contain some molten material at depths as shallow as 80 kilometers. The soft
region of the mantle, over which the rigid lithosphere plate normally moves, is the as thenosphere. It appears that in certain areas convection currents in the as thenosphere may drive the plates, and that in other regions the plate motions may drive the convection currents Several factors contribute to the heating of the lithosphere as it descends into the mantle. First,heat simply flows into the cooler lithosphere from the surrounding warmer mantle. Since the conductivity of the rock increases with temperature, the conductive heating becomes more efficient with increasing depth. Second, as the lithosphere slab descends it is subjected to increase pressure, which introduces heat of compression. Third, the slab is heated by the radioactive decay of uranium thorium and potassium, which are present in the earths crust and add heat at a constant rate to the descending material. Fourth, heat is provided by the energy released when the minerals in the lithosphere change to denser phases, or more compact crystal structures, as they are subjected to higher pressures during descent. Finally, heat is generated by friction, shear stresses and the dissipation of viscous motions at the boundaries between the moving lithosphere plate and the surrounding mantle. Among all these sources the first and fourth contribute the most toward the heating of the descending lithosphere.

5. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true of the earths mantle?
I. It is in a state of flux
II. Its temperature far exceeds that of the lithosphere.
III. It eventually incorporates the subducted lithosphere
A. I only
B. I and III only
C. II only
D. I, II and III
Ans.D

6. It can be inferred from the passage that the author regards current knowledge about therelationship between lithosphere plate motions and the convection currents in the as thenosphere as:

A obsolete
B. derivative
C. unfounded
D. tentative
Ans.D

7. The author is most probably addressing which of the following audiences?
A. Geothermal researchers investigating the as thenosphere as a potential energy source •
B. College undergraduates enrolled in an introductory course on geology
C. Historians of science studying the origins of plate tectonic theory D. Graduate students engaged in analyzing the rate of sea—floor spreading
Ans.B

8. Which of the following is not true of the heating of the lithosphere as it is described inthe passage?
A. The temperature gradient between the lithosphere and the surrounding mantle enables heat to be transferred from the latter to the former.
B. The more me temperature of the lithosphere slab increases, the more conductive the rock itself becomes.
C. Minerals in the lithosphere slab release heat in the course of phase changes that occur during their descent into the mantle.
D. The further the lithosphere slab descends into the mantle, the faster the radioactive decay of elements within it adds to its heat
Ans.D

Passage-III
It is indisputable that in order to fulfill its many functions, water should be clean and biologically valuable. The costs connected with the provision of biologically valuable water for food production,with the maintenance of sufficiently clean water, therefore, are primarily production costs. Purely “environmental” costs seem to be in this respect only costs connected with the safeguarding of cultural, recreational and sports functions which the
water courses and reservoirs fulfill both in nature and in human settlements.

The pollution problems of the atmosphere resemble those of the water only partly. So far, the supply of air has not been deficient as was the case with water, and the dimensions of the air-shed are so vast mat a number of people still hold the opinion that air need not be economized. However, scientific forecasts have shown that the time may be already approaching when clear and biologicallyvaluable air will become problem No. 1.
Air being ubiquitous, people are particularly sensitive about any reduction in the quality of the atmosphere, the increased contents of dust and gaseous exhalations, and particularly about the presence of odours. The demand for purity of atmosphere, therefore, emanates much more from the population itself than from the specific sectors of the national economy affected by a polluted or evenbiologically aggressive atmosphere.
The households’ share in atmospheric pollution is far bigger than that of industry which, in turn further complicates the economic problems of atmospheric purity. Some countries have alreadycollected positive experience with the reconstruction of whole urban sectors on the basis of new e heating appliances based on the combustion of solid fossil fuels; estimates of the economic consequences of such measures have also been putforward.
In contrast to water, where the maintenance of purity would seem primarily to be related to the costs of production and transport, a far higher proportion of the costs of maintaining the purity of the atmosphere derive from environmental consideration. Industrial sources of gaseous and dust emissions are well known and classified; their location can be accurately identified, which makes them controllable. With the exception, perhaps, of the elimination of sulphur dioxide, technical means and technological processes exist which can be used for the elimination of all excessive impurities of the air from the various emissions.Atmospheric pollution caused by the private property of individuals (their dwellings, automobiles, etc). is difficult to control. Some sources such as motor vehicles are very mobile, and they are thus capableof polluting vast territories. In this particular case, the cost of anti-pollution measures will have to be borne, to a considerable extent, by individuals, whether in the form of direct costs or indirectly in the form of taxes, dues, surcharges etc.The problem of noise is a typical example of an environmental problem which cannot be solved only passively, i.e., merely by protective measures, but will require the adoption of active measures, i.e., direct interventions at the source. The costs of a complete protection against noise are so prohibitive as to make it unthinkable even in the economically most developed countries. At the same time it would not seen feasible, either economically or politically, to force the population to carry the costs of individual protection against noise, for example, by reinforcing the sound insulation of their homes.A solution of this problem probably cannot be found in the near future.

9. Scientific forecasts have shown that clear and biologically valuable air:
A. is likely to remain abundant for some time
B. may soon be dangerously lacking
C. creates fewer economic difficulties than does water pollution
D. may be beyond the capacity of our technology to protect
Ans.B

10. The costs involved in the maintenance of pure water are determined primarily by:
I. Production costs
II. Transport costs
III. Research costs
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
Ans.B

11. According to the passage, the problem of noise can be solved through:
I. Active measures
II. Passive measures
III, Tax levies
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
Ans.B

12. According to the passage, the costs of some anti-pollution measures will have to be borne byindividuals because:
A. individuals contribute to the creation of population
B. industry is not willing to bear its share
C. governments do not have adequate resources
D. individuals are more easily taxed than producers
Ans.C

Passage-IV
Much as an electrical lamp transforms electrical energy into heat and light, the visual ‘“apparatus” of a human being acts as a transformer of light into sight. Light projected from a source or reflected by an object enters the come a and lens of the eyeball. The energy is transmitted to the retina of the eye whose rods and cones are activated. The stimuli are transferred by nerve cells to theoptic nerve and then to the brain, man is a binocular animal, and the impressions from his two eyes are translated into sight-a rapid, compound analysis of the shape, form, colour, size, position, andmotion of the things he sees. Photometry is the science of measuring light. The illuminating engineer and designer employ photometric data constantly in this work, In all fields of applications of light and lighting, they predicate their choice of equipment, lamps, wall finishes, colours of light and
backgrounds, and other factors affecting the luminous and environmental pattern to be secured, in great part from data supplied originally by photometric laboratory. Today, extensive tables and chartsof photometric data are used widely, constituting the basis for many details of design. Although the lighting designer may not be called upon to the detailed work of making measurements or plotting data in the form of photometric curves ’ and analyzing them, an understanding of the terms used and their derivation form valuable background knowledge. The perception of colour is a complex visual sensation, intimately related to light. The apparent colour of an object depends primarily upon four factors: Its ability to reflect various colours of light, the nature of the light by which it is seen,the colour of its surroundings, and the characteristics and state of adaptation of the eye. In most discussions of colour, a distinction is made between white and coloured objects. White is the colour name most usually applied to a material that diffusely transmits a high percentage of all the hues of light. Colours that have no hue are termed neutral or achromatic colours. They include white, off—white, all shades of gray, down to black. All coloured objects selectively absorb certain wavelengths of light and reflect or transmit others in varying degrees. Inorganic materials, chiefly metals such as copper and brass, reflect light from their surfaces. Hence we have the term “surface” or “metallic” colours, as contrasted with “body” or “pigment” colours. In the former, the light reflected from the surface is often tinted. Most paints, on the other hand, have body or pigment colours. In these, light is reflected from the surface without much colour change, but the body material absorbs some
colours and reflects others; hence, the diffuse reflection from the body of the material is coloured but often appears to be overlaid and diluted with a “white” reflection from the glossy surface of the paint film. In paints and enamels, the pigment particles, which are usually opaque, are suspended in a vehicle such as oil or plastic, The particles of a dye, on the other hand are considerably liner and may ‘be` described as colouring matter in
solution. The dye particles are more often transparent or translucent

13. According to the passage, lighting engineers need not:
A. Plot photometric curves.
B. utilize photometric data
C. understand photometric techniques
D. has mathematical expertise.
Ans.A

14. The colour black.is an example of
A. a surface colour
B. an achromatic colour
C. an organic colour
D. a diffuse colour
Ans.B

15. Paint is an example of a substance containing:
A. inorganic material
B. body colours
C. surface colours
D. metallic colours
Ans.B

16. The perception of- colour is:
A. a photometric phenomenon
B. a complex visual sensation
C. activated by the brain
D. iight reflected by a source
Ans.B

Passage-V
At the Fourth World Water Forum held in Mexico City in March 2006, the l20 nation assembly could not reach consensus on declaring the right to safe and clean drinking water a human right. Millions ofpeople the world over do not have access to-potable water supply But it is good times for the bottled water industry, which is cashing in on the need for clean drinking water and the ability of urban elite to pay an exorbitant price for this very basic human need. The fortunes of this more-than $l00-billion global industry are directly related to the human apathy towards the environment the more- we pollute our water bodies, the more the sales of bottled water. It is estimated that the global consumption of bottled water is nearing 200 billion liters sufficient to satisfy the daily drinking water need of one-fourth of the Indian population or about 4.5 per cent of the global
population. In India, the per capita bottled water consumption is still quite low5less than five liters a year as compared to the global average of 24 liters. However, the total annual bottled water consumption has risen rapidly in. recent times~•it has tripled between 1999 and 2004 from about 1.5 billion liters to five billion liters; These are boom times for the Indian bottled water industry more so because the economics are sound, the bottom line is fat and the Indian government hardly cares for what happens to the nation’s water resources. India is the tenth largest bottled water consumer in the world. In, 2002, the industry had an estimated turnover of Rs.10 billion (Rs 1,000 crores). Today it is one of india’s fastest growing industrial sectors. Between 1999 and 2004 the Indian bottled water market grew at a compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of 25 percent –the highest in the world. With
never thousand-bottled water producers, the Indian bottled water industry is big by even international standards. There are more than 200 brands, nearly 80 per cent of which are local. Most of the small scale producers sell non-branded products and serve small markets. In fact, making bottled water is today a cottage industry in the country. Leave alone the metros, where a bottledwater manufacturer can befound even in a one-room shop, in everymedium and small city and even some prosperous rural areas there are bottled, water manufacturers. Despite the large number of small producers, this industry is dominated by the big players. Parle Bisleri, Coca- , PepsiCo, Parle Agro,MohanMeakins,SKN Breweries and soon Parle was the first major Indian company to enter the bottled water market in the country when it introduced Bisleri in India 25 years ago. The rise of the Indian bottled water industrybegan with the economic liberalization process in 1991. The market was virtually stagnant until 1991, when the demand for bottled water was less than two million cases a ear. However, Since1991-1992
it has not looked back, and the demand in 2004-05 was astaggering 82 million cases. Bottledwater is soldv in a variety of packages pouches ndglasses,330 ml bottles 500 ml bottles, one-liter bottles and even 20 to 50 liter ulk water packs. The formal bottled water business in Indiacan be divided broadly into three segments in terms of cost: premium natural mineral water, natural mineral water and packaged drinking water. Attracted by the huge potential that India’s vast middle class offers, multinational players such as Coca-Cola and PepsiCo have been trying for the past decade to capture the Indian bottled water market. Today they have captured a significant portion of it.

However, Parle Bisleri continues to hold 40 per cent of the market share. Kinley and Aquafina are fast catching up, with Kinley holding 20-25 per cent of the market and Aquafina approximately 10 per cent. The rest, including the smallerplayers, have 20-25 per cent of the market share, The majority of the bottling plants whether they produce bottled water or soft drinks are dependenton groundwater. They create huge water stress in the areas where they operate because groundwater is also the main source—in most places the only source—of drinking water in India. This has created huge conflict between the communityand the bottling plants. Private companies in India can siphon out, exhaust and export groundwater free because the groundwater law in the country is archaic and not in tune with the realities of modem capitalist societies. The existing law says that the
person who owns the land owns the groundwater beneath. This means that, theoretically, a person can buy one square meter of land and take all the groundwater of the surrounding areas and the law of land cannot object to it. This law is the core of the conflict between the community and the companies and the major reason for making the business of bottled water in the country highly lucrative.

17. According to the passage, which one of the following statements is not true?
A. Private companies are exploiting ground water resources in India due to outdated law.
B. The growth of Indian bottled water industry is a pre economic liberalization process.
C. Manufacturers excluding bigger players have approximately 20•25% of the market share of bottled water.
D. Bottled water production in India is a cottage industry today.
Ans.B

18. Which brand is having the largest pie in the Indian bottled water market?
A. Coca-Cola
B. Parle—Bisleri
C. PepsiCo
D. Mohan Meakins
Ans.B

19. What is/are the reason(s) for the global growth of bottled water industry?
A. Pollution of water bodies
B. Basic human need for clean drinking water
C. Paying capacity of the elite
D, All of the above
Ans.D

20. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true?
.
1. In India, the increase in total annual bottled water consumption is followed by increase in per capita bottled water consumption.
2. Indian bottled water market grew at the highest CAGR.
3. The formal bottled water business in India is divided into broadly two segments in terms of cost.
A. 1only
B. 1 and 3 both
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans.C

Directions (Qs. 101-104): Fill in the blanks with the mast appropriate alternatives.
21. It is _____ that those who expect _____ from others are seldom merciful themselves.
A. strange; sincerity
B. unpardonable; kindness
C. stupid; sympathy
D. paradoxical; clemency
Ans.D

22. Some people have the ______ for learning foreign languages but they have no _______ to speak any.
A. aptitude; interest
B. stamina; fondness
C. capacity; ability
D. compulsion; inclination
Ans.A

23. ln Buddhism, it is impossible to keep ethics and psychology _________ from one another,because they .__ at so many points.
A. aloof; merge
B. disjoin; converge
C. alien; meet
D. separate; overlap
Ans.A

24. Cholesterol has long been identified as a silent killer because the patient has no .______ of the danger freely ________ his system.
A. information; invading
B. thought; attacking
C. idea; infecting
D. inkling; traversing
Ans.D

Directions (Qs. 25-28): ln each of these questions one sentence has been split into four parts. There is an error in one part. Identify the part having the error.
25. A. A skilful advertiser may be able to create
B. not because his product is superior to
C, practically a monopoly for himself
D. but because he has succeeded in inducing people to believe that it is.
Ans.B

26. A. Whatever may be the origin of speech
B. to feel the need to speak
C. we can be certain that man did not begin
D. until he began to live in communities
Ans.A

27. A. I regret to bring to your kind notice
B. of your school, has been found to be much distressed
C. that my son Sachin Dubey of Vth Standard
D. and out of sorts for the last few days.
Ans.C

28. A. Our teeming masses, nevertheless illiterate they may be, .
B. and they are fully capable
C. have a very high sense of consciousness
D. of exercising their franchise.
Ans.A

Directions (Qs. 29-32): In each of these questions four words are given marked A, B, C and D. Two of these words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Identify those two words.
29. 1. enthralling 2. respecting3. projecting 4. alluring
A 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 2-3
D. 1-4
Ans.D

30. 1. swoop 2. perturb 3. plump 4. boil
A 1-4
B. 1-3
C. 2-3
D. 2-4
Ans.D

31. 1. fallacy 2. adage 3. dictum 4. Endorse
A. 2-4
B. 2-3
C. 3-4
D. 1-4
Ans.D

32. 1. Elevate 2. frugal 3. exult 4. lament
A 3-4
B. 2-3
C. 1-2
D. 2-4
Ans.A

Directions (Qs. 33-36): Each of these questions has a set of 3 or 4 sentences to logically convey an idea. The possible filler(s) in the middle is/are given separately as A and B. Mark the answer as:
A. if 1and 2 are to be filled in that order.
B. if only 1 is to be filled.
C. if 2 and 1 are to be filled in that order
D. if only 2 is to be filled.

33. As far as aircraft maintenance procedures are concerned, they are rigorous. (______). Such cases may end-up in disastrous results, though exceptionally.
1. All problems are immediately corrected on almost every occasion.
2. Only due to urgency or want of aircraft for substitution, certain ones are overlooked.
Ans.A

34. Auto-riding is a very fascinating hobby (_____). It is obvious that they consider the hobby more important than anything else.
1. Low or even middle income group people cannot afford it.
2. I know many people who had missed many important cases or opportunities for participation in auto-riding.
Ans.D

35. There is no doubt that we must be fair and honest in all over dealings. (_____). What you really are is less important than what you are perceived by people around you.
1. It means that perception assumes greater importance than reality.
2. But even more important is how you are perceived by others.
Ans.C

36. The admiration for those who fight against corruption in high places has always been very spontaneous amongst the common people in India, (______). They un hesitantly appreciate such acts but are afraid of openly doing so for fear of the higher ups.
1. They hold such people in high esteem who make sacrifices on principles and moral issues.
2. They make verbose speeches of admiration and appreciation of such acts.
Ans.B

Directions (Qs. 117-120): Each af these questions has a sentence scrambled and marked A, B, C, D and E. Find the correct order as one of the four alternatives. •
37.
1. in different regions of that federation.
2. that was Yugoslavia.
3. the fundamental cause has been the very large difference in the quality of life.
4. although the dismemberment of the federation.
5. is seen more as the result of an ethnic conflict.
A. 4,2,5,3,1
B, 2,3,5,4,1
C. 3,5,2,4,1
D. 1,2,4,5,3
Ans.A

38.
1. but there is some merit in it
2. as distinct from consumption
3. the bifurcation of plan and non-plan funds
4. in so far as it focuses attention on development expenses
5. in the budget is artificial
A. 4,3,1,2,5
B. 3,5.1,2,4
C. 3,4,2.5,1
D. 4,5.1,3,2
Ans.C

39.
1. like the industrialized countries
2. as if they are to be suffered as relics of a backward past
3. we have specially drawn attention to the non-motorized transport modes
4. because they are completely overlooked in transport planning
5. till replaced by faster petroleum fuelled transport
A. 4,5,1,3,2
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 3,4, 5,2,1
D. 3,4, 2, 5,1
Ans.D

40.
1. he was highly sensitive and resentful
2. towards the country or to those
3. when there was even implied discourtesy
4. while he was extremely gentle and tolerant
5. he held in honour
A. 1,3,4,2.5
B. 5,1,4,3,2
C. 4,1,3,2,5
D. 4,3,2,5,1
Ans.C
Placement Paper
AIR FORCE AFCAT General Awareness (Objective Type) Indian Polity questions with answers, AFCAT free solved sample placement papers for practice,AFCAT model questions for learn and practice,

1. Which Article of the Constitution abolishes untouchability ?

(a) Article 42

(b) Article 15

(c) Article 14

(d) Article 17 (Ans)

2. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?

(a) Prime Minister (Ans)

(b) President

(c) Home Minister

(d) Minister of Planning

3. Who was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly ?

(a) B. N. Rao

(b) Dr. Ambedkar

(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (Ans)

(d) Sachidanand Sinha

4. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the anti-defection provisions in the Constitution ?

(a) 51st Amendment

(b) 52nd Amendment (Ans)

(c) 53rd Amendment

(d) 54th Amendment

5. Which one of the following is NOT mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution ?

(a) Dignity of the individual

(b) Dignity of the Constitution (Ans)

(c) Fraternity

(d) Unity and integrity of the Nation

6. After independence, the first State organized on the basis of language is

(a) Tamilnadu

(b) Kerala

(c) Karnataka

(d) Andhra Pradesh (Ans)

7. Lame-duck session of Parliament means

(a) The first session of Parliament after the elections to the Lok Sabha

(b) The last session of Parliament before the dissolution of the Lok Sabha (Ans)

(c) The session of Parliament in which the no-confidence motion is discussed

(d) A session of Parliament, which fails to pass any Bill

8. If a no-confidence motion is passed against a Minister

(a) The concerned Minister has to resign

(b) The whole council of Ministers has to resign (Ans)

(c) The Lok Sabha has to be dissolved

(d) The Prime Minister and the concerned Minister have to resign

9. The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to

(a) Christian Community

(b) Anglo-Indian Community (Ans)

(c) Business Community

(d) Sikh Community

10. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly ?

(a) Dr. Ambedkar

(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(d) B. N. Rao (Ans)

11. Who participate in the election of the Vice-President ?

(a) Members of the Lok Sabha

(b) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha

(c) Members of the the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha (Ans)

(d) Members of Legislative Assemblies of the States

12. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy were added by 42nd Amendment ?

1. Participation of workers in the management of industry

2. Minimizing inequality of income and status

3. Protection of environment

4. Free legal aid to poor

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(a) 1, 3 and 4 (Ans)

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

13. Which of the following are the type of authority attributed to the President of India ?

(a) Real and popular

(b) Titular and de-jure

(c) Political and nominal

(d) Constitutional and nominal (Ans)

14. Which of the following provisions are NOT included in the Indian Constitution ?

1. President can suspend any of the fundamental rights during emergency

2. Prime Minister can dismiss any Chief Minister

3. States have power to amend any law of parliament on a subject in the concurrent list with the assent of the President

4. Governor can reserve any Bill for consideration by the President

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (Ans)

(d) 1 and 4

15. Which one of the following are the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha ?

(a) To introduce Money bills (Ans)

(b) To ratify the declaration of emergency

(c) To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

(d) To impeach the President

16. It is mandatory for the Governor to reserve a Bill for the consideration by the President if such a Bill affects

(a) The rate of land revenue

(b) Power of High Court (Ans)

(c) The powers of the Advocate General of the State

(d) The amount of salary paid to the Members of Legislative Assembly

17. Which is the most important reason to consider India as a Secular State ?

(a) Peoples of different religions live in India

(b) Government works for the welfare of people of all religions

(c) Religion is separated from politics

(d) Minority religions are given special protection (Ans)

18. Under Indian Constitution, the concentration of wealth violates the

(a) Directive Principles (Ans)

(b) Right to equality

(c) Right to freedom

(d) Concept of welfare state

19. Which of the following statements correctly defines the Judicial Review ?

(a) The authority of the Courts to punish political offenders

(b) The authority of the Courts to correct the errors of the Government

(c) The authority of the Courts to issue various writs

(d) The authority of the Courts to interpret the legality of laws (Ans)

20. The Doctrine that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended under Article 368 was propounded by the Supreme Court in

(a) Gopalan Vs. State of Madras

(b) Keshvanand Bharati Vs. State of Kerala

(c) Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab (Ans)

(d) Maneka Vs. Union of India

21. What was the exact Constitutional Status of the Indian Republic on January 26, 1950 ?

(a) A Democratic Republic

(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic (Ans)

(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic

(d) A Sovereign Social Secular Democratic Republic

22. Who amongst the following acts as the presiding officer of the House without being its member ?

(a) Vice-President of India (Ans)

(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(c) Chairman of the Legislative Council

(d) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

23. Who first described the Indian Political system as ‘one party dominance’ to explain the congress party’s hegemony in India ?

(a) W. H. Morris-Jones (Ans)

(b) Rajni Kothari

(c) Myron Weiner

(d) Lloyd Rudolph and Susan Rudolph

24. In which of the following lists of the Indian Constitution is the subject of ‘Population control’ and ‘family planning’ included ?

(a) Union List

(b) Concurrent List (Ans)

(c) State List

(d) Residuary List

25. Under which of the following circumstances can the President declare an emergency ?

1. External Aggression

2. Armed Rebellion

3. Government instability

4. Financial crises

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4 (Ans)

26. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can the President of India be impeached ?

(a) 356

(b) 75

(c) 76

(d) 61 (Ans)

27. The source of all political power in India lies with

(a) Parliament

(b) The Lok Sabha

(c) The people

(d) The Constitution (Ans)

28. The Supreme Court of India, enunciated the doctrine of ‘Basic structure’ of the Constitution in the

(a) Golaknath case in 1967

(b) Sajjan Singh case in 1965

(c) Shakari Prasad case in 1951

(d) Keshvanand Bharati case in 1973 (Ans)

29. Under which Five Year Plans was the introduction of Panchayati Raj suggested ?

(a) First Five Year Plan

(b) Second Five Year Plan (Ans)

(c) Third Five Year Plan

(d) Fourth Five Year Plan

30. The authority to alter the boundaries of States in India rests with

(a) State Government

(b) President

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Parliament (Ans)

31. Which of the following federal principles re found in the Indian Federation ?

1. Equal representation of States in the Second House of Parliament

2. Double citizenship

3. Bicameral Legislature at federal level

4. Independent and Impartial judiciary

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 (Ans)

(d) 1 and 3

32. Sarkaria Commission was concerned with

(a) Judicial Reforms

(b) Electoral Reforms

(c) Centre-State relations (Ans)

(d) Financial Reforms

33. The authority empowered to make laws in respect to the matters not included in any of the three lists is

(a) State Legislatures

(b) Parliament (Ans)

(c) Supreme Court

(d) President

34. Writs can be issued for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights by

(a) District Courts

(b) President

(c) The Supreme Court only

(d) Both the Supreme Court and the High Courts (Ans)

35. Who among the following was the President of Congress during independence ?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Maulana Azad (Ans)

(d) Sardar Patel

36. Which of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporate ‘Abolition of Untouchability ?

(a) The Right to religion

(b) The Right to equality (Ans)

(c) The Right against exploitation

(d) The Right to freedom

37. If the President is to resign from office, he should address his letter of resignation to

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) The Vice-President (Ans)

(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) The Chief Justice of India

38. The Rajya Sabha can take initiative in

(a) Censuring a Minister

(b) Creating a New All India Service (Ans)

(c) Considering Money Bills

(d) Appointing judges

39. The joint sitting of Indian Parliament for transacting Legislative business is presided over by

(a) The President of India

(b) The Senior most Member of Parliament

(c) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Ans)

40. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has to address his letter of resignation to

(a) Prime Minister of India

(b) President of India

(c) Dy. Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Ans)

(d) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

41. Which of the following categories of Rights does the Right to property belong ?

(a) Legal Right (Ans)

(b) Fundamental Right

(c) Human Right

(d) Natural Right

42. Seats in the Lok Sabha are NOT reserved for

(a) Scheduled castes

(b) Scheduled tribes

(c) Scheduled tribes in the Autonomous Districts of Assam (Ans)

(d) Anglo-Indians

43. Which of the following statements describes a ‘Hung Parliament’?

(a) A parliament in which no party has clear majority (Ans)

(b) The Prime Minister has resigned but parliament is not dissolved

(c) Parliament lacks quorum to conduct business

(d) A lame duck Parliament

44. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Account Committee of Indian Parliament ?

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) The President

(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Ans)

(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

45. The Fundamental duties of Indian citizens have been

(a) Originally provided by the Constitution

(b) Included in the Constitution by the 44th Amendment

(c) Included in the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment (Ans)

(d) Inserted into the Constitution by a judgment of the Supreme Court

46. Which of the following cases is related to Fundamental Rights ?

(a) State of Bombay Vs. Balsara (1951)

(b) Sharma Vs. Krishna (1959)

(c) West Bengal Vs. Union of India (1963)

(d) Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab (1967) (Ans)

47. The normal term of the Lok Sabha may be extended by

(a) An Act passed by the Parliament

(b) An Order of the Supreme Court

(c) An Order of the President of India (Ans)

(d) An Order of the Prime Minister of India

48. Freedom of Speech under the Indian Constitution is subject to reasonable restriction on the ground of protection of

(a) Sovereignty and Integrity of the country (Ans)

(b) The dignity of the office of the Prime Minister

(c) The dignity of Council of Ministers

(d) The dignity of Constitutional functionaries

49. Under the provision of the Indian Constitution a community can be declared a minority community on the basis of

(a) Religion only

(b) Either Religion or Language (Ans)

(c) Either Language or Caste

(d) Either Religion or Race

50. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ?

(a) Equality before Law : Guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens

(b) Altering the name of a State : Power of a State Legislature (Ans)

(c) Creating a new State : Power of Parliament

(d) Equality of opportunity in Public Employment : Guaranteed only to Indian citizens
Placement Paper

AFCAT Air Force Common Admission Test Solved reasoning Questions for practice

AFCAT Air Force Common Admission Test -Current and General awareness 2013 January,2012 Objective type questions
Multiple Choice Questions on Current affairs- 2012

1. India’s single-window body to clear foreign investment proposals, FIPB, cleared IKEA’s Rs 10,500-crore project, the largest FDI in single-brand retail so far. Which of the following statements about IKEA is correct?
a. IKEA is a Japanese Insurance company
b. IKEA is a South African jewellery company
c. IKEA is a South Korean Car company
d. IKEA is a Swedish furniture company
Ans. D

2. Who is the current director of Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)?
a. C. K Raman
b. Ranjit Sinha
c. Abhi Arora
d. Shankar Bhatia
Ans. B

3. As per ‘The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012’, a child is defined as?
a. a girl under the age of 14 years
b. a boy under the age of 14 years
c. a person under the age of 18 years
d. a person under the age of 20 years
Ans. C

4. Southern bench of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) was set up at
a. Chennai
b. Bangalore
c. Kochi
d. Hyderabad
Ans. a

5. What is ‘Novozymes Avantec’?
a. a new drug found to combat HIV
b. a vaccine for Japanese Encephalitis
c. a disease that distroyed apple crop of Himachal Pradesh
d. an enzyme discovered to produce more ethanol from corn
Ans. D

6. Who was awarded the 27th Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration?
a. Gulzar
b. Sharmila Tagore
c. Sanjay Dutt
d. Priya Dutt
Ans. A

7. What is India’s rank in the Global Competitiveness Index 2012-2013 compiled by the World Economic Forum (WEF)?
a. 119
b. 89
c. 59
d. 39
Ans. C

8. Who is Malala Yousufzai?
a. First Muslim woman Booker prize winner
b. Norway’s first Islamic cabinet minister
c. First Muslim woman to scale Mt. Everest
d. Pakistani teenage rights activist shot by militants

Ans. D, Malala Yousafzai, the 14-year-old peace activist who became the ‘voice of girls in Swat’ when the Taliban controlled the valley in 2008, was shot at and seriously injured by the Tehreek-e-Taliban Pakistan (TTP) Ms. Yousafzai had received death threats from the Taliban for speaking out against terrorism and advocating education for girls.

9. Who is the Managing Director and Chief Executive of Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
a. Ashishkumar Chauhan
b. Chitra Ramakrishnan
c. Kotta Harnarayanan
d. Madhu Kannan
Ans. A

10. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) has joined hands with Japan’s largest oil and gas company for development of its Krishna Godavari basin deep-sea block. Which is the Japanese firm that acquired 26 per cent stake in ONGC’s Krishna Godavari basin deep-sea block?
a. Kyushu Corporation
b. Inpex Corporation
c. Nippon Corporation
d. Daichi Corporation
Ans. B

11. What is ‘Iron Dome’?
a. Code name for the proposed NASA research station on Mars
b. Japan’s robot capable of entering disaster-stricken nuclear power plants
c. India’s first tiger surveillance radar system
d. Israel’s anti-missile defence system developed with US assistance
Ans. D

12. Which of the following was commissioned as India’s third Rail Coach Factory – after the Integral Coach Factory, Perambur, Tamil Nadu, and the Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala, Punjab
a. Rail Coach Factory, Lalganj (UP)
b. Rail Coach Factory, Kozhicode (Kerala)
c. Rail Coach Factory, Kazipet (AP)
d. Rail Coach Factory, Jhansi (MP)
Ans. A

13. What is ‘Viranagana’?
a. A tribal belt in Andhra Pradesh
b. A South Indian folk dance form
c. An all-women commando team of Asom
d. An iron-age musical instrument unearthed in Gujarat
Ans. C

14. What is Operation Sea-quence?
a. a project to understand the genetic makeup of corals and how they react to climate change.
b. a UN operation to clean-up the five oceans
c. a project to set-up a series of tsunami warning stations along the Asian coast
d. a project to set-up naval bases along the coast of India
Ans. A

15. In 2012, India issued a set of two stamps depicting Deepavali (Diwali) and Hanukkah. Hanukkah is a major festival of which faith?
a. Buddhism
b. Judaism
c. Pars
d. Jainism
Ans. B

16. As per the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation, an urban household with an annual income of Rs 1.5 lakh can qualify for housing scheme benefits of what class?
a. Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
b. Lower Income Groups (LIG)
c. Middle Income Groups (MIG)
d. Higher Income Groups (HIG)
Ans. B

17. What award was given to eminent Urdu scholar Gopi Chand Narang for his outstanding work ‘Urdu Ghazal aur Hindustani Zehan wa Tehzeeb’?

a. Tansen Award 2011
b. Bharatiya Jnanpith Award 2010
c. Moortidevi Award 2010
d. Sant Kabir Award 2012
Ans. C

18. Which country recently created the world’s largest network of marine reserves, protecting a huge swathe of ocean environment that protects blue whale, green turtle, critically endangered populations of grey nurse sharks, and dugongs?
a. USA
b. Canada
c. Russia
d. Australia
Ans. D

19. Titan, the world’s fastest supercomputer, was built by which company?
a. Cray Inc.
b. IBM
c. Fujitsu
d. Intel
Ans. C

20. What is India’s rank in the financial development index 2012 compiled by the World Economic Forum (WEF)?
a. 26
b. 32
c. 40
d. 56
Ans. C

21. Who was chosen as the General Secretary of the Communist Party of China (CPC) in November 2012
a. Xi Jinping
b. Mo Yan
c. Hu Jintao
d. Xu Qiliang
Ans. A

22. Who Became the First Woman Team Principal in Formula-1
a. Monisha Kaltenborn
b. Monisha Koirala
c. Nikki Haley
d. Nainalal Kidwai
Ans. A

23. Who is the new Prime Minister of the Libya
a. Ali Ahmad
b. Hoshni Mubarak
c. Tony Tan
d. Ali Zidan
Ans. D

24. Name the car which the India’s leading car maker Maruti Suzuki launched recently
a. Maruti 800
b. Maruti SX4
c. Maruti Alto 800
d. Maruti WagonR
Ans. C

25. Name the IPS officer who has recently awarded with the Singham Bravery award posthumously.
a. Narendra Kumar
b. Deepak Kapur
c. Prem Prakash
d. Jaykant
Ans. A
—————————————————————————————————————————————————-
1. Name the Australian cricket player who recently inducted into the ICC hall of the fame.
a. Ricky Ponting
b. Glenn MacGrath
c. Demin Martin
d. Brett Lee
Ans. B

2. 100th Indian Science Congress held in which place
a. Chennai
b. Kolkata
c. Jaipur
d. Jodhpur
Ans. B

3. Who has appointed as the Australia’s next high commissioner to India.
a. John Robert
b. Peter Denn
c. Patrick Suckling
d. Julia Robert
Ans. C

4. Name the city which is most safest in the world as survey done by China academy of social science
a. Bombay
b. Lhasa
c. Delhi
d. Cuba
Ans. B

5. Name the person who has appointed as the whole time member of SEBI
a. Subhas Joshi
b. Raman Singh
c. Shyam Pal Singh
d. S. Raman
Ans. D

6. Where the 4th World Telgu conference held which is inaugurated by President Pranab Mukherjee
a. Jaipur
b. Gandhinagar
c. Chennai
d. Tirupati
Ans. D

7. Who is appointed as the secretary of the Institute of company secretaries of India
a. Asikano Amano
b. S. Sundaram
c. M.S Sahoo
d. Dr. Cias A
Ans. C

8. Which state Government is set up 25 fast track court to deal with crime against the women.
a. Maharashtra
b. Delhi
c. M.P
d. U.P
Ans. A

9. Name the a Chairman of the committee which is set up by Government to deal with the Delhi Gang rape
a. Justice K.G Balakrishnan
b. Justice J.S Verma
c. Justice J.S Mishra
d. Justice S.H Kapadia
Ans. B

10. Who is appointed as the ex-officio member of the planning commission of India.
a. Kapil Sibbal
b. A. Raja
c. Kamal Nath
d. Prafulla Patel
Ans. C

11. Who is the present head of the IMF
a. Christine Lagarde
b. Dominique Strauss Khan
c. Irena Khan
d. Pascal Lamy
Ans. A

12. Which state is became the fastest growing state between 2006 to 2010.
a. Bihar
b. Rajasthan
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Punjab
Ans. A

13. Who has became the first Emirati who won the Rabindranath tagore peace prize 2012.
a. Irene Khan
b. Shahib Ghanem
c. Ali Zinad
d. Ali Ahman khan
Ans. B

14. Who is appointed as the new chairperson of the National Green Tribunal.
a. L.S Panta
b. J.S Mishra
c. Swatanter Kumar
d. J.S Verma
Ans. C

15. Which state government set up the senior citizenship commission to deal the problem of elder person
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Himachal Pradesh
d. Andhra Pradesh
Ans. B

16. 14th Finance commission set up by the Union Government under the chairmanship of former Governor of the RBI
a. P.V Reddy
b. KTS Tulsi
c. D. Subbarao
d. Y.V Reddy
Ans. D

17. Who is appointed as the new Deputy Governor of the RBI
a. Shyamla Gopi Nath
b. Urjit Patel
c. A.B Patel
d. S.A Sampath
Ans. B

18. Who was elected as the first woman president of the South Korea
a. Li Hui Aye
b. Park Geun- Hye
c. Christine Lagarde
d. U Uthant
Ans. B

19. Name the Foundation who awarded the Union Finance minister as the “Best Administrator of the India”
a. K.K Birla Foundation
b. CNN-IBN
c. Infosys
d. K. Karunakaran Foundation
Ans. D

20. Name the country which legalise the woman abortion when mother’s life is at risk
a. Ireland
b. Holland
c. India
d. USA
Ans.a

21. Who is the present Union Railway Minister of India
a. Dinesh Trivedi
b. Pawan Kumar Bansal
c. Salman Khursid
d. C.P Joshi
Ans. B

22. Who is the president of the FICCI
a. Nainalal Kidwai
b. Rahul Bajaj
c. Amit Singh
d. Amitav Ghosh
Ans. A

23. Name the India Company who recently signed an agreement with China’s Dalian Wanda group
a. Bharti Airtel
b. Reliance
c. Infosys
d. Wipro
Ans. B

24. Who was the first Chief Minister of Uttrakhand
a. Nityanand
b. Bahuguna
c. Vijay Kumar
d. Virbhadra Singh
Ans. A

25. What is the India’s rank in transparency International 2012 corruption perception index
a. 76
b. 94
c. 95
d. 89
Ans. B
————————————————————————————————————————————————————–
1. Name the Asian elephant who can produce human speech.
a. Koshik
b. Dolly
c. Garima
d. Daya
Ans. A

2. Who is the present chief executive officer of the All India Tennis Association.
a. Hironmoy Chatterjee
b. Vishwas Narang
c. Asikano Amano
d. Subhas Joshi
Ans. A

3. Iron lady Irom Sharmila completed how many years of her fast for demanding of cancellation of Armed power special power act 1958
a. 15 year
b. 20 year
c. 10 year
d. 12 year
Ans. D

4. Name the person who has appointed as the President of the Indian Hockey Federation.
a. R. V Reddy
b. Subhas Joshi
c. Ranjit Sinha
d. V. Dinesh Reddy
Ans. D

5. Which State Election Commission announced 50 per cent reservation of seats in the panchayat election for women.
a. Manipur
b. Nagaland
c. Assam
d. Andhra Pradesh
Ans. C

6. Barack Obama re-elected as the President of the U.S belongs to which party.
a. Republic Party
b. Democratic Party
c. Conservative Party
d. Labour Party
Ans. B

7. Which country is elected as the board member of the United Nation’s Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) for a three year term.
a. Nepal
b. Pakistan
c. India
d. Brazil
Ans. A

8. Name a great-grandson of Mahatma Gandhi who was elected to a State Assembly in the United States during the general elections held on 6 November 2012.
a. Girish Chandra Gandhi
b. Rahul Gandhi
c. Omprakash Gandhi
d. Shanti Gandhi
Ans. D

9. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 came into force on 14 November 2012 covers which article of the constitution of India
a. Article 12
b. Article 14
c. Article 45
d. Article 16
Ans. C

10. Name the person who has awarded Education Nobel prize (WISE) Award 2012.
a. Madhavan Menon
b. Ashok Chauhan
c. Madhav Chavan
d. Shanti Bhusan
Ans. C

11. Name the person who has been appointed as the head of the Congress Coordination Committee for 2014 Lok Sabha poll.
a. Pranab Mukherjee
b. Man Mohan Singh
c. Sonia Gandhi
d. Rahul Gandhi
Ans. D

12. Who has became the third Indo-American to win US Congressional election after Jindal and Nikki Haley
a. Ritu Beri
b. Bobby Jindal
c. Ravi Rusia
d. Ami Bera
Ans. D

13. Who was the founder of the Shiv Sena in Maharashta
a. Bala Shahab Thakrey
b. Uddhav Thakery
c. Sanjay Thakrey
d. Raj Thakery
Ans. A

14. Recently U.S President lifted ban on import from which country
A. Myanmar
B. Pakistan
C. India
D. Nepal
Ans. A

15. Name the person who has been chosen for the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize- 2012
a. Lula da Silva
b. Barack Obama
c. Ravi Shastri
d. Allen Johnson Sirleaf
Ans. D

16. Who is the author of the Man booker Prize winning book ‘Life of Pi’?
A) Julian Barnes
B) J M Coetzen
C) Yann Martai
D) V S Naipaul
Ans. C

17. Who won the 100th Davis cup by defeating Spain
a. Italy
b. Germany
c. Brazil
d. Czech Rpublic
Ans. D

18. Which High court of India started E- Court fee system in its premises
a. Kolkata High Court
b. Delhi High Court
c. Jabalpur High Court
d. Bombay High Court
Ans. B

19. Mohammad Ajmal Kasab, The terrorist of 26/11 Mumbai attack has hanged in which jail of India
a. Tihar Jail
b. Sanganeri Jail
c. Central Jail
d. Yarvada Jail
Ans. D

20. Who has conferred with Col. C.K Nayudu lifetime achievement award
a. Sunil Gavaskar
b. Mohammad Aziruddin
c. Kapil Dev
d. Sanjay Mazrekar
Ans. A

21. In which place The 21st ASEAN Summit was held
a. Birla Auditorium, Jaipur, India
b. Peace Palace, Phnom Penh , Cambodia.
c. Bangladesh
d. Cuba, Havanah
Ans. B

22. Who has appointed as director general of the BBC .
a. Tony Hall
b. John Robert
c. Allen Ray
d. Asikano Amano
Ans. A

23. Who has been sworn-in as Brazil’s Supreme Court’s first non-White President.
a. Lula da Silva
b. Sirleaf Johnson
c. Joaquim Barbosa
d. Maria Stella
Ans. C

24. What is the name of the party of Arvind Kejriwal
a. Aam Aadmi Party
b. KJP
c. Aam Janta Party
d. Aam Janta Union
Ans. A

25. Parliament of which country recently drafted the own Constitution
a. Egypt
b. Libya
c. Nepal
d. Saudi Arab
Ans. A
——————————————————————————————————————————————
1. Which country will host the 46th Annual meeting of the Asian Development Bank in 2013
a. New Delhi
b. Manila
c. Dubai
d. Singapore
Ans. A

2. Name the President of the France
a. Nicholus Sarkozi
b. Francis Hollande
c. Jullia Guilard
d. Tony Tan
Ans. B

3. Name the Indian-Origin Doctor who won the London assembly seat
a. Dr. Onkar Singh Sahta
b. Dr. Gurpreet Singh
c. Ranveer Singh
d. Dr. Sanjay Gupta
Ans. A

4. Which state’s chief minister has demanded law to deal cases of discrimination against North-eastern student
a. Assam
b. Nagaland
c. Mizoram
d. Meghalaya
Ans. D

5. ISRO recently gave clearance for using which frequency band from satellite for internet on train
a. KU band
b. K band
c. S band
d. G band
Ans. A

6. Name the West Indies cricket player who set an eye on Bollywood after IPL
a. Ram Naresh Sarwan
b. Chris Gayle
c. Chandra Paul
d. Brian Lara
Ans. B

7. Who is appointed as the new Prime Minister of the Russia
a. Vladimir Putin
b. Micheal Gorshkhov
c. Dmitry Medvedev
Ans. D

8. When was the World Red Cross day celebrated
a. 7th May
b. 8th May
c. 10th May
d. 12th May
Ans. B

9. In which year MotoGP set to make its debut in India
a. 2014
b. 2013
c. 2015
d. 2011
Ans. B

10. Jammu and Kashmir Government will set up development and management authority to promote which sport in the State
a. Hockey
b. Cricket
c. Golf
d. Chess
Ans. C

11. Name the child actor who acted in the movie “Paa” died in the Nepal plane crash recently
a. Taruni Sachdev
b. Arjun Kapoor
c. Sameer Singh
d. Anamika Dholakia
Ans. A

12. Name the 73 year old Japanese oldest woman to Scale Mount Everest
a. Junko Tabaei
b. Tamae Watanabe
c. S. Kumar
d. Shize Tabie
Ans. B

13. Who won the Hopman cup 2013
a. Britain
b. Spain
c. Serbia
d. US
Ans. B

14. Who won the Thomas Cup 2012 title
a. Saina Nehwal
b. Lin Dan
c. Jwala Gutta
d. Beeru Gupta
Ans. B

15. Which film of Raj Kapoor has been added to all time 100 list of greatest film s made since 1923 by the TIMES magazine
a. Awaara
b. Joker
c. Shree 420
d. Junglee
Ans. A

16. Name the Nobel laureate who has been appointed as the first chancellor of the proposed Nalanda University
a. Amartya Sen
b. C.V Raman
c. S.Cahndrasekhar
d. Mo Yan
Ans. A

17. Which of the following state aims to go fully organic by 2015
a. Haryana
b. Punjab
c. Sikkim
d. Madhya Pradesh
Ans. C

18. Keshubhai Patel, the former Chief Minister of the Gujarat resigned from the BJP and launched his new party
a. Gujarat Janta Party
b. Gujarat Parivartan Party
c. Gujarat Congress Party
d. Gujarat Union
Ans. B

19. The 13 year old swimmer Adzo Kpossi was the youngest competitor at the London Olympic 2012 she belongs to which of the following country
a. Lesotho
b. Nigeria
c. Trinidad and Tobaggo
d. Togo
Ans. D

20. Where is the Head office of the Unique identification authority of India (UIDAI) located
a. Mumbai
b. Ahamdabad
c. Hydarabad
d. New Delhi
Ans. D

21. Name the Indian- American girl who won the 2012 Scripps National spelling Bee crown
a. Snigdha Gupta
b. Snigdha Shrivastava
c. Snigdha Nandipati
d. Richa Rupta
Ans. C

22. Name the Indian cricketer who took oath as the Rajya Sabha M.P
a. Sachin Tendulkar
b. Rahul Dravid
c. Kapil Dev
d. Sunil Gavaskar
Ans. A

23. Name the Pakistan Interior minister who has suspended for dual nationality
a. Hina Rabbani
b. Parvesz Musharraf
c. Rahman Khan
d. Rahman Malik
Ans. D

24. Who took over as the new chief of the Indian Navy
a. Admiral Nirmal Verma
b. D.K Joshi
c. N.A.K Browne
d. Pawan Kumar
Ans. B

25. Where in India the talking ATM launched by Union Bank of the India
a. Ahamdabad
b. Bombay
c. Gandhinagar
d. Surat
Ans. A

26. Who has been elected as the new Chief election commissioner of the India
a. S. Y Querasi
b. V.S Sampath
c. Praveen Chawla
d. Hari Shankar
Ans. B

27. Which Social bookmarking site unveiled new logo, 6 year its launched
a. Face Book
b. Google+
c. Yahoo
d. Twitter
Ans. D

28. Who is named as the event ambassador for 2012 ICC world T-20
a. Lasitha Malinga
b. JayaVardhane
c. Sachin Tendulkar
d. Sehwag
Ans. A

29. Name the Indian movie who has been nominated for the Oscar
a. Barfi
b. Jab Tak hai Jaan
c. Don 2
d. Khiladi 786
Ans. A

30. Who has been appointed as the head of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna committee
a. Aslam Sher Khan
b. Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
c. Sushil Kumar
d. Yogeshwar Dutt
Ans. B

31. How many medals did India win in the London Olympic in 2012
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 9
Ans. B

32. Which country won the highest number of medals in London Olympic 2012
a. USA
b. China
c. India
d. Japan
Ans. A

33. Name the two planet that came together in the western sky on 15 August 2012 after sunset
a. Mars and Jupiter
b. Mars and Saturn
c. Pluto and Saturn
d. Venus and Mars
Ans. B

34. Which one of the following High Court scrapped the Union Government ‘s 4.5% quota for minorities, carved out of the 27% reservation for the other Backward classes (OBC’s)
a. Madhya Pradesh High Court
b. West Bengal High Court
c. Andhra Pradesh High Court
d. Rajasthan High Court
Ans. C

35. Who is the Indian flag bearer in the London Olympics in 2012
a. Krishna Poonia
b. Sushil Kumar
c. Abhinav Bindra
d. Leander Paes
Ans. B

36. Which one of the following launched first educational tablet PC
a. Aakash
b. Alphabetics Computer
c. HP
d. IBM
Ans. B

37. Which one of the following is the maker of BlackBerry
a. HP
b. RIM
c. Apple
d. Sony
Ans. B

38. In which year Air India and Indian Airlines merged
a. 2008
b. 2007
c. 2009
d. 2010
Ans. A

39. Who was named as the “Player of the Euro” 2012
a. Magisterial Iniesta
b. Andre Iniesta
c. David Bakhim
d. Lionel Messi
Ans. A

40. Who was the first president of the INC
a. W.C Banerji
b. H.O Hume
c. Rajendra Prasad
d. J.L Nehru
Ans. A

41. Who was named as the ICC ODI Cricketer of the year
a. Virat Kohli
b. Mahela Jayavardhane
c. Kumar Sangakara
d. Sachin Tendulkar
Ans. A

42. Who has became the 156th member of the WTO
a. Russia
b. South Sudan
c. France
d. West Indies
Ans. A

43. Who has won the Norman Borlaug Award in Field Research and Application.
a. Aditi Kumar
b. Aditi Mukherjee
c. Priyanka Gupta
d. Uma devi
Ans. B

44. Name the person who has convicted by International Criminal Court (ICC) he was the first person to be convicted by the ICC.
a. Rajat Gupta
b. Asikano Amano
c. Thomas Lubanga
d. Thomas Handy
Ans. C

45. Who has became the first British cyclist to win the Tour de France Cycling race.
a. Bradely Wiggins
b. David Balkam
c. Lionel Messi
d. Andrew Flintoff
Ans. A

46. The peacock throne of Shahjahan was taken away by
a. Changez Khan
b. Timur
c. Nadir Shah
d. Ahmad Shah Abdali
Ans. C

47. The term of office of a judge of the International Court of Justice
a. 7
b. 9
c. 6
d. 11
Ans. B

48. The revolt of 1857 started from
a. Delhi
b. Jhansi
c. Meerut
d. Lucknow
Ans. C

49. Sun temple is situated in
a. Assam
b. Orissa
c. J&K
d. M.P
Ans. B

50. Which of the following writs is sought against illegal detention
a. Certiorari
b. Habeas Corpus
c. Mandamus
d. Prohibition
Ans. B

AFCAT History Questions
1. The Battle of Plassey was fought in
A.1757
B.1782
C.1748
D.1764
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The Battle of Plassey, 23 June 1757, was a decisive British East India Company victory over the Nawab of Bengal and his French allies, establishing Company rule in South Asia which expanded over much of the Indies for the next 190 years. The battle took place at Palashi, Bengal, on the river banks of the Bhagirathi River, about 150 km north of Calcutta, near Murshidabad, then capital of undivided Bengal. The belligerents were Siraj-ud-daulah, the last independent Nawab of Bengal, and the British East India Company.

2. The territory of Porus who offered strong resistance to Alexander was situated between the rivers of
A.Sutlej and Beas
B.Jhelum and Chenab
C.Ravi and Chenab
D.Ganga and Yamuna
Answer: Option B

3. Under Akbar, the Mir Bakshi was required to look after
A.military affairs
B.the state treasury
C.the royal household
D.the land revenue system
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The head of the military was called the Mir Bakshi, appointed from among the leading nobles of the court. The Mir Bakshi was in charge of intelligence gathering, and also made recommendations to the emperor for military appointments and promotions.

4. Tripitakas are sacred books of
A.Buddhists
B.Hindus
C.Jains
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A

5. The theory of economic drain of India during British imperialism was propounded by
A.Jawaharlal Nehru
B.Dadabhai Naoroji
C.R.C. Dutt
D.M.K. Gandhi

Answer: Option D

6. The treaty of Srirangapatna was signed between Tipu Sultan and
A.Robert Clive
B.Cornwallis
C.Dalhousie
D.Warren Hastings
Answer: Option A
7. Through which one of the following, the king exercised his control over villages in the Vijayanagar Empire?
A.Dannayaka
B.Sumanta
C.Nayaka
D.Mahanayakacharya
Answer: Option B

8. The Vijayanagara ruler, Kirshnadev Raya’s work Amuktamalyada, was in
A.Telugu
B.Sanskrit
C.Tamil
D.Kannada
Answer: Option A

9. The use of Kharoshti in ancient Indian architecture is the result of India’s contact with
A.Central Asia
B.Iran
C.Greece
D.China
Answer: Option B

10. Vaikhanasa the five-fold conception of Vishnu consists ofbrahman
purusha
prakriti
satya
achyuta
aniruddha

A.I, II, III, IV and V
B.II, III, IV, V and VI
C.I, II, IV, V and VI
D.I, III, IV, V and VI

11. The troops raised by the emperor but not paid directly the state and place under the charge of mansabadars were know as
A.Walashahi
B.Barawardi
C.JCumaki
D.Dakhili
Answer: Option C

12. To conquer and annex Peshawar and Punjab, Mahmud of Ghazni defeated
A.Ghurids
B.Arabs
C.Karkotakas
D.Hindushahis
Answer: Option C

13. The victories of Karikala are well portrayed in
A.Palamoli
B.Aruvanad
C.Pattinappalai
D.Padirrupattu
Answer: Option D

14. Todar Mal was associated with
A.music
B.literature
C.land revenue reforms
D.law
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A

15. The title of ‘Viceroy’ was added to the office of the Governor-General of India for the first time in
A.1848 AD
B.1856 AD
C.1858 AD
D.1862 AD
Answer: Option C

16 To which of the following dynasties did Kind Bhoja, a great patron of literature and art, belong?
A.Karkota
B.Utpala
C.Paramara
D.Gurjara Pratihara
Answer: Option D

17. Vikramaditya, a king of Ujjain, started the Vikrama samvat in 58 BC in commemoration of his victory over
A.Indo-Greeks
B.Sakas
C.Parthinas
D.Kushanas
Answer: Option B

19 To which king belongs the Lion capitol at Sarnath?
A.Chandragupta
B.Ashoka
C.Kanishka
D.Harsha
Answer: Option B

20 The use of spinning wheel (Charkha) became common during the
A.9th Century AD
B.10th Century AD
C.12th Century AD
D.14th Century AD
Answer: Option D
Indian-Air-Force-AFCAT-General Ability
Air Force Common Admission Test – Exam Paper

Direction (Q.1-5) (i) In this section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are marked in three separate parts and each one is labelled a, b and c. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any marked part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the marked parts a, b or c indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter d will signify a ‘No error’ response. (ii) You have to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet (If you indicate more than one response, Your answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed. (iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.

1. You are welcome to join us for dinner(a),/as such it is(b) /we are only having soup and bread (c)/No error (d)
Ans : b
2. The entire locality(a)/ has been effected by (b)/the new motor way(c)/No error(d).
Ans : b
3. The rock star turned his back(a)/ at his family(b) /when he became famous (c)/ No error (d).
Ans : b
4. Neelam wanted to be actress, (a)/but her father soon(b)/nipped that idea in the bud(c)/No error(d).
Ans : a
5. The team’s captain lobbed(a)/the ball over her opponent’s head(c)/to the back of the court(c)/No error(d).
Ans : d

Direction (Q.6-9) In each of the following items, a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words . Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
6. SCOTCH : RUMOUR
(a) Spread : Gossip
(b) Broach : Topic
(c) Quash : Riot Ans
(d) Restrain : Effusive

7. DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM
(a) Distract : Attention
(b) Mute : Sound Ans
(c) Decrepit : Demolition
(d) Reverse : Direction

8. INDIGENT : WEALTH
(a) Contented : Happiness
(b) Apologetic : Deny
(c) Marathon : Stamina
(d) Emaciated : Nourishment Ans

9. INFALLIBLE : ERROR
(a) Intolerable : Defect
(b) Invulnerable : Emotion
(C) Irreversible : Cure
(d) Impeccable : Flaw Ans

Direction (Q.10-19) In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence in each case.
10. With rise
P : like Bangladesh would experience severe flooding and erosion of land
Q : in sea levels now
R : island countries like the Maldives and low-lying coastal countries
S : an unequivocal cetainly
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) QPRS
(b) RSQP
(c) QSRP Ans
(d) RPQS

11. In medicine
P : Mind, emotions, social environment and spirit
Q : often ignored a holistic perspective, that is the body’s interaction with
R : the emphasis has tended
S : to focus on the human body, but it has
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) QPSR
(b) RSQP Ans
(c) RPSQ
(d) QSPR
12. Climatologists are
P : the earth as a whole is becoming warmer
Q : Antarctica would seem to be bucking the trend
R : and largely due to increased human activity and yet as a continent
S : however, unanimous in their opinion that regional variations not with standing
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) RPSQ
(b) SQRP
(c) RQSP
(d) SPRQ Ans

13. Although
P : there is contradictory evidence about
Q : whether long – term drinking has permanent effects
R : extreme alcohol consumption kills brain cells
S : on congnitive abilities such as reasoning and memory
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) RPQS Ans
(b) SQPR
(c) RQPS
(d) SPQR

14. In a globalised world
P : to re-examine the definition of ‘self-sufficiency’
Q : we need to be confident enough
R : and ensure it has not become another word for poor use of available resources
S : where India has emerged as a major economic player
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) SRPQ
(b) PQSR
(c) SQPR Ans
(d) PRSQ

15. At first sight
P : is as firmly entrenched in our system
Q : it looks as though Panchayati Raj
R : the lower layer of federalism in our policy
S : as is the older and higher layer comprising the Union Government and the States
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) PSQR
(b) QRPS Ans
(c) PRQS
(d) QSPR

16. The psychology of
P : allowing us to experience other worlds
Q : is a bit like play – acting
R : reading for pleasure, scholars point out
S : and roles in our imagination
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) PQRS
(b) RSPQ
(c) PSRQ
(d) RQPS Ans

17. Whenever I have been to India
P : of those they replace, and perform at a high level
Q : seamlessly move into the places
R : bench both strong and ready so that players
S : people have asked me how the Australian cricket keeps its
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) PQRS
(b) SRQP Ans
(c) PRQS
(d) SQRP

18. When you add
P : your equation with him will change forever
Q : and your approach in dealing
R : the elements of respect to the relationship with your child
S : with your child will mature and become positive
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) RSQP
(b) QPRS
(c) RPQS Ans
(d) QSRP

19. As in India
P : press freedom once it begins to roll
Q : would find it difficult to halt the juggernaut
R : when satellite TV spawned a whole genre of 24 hour news channels
S : those in power in the Arab countries
Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?
(a) QSRP
(b) RPQS
(c) QPRS
(d) RSQP Ans

Direction (Q.20-29) Each of the following 10 items consists of a word in capital letters. followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital letters.
20. DOUGHTY
(a) Timid Ans
(b) Honest
(c) Scheming
(d) Suspicious

21. INIMICAL
(a) Wicked
(b) Unique
(c) Friendly Ans
(d) Emulation

22. EXIGENCY
(a) Emergent
(b) Surfeit Ans
(c) Hard working
(d) Extrovert

23. HERMIT
(a) Gregarious Ans
(b) Courageous
(c) Obnoxious
(d) Temperate

24. CARDINAL
(a) To feel insecure
(b) Changeable
(c) Vain
(d) Trivial Ans

25. ASPERITY
(a) Lack of ambition
(b) Eagerness
(c) Promptness
(d) Politeness Ans

26. REMISS
(a) Costly
(b) Weird
(c) Careful Ans
(d) Fresh

27. SUPPLICATION
(a) Arrogance Ans
(b) Congratulation
(c) Reimbursement
(d) Flattery

28. PROFLIGATE
(a) Futuristic
(b) Thrifty Ans
(c) Fashionable
(d) Foolish

29. PROCLIVITY
(a) Exit
(b) Resolve
(c) Qualification
(d) Disinclination Ans

Direction (Q.30-39) In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence S1 and the final sentence S6 are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. you are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the answer sheet.
30. S1 : There is new factor operative in ‘the world of knowledge’ today.
S6 : What students should be taught is the habit to apply intelligence to new and emerging problems .
P : Till recently teachers taught more or less the same things as they had learnt as students but today the scenario is changing.
Q : It is not enough to make students memorise a certain amount of knowledge
R : Knowledge is changing much faster today than ever before.
S : A teacher is, therefore, unfit to teach unless he has the capacity to acquire and gain the latest trends in education
The correct sequence is
(a) QPSR
(b) RSPQ
(c) QSPR
(d) RPSQ Ans

31. S1 : In today’s world, globalization is considered to be a measure by which the economic ills of a country can be solved.
S6 : Through globalisation and privatisation, the Indian economy will be in a position to become stable and progressive.
P : Globalisation demands excellent quality of goods and services
Q : Through globalisation the world has shrunk into a village
R : Privatisation is the only answer to the ills confronting Indian economy
S : The impact of happenings in one place can be felt in far off places as well.
The correct sequence is
(a) QRPS
(b) PSQR
(c) QSPR Ans
(d) PRQS

32. S1 : If one does not known how to obey, he can never learn to command
S6 : Even the most uncivilised people obey their chief
P : Without obedience there can be no happiness, no peace, no order in a family, a college, an organisation or a state
Q : Hence, obedience is the first and foremost thing so long as the world continues to be civilised.
R : At home, it is the parent, at play it is the Captain, in the college, the teacher, in the meeting the chairman and so on.
S : Some one must be appointed or elected to rule and others must obey him.
The correct sequence is
(a) SQPR
(b) PRSQ
(c) SRPQ Ans
(d) PQSR

33. S1 : India entered the new millenium as a nation transformed
S6 : Who knows we may even get a nationally acceptable common minimum programme.
P : Today, the Centre is ruled by a coalition of over a dozen parties
Q : Caste and communal leaders have made it their virtue to share the spoils of power.
R : And the politics of power -sharing is here to stay, where the abiding principle will be consensus and not confrontation
S : In Politics, the idea of cohabitation has become an inevitability
The correct sequence is
(a) RPQS
(b) SQPR
(c) RQPS
(d) SPQR Ans

34. S1 : A direct consequence of the new freedom for the Indian entrepreneur is diversification of the economy, which has ushered in more economic activities.
S6 : A direct beneficiary of this has been the consumer, who calls the shots always and everywhere.
P : Corporate are always on their toes trying to stay ahead of competition
Q : Particular sectors in the economy too have become more competitive
R : This has created more employment opportunities for the citizens
S : The established players no longer take success for granted, as it used to be the case prior to liberalisation
The correct sequence is
(a) RQSP
(b) PSQR Ans
(c) RSQP
(d) PQSR

35. S1 : What is a festival season for men is a dreaded torture time for elephants?
S6 : Realising that the culprit in most cases is man, the government recently passed a comprehensive legislation to protect the elephant
P : At the festivals, they are made to stand for more than 10 hours in scorching heat.
Q : Deafening crackers and excessive heat from oil torches at the festivals add to its misery
R : This year the elephant’s plight has been aggravated by unusually high levels of temperatures which have touched 40 degree already
S : Once the season begins, these elephants are made to travel from one festival to another, miles apart, often on foot over hot bitumen roads and without sufficient rest and food
The correct sequence is
(a) RPSQ
(b) SQRP
(c) RQSP
(d) SPRQ Ans

36. S1 : Death penalty cannot be said to function as an effective deterrent to crime.
S6 : The possibility of an error in judgment cannot be ruled out and therefore, the court may have on its conscience the blood of an innocent man
P : As one eminent jurist admitted, our methods of investigation are crude and archaic, and our convictions are based on the oral evidence of witnesses
Q : A most telling fact that is often ignored in our country is that the fear of hanging does not deter they would be murderers
R : Many of the advanced countries have done away with capital punishment
S : Besides, we also must be aware of the danger of sending innocent people to gallows.
The correct sequence is
(a) SPRQ
(b) RQSP
(c) SQRP Ans
(d) RPSQ

37. S1 : In ancient times, people thought that their gods lived on the tops of mountains
S6 : Some people even believed that killing a bird was an act against the Gods and would bring bad luck
P : Naturally, they thought that birds were messengers from the Gods.
Q : There were many beliefs about how to treat birds
R : They, therefore, believed that anything above them was nearer to their Gods than they.
S : People also believed that birds carried their souls to the gods when they die
The correct sequence is
(a) QPSR
(b) RSPQ Ans
(c) QSPR
(d) RPSQ

38. S1 : Yeast is one of nature’s most perfect foods, since it contains more nutrients than those of any other food.
S6 : That’s all in the past now
P : But how many people like the taste of liver or wheat germ ?
Q : Vitamins, Cholines, inositols, proteins, amino acids-yeast has them all
R : For that matter, yeast has abitter taste, and not may people relish eating it
S : Indisputably, liver and wheat germ are a prime source of proteins and vitamins
The correct sequence is
(a) RPSQ
(b) QSPR Ans
(c) RSPQ
(d) QPSR

39. S1 : The South American continent, as at present is largely underdeveloped
S6 : Yet this republic is like a crippled giant because its productive powers are limited by the poor health of most of its people
P : But much of the continent is still shackled with a load of ill-health that keeps it travelling in the bottom gear, whereas it might be among the most prosperous areas in the world.
Q : Its resources of wealth are undoubtedly enormous
R : It has great resources of every kind and is beginning to be active in exploring them and developing them
S : Brazil, a republic in South America is about the same size as The United States
The correct sequence is
(a) QPSR Ans
(b) SRQP
(c) QRSP
(d) SPQR

Direction (Q. 40-49) Each of the following 10 items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.
40. ARMISTICE
(a) Weapon
(b) Truce Ans
(c) Cleverness
(d) Enmity

41. IMPERIOUSNESS
(a) Fame
(b) Arrogance Ans
(c) Vacuum
(d) Impenetrability

42. EGREGIOUS
(a) Affluent
(b) Outrageous Ans
(c) Redundant
(d) Expensive

43. DISPORT
(a) To be wasteful
(b) To get rid of
(c) To brag
(d) To amuse Ans

44. INTERNECINE
(a) A budding film actor
(b) A contagious disease
(c) Mutually Ans
(d) Intermixed

45. DECADENT
(a) Deceased
(b) Evil
(c) Characterized by deterioration Ans
(d) Adjunct

46. IMMURE
(a) To sink
(b) To enclose within walls Ans
(c) To deny
(d) To oppose

47. QUINTESSENCE
(a) Overfussiness
(b) Good taste
(c) Purest part Ans
(d) Vanity

48. SARTORIAL
(a) Wicked
(b) Satirist
(c) Relating to dress Ans
(d) Favourable

49. RIPOSTE
(a) Injury
(b) Repartee Ans
(c) New shape
(d) Strength

Direction(Q.50-60) In this section you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read Passage-I, and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only

PASSAGE I
When Ronald Reagan and Mikhail Gorbachev signed thier nuclear arms control treaty in Washigton in December 1987, more than 1000 million people in 100 countries, including Russia, witnessed the historic event live, Relaying the TV broadcast were distant satellites in orbit above the earth with satellites, we have come to expect instantaneous news transmission from around the world. Like superman, today’s satellites possess amazing powers. They not only fly faster than a speeding bullet, but also peer through clouds and even under the ground. They track migrating animals, shuffle and sort billions of numbers and relay their information tirelessly, night and day over a life span averaging eight years, from hundreds and even thousands of kilometers overhead.
50. TV broadcast
(a) did not relay the programme of Ronald Reagan and Mikhail Gorbachev signing the arms control treaty.
(b) relayed the programme but that could be watched only in a hand full of countries
(c) pertaining to the arms treaty was watched by more than a billion of people of many countries Ans
(d) regarding the arms treaty control was relayed only in the Russia

51. The author compares the satellites with
(a) an animal
(b) a planet
(c) the earth
(d) an all powerful man Ans

52. One of the functions of satellites is to
(a) eliminate the dangerous animals
(b) organise multitudes of numbers Ans
(c) transmit information only during day
(d) help in fighting global warming

PASSAGE – II
The memory can be improved. it can be improved vastly and by anyone with normal intelligence. Moreover the methods by which it can be cultivated are all based on practical commonsense. Every experience in life makes an impression through one or more of the sense on the brain or other nerve centres. The problem of memory improvement is to emphasise these impressions and to file them away in such an orderly manner that many will remain intact and stay put. The clearer and neater your mental storehouse, the easier it will be to remember.

53. Memory is something which
(a) is hereditary
(b) is rate
(c) is natural
(d) can be improved Ans

54. Every experience in life makes an impression on
(a) the senses
(b) the brain Ans
(c) the spinal chord
(d) both the brain and the spinal chord

55. Mental clarity and neatness
(a) improve memory Ans
(b) have no effect on memory
(c) are impossible to attain
(d) result in confusion

56. Memory is best cultivated by methods based on
(a) magic
(b) practical common sense Ans
(c) practice
(d) hypontism

Passage III
Television might be abused and then it may warp the minds of its viewers, especially those young ones who are suggestible and sensitive to every kind of impression. But if it is properly used, it may lead to the enhancement of human life itself. We should try, by means of this great mode of communication, which has such an instant impact on the minds of people who view it, to enable them to cast off supersition, to emancipate their minds from any kind of narrowness and combat every kid of false idea which has taken lodgement in the minds of the people. It is therefore, a great means of education. We should use it for that purpose and it is my earnest hope that the television will be employed for the good purpose of improving the qualify of our men and women and not for making them shoddy and couch-potatoes.
We should use documentaries, short plays, films, abridgments of classics, so that what the students do not get in schools and colleges might be provided for them when they view the television. That is what is necessary. I think, under proper management, it may be regarded as one of the most efficacious modes of mass communication. You have there sight, bearing, pictures, music all these thighs mixed together.

57. According to the passage, the abuse of television might
(a) change the eating habits of people
(b) disturb the minds of the viewers Ans
(c) not make a vital impact on the minds of the viewers
(d) have a detriment effect on national pride

58. According to the passage, the proper use of television enables the viewers
(a) to entertain themselves
(b) to make themselves
(c) to rise above archaic prejudices Ans
(d) to believe in supersitions, narrowness, etc.

59. The writer calls television as great means of education, because
(a) it displays various educational programmes
(b) it teaches viewers to fight many personal and social evils Ans
(c) it offers lessons as in a class-room
(d) it performs the function of a teacher

60. According to the writer, television should be used as
(a) to complement to formal education Ans
(b) a medium for medical care
(c) a medium or comprehending international relations
(d) an aid to improve etiquettes
Placement Paper
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AFCAT Air Force Common Admission Test

1. Out of the following which centre is making use of enriched Uranium?
(a) Tarapur Nuclear Energy Centre
(b) Kalpakkam Nuclear Energy Centre
(c) Narora Nuclear Energy Centre
(d) Ravat Bhata Nuclear Energy Centre
Ans. (a)

2. Shobha Gurtu is a?
(a) Padmashree
(b) Padmavibbushan
(c) Padmabhushan
(d) Phalke Award Winner
Ans. (a)

3. Dhyan Chand was Indian Captain in Berlin World cup Hockey Test in the year?
(a) 1906
(b) 1916
(c) 1964
(d) 1936
Ans. (d)

4. Where is the largest Railway platform in the world?
(a) Leningrad
(b) Liver pool
(c) Sonepur
(d) Kharagpur
Ans. (d)

5. ?Nunamati? is famous for?
(a) mines of raw iron
(b) mines of coal
(c) oil refinery
(d) mines of mica
Ans. (c)

6. Energy is measured in the same unit as-?
(a) work
(b) power
(c) momentum
(d) force
Ans. (a)

7 The largest gland in human body is? (a) endocrine
(b) Pancreas
(c) liver
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)

8. The universal donor is?
(a) O
(b) A
(c) B
(d) AB
Ans. (a)

9. The capital of of Chattisgarh is? (a) Raipur
(b) Bilaspur
(c) Raichur
(d) Ranchi
Ans. (a)

10. Sphygmomanometer measures?
(a) blood pressure
(b) ocean depth
(c) magnetic field
(d) electric current
Ans. (a)

11. Who among the following holds the office during the pleasure of the President of India?
(a) Judges of Supreme Court (b) Election Commissioner
(c) Governor
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans. (c)

12. The author of the book ?Interpreter of Maladies? is?
(a) Jhumpa Lahiri
(b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Vikram Seth
(d) Geeta Mehta
Ans. (a)

13. Which among the following is a ?Morning Raga??
(a) Sohini (b) Bhairavi
(c) Kalawati
(d) Sarang
Ans. (b)

14. ?Guernica? is a famous painting of?
(a) Leonardo da Vinci
(b) Michelangelo
(c) Picasso
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

15. ?Last Supper? is a world famous painting of?
(a) Paul Gauguin
(b) Leonardo da Vinci (c) Raphael
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

16. ?Bhogali Bihu? is a festival of?
(a) Assam
(b) Orissa
(c) Gujarat
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (a)

17. The capital of Andaman & Nicobar is?
(a) Car Nicobar
(b) Port Blair (c) Katchtibu
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

18. What does the term Dactology mean?
(a) Study of finger prints for identification
(b) Study of physically handicapped persons
(c) System of new words
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

19. Aizawl is the capital of?
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Nagaland
(c) Mizoram (d) None of these
Ans. (c)

20. The term ?Third World? is related to?
(a) Asian countries
(b) Oil producing countries
(c) Developed countries
(d) Developing countries
Ans. (d)

21. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Quó?Warranto (d) Certiorari
Ans. (b)

22. The anode in a dry cell consists of?
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Carbon
(d) Graphite
Ans. (c)

23. In which country ?Greenwich? is situated?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Holland
(d) India

Ans. (b)

24. Which of the following types of lens is used in a camera?
(a) Convex
(b) Concave
(c) Spherical
(d) Uniform. thickness
Ans. (a)

25. Sound waves are?
(a) longitudinal
(b) transverse
(c) partially longitudinal and partially transverse
(d) sometimes longitudinal sometimes transverse
Ans. (a)

26. After walking 6 km, I turned right and covered a distance of 2 km, then turned left and covered a distance of 10 km. In the end, I was moving towards the north. From which direction did I start my
journey?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans. (c)

27. In a certain code language EDITION is written as IDETNOI. How will the word MEDICAL be written in that code language?
(a) DEMILAC
(b) LACJM
(c) DIEMCAL
(d) MCADILE
Ans. (a)

28. Find the odd one?
(a) Shelley (b) Keats
(c) Chaucer
(d) Churchill
Ans. (a)

29 In a row of boys Ganesh is 12th from the left and Rajan is 15th from the right. When they interchange their positions Rajan becomes 20th from the right. How many boys are there in the row?
(a) 29
(b) 31
(c) 32
(d) 30
Ans. (b)

30. There are four roads. You are coming from South and want to go to the temp1e The road to your left leads away from coffee house. The front straight road leads to the college only. In which direction is the
temple located?
(à) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans. (c)

Directions (Q. 31?32): In each of the following questions a related pair of words is given. Find the most suitable pair of related words from among the four alternatives.
31. Satellite : Planetary path
(a) Missile : Projectile Path (b) Arrow : Plunge
(c) Bullet : Pipe
(d) Elevator : Axle
Ans. (a)

32. Brittle: Break:
(a) Glass : Break
(b) Sharp : Scratch
(c) Tree : Wind
(d) Elastic : Bend
Ans. (d)

33. Fill in the missing letter in the following series? S,V,Y,B,?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) C
Ans. (c)

34. Fill in the missing letter in the following series?
A, Z, C, X, E?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) W
(d) V
Ans. (d)

Directions (Q. 35?39): Read the following information and answer the questions. There are six flats on a floor in two rows facing north and south allotted to six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U. The position of their flats is as follows?
(i) Q?s flat faces the north and is not next to S.
(ii) S and U have occupied diagonally opposite flats.
(iii) R next to U occupied a flat facing the south and T gets a flat which faces the north.

35. Whose flat is between Q and S?
(a) P
(b) R
(c) T
(d) U
Ans. (c)

36. The flats of which pair other than of SU is diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) RT
(b) PT
(c) QP
(d) TU
Ans. (c)

37. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, who?s flat will be next to that of U?
(a) S (b) R
(c) Q
(d) Q or S
Ans. (b)

38. After interchanging the flats of T and P, who stays between T and U in the same block?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) S
(d) R
Ans. (d)

39. If the flats are not interchanged between T and P, who occupies the flat between Q and S?
(a) P
(b)T
(c) R
(d) U
Ans. (b)

40. In a map south-east has be shown as north, north-east has been shown as west and so on. In this map what will west represent?
(a) South-west
(b) South-east
(c) South
(d) North-west
Ans. (b)

41. In an imaginary system 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, are represented by z, y, x, w, v, u, t, s, r, q respectively. In such a system 23 *4 *5 will be written as (* indicates symbol of multiplication)
(a) xyr
(b) rvu
(c) ysr
(d) vtz
Ans. (d)

42. Anand is related to Vinod and Cinderella. Deepa is Cinderella?s mother. Also Deepa is Vinod?s sister and Ela is Vinod?s sister. How is Ela related to Cinderella?
(a) Niece
(b) Cousin
(c) Sister
(d) Aunt
Ans. (d)

43 The letters of English alphabet are numbered from 26 to 1. The assigned numbers are used to write he letters of the original alphabet so that 26 stands for A, 25 stands for B and so on. Using this sequence, answer the following question. Which of the following sequence denotes a valid word?
V-O-I-D
(a) 6?12-17?23
(b) 5?11?18?12
(c) 5?12?18?23
(d) 5?12?17?23
Ans. (c)

44. In certain code language the word NUMERICAL is written as LMUIREACN. How will the word PUBLISHED be written in that language?
(a) DUBSILEHP
(b) DBULISEHP
(c) DUBLSEHP
(d) DBUSILEHP
Ans. (d)

45. If Dog is called Cat, Cat is called Lion, Lion is called Ox, Ox is called Cock, Cock is called Elephant, and Elephant is called Donkey, then farmer ploughs with which animal?
(a) Dog
(b) Lion
(c) Donkey
(d) Cock
Ans. (d)

46 In a colony, each of the 20% families have two TV sets, 30% of the rest families have three TV sets. Each of the remaining families has one TV set. Which of the following statement is true??
(A) 80% families have at least one TV set
(B) 50% families have two TV sets
(C) 56% families have one TV set
(D) 30% families have three TV sets
Ans. (C)

48 Arrange the following words according to dictionary?
1. Bird
2. Bilk
3. Bill
4. Billion
5. Birth
Code:
(A) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
(C) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(D) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
Ans. (B)

49. If S ? T means ?5? is the wife of ?T?, S + T means ?S? is the daughter of ?T? and S ÷ T means ?S? is the son of ?T?. What will M + J + K means?
(A) ?K? is the father of ?M?
(B) ?M? is the grand-daughter of ?K?
(C) ?J? is wife of ?K?
(D) ?K? and ?M? are brothers
Ans. (B)

50. S x T means ?S? is brother of ?T? and S + T means ?S? is father of ?T?, which of the following shows ?0? is the cousin of ?R? ?
(A) R x T + O
(B) R + T x O
(C) R x O x T
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)

51. If ?P + Q? means P is the husband of Q, P ÷ Q means ?P? is the sister of Q, and ?P x Q? means ?P? is son of Q, which of the following shows ?A? is daughter of ?B? ?
(A) A ÷ D x B
(B) D x B + C ÷A
(C) B ÷ C x A
(D) C x B ÷A
Ans. (A)

52. In a class of 50 students, 36 students study Mathematics and 28 study Biology. The number of students studying both Mathematics and Biology will be?
(A) 22
(B) 14
(C) 30
(D) 12
Ans. (B)

53. If a man writes ?QDGFHS? for ?TIGHER?, then in this way what will be write for MONKEY??
(A) XDHNMK
(B) YDJMLK
(C) XDJMNL
(D) XCHNMK
Ans. (C)

54. What is necessary for a nursing home?
(A) Nurse
(B) Ambulance
(C) Doctor
(D) Medicine
Ans. (C)

55. If 854 = 12, 467 = 38, then 683 =?
(A) 21
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 35
Ans. (C)

56. In a code if Se ker he = hot good tea Pek cha ker = good thunder pure Nep cha he = fresh pure tea Then in the same code how ?thunder tea? will be written?
(A) Pek he
(B) Cha he
(C) Pek ker
(D) Cha ker
Ans. (A)

57. A clock shows nine-half when seen in the mirror. What is the actual time?
(A) 3:30
(B) 2:30
(C) 6:10
(D) 1:30
Ans. (B)

58. A boy used in a picture Blue colour for Red, Red for Yellow, Yellow for Green and Green for Blue. What will be the colour of leaves?
(A) Green
(B) Blue
(C) Red
(D) Yellow
Ans. (D)

59. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
1. Leaves
2. Branch
3. Flower
4. Tree
5. Fruit
(A) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(B) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
(D) 4, 2, 1,3, 5
Ans. (D)

60 If ?+? means ?x?, ??? means ?÷?, ?x? means f??, and ?÷? means ?+?, then what is the value of? 9 + 8 ÷ 8 ? 4 x 9
(A) 65
(B) 39
(C) 27
(D) 11
Ans. (A)

61. If ?P? means ?+?, ?Q? means ???, ?R means ?x? and ?S? means ?÷? which of the following equation is not correct?
(A) 1 R 5 = 16 Q 15 P 4
(B) 14 P S 10 = 7 R 2 Q 12
(C) 11 R 10 S 10 = 16 P 2 Q 7
(D) 3 Q 9 P 6 = 8 R 3 Q 24
Ans. (B)

62. In an examination if a student looses mark for the wrong answer and gets 1 mark for the correct answer. If he got 30 marks for solving54 questions, then how many questions were correct?
(A) 30
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 42
Ans. (B)

63. The word formed in same sequence with the letter of the word ?INFOMATION? is?
(A) NATION –
(B) FORMAT
(C) RATIONAL
(D) ONION
Ans. (B)

64. Choose the correct number from the options?
015 : 00015: : 103:?
(A) 0103
(B) 0O103
(C) 1003
(D) 1030
Ans. (B)

65. Which one of the following will be seen same in the mirror?
(A) AUNUA
(B) OVCACV
(C) SVWVS
(D) TMAMT
Ans. (D)

66. What is the angle between the two hands of clock when it is 7 : 30?
(A) 45°
(B) 35°
(C) 325°
(D) 30°
Ans. (A)

67 Ashok starts to walk from the point P. He went 10 km towards North and 6 km toward South. After this he went 3 km towards East. How far is he now from P?
(A) 4 km
(B) 5 km
(C) 7 km
(D) 3 km
Ans. (B)

68. Complete the following series after choosing the correct option?c b a a ? b a ? a c c ? a a b b a a a ?c b a
(A) cabc
(B) babc
(C) bacc
(D) abcb
Ans. (B)

69. If it was Friday on 15th Aug. 2003, which day of the week will be on 15th Aug. 2005?
(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday
(C) Monday
(D) Thursday
Ans. (C)

70. In the following sequence there are how many such ?6? which are preceded by 8 and followed by 3?
7 8 6 3 2 7 1 8 6 8 9 8 6 1 8 6 3 1 8
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans. (B)

IAF Previous Question Papers

IAF Previous Question Papers
Model Test Questions GK Objective For Indian Air Force Airman in Group ?Y? (Non-Tech.) Selection Test

1. Vojislav Kostunica is the President of
(a) Albania
(b) Bulgaria
(c) Romania
(d) Yugoslavia
Answer.d

2. Water is flowing through a tube of non-uniform cross?section. If the radii of the tube at the entrance and exit are in the ratio 3 : 2, then the ratio of the rate of flow of water at the entrance and exit respectively is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 4 :9
(c) 8 : 27
(d) 9 1 4
Answer.d

3. The Biosphere Reserve ?Dehang Debang? is located in
(u) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
Answer.a

4. Two independent States of India and Pakistan were created by

(a) the Simla Conference
(b) the Cripps Proposal
(c) the Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) the Indian Independence Act
Answer.d

5. Consider the following statements :

1 When the Vice?President discharges the functions of the President, he would be entitled to the same emoluments, allowances and privileges to which the President is entitled under the Constitution,
2, The resignation of the Prime Minister means the resignation of the whole cabinet.
3. It is on the advice ofthe Prime Minister that the President summons and prorogues Parliament and dissolves the Lok Sabha.
4. A vote of No?Confidence against one Minister in the Lok Sabha is a vote against the whole Council of Ministers. Which of tl1ese statements are correct?
(a) I, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) land 4
Answer.c

6. The number of unpaired electrons in Mn2+ is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer.d

7. When Hari Har and Bukka set up a principality in the South India, which later became Vijayanagar Empire, who was the Delhi Sultan?
(a) Jalaluddin Khahi
(b) Alztuddin Khalji
(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(d) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
Answer.c

8. Which one of the following was NOT a member in the meeting of G-8 countries held in Canada in the year 2002?
(a) France
(b) Japan
(c) Russia
(d) Sweden
Answer.d

9. In which one of the following States/U.Ts. is Jarawa tribe found?
(a) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Tripura

Answer.a

10. Match List I (Name of the Crop) with List II (Name of the High Yielding variety) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Name 0f the Crop) ( Name of the High yielding variety)
A. Maize 1. Arjun
B. Paddy 2. Jaya
C. Wheat 3. Ranjit

Codes :
(a) A B C 1 2 3
(b) A B C 3 2 1
(c) A B C 2 3 1
(d) A B C 3 1 2
Answer.b

11. Which of the following is equivalent to national income?
(a) Gross domestic product at market prices
(b) Net domestic product at factor prices
(c) Net national product at market prices
(d) Net national product at factor cost
Answer.d

12. The youngest ever male Grandmaster in chess, declared in the year 2002, hailed from
(a) Ukraine
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) China
Answer.c

13. Who among the following founded the Theosophical Society in India?
(a) Madame Blavatsky and Annie Besant
(b) Madam Blavatsky and H. S. Olcott
(c) H. S. Olcott and Annie Besant
(d) A.O, Hume and Annie Besant
Answer.b

14.At which Congress session did Dadabhai Naoroji announce that Swarai was the goal of India?s political efforts?
(a) 1886 Calcutta session
(b) 1893 Lahore session
(c) 1905 Benares session
(d) 1906 Calcutta session
Answer.d

15. ?The Kashmir Committee? which was formed recently is headed by
(a) Arun Jaitley
(b) Ram Iethmalani
(c) K. C. Pant
(d) Jagmohan
Answer.b

17. An electric bulb of 60 Watts?250 Volts ? is connected to 1 source of 250 V a.c. mains. The bulb is burned for 100 days at the rate of 5 hours per day. What is the total cost of electricity consumed if the cost of cne unit
is Rs. 27
(a) Rs. I0
(b) Rs. 30
(c) Rs. 60
(d) Rs. 100
Answer.c

19. Consider the following statements with reference to rainy tropical climate regions :
l. These usually extend not more than five to ten degrees on either side of the equator.
2. These are characterized by constant high temperature and humidity withlittle range.
3. These regions have sun overhead or nearly so throughout the year.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Answer.a

20. With reference to human nutrition, consider the following statements :
l. Bananas are richer source of carbo-hydrate than apples.
2. Bananas contain some amount of protein also.
3. Spinach has no protein at all.
4. Potatoes are richer source of protein than Peas.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2.
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l,3and4
(d) 1,2,3and4
Answer.a

21. Match List I (Commission) with List Il (Chairman) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

List I List II
(Commission) (Chairman)
A. Eleventh Finance Commission 1. A.M. Khusro
B. Expenditure Reforms Commission Geethakrishnan 2. Bimal Jalan
C. Tenth Finance Commission 4. K. C. Pant
D. Commission on Centre-State Relations 5. R. S. Sarkaria

Codes :
(a) A B C D 1 3 4 5
(b) A B C D l 2 3 4
(c) A B C D4 3 l 5
(d) A B C D2 1 4 3
Answer.a

22. Consider the following financial transactions :
1. Purchase of bankers cheques for Rs. 50,000 and above in one day.
2. Cash payment of more than Rs. 25,000for foreign travel at one time.
3. Securities transactions of more thanRs. 1,00,000.
4. Cash deposit of more than Rs. 50,000in any bank account in one day.
During which of these transactions is it compulsory to quote Income Tax PAN (Permanent Account Number)?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l,2and4
(d) 1,2,3and4
Answer.d

23. Whom did Brazil beat in the FIFAWorld Cup football final in the year 2002?
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) Nigeria
Answer.c

24. During freedom struggle, Gandhijilaunched the first peasant movement at
(a) Sabarmati
(b) Bardoli
(c) Bijolia
(d) Champaran
Answer.d

25. Consider the following statements :The Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution are fundamental because :
1. they are protected and enforced by the Constitution. ?
2. they can be suspended only in themanner prescribed by the Constitution.
3. they are enforceable against the State.
4. they cannot be amended.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,3and4
(d) 1,2and3
Answer.d

26. Which one of the following is the ore of Lead?
(a) Corundum
(b) Cinnabar
(c) Cerrusite
(d) Calamine

Answer.c

27. The property by which the ultrasound can be distinguished from audible sound is the
(a) speed of propagation in air
(b) speed of propagation in water
(c) intensity
(d) frequency
Answer.d

28. Which one of the following is the deepest lake?
(a) Baikal
(b) Balkash
(c) Tanganyika
(d) Victoria
Answer.a

29. Match List I (Mineral) with List II (Major Producer) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I List II
(Mineral) (Major Producer)

A. Rock Phosphate 1. Malaysia
B. Manganese 2. Brunei
C. Tin 3. Gabon
D. Petroleum 4. Morocco
Codes : (a) A B c D 2 1 3 4
(b) A B C D 2 3 l 4
(c) A B C D 4 I 3 2
(d) A B C D 4 3 1 2
Answer.b

30. Consider the following statements :
1. Heart is three chambered in fishes
2. Heart is four chambered in birds
3. All animals of class Amphibia are characterized by two pairs of limbs
4. In all reptiles, respiration is by lungs only
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3and4
(b) 1and3
(c) 2and4
(d) 2,3and4
Answer.c

31. Among the following States of India, which one has the highest amount of coal reserves?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(h) Maharashtra
(c) Orissa
(d) West Bengal
Answer.d

32. Consider the following statements with reference to Kashmir :
l. Kanishka introduced Buddhism to Kashmir in the 3rd century B.C.
2. The Huns occupied the Valley of Kashmir in the early 6th century A.D.
3. The Valley of Kashmir was ruled by the Ujjain Empire in the later part of the 6th century.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) I and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Answer.a

33. With reference to Maratha Peshwas, consider the following statements :

l. Balaji Vishwanath helped Saiyid brothers in overthrowing Farmkh Siyar, the Mughul Emperor.
2. During the tenure of Nana Sahcb, Bengal Nawab ceded Orissa to Marathas.
3. Madhav Rao compelled Hyder Ali of Mysore to pay tribute.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) l and 2
(b) l and 3
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer.c

Directions . The following 10 (Ten) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ?Assertion (A) ? and the other as ?Reason (R) ?. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers
to these items using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) Both A and R are individually true andR is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true butR is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is liaise but R is true

34. Assertion (A) .? Tropical cyclones do not develop very closeto the equator.
Reason (R) .? A weak coriolis effect retards the development of circular airmotion.
Answer.b

35. Assertion (A) : The Vernacular Press Act was repealed in1882 by Lord Ripon.
Reason (R) : The Act did not discriminate betweenEnglish Press and the Vernacular Press.
Answer.c

36. Assertion (A): The cultivation of cotton is concentratedin Maharashtra.
Reason (R) : The level of industrialization inMaharashtra is high.
Answer.d

37. Assertion (A) : Daulatabad fortress was besieged by the Mughal forces in the year 1631 and it had to be surrendered to them.
Reason (R) : Malik Ambar betrayed his Sultan during the siege of Daulatabad fortress by Mughal forces.
Answer.c

38. Assertion (A) .? The Government of India Act, 1919 was passed by the British Parliament to introduce ?Diarchy? inthe provincial government.
Reason (R) : Montague Chelmsford Reforms Committee had recommended the introduction of ?Diarchy? in the provincial government.
Answer.a

39. Assertion (A) : Water can exist in all three states i.e., solid,liquid and gas,
Reason (R) : Water has low dielectric constant.
Answer.c

40. Assertion (A) : The conductance of a solution of an electrolyte increases with rise in temperature.
Reason (R) : The number of ions present in unit volumeof a solution increases with rise in temperature.
Answer.a

41. Assertion (A) : Electrical resistance of carbon rod decreases with rise in temperature.
Reason (R) : Electrical property of carbon is same as of all other solids,
Answer.c

42. Assertion (A) : Sucrose reduces Cu++ to Cu+
Reason (R) .? Sugars having a free aldehyde or ketone can reduce Cu++ to Cu+
Answer.c

43. Assertion (A) : Ranjit Singh signed the Treaty of Amritsar in 1809.
Reason (R) : He was defeated by the East India Company,
Answer.c

44. Two solutions are said to be isotonic when they
(a) have the same vapour pressure
(b) are of equal concentration
(c) contain the same solute dissolved in them
(d) have same osmatic pressure
Answer.b

45. When Alexander invaded India, who were the rulers of Magadha?
(a) Haryankas
(b) Shishunagas
(c) Nandas
(d) Mauryas
Answer.c

46. Which one among the following is the highest peak?
(a) Kamet
(b) Kun Lun
(c) Nanga Parbat
(d) Nanda Devi
Answer.c

47. The winter rains in north-western Indiaare caused by the
(a) Westerly depressions
(b) Retreating monsoon
(c) Trade winds
(d) South-Westerly monsoon
Answer.a

48. With reference to inorganic catalystsand enzymes, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Inorganic catalysts do not initiate a chemical reaction but enzymes initiate a reaction
(b) Both inorganic catalysts and enzymes form short-lived complexes with thereactants
(c) Inorganic catalysts are more sensitive to temperature and pH while enzymes are less sensitive to temperature andpH
(d) Enzymes do not alter the equilibrium of a reversible reaction whereas inorganic catalysts alter such equilibrium.
Answer.b

49. Which one of the following sequencesis in correct chronological order that ultimately led to the setting up of World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
(a) GATT, Uruguay Rounds, Dunkel Draft,Marrakesh Treaty
(b) GATT, Dunkel Draft, Uruguay Rounds,Marrakesh Treaty
(c) Unrguay Rounds, GATT, Dunkel Draft,Marrakesh Treaty
(d) GATT, Uruguay Rounds, MarrakeshTreaty, Dunkel Draft
Answer.b

50. The highest body which approves the Five Year plan in lndia is the
(a) Planning Commission ?
(b) National Development Council
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Union Cabinet
Answer.b
Indian Air Force engineering knowledge
Indian Air Force Question Paper 2014 Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT)Indian Air Foce previous years solved question papers,IAF Indian Air Force Technical questions for fresher engineers,Indian Air Force Indian Air Force Engineering Knowledge Test (AFCAT) 2014 Question Paper Answers Previous Year Old Paper Answers,Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT) in IAF recruitment forms an important IAF question papers

1. In a communication system, noise is most likely to get into the system
(A) at the transmitter
(B) in the channel
(C) in the information source
(D) at the destination

2. When modulation frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant, the modulation system is
(A) amplitude modulation
(B) phase modulation
(C) frequency modulation
(D) angle modulation

3. Impedance inversion may be obtained with
(A) a short ? circuited stub
(B) an open ? circuited stub
(C) a quarter ? wave line
(D) a half ? wave line

4. HIGH frequency waves are
(A) observed by the F2 layer
(B) reflected by D layer
(C)capable of use for long-distance communication on the moon
(D) affected by the solar cycle

5. Which one of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-uda array
(A) Good band width
(B) Parasitic elements
(C) Folded diploe
(D) High gain

6. A duplexer is used
(A) to couple two different antennae to a transmitter without mutual interference
(B) to allow one antenna to be used for reception or transmission without mutual interference
(C)to prevent interference between two antennae when they are connected to receiver
(D) to increase the speed of the pulses in pulsed radar

7. Indicate which of the following system is digital
(A) Pulse ? Position modulation
(B) Pulse ? Code modulation
(C) Pulse ? Width modulation
(D) Pulse ? Frequency modulation

8. A forward error correcting code corrects errors only
(A) requiring partial retransmission of the signal
(B) requiring retransmission of entire signal
(C)using parity to correct to errors in all cases
(D) requiring no part of the signal to be transmitted

9. A typical signal strength received from a geosynchronous communication satellite is of the order of
(A) a few milli watts
(B) kilo watts
(C) watts
(D) few pico watts

10. Telephone traffic is measured
(A) with echo cancellers
(B) by the relative congestion
(C) in terms of the grade of service
(D) in erlangs

11. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in which
(A) logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and positive voltage respectively
(B) logic 0 and 1 are represented by negative and positive voltages respectively
(C) logic 0 voltage level in higher than logic 1 voltage level
(D) logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic 1 voltage level

12. A half-adder can be made from
(A) two NAND gates
(B) a NOT gate and an OR gate
(C) an AND gate and an OR gate
(D) an AND gate and an X-OR gate

13. Which of the following devices has its characteristics very close to that of an ideal current source.
(A) Field effect transistor
(B) Transistor in common bas mode
(C) Zener diode
(D) MOSFET

14. The main use of a common base transistor amplifier is
(A) as voltage amplifier
(B) current amplifier
(C) for matching a high source impedance to a low load impedance
(D) for rectification of a.c. signal

15. A class-B amplifier is biased
(A) Just at cut-off
(B) nearly twice cut-off
(C) at mid point of load line
(D) so that IB equals jut IC

16. If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16

17. A high PRF will (indicate the false statement)
(A) make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise
(B) make target tracking easier with conical scanning
(C) increase the maximum range
(D) have no effect of the range resolution

18. A solution to the ?blind speed? problem in a radar system is to
(A) change the Doppler frequency
(B) vary the PRF
(C) use mono pulse
(D) use MTI

19. The number of active picture elements in a television image depends on
(A) fly back time
(B) CRT screen size
(C) received band width
(D) FB ratio of receiver antenna

20. In a colour TV, the three primary colours are
(A) red, orange and blue
(B) red, blue and green
(C) red, green and yellow
(D) red, orange and green

PART B-5 AE (L): COMPUTER ENGINEERING

1. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which
(A) makes logic decision
(B) allows electron flow only in one direction
(C)works on binary algebra
(D) alternates between 0 and 1 values

2. NAND and NOR gates are called ?universal? gates primarily because they
(A) are available everywhere
(B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture

3. The ascending order of a data hierarchy is:
(A) bit-byte-record-field-file-data base
(B) byte-bit-field-record-file
(C) byte-bit-record-field-file-data base
(D) bit-byte-field-record -file-data base

4. A dumb terminal can do nothing more than communicate data to and from a CPU of a computer. How does a ?smart? terminal differ from dumb terminal
(A) it has a primary memory
(B) it has a cache memory
(C) it has a micro processor
(D) it has an input device

5. The main distinguishing features of fifth generation digital computer will be
(A) liberal use of micro processors
(B) artificial intelligence
(C)extremely low cost
(D) versatility

6. Which of the following terms is not used to refer to the recording density of a disk
(A) mega-density
(B) single-density
(C)double-density
(D) quad-density

7. The two kinds of main memory are
(A) primary and secondary
(B) random and sequential
(C) ROM and RAM
(D) central and peripheral

8. Which one of the following is not an octal number
(A) 29
(B) 75
(C) 16
(D) 102

9. Main problem with LCDs is that they are very difficult to read
(A) directly
(B) in bright light
(C) in dull light
(D) both (B) and(C)

10. Both computer instructions and memory addresses are represented by
(A) character codes
(B) binary codes
(C) binary word
(D) parity bit

11. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/an
(A) interpreter
(B) simulator
(C) compiler

(D) commander

12. All the keys on the IBM PC key board repeat as long as we hold them down. Such type of keys are known as
(A) typematic keys
(B) functional keys
(C) automatic keys
(D) alphabetic keys

13. What does the acronym ISDN stands for
(A) Indian Standard Digital Network
(B) Integrated Services Digital Network
(C) Intelligent Service Digital Network
(D) Integrated Services Data Network

14. Two basic types of operating system are
(A) sequential and direct
(B) batch and time sharing
(C) direct and interactive
(D) batch and interactive

15. Which of the following entity does not belong to word processing
(A) characters
(B) words
(C) cells
(D) paragraphs

16. A schema describes
(A) data elements
(B) records and filer
(C) record relationship
(D) all of the above

17. Which of the following is not a tool used to manage and control schedule performance
(A) CAD
(B) PERT
(C) CPM
(D) Gantt Chart

18. An expert system differs from a data base program in that only an expert system
(A) contains declarative knowledge
(B) contains procedural knowledge
(C)features the retrieval of stored information
(D) experts users to draw own conclusion

19. The virtual memory addressing capability of 80386 is
(A) 4 GB
(B) 16 GB
(C) 64 GB
(D) 64 TB

20. The 80486 microprocessor from Intel consists of
(A) a fast 32 bit CPU but no coprocessor
(B) a 32 bit CPU and an 80387 coprocessor only
(C) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor and memory management unit (MMU) only
(D) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor, memory management unit and a cache me

IAF Model Papers

IAF Model Papers

1. If 53 – 34 = 5334

65 – 46 = 6456

75 – 24 = ?

(A) 7524

(B) 7452

(C) 7542

(D) 7254 (Ans)

(E) None

2. When 12 + 10 = 1205

11 + 8 = 885

then 14 + 15 = ?

(A) 1005

(B) 120

(C) 7

(D) 2105 (Ans)

(E) None

Ans : 12 * 10 = 120. Just include 5 as the end digit. So 1205.11 * 8 = 88. Just include 5 as the end digit. So 885. Hence 14 * 15 = 210. Just include 5 as the end digit. Hence = 2105

3. What number comes next ?

4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, _________

(A) 36

(B) 100

(C) 80

(D) 64 (Ans)

(E) None

Ans : See the alternate numbers. They are squares of uniformly increasing numbers. The other set is in decreasing order.

In which of the questions from 4-8, three words have been given which have some common quality to them. This common quality is given as one of the five alternatives under it. Find out the correct alternative and mark it in the answer.

4. Sun, Earth, Mars

(A) Stars

(B) Moon

(C) Solar system (Ans)

(D) Sky

(E) Mercury

5. Cap, Coat, Trousers

(A) hair

(B) dress (Ans)

(C) turban

(D) umbrella

(E) None

6. Chennai, Mumbai, Kochi

(A) Port (Ans)

(B) Sea

(C) Calcutta

(D) City

(E) None

7. January, June, July

(A) Rainy season

(B) Summer

(C) Month (Ans)

(D) March

(E) None

8. Cheese, Curd, Butter

(A) ghee

(B) white

(C) milk (Ans)

(D) cow

(E) sweet

Find the next number in the series for questions 9 to 15.

9. 2, 1 1/3, 2/3, 0, ?

(A) 1

(B) -2/3 (Ans)

(C) 11/2

(D) 2/3

(E) 0

Ans : Subtract 2/3 each time.

10. 6.75, 4.5, 3, ?

(A) 5

(B) 2.5

(C) 2 (Ans)

(D) 1.5

(E) 8

Ans : Multiply by 2/3, to get the next number.

11. 4, 7, 12, 19, 28, ?

(A) 39 (Ans)

(B) 42

(C) 53

(D) 21

(E) 12

12. 15, 52, 26, 63, 37, ?

(A) 20

(B) 70

(C) 55

(D) 74 (Ans)

(E) 66

Ans : The second digit of each pair is the same as the first digit of the following pair. These then form simple series – 1, 5, 2, 6, 3, 7, etc. or 37 is added to the first number (i.e. 15) and 26 is subtracted from the next number. This process of adding (+37) and (-26) is carried on to form the series.

13. 10, 12, 32, 34, 54, 56, ?

(A) 58

(B) 60

(C) 76 (Ans)

(D) 61

(E) 67

Ans : Add 2 and 20 alternately.

14. 1, 2, 5, 26, ?

(A) 677 (Ans)

(B) 30

(C) 60

(D) 50

(E) 62

Ans : Each number is generated by squaring the previous number and adding one.

15. 2.4, 5.3, 8.2, 11.1, ?

(A) 12.1

(B) 14.2

(C) 14 (Ans)

(D) 15.1

(E) 16.1

Ans : Add 2.9 to the preceding item.

Pick the combination which goes in the blank space of this sequence for questions 60 to 20.

16. Fuel : Fire ::

(A) cold : heat

(B) fire : forest

(C) food : man (Ans)

(D) wood : tree

(E) smoke : coals

17. Hare : Tortoise ::

(A) telegram : letter (Ans)

(B) thesis : essay

(C) numbers : words

(D) egotism : modesty

(E) lie : truth

18. Skeleton : Body ::

(A) prisoner : cell

(B) law : society (Ans)

(C) prisoner : law

(D) jury : sentence

(E) law : jury

19. Ointment : Burn ::

(A) tears : consolation

(B) bread : meat

(C) butter : bread

(D) consolation : grief (Ans)

(E) happiness: grief

20. Fibre : Fabric ::

(A) average : aggregate

(B) nucleus : cell

(C) member : league (Ans)

(D) appurtenance : object

(E) obstinacy : deadlock
Placement Paper
AFCAT question papers for practice,Indian Air Force model question for learn and practice,AIR FORCE COMMON ADMISSION TEST (AFCAT) SCHEME OF SYLLABUS & EXAMPLE OF QUESTIONS

AFCAT General Awareness and Important sections to concentrate

1. The Headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is in ——-

(a) Geneva
(b) Paris
(c) Vienna – Answer
(d) Washington

2. In the Budget Estimates for 2011-12, an allocation of Rs.400 crore has been made to bring in a green revolution in the East in the rice-based cropping system of
(a) Assam & West Bengal only
(b) Assam, West Bengal, Odisha & Bihar only
(c) Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar & Jharkhand only
(d) Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar , Jharkhand, Eastern Uttar Pradesh & Chattisgarh – Answer

3. If the Budget for 2011-12 presented by the Finance Minister on 28.02.2011, the income-tax exemption limit for senior citizens (60 years to less than 80 years) has been increased to ——
(a) Rs. 2.50 lakh – Answer
(b) Rs.2.60 lakh
(c) Rs.2.80 lakh
(d) Rs.3.00 lakh

4. If the Anglo-Indian community does not get adequate representation in the Lok Sabha, two members of the community can be nominated by the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President – Answer
(c) Speaker
(d) President in consultation with the Parliament

5. For the election of President of India, a citizen should have completed the age of ——
(a) 25 Years
(b) 30 Years
(c) 35 Years – Answer
(d) 18 Years

6. Who said, “A good citizen makes a good State and a bad citizen makes a bad State “.
(a) Plato
(b) Rousseau
(c) Aristotle – Answer
(d) Laski

7. A member of Parliament will lose his membership of Parliament if he is continuously absent from sessions for
(a) 45 days
(b) 60 days – Answer
(c) 90 days
(d) 365 days

8. In India, the Residuary Powers are vested with ——
(a) Union Government – Answer
(b) State Government
(c) Both the Union Government and the State Government
(d) Local Government

9. Mention the place where Buddha attained enlightenment —–
(a) Sarnath
(b) Bodh Gaya – Answer
(c) Kapilavastu
(d) Rajgriha

10. ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated every year on —-
(a) 15 January
(b) 26 August
(c) 5 June – Answer
(d) 10 July
(e) 20 July

Indian Airforce second Section questions for learn and practice

1. A devastating cloud burst swept over on August 2010. Which one of the following statements with regard to Cloud Burst is not correct?
Cloud Burst is a localized weather phenomenon representing highly concentrated rainfall over a small area in a short duration of time
Cloud Burst occurs due to upward movement of moisture-laden air with sufficient rapidity to form cumulonimbus clouds
Cloud Burst occurs only in hilly areas-Answer
There is no satisfactory technique till now for predicting Cloud Burst

2. Evergreening of patents is done by
citing another use of the same product
citing another process of forming the same product-Answer
applying for extension of patent term
citing another product with same use

3. Which one among the following substances evolves heat when dissolved in water?
Potassium nitrate
Sodium chloride
Glucose
Calcium oxide-Answer
Calcium Oxide is commonly known as quicklime. Quicklime produces heat energy when mixed with water by the formation of the hydrate, calcium hydroxide which is used in whitewashing etc. More on Chemicals

4. Why is Switzerland unable to join European Union (EU) till date (2010) despite its government’s persistent effort to do so?
Few EU countries like France and Germany are opposed to Switzerland’s joining the Union
The Swiss people continue to vote against joining the EU as they do not want to lose Switzerland’s sovereignity-Answer
EU rejected Switzerland’s application as Swiss government did not agree to use
Euro as currency
All of the above

5. Eco-Mark is given to an Indian Product which is
rich in protein
environment friendly-Answer
economically viable
pure and unadulterated

6. When we eat something we like, our mouth waters. This is actually not water but fluid secreted from
nasal glands
oval epithelium
salivary glands-Answer
tongue

7. Along with goods manufactured using child labour, some of the developed countries have started to boycott goods manufactured in developing countries using ‘sweat labour’. ‘Sweat Labour’ implies goods produced byfemale labourers at a very low wage
labourers working in inhuman/unhealthy working conditions
labourers working for more than eight hours a day without any break-Answer
labourers where there is a wage discrimination between male and female labourers

8. Which one among the following groups of items contains only biodegradable items?
Wood, Grass, Plastic
Wood, Grass, Leather-Answer
Fruit peels, Lime juice, China clay cup
Lime juice, Grass, Polystyrene

9. Which one among the following is not true for Special Economic Zones?
No licence is required for import
Manufacturing and service activities are allowed
No permission for subcontracting-Answer
No routine examination of cargo for export/import by customs authorities

10. Sukhoi-30MKI Squadron is not stationed at
Tezpur
Pune
Jamnagar-Answer
Bareilly
As per latest news reports, besides the three bases at Pune, Bareilly and Tezpur, the Indian Air Force has started induction of a new Sukhoi-30MKI squadron at Chabua in Arunachal Pradesh.

11. Dog bite can cause rabies. Which among the following other animals can also cause rabies?
Donkey
Bat-Answer
Horse
Crocodile
The expected answer is Bat. But most of the warm-blooded animals (including horses and donkeys) can get infected with rabies and transmit it through saliva. Crocodiles on the other hand being cold-blooded animals are not known to have been infected with rabies.

12. The interest of the Vijayanagar and Bahmani rulers clashed in three separate and distinct areas in Deccan. Which one among the following was not directly associated with this intense conflict?
Tungabhadra doab
Krishna-Godavari delta/basin
Kaveri interior delta-Answer
Marathawada country

13. Wind is often found to blow in a hot summer day due to
Conduction of heat between air and soil on the Earth-Answer
Radiation from the soil
Convection current of air
None of the above

14. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India extends to
Treaties and agreements signed by the Government of India
Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States-Answer
Disputes relating to implementation of the Directive Principles of State Policy
A bill passed by the Parliament which is violative of the Constitution

15. Which one among the following was not a reform measure carried out by Mahmud Gawan of Bahmani Kingdom
The kingdom was divided into eight provinces or Tarafs
Nobles were paid salaries and were asked to maintain contingents of horses
A tract of land, Khalisa, was set apart for the expenses of the Tarafdar
Lands were measured and land taxes were fixed on that basis-Answer

16. Heavy water implies
Water which is used in heavy industries such as thermal power plants
Water which contains SO2-4 and Cl- of calcium and magnesium
deutrated water-Answer
water which has maximum density
Heavy water is also known as Deutrium Oxide More on Chemicals

17. According to Goldman Sachs’ review of emerging economies, by 2050 which one of the following would be the order of the largest economies in the world?
China-USA-India-Brazil-Mexico-Answer
USA-China-India-Brazil-Mexico
China-USA-Brazil-India-Mexico
USA-Mexico-China-India-Brazil

18. Most of the communication satellites today are placed in a geostationary orbit. In order to stay over the same spot on the Earth, a geostationary satellite has to be directly above the
Tropic of Cancer
Either North or South Pole
Equator-Answer
Tropic of Capricon

19. SIMBEX is an annual joint maritime bilateral exercise conducted between
China and India
Singapore and Indonesia
India and Singapore-Answer
Malaysia and Thailand

20. Which one among the following is a function of the Pro-Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Conduct of the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker
To check if the election certificates of the members of the House are in order
Swear in the members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected-Answer
Give his assent to the bills passed by the House

21. The term ‘demographic gap’ signifies the differencein sex ratio
in age
in child/woman ratio
between the birth and the death rate-Answer

22. Dead organs are generally stored in formalin. Formalin is
aqueous ferrous sulphate
aqueous formaldehyde-Answer
aqueous formic acid
aqueous ferric alum

23. Which one among the following is not true regarding the draft National Food Security Bill?
Every BPL family in the country shall be entitled to 25 kg of wheat or rice per month @ Rs. 3 per kg
The distribution will be on universal entitlement by ensuring coverage of every adult under the public distribution scheme-Answer
The Central Government shall allocate required quantity of wheat and/or rice from the central pool to State Governments, which will be distributed through fair shops
The draft Bill has been cleared by the empowered group of Ministers for discussion in the Cabinet

24. When items of jewellery made of metals such as copper or nickel are placed in a solution having a salt of gold, a thin film of gold is deposited by
cooling to below 0o C
heating above 100o C
passing an electric current-Answer
just keeping it for 10 minutes

25. Due to contraction of eyeball, a long-sighted eye can see only
farther objects which is corrected by using convex lens-Answer
farther objects which is corrected by using concave lens
nearer objects which is corrected by using convex lens
nearer objects which is corrected by using concave lens

26. Rainwater collected after 30 to 40 minutes of raining is not suitable for drinking because it
contains bacteria and dirt
contains dissolved toxic chemicals
is deficient in minerals
is acidic-Answer

27.Which one among the following statements about Ashokan Edicts is correct?
the Pillar Edicts were located in all parts of the empire-Answer
the Edicts give details of his personal concerns but are silent on events of the empire
the subject of inscribed matter on Rock Edicts differs completely with that of the Pillar Edicts
the Greek or Aramaic Edicts are versions or translations of the texts used in other Edicts

28. Mr. X was advised by an architect to make outer walls of his house with hollow bricks. The correct reason is that such walls
make the building stronger
help keeping inside cooler in summer and warmer in winter-Answer
prevent seepage of moisture from outside
protect the building from lightning

29. Which one among the following is not true of the Planning Commission?
It is an advisory body and makes recommendations to the Cabinet
It is responsible for the execution of development programmes and plans-Answer
It is responsible for formulation of a plan for the most effective and balanced utilization of the country’s resourcesIt indicates the factors which tend to retard economic development

30. White blood cells act
as a defence against infection-Answer
as source of energy
for clotting blood
as a medium for oxygen transport from lung to tissues

Courts in India

High Courts with jurisdiction in more than 1 state/UT

High Court

Jurisdiction

Guwahati

Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram

Bombay

Maharashtra, Goa, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu

Calcutta

West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Kerala

Kerala, Lakshadweep

Madras

Tamil Nadu, Puducherry

Punjab and Harayana

Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh

High Courts and Benches

High Court

Bench

Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram

Bombay

Maharashtra, Goa, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu

Calcutta

West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Kerala

Kerala, Lakshadweep

Madras

Tamil Nadu, Puducherry

Punjab and Harayana

Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh

High Court

Benchch

Allahabad High Court

Lucknow

Bombay High Court

Nagpur, Panaji, Aurangabad

Calcutta High Court

Port Blair

Gauhati High Court

Kohima, Aizwal, Imphal, Agartala, Shillong, Itanagar

Madhya Pradesh High Court

Gwalior, Indore

Madras High Court

Madurai

Rajasthan High Court

Jaipur

High Courts not in State Capitals

High Court

Location

Chattisgarh

Bilaspur

Gujarat

Ahmedabad

Kerala

Kochi

Madhya Pradesh

Jabalpur

Orissa

Cuttack

Rajasthan

Jodhpur

Uttarakhand

Nainital

Uttar Pradesh

Allahabad

Union Territories – High Courts

Union Territory

High Court

Andaman and Nicobar islands

Calcutta High Court

Lakshadweep

Kerala High Court

Puducherry

Madras High Court

Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Bombay High Court

Daman and Diu

Bombay High Court

Chandigarh

Punjab and Haryana High Court

Delhi

Delhi High Court

Points to remember
The Supreme Court of India came into existence on 28 Jan 1950 replacing Federal Court of India which had functioned from 1937 to 1950.
The number of Judges in the Supreme Court is Chief Justice and 30 other judges.
A judge of the Supreme Court of India can hold office upto the maximum age of sixty-five years.
The total number of High courts in India is 21.
The oldest High Court in India is the Calcutta High Court which was set up on 01 Jul 1862. It is one of the three Chartered High Courts to be set up in India, along with the High Courts of Bombay, Madras.
The upper age limit for appointment as a judge of High court is sixty-two years.

Facts to remember – Constituent Assembly
Facts to remember

The constituent assembly was formed on the recommendation of the Cabinet Mission which visited India in 1946.

The Constituent Assembly met for the first time in New Delhi on 9 December, 1946 in the Constitution Hall which is now known as the Central Hall of Parliament House.

Mr. Sachchidanand Sinha was elected provisional chairman of the assembly.

Dr Rajendra Prasad later became the permanent chairman of the constituent assembly.

On 13 December, 1946, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution which resolved to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a Constitution.

The Constituent Assembly took almost three years (two years, eleven months and seventeen days to be precise) to complete its historic task of drafting the Constitution for Independent India.

The Constituent Assembly held eleven sessions covering a total of 165 days.

India is governed in terms of the Constitution, which was adopted on 26 November, 1949, which was the last day of the Eleventh session of the Constituent Assembly.

This date finds mention in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution thus IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.

The honourable members appended their signatures to the constitution on 24 January, 1950.

The Constitution of India came into force on 26 January, 1950. On that day, the Constituent Assembly ceased to exist, transforming itself into the Provisional Parliament of India until a new Parliament was constituted in 1952

Important Dates – Constituent Assembly to Constitution

Constituent Assembly met for the first time

Objectives Resolution moved

Constitution adopted

Signed by members

Constitution came into force and Constituent Assembly ceased to exist

09 Dec 1946

13 Dec 1946

26 Nov 1949

24 Jan 1950

26 Jan 1950

Chairmen of various committees in the Constituent Assembly
Committee

Chairman

Committee on the Rules of Procedure

Rajendra Prasad

Steering Committee

Rajendra Prasad

Finance and Staff Committee

Rajendra Prasad

Credential Committee

Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

House Committee

B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya

Order of Business Committee

K.M. Munsi

Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag

Rajendra Prasad

Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly

G.V. Mavalankar

States Committee

Jawaharlal Nehru

Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas

Vallabhbhai Patel

Minorities Sub-Committee

H.C. Mookherjee

Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee

J.B. Kripalani

North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Exluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee

Gopinath Bardoloi

Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee

A.V. Thakkar

Union Powers Committee

Jawaharlal Nehru

Union Constitution Committee

Jawaharlal Nehru

Drafting Committee

B.R. Ambedkar

Indian Air Force(IAF ) Model Question Paper

1. The probability of hitting a target from one gun 9/10, from another gun is 7/10. If both gun are fired at the same time, the probability of hitting the target is
(A) 2/20
(B) 63/100
(C) 16/20
(D) 63/20

2. If the three vectors a, b and c are coplanar , then the missed product a x b. c is
(A) Zero
(B) Non-Zero
(C) Unity
(D) Non of these

6. When a body hits an obstacle, the force with which it hits the obstacle depends upon its
(A) average velocity
(B) velocity at the instant of collision
(C) initial velocity
(D) all of these

7. The wavelength of visible light is of the order of
(A) 1?m
(B) 100 ?m
(C) 1mm
(D) 1 ?br> >

8. Whenever a source of sound moves towards an observer
(A) the frequency heard by the observer is less than that of the source
(B) the frequency heard by the observer is greater than that of the source
(C) the frequency heard by the observer is unchanged
(D) the wavelength of sound heard is greater than that of the sound emitted

9. Moving electric charges will interact with
(A) electric field only
(B) magnetic field only
(C) both of these
(D) none of these

10. Gamma radiation is most similar to
(A) sound waves
(B) X-ray
(C) Alpha particles
(D) neutrons

11. The fundamental particle responsible for keeping the nucleus together is
(A) meson
(B) anti proton
(C) positron
(D) muon

12. Air contains 21% oxygen by volume and the rest nitrogen. If the barometer pressure is 740 mm of Hg the partial pressure of oxygen is close to
(A) 155 mm of Hg
(B) 310 mm of Hg
(C) 465 mm of Hg
(D) 162 mm of Hg

13. In the electrolytic cell
(A) electrical energy is converted into chemical energy
(B) chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
(C) mechanical energy is converted into potential energy
(D) potential energy is converted into kinetic energy

14. The force required to maintain a body at constant speed in free space is equal to
(A) the mass of the body
(B) zero
(C) the weight of the body
(D) the force required to stop it

15. If the length of a spring is halved, the spring constant becomes
(A) half
(B) 1/4th
(C) double
(D) four times

16. The coefficient of static friction depends on
(A) the material of the bodies in contact
(B) the quality of surface finish of the bodies
(C) the presence of foreign matter between the surface
(D) all of these

17. The units of angular impulse in SI system are
(A) Nms
(B) Ns
(C) Nm/s
(D) Ns/m

19. Stainless steel contains iron and
(A) Chromium and nickel
(B) Chromium and carbon
(C) Nickel and carbon
(D) Chromium and manganese

20. The property of material by which it offers resistance to scratching or indentation is called
(A) Brittleness
(B) Hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) Resilience

21. The failure of a material due to repeated stressing is known as
(A) Creep
(B) Fracture
(C) Fatigue
(D) Brittle Fracture

22. The electric device which blocks DC but allows AC is called
(A) Capacitor
(B) Inductor
(C) Amplifier
(D) Transducer

23. When a charge is moved from one point to another in an electric field, the work done is
(A) independent of the path
(B) zero along the direction of the field
(C) measured in Joules per metre
(D) measure in Volt per metre

24. A capacitor with lowest leakage is
(A) Paper
(B) Ceramic
(C) Polyester
(D) Mica

25. A zener diode operates
(A) In an extremely high forward bias
(B) In an extremely low reverse bias
(C) In an extremely low forward bias
(D) In a reverse bias higher than laid down voltage

26. The specific gravity of a lead acid cell is often used as a measure of its
(A) Rate of discharge
(B) Operating temperature
(C) State of charge
(D) Life expectancy

27. An uniformly distributed load is one which
(A) Acts at a point on a beam
(B) Spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(C) Varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(D) loads the beam from one end only

28. A steam engine device which keeps the speed of the engine, all loads, constant is known as
(A) Flywheel
(B) Eccentric
(C) Connecting rod
(D) Governor

29. The refrigerant hiving the lowest freezing point is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Freon ? 11
(D) Freon ? 22

30. Heat and work are
(A) Path functions
(B) Properties of a substance
(C) Point functions
(D) Absolute units
Technical – Other

Indian Airforce

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Indian Air Force General Engineering Question Paper 2011 Engineering Knowledge Test
Indian Air Force Branch: Electronics and Communication

Branch: Electronics and Communications Time: 20min

1. In a communication system, noise is most likely to get into the system
(A) At the transmitter
(B) In the channel
(C) In the information source
(D) At the destination

2. When modulation frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant, the modulation system is
(A) Amplitude modulation
(B) Phase modulation
(C) Frequency modulation
(D) Angle modulation

3. Impedance inversion may be obtained with
(A) A short – circuited stub
(B) An open – circuited stub
(C) A quarter – wave line
(D) A half – wave line

4. HIGH frequency waves are
(A) Observed by the F2 layer
(B) Reflected by D layer
(C) Capable of use for long-distance communication on the moon
(D) Affected by the solar cycle

5. Which one of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-uda array?
(A) Good band width
(B) Parasitic elements
(C) Folded dipole
(D) High gain

6. A duplexer is used
(A) To couple two different antennae to a transmitter without mutual interference
(B) To allow one antenna to be used for reception or transmission without mutual interference
(C) To prevent interference between two antennae when they are connected to receiver
(D) To increase the speed of the pulses in the pulsed radar

7. Indicate which of the following system is digital
(A) Pulse – Position modulation
(B) Pulse – Code modulation
(C) Pulse – Width modulation
(D) Pulse – Frequency modulation

8. A forward error correcting code corrects errors only
(A) Requiring partial retransmission of the signal
(B) Requiring retransmission of entire signal
(C) Using parity to correct to errors in all cases
(D) Requiring no part of the signal to be transmitted

9. A typical signal strength received from a geosynchronous communication satellite is of the order of
(A) A few milli watts
(B) Kilo watts
(C) Watts
(D) Few pico watts

10. Telephone traffic is measured
(A) With echo cancellers
(B) By the relative congestion
(C) In terms of the grade of service
(D) In erlangs

11. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in which
(A) Logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and positive voltage respectively
(B) Logic 0 and 1 are represented by negative and positive voltages respectively
(C) Logic 0 voltage level in higher than logic 1 voltage level
(D) Logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic 1 voltage level

12. A half-adder can be made from
(A) Two NAND gates
(B) A NOT gate and an OR gate
(C) An AND gate and an OR gate
(D) An AND gate and an X-OR gate

13. Which of the following devices has its characteristics very close to that of an ideal current source?
(A) Field effect transistor
(B) Transistor in common bas mode
(C) Zener diode
(D) MOSFET

14. The main use of a common base transistor amplifier is
(A) As voltage amplifier
(B) Current amplifier
(C) For matching a high source impedance to a low load impedance
(D) For rectification of a.c. signal

15. A class-B amplifier is biased
(A) Just at cut-off
(B) Nearly twice cut-off
(C) At mid point of load line
(D) so that IB equals jut IC

16. If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16

17. A high PRF will (indicate the false statement)
(A) Make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise
(B) Make target tracking easier with conical scanning
(C) Increase the maximum range
(D) Have no effect of the range resolution

18. A solution to the “blind speed” problem in a radar system is to
(A) Change the Doppler frequency
(B) Vary the PRF
(C) Use mono pulse
(D) Use MTI

19. The number of active picture elements in a television image depends on
(A) Fly back time
(B) CRT screen size
(C) Received band width
(D) FB ratio of receiver antenna

20. In a color TV, the three primary colors are
(A) Red, orange and blue
(B) Red, blue and green
(C) Red, green and yellow
(D) Red, orange and green
Placement Paper
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Indian Air Force Common admission Test AFCAT SET – 1
Instructions for candidates
TIME ALLOTTED – 2 HRS.
1. Total No. of Questions–100. Each Question is of three marks.
2. One mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
3. Do not write or mark on the Question Paper.
4. Question Paper to be returned before leaving the Exam Hall.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
We stand poised precariously and challengingly on the razor’s edge of destiny. We are now at the mercy of atom bombs and the like which would destroy us completely if we fail to
control them wisely. And wisdom in this crisis means sensitiveness to the basic values of life; it means a vivid realization that we are literally living in one world where we must either swim together or sink together. We cannot afford to tamper with man’s single minded loyalty to peace and international understanding. Anyone, who does it is a traitor not only to man’s past and present, but also to his future, because he is mortgaging the destiny of unborn generations.

Q1. From the tone and style of the passage it appears that the writer is-
(a) a prose writer with a fascination for images and metaphors.
(b) a humanist with a clear foresight.
(c) a traitor who wishes to mortgage the destiny of future generations.
(d) unaware of the global power situation.
Q2. The best way to escape complete annihilation in an atomic war is to-
(a) work for international understanding and harmony.
(b) invent more powerful weapons.
(c) turn to religion.
(d) ban nuclear weapons.
Q3. The phrase ‘razor’s edge of destiny’ means a/an-
(a) enigma that cuts through the pattern of life like the edge of a razor.
(b) critical situation that foreordains the future.
(c) sharp line of division that marks the alternative courses of action in the future.
(d) destiny with sharp edges.
Q4. According to the writer, ‘wisdom’ on the razor’s edge of destiny means:
(a) awareness that we stand poised precariously on the razor’s edge of destiny.
(b) determination to ban nuclear weapons.
(c) responsibility to the ‘unborn generations’.
(d) awareness of the basic values of life.
Q5. The author is concerned about the threat of nuclear weapons because he feels that-
(a) a nuclear war will destroy human civilization.
(b) all countries are interlinked and one cannot escape the consequences of what
happens to another country.
(c) the world is on the brink of disaster.
(d) his country is threatened by a nuclear war.
In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the answer is (d) “No error”.
Q6. A person I met (a)/in the theatre (b)/was the playwright himself. (c)/No error (d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q7. They walked (a)/besides each other (b)/in silence. (c)/No error (d).No error (d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q8. We returned to the guest house (a)/impressed by (b)/what we had seen. (c)/No error (d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q9. The judge was convinced (a)/that neither (b)/of the five accused was guilty. (c)/No error (d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q10. The municipality is going (a) /to built a new school (b)/near the park. (c)/ No error (d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Set – 1 2
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Q11. His actions had ________ pain and suffering on thousands of people.
(a) affected
(b) imposed
(c) inflicted
(d) deplored

Q12. The Government will ______ all resources to fight poverty.
(a) collect
(b) exploit
(c) harness
(d) muster

Q13. The children ______ crackers to celebrate the victory of their team.
(a) burst
(b) fired
(c) shot
(d) released

Q14. I am ______ forward to our picnic scheduled in the next month.
(a) seeing
(b) looking
(c) planning
(d) thinking

Q15. I hope you must have _____ by now that failures are the stepping stones to success.
(a) known
(b) felt
(c) decided
(d) realized

In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q16. CAUSED
(a) Brought about
(b) Brought forward
(c) Brought out
(d) Brought over

Q17. PLACID
(a) Plain
(b) Clear
(c) Poor
(d) Calm

Q18. AUDACIOUS
(a) Obvious
(b) Daring
(c) Ardent
(d) Affluent

Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q19. MONOLOGUE
(a) Prologue
(b) Epilogue
(c) Dialogue
(d) Catalogue

Q20. DELETE
(a) Imbibe
(b) Improve
(c) Insert
(d) Inspire

Q21. AMBIGUITY
(a) Certainty
(b) Clarity
(c) Rationality
(d) Laxity

Choose the correct answer.
Q22. The First Battle of Panipat was fought between-
(a) Akbar & Hemu
(b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Akbar & Rana Sanga
(d) Ahmad Shah Abdali & Marathas

Q23. Fa-hien visited India during the reign of-
(a) Chandra Gupta Maurya
(b) Bindusara
(c) Chandra Gupta II
(d) Bimbisara

Q24. Gandhiji’s first experience with Satyagraha came up in-
(a) Dandi
(b) Champaran
(c) Bengal
(d) Natal

Q25. During whose tenure as the viceroy of India were the great Martyrs Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru hanged?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Lord Chelmford

Q26. The winner of the highest number of gold medals in an Olympic game is-
(a) Mark Spitz
(b) Matt Biondi
(c) Michael Phelps
(d) Jenny Thompson

Q27. ‘Agha Khan Cup’ is associated with the game of-
(a) Football
(b) Hockey
(c) Badminton
(d) Cricket

Q28. Usain Bolt, the 100 meters race world record holder, is from which country?
(a) Jamaica
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Canada
(d) Nigeria

Q29. Only two cricket players have taken 10 wickets in an innings. One is Anil Kumble. The other is-
(a) Richard Hadlee
(b) Muttiah Muralidharan
(c) Jim Laker
(d) Andy Roberts

Q30. ‘Borlaug Award’ is given every year to an Indian scientist for outstanding contribution in the field of-
(a) Medicine
(b) Space
(c) Applied Science
(d) Agriculture

Q31. The highest Indian gallantry award which could be given in peace time is-
(a) Ashok Chakra
(b) Param Vir Chakra
(c) Kirti Chakra
(d) Param Vishisht Seva Medal

Q32. The most successful Satellite Launch Vehicle of Indian Space Programme to launch commercial satellites is known as-
(a) SLV
(b) ASLV
(c) PSLV
(d) GSLV

Q33. Which one of the following soils is most suitable for cotton cultivation-
(a) Red soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Loamy soil
(d) Laterite soil

Q34. The name of indigenously built Light Combat Aircraft is-
(a) Tejas
(b) Chakra
c) Vajra
(d) Trishul

Q35. The boundary between China and India is known as-
(a) Mc Mohan Line
(b) Radcliffe Line
(c) Hindenberg Line
(d) Line of Control

Q36. Equinox means two days in a year when day and night are almost equal. If March 21 is an equinox which is the next?
(a) 09 October
(b) 31 August
(c) 23 September
(d) 03 November

Q37. UNHCR, an organisation of United Nations, was established to provide/promote-
(a) Primary Education
(b) Health and Culture
(c) Relief
(d) Protection to refugees

Q38. Who authored the book ‘Train to Pakistan’?
(a) Salman Rushdie
(b) Khushwant Singh
(c) Mulk Raj Anand
(d) Vikram Seth

Q39. Vitamin necessary to prevent prolonged bleeding is-
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K

Q40. The famous classical dance form of Andhra Pradesh is-
(a) Kathakali
(b) Kuchipudi
(c) Mohini Attam
(d) Yakshaagna

Q41. The term ‘Carbon Credit’ is associated with-
(a) Coal reserve of a nation
(b) Reduction of Green House Gas emissions
(c) Fossil Fuel reserve
(d) Amount of CO2 an individual emits in a year

Q42. In a 225 meter long yard 26 trees are planted at equal distance, one tree being at each end of the yard. What is the distance between two consecutive trees?
(a) 10 meters
(b) 8 meters
(c) 12 meters
(d) 9 meters

Q43. A bonus of Rs. 1000 is divided among three employees. Rohit gets twice the amount Sachin gets. Sachin gets one fifth of what Gagan gets. How much amount does Gagan get?
(a) Rs. 500
(b) Rs. 625
(c) Rs. 750
(d) Rs. 120

Q44. A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. Instead, he multiplied the number by 52 and got the answer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was-
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 25
(d) 32

Q45. The average age of 35 students in a class is 16 years. Out of these students the average age of 21 students is 14 years. The average age of remaining students is-
(a) 15 years
(b) 17 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 19 years

Q46. After replacing an old member by a new member, it was found that the average age of five members of a club is the same as it was 3 years ago. What is the difference between the age of replaced member and new member?
(a) 2 years
(b) 8 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 25 years

Q47. The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs. 8000. The average salary of seven technicians is Rs. 12000 and average salary of others is Rs. 6000. The total number of workers in the workshop are-
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 23

Q48. In an examination a candidate has to get 35% of total marks to pass. In one paper he gets 62 out of 150 and in the second 35 out of 150. How many marks should he get out of 200 marks in the third paper to pass?
(a) 61
(b) 68
(c) 70
(d) 78

Q49. The salary of A & B together amounts to Rs. 2000. A spends 95% of his salary and B 85% of his salary. If their savings are same what is the salary of A?
(a) Rs. 750
(b) Rs. 1250
(c) Rs. 1500
(d) Rs. 1600

Q50. Out of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are male of whom 20% are literate. If, amongst all the inhabitants, 25% are literate, then what percentage of the females of the town are literate?
(a) 22.5
(b) 32.5
(c) 27.5
d) 37.5

Q51. A trader mixes 26 Kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 Kg rice of another variety costing Rs. 36 per Kg. If he sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per Kg his profit will be-
(a) -7%
(b) 5%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%

Q52. The difference between the cost price and sale price is Rs. 240. If the profit is 20%, the selling price is-
(a) Rs. 1200
(b) Rs. 1440
(c) Rs. 1800
(d) Rs. 2440

Q53. Samant bought a microwave oven and paid 10% less than Maximum Retail Price(MRP). He sold it with 30% profit on his purchase cost. What percentage of profit did he earn on MRP?
(a) 17%
(b) 20%
(c) 27%
(d) 32%

Q54. The price of a scooter and a TV are in the ratio of 7:5. If the scooter costs Rs. 8000 more than a TV set, then the price of TV set is-
(a) Rs. 20000
(b) Rs. 24000
(c) Rs. 32000
(d) Rs. 28000

Q55. The speed of three cars is in the ratio of 5:4:6. The ratio between the time taken by them to travel the same distance is-
(a) 5:4:6
(b) 6:4:5
(c) 10:12:15
(d) 12:15:10

Q56. The ration between two numbers is 3:4. If each number is increased by 6 the ratio becomes 4:5. The difference between the numbers is-
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 8

Q57. Rs. 800 becomes Rs. 956 in 3 years at a certain rate of interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 4% what amount will Rs. 800 become in 3 years?
(a) Rs. 1020
(b) Rs. 1052
(c) Rs. 1282
(d) Rs. 1080

Q58. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to gain Rs. 81 as interest, if rate of interest is 4.5% p.a on simple interest?
(a) 4.5 years
(b) 3.5 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 4 years

Q59. At what rate of annual simple interest will Rs. 10000 double in 15 years?
(a) 5.5%
(b) 8%
(c) 6.75%
(d) 7.25%

Q60. The value of (?) in the equation 365.089 – ? + 89.72 = 302.35 is-
(a) 152.456
(b) 152.459
(c) 153.456
(d) 153.459

Q61. A sum of Rs. 312 is divided among 60 boys and some girls in such a way that each boy gets Rs. 3.60 and each girl gets Rs.2.40. The number of girls are-
(a) 35
(b) 60
(c) 40
(d) 65

This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question four options are given. There is only one correct answer for each question. Mark the correct answer.

Q62. INCITE means the same as
(a) short
(b) delay
(c) place (d) provoke

Q63. SUCCUMB means the same as
(a) aid
(b) yield
(c) check
(d) oppose

Q64. ANOMALOUS means the same as
(a) disgraceful
(b) formless
(c) irregular
(d) threatening

Q65. FORTUITOUS means the same as
(a) accidental
(b) conclusive
(c) courageous
(d) prosperous

Q66 PERMEABLE means the same as
(a) flexible
(b) variable
(c) soluble
(d) penetrable

Q67. CONVOY means the same as
(a) carry
(b) flock
(c) standard
(d) escort

Q68. CITE means the same as
(a) illustrate
(b) reveal
(c) recollect
(d) quote

Q69. VOCATION means the same as
(a) hobby
(b) occupation
(c) post
(d) designation

Each of the following questions has an underlined/capitalized word. You are to indicate which one of the four choices most nearly means the same as the underlined/capitalized
word.
Q70. The benefits of the plan are likely to be transitory.
(a) significant
(b) obvious
(c) temporary
(d) cumulative

Q71. The hikers found several crevices in the rocks.
(a) cracks
(b) minerals
(c) canals
(d) puddles

Q72. BOOK is to CHAPTER as BUILDING is to
(a) ELEVATOR
(b) LOBBY
(c) ROOF
(d) STOREY

Q73. CARROT is to VEGETABLE as
(a) DOGWOOD is to OAK
(b) FOOT is to PAW
(c) PEPPER is to SPICE
(d) SHEEP is to LAMB

Q74. CONCAVE is to CONVEX as
(a) CAVITY is to MOUND
(b) HILL is to HOLE
(c) OVAL is to OBLONG
(d) ROUND is to POINTED

Q75. GOWN is to GARMENT as GASOLINE is to
(a) COOLANT
(b) FUEL
(c) OIL
(d) LUBRICANT

Q76. HYPER- is to HYPO- as
(a) DIASTOLIC is to SYSTOLIC
(b) OVER is to UNDER
(c) SMALL is to LARGE
(d) STALE is to FRESH

Q77. IMMIGRATION is to EMIGRATION as
(a) ARRIVAL is to DEPARTURE
(b) FLIGHT is to VOYAGE
(c) LEGAL is to ILLEGAL
(d) MIGRATION is to TRAVEL

Q78. OCTAGON is to SQUARE as HEXAGON is to
(a) POLYGON
(b) PYRAMID
(c) RECTANGLE
(d) TRIANGLE

Q79. TELL is to TOLD as
(a) RIDE is to RODE
(b) SINK is to SANK
(c) WEAVE is to WOVE
(d) WEEP is to WEPT

Q80. SHEEP is to LAMB as HORSE is to
(a) COLT
(b) DOE
(c) FAWN
(d) MARE

Q81. IGNORE is to OVERLOOK as
(a) AGREE is to CONSENT
(b) CLIMB is to WALK
(c) DULL is to SHARPEN
(d) LEARN is to REMEMBER

Q82. FREQUENTLY is to SELDOM as
(a) ALWAYS is to NEVER
(b) EVERYBODY is to EVERYONE
(c) GENERALLY is to USUALLY
(d) OCCASIONALLY is to CONSTANTLY
This test is designed to test your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. In each question, you are shown a picture of a block. To the right of the pictured block,there are five choices shown as A, B, C, D and E. Select the choice containing a block that is just like the pictured block at the left although turned in a different position.

The hidden figures test is designed to perceive simple figures in complex drawings. At the top of each section are five figures lettered A, B, C, D, and E. Below these are several numbered drawings. You must determine which lettered figure is embedded in each of the numbered drawings.
Placement Paper
Indian Air Force Airman Selection Test, 2008: Solved Paper Group ‘X’ (Technical) Trades,Indian Air Force previous years solved sample questions papers with answers and detailed explnations Airman Test technical test grades questions with answers,IAF free solved sample placement papers

Directions—(Q. 1 to 5) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Florence Nightingle was born in the year 1820 in a small town in Italy. Her parents were famous and rich. They looked after little Florence very carefully. But, Florence was thin and sickly.

One day little Florence said to her father, “father, I would like to be a nurse.” The little girl’s father said, “My dear, I do not think you can be a nurse. Nursing is hard work.” “I will try, ” said Florence. Soon she began to learn nursing at home.

One day Florence was returning home early from school. On the way she saw a dog lying on the road. It was crying bitterly. An unkind boy hit the poor creature with a big stone. It hurt right leg and it was bleeding badly. Florence became very sad. She gently carried the dog home and nursed the wound. She tied a bandage tightly round the leg. In a week the dog was quite well. Soon the dog became friendly with Florence. It wagged its tail and jumped around her playfully and licked Florence all over, as if, it wanted to say, “Thank you, little nurse, thank you.”

1. Florence wanted to become—
(A) An animal lover
(B) A teacher
(C) A nurse
(D) An M.L.A.
Ans : (C)

2. When Florence expressed her desire to become a nurse her father ?
(A) Agreed readily
(B) Was very doubtful
(C) Kept silent
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. On the way, she saw—
(A) An unkind boy hitting a dog
(B) A wounded dog lying on the road
(C) A dog limping across the road
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. Florence nursed the wounded dog because—
(A) She wanted to be a nurse
(B) Her father told her to do so
(C) She felt pity for the dog
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. The dog licked Florence all over to—
(A) clean her body
(B) express thanks
(C) show its anger
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 6 to 8) In each of the following questions choose the opposite in meaning—

6. Condemned
(A) Abandoned
(B) Shifted
(C) Acquiesced
(D) Taken in
Ans : (C)

7. Deny
(A) Renounce
(B) Confirm
(C) Controvert
(D) Disappear
Ans : (B)

8. Disparage
(A) Discredit
(B) Perceive
(C) Incline
(D) Approve
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 9 to 11) In each of the following questions choose the same word in meaning—

9. Discretion
(A) Judiciousness
(B) Examine
(C) Assent
(D) Accede
Ans : (A)

10. Dreadful
(A) Propitious
(B) Auspicious
(C) Frightful
(D) Estranged
Ans : (C)

11. Exchanted
(A) Attracted
(B) Captivated
(C) Influenced
(D) Comprehended
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 12 to 15) Choose the error and give its options from (A), (B), (C) and (D)—

12. It is not easy (A) / to beat out (B) / a swarm of (C) / wasps if they attack you. (D)
Ans : (B) beat off

13. I would (A) / do this (B) / if (C) / I was allowed. (D)
Ans : (D) were allowed

14. I asked (A) / him (B) / where (C) / did he live. (D)
Ans : (D) ‘he lived’ in place of ‘did he live’.

15. The soldiers (A) / as well as (B) / the commanders was (C) / running away. (D)
Ans : (C) ‘were’ in place of ‘was’

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Fill in the blanks with suitable options—

16. He hankers … money.
(A) over
(B) for
(C) after
(D) about
Ans : (C)

17. It was with considerable …… that we heard the news of his rescue.
(A) relieve
(B) reliefs
(C) relieves
(D) relief
Ans : (D)

18. He was accused … murder.
(A) for
(B) of
(C) with
(D) about
Ans : (B)

19. He is looking … his lost book.
(A) down
(B) into
(C) out
(D) for
Ans : (D)

20. Any activity which is prejudicial … law and order is punishable.
(A) for
(B) to
(C) from
(D) on
Ans : (B)

21. Average error of some measurement is—
(A) Arithmetic mean of the errors
(B) Arithmetic mean of the errors, leaving aside the errors’ signs
(C) Average of the squares of the errors
(D) Geometric mean of the errors
Ans : (B)

22. Number of significant figures in 0•00321 are—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans : (B)

23. In significant figures, the difference of 2•57 metres and 2•4 metres is—
(A) 0•17 m
(B) 0•70 m
(C) 0•2 m
(D) 0•485 m
Ans : (C)

24. E is the kinetic energy of an object, when it is projected at the maximum range of projection angle. At the highest point of its passage, its horizontal kinetic energy would be—
(A) E
(B) E/2
(C) E/3
(D) Zero
Ans : (B)

25. If some particle rotates on a circular path, the force that maintains it rotating uniformly is called—
(A) Centripetal force
(B) Atomic force
(C) Internal force
(D) Gravitational force
Ans : (A)

26. In a simple pendulum, isochronous length is equal to—
(A) Distance between centre of oscillation and centre of gravity
(B) Distance between the centre of suspension and centre of gravity
(C) Distance between the centre of suspension and centre of oscillation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Distance between the two continuous antinodes of a stationary wave is—
(A) One wavelength
(B) Half wavelength
(C) Two wavelengths
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

28. Two similar waves propagate in opposite directions in a medium—
(A) Absorb sound energy
(B) Create beats
(C) Create stationary waves
(D) Create resonance
Ans : (C)

29. Unit of reactance is—
(A) Ohm
(B) mho
(C) Farad (F)
(D) Ampere (A)
Ans : (A)

30. A hot-wire-ammeter measures the ……… of A.C. current—
(A) Peak value
(B) Average value
(C) Root average square current
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. In a p-n junction—
(A) There are two semi-conductor junctions
(B) There are two metal junctions
(C) There is a metal semi-conductor junction
(D) There is a metallic super conductor junction
Ans : (A)

32. The particles obtained from thermionic emission are—
(A) Protons
(B) Electrons
(C) Neutrons
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. In P-type semi-conductor, the main current carriers are—
(A) Electrons
(B) Holes
(C) Photons
(D) Protons
Ans : (B)

34. Dispersion of light is possible if and only if the medium is—
(A) Water
(B) Glass
(C) Water or glass
(D) Some transparent medium
Ans : (D)

35. Colour of light is identified with the—
(A) Speed of light in air
(B) Frequency
(C) Amplitude
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. In a set of playing cards, there are 52 cards. From this set of cards, two cards are taken out, at random. The probability of both the cards to be ace will be—
(A) 1/221
(B) 1/111
(C) 25/4
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
AFCAT Whole Test Papers
AFCAT-Previous Years Solved Question Papers

1. Consider the following statements
I. In a Multi-Point Fuel Injection (MPFI) petrol passenger car, the number of carburetors is equal to the number of cylinders
II. Octane number determines the characteristic of diesel fuel.
Characteristic of diesel fuel. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II Ans
(d) Neither I nor II

2. A block of the earth’s crust that has remained in position while the ground around it has subsides is known as
(a) horst Ans
(b) plain
(c) plateau
(d) young folded mountain

3. At the summer solstice, which one of the following latitudes will have the longest night ?
(a) 45o N
(b) 45o S Ans
(c) 55o N
(d) 66o S

4. The removal of rock, layer by layer due to weathering is called
(a) block disintegration
(b) deflation Ans
(c) exfoliation
(d) granular disintegration

5. Which one of the following is measured by a stroboscope ?
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Frequency Ans
(d) Torque

6. Which one of the following Acts abolished the monopoly of the trade of East India Company in India ?
(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 Ans
(c) Charter Act, 1813
(d) Charter Act, 1853

7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
(Oil refinery) (State)
I. Koyali A. Andhra Pradesh
II. Narimanam B. Assam
III. Numaligarh C. Gujarat
IV. Tatipaka D. Tamilnadu
Codes :
(a) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
(b) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
(c) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
(d) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A Ans

8. Among the following regions of India, which one receive the highest average monsoon rainfall from June to September ?
(a) Gangetic West Bengal Ans
(b) Eastern Uttar Pradesh
(c) Western Uttar Pradesh
(d) Panjab

9. The monkey ‘Lion-tailed Macaque’ is naturally found in which one of the following areas of India ?
(a) Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh
(b) Semi-arid regions of Gujarat and Rajasthan
(c) Shivalik hills of Northern India Ans
(d) Western Ghats of Karnataka and Kerala

10. In which of the following types of forests, is the teak a dominant tree species ?
(a) Tropical rain forest
(b) Tropical deciduous forest Ans
(c) Tropical thorn and scrub forests
(d) Temperature forest with-grasslands

11. Among the following plants, which one is not an annual plant ?
(a) Carrot
(b) Pea Ans
(c) Mustard
(d) Sunflower

12. Consider the following statements
I. In prokaryotic cells, cell membrance bears the respiratory enzymes
II. In prokaryotic cells, DNA is circular and enveloped by a protein coat
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II Ans

13. Which one of the following kinds of bonds link the two strands of DNA molecule at specific complementary bases ?
(a) Glycosidic bonds
(b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Peptide bonds Ans
(d) Phosphodiester bonds

14. Which one of the following is the egg laying mammal
(a) Loris
(b) Scaly ant eater
(c) Armadillo
(d) Duck – billed platypus Ans

15. Who among the following put forward the “Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characters”?
(a) August Weismann
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Hugo de Vries
(d) Jean Baptiste Lamarck Ans

16. Consider the following plants
I. Cashew nut
II. Cycas
III. Date palm
IV . Pinus
Which of the above is/are flowering plants ?
(a) I, II and II only
(b) II and II only
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I only Ans

17. Consider the following animals
I. Seals
II. Dolphins
III. Whales
Which of the above are mammals ?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III Ans

18. Size of mitochondria is
(a) 5-15 ?
(b) 1-10 ? Ans
(c) 50-150 ?
(d) 75-400 ?

19. 80 S ribosome have suburits of
(a) 70 S + 10 S
(b) 50 S + 30 S
(c) 60 S + 40 S Ans
(d) 60 S + 20 S

20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I List II
I. Dengue (a) Fungus
II. Malaria (b) Mite
III. Ringworm (c) Protozoa
IV. Scabies (d) Virus
Codes :
(a) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(b) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
(c) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B Ans
(d) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B

21. Who among the following was awarded the 2006 Ramon Magsaysay Award in the “Emergent Leadership” category ?
(a) S. N. Subha Rao
(b) Rani Abhay Bang
(c) Hema Bharali
(d) Arvind Kejriwal Ans

22. Recently, Srinivas S.R. Varadhan was awarded the prestigious Abel Prize for his contribution to which one of the following subjects ?
(a) Chemistry
(b) Mathematics Ans
(c) Nuclear Physics
(d) Space Technology

23. Recently, who among the following was awarded the Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding for 2005 ?
(a) Kofi Annan
(b) Mahinda Rajapakshe
(c) Orhan Pamuk
(d) Wangari Muta Maathai Ans

24. Where is the headquarters of the Mineral Exploration Corporation Ltd.,
(a) Mumbai
(b) Nagpur Ans
(c) Vadodara
(d) Visakhapatnam

25. Consider the following statements
I. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) reports annually to the General Assembly of the UN
II. The International Centre for Theoretical physics is operated jointly by UNESCO and IAEA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II Ans
(d) Neither I nor II

26. In which one of the following States is the National Thermal Power Corporation implementing its first hydroelectric power project ?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Uttarkhand Ans

27. Which of the following are covered under the fundamental rights in the constitution of India ?
I. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
II. Prohibition of employment of children in factories
III. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below ;
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I and II only Ans

28. As per the Constitution of India, how many members are represented by the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha ?
(a) 18
(b) 20 Ans
(c) 22
(d) 24

29. Which one of the following theories was used by Karl Marx to explain the process of class struggle ?
(a) Liberalism
(b) Dialectical materialism Ans
(c) Existentialism
(d) Darwin’s theory of Evolution

30. During the reign of which of the following dynasties did kalidash flourish ?
(a) Mauryas
(b) Sungas
(c) Guptas Ans
(d) Vardhanas

31. As per Census 2001, among the following Hill States of India, which one has the highest literacy rate ?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh Ans
(c) Sikkim
(d) Uttarakhand (Uttaranchal)

32. As per the Government of India, which one of the following is not a notified minority community ?
(a) Buddhist
(b) Jain Ans
(c) Parsi
(d) Sikh

33. In the parlance of economy/commerce, what is ‘Gilt-edged market’?
(a) Gold and Silver market
(b) Industrial securities market
(c) Market for safe (such as Government)securities Ans
(d) Market for software technology/service products

34. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of “Rapid Industrialization with particular with particular emphasis on development of basic and heavy industries?”
(a) First
(b) Second Ans
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

35. Which country does not well known lawn tennis player Rafael Nadal belong to ?
(a) Australia
(b) Chile
(c) Spain Ans
(d) Argentina

36. Who ended up with the highest aggregate of runs in the One-day Cricket World Cup 2007 matches?
(a) M Jayawardene
(b) M Hayden Ans
(c) R. Ponting
(d) H. Gibbs

37. What is the installed power generation capacity (approximate) in India ?
(a) 60,000 MW
(b) 80, 000 MW
(c) 1,00, 000 MW
(d) 1, 30,000 MW Ans

38. Among the following States, which one has the largest area of production of tea ?
(a) Assam Ans
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) West Bengal

39. For normal adult human beings, on daily requirement basis, which one among the following vitamins is required in highest quantity ?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B2 Ans
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin C
40. In Human liver, glucose is stored in the form of which one of the following ?
(a) Galactose
(b) Glucosamine
(c) Glycogen Ans
(d) Glycolipid
AFCAT Aptitude Question Paper

Indian Air Force AF CAT Logical Reasoning solved papers for practice, AFCAT model questions and answers Indian Air Force free solved sample placement papers, AFCAT solved question papers

AFCAT Test No. 1 Reasoning

1. Given below are some paragraphs. At the end of each paragraph are conclusions which could/could not be drawn from what has been stated in the piece. Mark the conclusions as follows:

A) Definitely True
B) Probably True
C) Cannot Say
D) Probably False
E) Definitely False

(I) “Earn bread, Uncle Cor ? How do you mean that ? Earn bread … or deserve bread ? Not to deserve one’s bread, that is to be unworthy of it, that certainly is a crime for every honest man is worthy of his bread. But unluckily not being able to earn it, though deserving it, that is a misfortune and a great one”. – Lust for Life – Irving Stone

1. There is not much difference between earning one’s bread and deserving one’s bread.
A B C D E
Ans : E

2. A man may deserve his bread, all the same not be able to earn it.
A B C D E
Ans : A

3. A man who cannot earn his bread is unworthy of it
A B C D E
Ans : D

4. Every honest man is worthy of his bread because he labours for it
A B C D E
Ans : A

5. A man who deserves his bread but cannot earn it cannot be condemned.
A B C D E
Ans : A

(II) When lying has become common currency among public figures who ask to be regarded for telling their ghost-writers improved true version of their lives, is it any wonder that the writers in the privacy of art should catch at these events which reveal the deeper, sadder as some would say, the more depressing aspects of life ? The story tellers; the truth – tellers are the least welcome guests at the feast of liars; they have not choice but to go their own way, writing the story. – William Henry

6. Biographers who stick to the truth are in fact rebels against the cult of falsehood being spread by those keen on showing themselves in the best possible light.
A B C D E
Ans : D

7. Genuine writers always catch at the more depressing aspects of life.
A B C D E
Ans : A

8. Story tellers are not always retailers of truth.
A B C D E
Ans : B

9. Those who get their biographies written by others do not like the ones who make such attempts themselves.
A B C D E
Ans : C

10. Public figures resort to falsehood because they have an image to project.
A B C D E
Ans : C

(III) The democratic method inevitably implies trying to understand the other party’s opinion – a certain give and take, and a certain adjustment to whatever the final decision might be if this does not happen, we simply go to pieces. In a great country like India there is a variety of opinion over almost every subject. We are not all regimented into thinking one way. Nor should we be. I object to regimentation and authoritarianism. I want people to develop their own minds and thoughts and to give free expression to them. – Jawaharlal Nehru

11. The author would like everyone to think differently
A B C D E
Ans : A

12. The author would like everyone to stick to one’s own judgement.
A B C D E
Ans : D

13. We may differ in opinions, but we must also try to understand the other party’s point of view.
A B C D E
Ans : A

14. In the opinion of the author, we must learn to bow to the viewpoint of the majority.
A B C D E
Ans : E

15. The author seems to be an individualist.
A B C D E
Ans : A

16. There is a certain number of swans swimming in a lake. There are two swans in front of swan, two behind one and one between two. What is the smallest number of swans that could swim in that formation ?

A) 5
B) 3
C) 8
D) 1
E) 2
Ans : B

17. Among the following, mark the statement that is correct

A) Six and six is eleven
B) Six and six are eleven
C) Six times six is eleven(Ans)
D) Six times six are eleven
E) None of the above

18. Two fathers and two sons each shot a bird and none of them shot the same bird. What could be the minimum number of birds shot ?

A) 4
B) 5
C) 3
D) 2
E) 1
Ans : C

2. Given below are some statements. On the basis of those statements, some conclusions have been drawn. Mark the conclusions as

A) Statement I supports the conclusion

B) Statement II supports the conclusion

C) Both statements I and II read together support the conclusion

D) Neither I nor II supports the conclusion

E) Cannot say with certainty

19.

i) A cat crossed my path while I was going for the interview
ii) I was unsuccessful in the interview

Conclusion : A cat crossing your path is an ill-omen.
A B C D E
Ans : D

20.

i) The heroes of history are immortal
ii) Men are mortal

Conclusion : Heroes of history are not men
A B C D E
Ans : C

21.

i) Girls love chanel perfumes
ii) Successful men wear chanel perfumes

Conclusion : Successful men wear chanel perfumes in order to attract girls
A B C D E
Ans : D

22.

i) Every woman wants to look and feel younger than she is
ii) Women are generally reluctant to disclose their age

Conclusion : Every woman is older than she says she is
A B C D E
Ans : D

23.

i) He arns Rs. 12000 a year
ii) He does not live on Rs. 12000 a year

Conclusion : He saves something every year
A B C D E
Ans : D

24.

i) Generally, people who are bald are of the intellectual type
ii) David is bald

Conclusion : David is an intellectual A B C D E Ans : C

25.

i) Hydrogen is lighter than oxygen
ii) Hydrogen is lighter than helium

Conclusion : Oxygen is the heaviest of the three gases
A B C D E
Ans : D

AFCAT Aptitude and Reasoning Solved Question Papers
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Indian Air Force General Engineering Question Paper 2011 Engineering Knowledge Test

Indian Air Force Branch: Electronics and Communication
Time: 20min

1. In a communication system, noise is most likely to get into the system
(A) At the transmitter
(B) In the channel
(C) In the information source
(D) At the destination

2. When modulation frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant, the modulation system is
(A) Amplitude modulation
(B) Phase modulation
(C) Frequency modulation
(D) Angle modulation

3. Impedance inversion may be obtained with
(A) A short ? circuited stub
(B) An open ? circuited stub
(C) A quarter ? wave line
(D) A half ? wave line

4. HIGH frequency waves are
(A) Observed by the F2 layer
(B) Reflected by D layer
(C) Capable of use for long-distance communication on the moon
(D) Affected by the solar cycle

5. Which one of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-uda array?
(A) Good band width
(B) Parasitic elements
(C) Folded dipole
(D) High gain

6. A duplexer is used
(A) To couple two different antennae to a transmitter without mutual interference
(B) To allow one antenna to be used for reception or transmission without mutual interference
(C) To prevent interference between two antennae when they are connected to receiver
(D) To increase the speed of the pulses in the pulsed radar

7. Indicate which of the following system is digital
(A) Pulse ? Position modulation
(B) Pulse ? Code modulation
(C) Pulse ? Width modulation
(D) Pulse ? Frequency modulation

8. A forward error correcting code corrects errors only doubt
(A) Requiring partial retransmission of the signal
(B) Requiring retransmission of entire signal
(C) Using parity to correct to errors in all cases
(D) Requiring no part of the signal to be transmitted

9. A typical signal strength received from a geosynchronous communication satellite is of the order of doubt
(A) A few milli watts
(B) Kilo watts
(C) Watts
(D) Few pico watts

10. Telephone traffic is measured doubt
(A) With echo cancellers
(B) By the relative congestion
(C) In terms of the grade of service
(D) In erlangs

11. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in which doubt
(A) Logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and positive voltage respectively
(B) Logic 0 and 1 are represented by negative and positive voltages respectively
(C) Logic 0 voltage level in higher than logic 1 voltage level
(D) Logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic 1 voltage level

12. A half-adder can be made from
(A) Two NAND gates
(B) A NOT gate and an OR gate
(C) An AND gate and an OR gate
(D) An AND gate and an X-OR gate

13. Which of the following devices has its characteristics very close to that of an ideal current source?doubt
(A) Field effect transistor
(B) Transistor in common bas mode
(C) Zener diode
(D) MOSFET

14. The main use of a common base transistor amplifier is
(A) As voltage amplifier-> CE
(B) Current amplifier (CB for HF applications)
(C) For matching a high source impedance to a low load impedance ->CC
(D) For rectification of a.c. signal -> any confi but generally CE

15. A class-B amplifier is biased
(A) Just at cut-off
(B) Nearly twice cut-off
(C) At mid point of load line
(D) so that IB equals jut IC

16. If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16

17. A high PRF will (indicate the false statement) doubt
(A) Make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise
(B) Make target tracking easier with conical scanning
(C) Increase the maximum range
(D) Have no effect of the range resolution

18. A solution to the ?blind speed? problem in a radar system is to
(A) Change the Doppler frequency
(B) Vary the PRF
(C) Use mono pulse
(D) Use MTI

19. The number of active picture elements in a television image depends on
(A) Fly back time
(B) CRT screen size
(C) Received band width
(D) FB ratio of receiver antenna

20. In a color TV, the three primary colors are
(A) Red, orange and blue
(B) Red, blue and green
(C) Red, green and yellow
(D) Red, orange and green\