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Category: IASRI Entrance Exam Paper

IASRI Entrance Exam Paper

IASRI Entrance Exam Paper

PART- I (General Agriculture)

Multiple choice questions (No. I to 30).
Choose the correct answer (a, b, c or ci) and enter your choice in the circle (by shading with a pencil) on the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions given on the answer sheet.

1. Which of the following crops have been approved for commercial cultivation In India?
a) Bt cotton and Bt brinjal
b) Bt cotton and Golden Rice
c) Bt maize and Bt cotton
d) Bt cotton only

2. This year (2010-11) the expected food grain production in India is
a) 212 million tonnes
b) 220 million tonnes
c) 235 million tonnes
d) 250 million tonnes

3.The genome of which of the following crops is still not completely sequenced?
a) Rice
b)Soybean
c)Sorghum
d)Wheat

5. To address the problems of sustainable and holistic development of rainfed areas,including appropriate farming and livelihood system approaches, the Government of India has set up the
a) National Rainfed Area Authority
b) National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas
c) National Mission on Rainfed Areas
d) Command Area Development and Water Management Authority

6. Which of the following sub-schemes are not covered under the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana?
a) Extending the Green Revolution to eastern India
b) Development of 60,000 pulses and oilseeds villages in identified watersheds
c) National Mission on Saffron
d) National Mission on Bamboo

7. The minimum support price for the common variety of paddy announced by the Government of India for the year 2010-11 was
a) f 1030
b) Z 1000
c) Z 980
d) 7 950

8. According totheHumanDevelopment Report 2010 of the United Nations, India’s rank in terms of the human development index is
a) 119
b) 134
c) 169
d) 182

9. Which of the following does not apply to SRI method of paddy cultivation?
a) Reduced water application
b) Reduced plant density
c) Increased application of chemical fertilizers
d) Reduced age of seedlings

10. Which organic acid, often used as a preservative, occurs naturally In cranberries,prunes, cinnamon and cloves?
a) Citric acid
b) Benzoic acid
c) Tartaric acid
d) Lactic acid

11. Cotton belongs to the family
a) Cruciferae
b) Anapardiaceae
c) Malvaceae
d) Solanaceae

12. Photoperiodism Is
a) Bending of shoot towards source of light
b) Effect of light/dark durations on physiological processes
c) Movement of chloroplast in cell in response to light
d) Effect of light on chlorophyll synthesis

13. Ergot disease is caused by which pathogen on which host?
a) Ciaviceps purpurea on rye
b) Puccinia reconditaon wheat
c) Drechlera sorokiniana on wheat
d) Albugo candida on mustard

14. Rocks are the chief sources of parent materials over which soils are developed.Granite, an important rock, is classified as
a) Igneous rock
b) Metamorphic rock
c) Sedimentary rock
d) Hybrid rock

15. Which one of the following is a Kharif crop?
a) Pearl millet
b) Lentil
c) Mustard
d) Wheat

16. The coefficient of variation (C.V.) is calculated by the formula
a) (Mean/S.D.) x 100
b) (S.D./Mean) x 100
c) S.D./Mean
d) Mean/S.D.

17. Which of the following is commonly referred to as muriate of potash?
a) Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium chloride
c) Potassium sulphate
d) Potassium silicate

18. Inbred lines. that have same genetic constitution but differ only at one locus are called
a) Multi lines
b) Monohybrid
c) Isogenic lines
d) Pure lines

19. For applying, 100 kg of nitrogen, how much urea would one use?
a) 45 kg
b) 111 kg
c) 222 kg
d) 333 kg

20. The devastating Impact of plant disease on human suffering and survival was first realized by epidemic of
a) Brown spot of rice in Bengal
b) Late blight of potato in USA
c) Late blight of potato in Europe
d) Rust of wheat in India

21. The species of rice (Oryza) other than O.sativa that is cultivated is
a) O. rufipugon
b) 0.longisteminate
c) O. glaberrima
d) O. nivara

22. The enzyme responsible for the fixation of CO2 in mesophyll cells of C-4 plants is
a) Malic enzyme
b) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
c) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
d) RuBP carboxylase

23. Which one of the following is a `Vertisol’?
a) Black cotton soil
b) Red sandy loam soil
c) Sandy loam sodic soil
d) Submontane (Tarai) soil

24. What is the most visible physical characteristic of cells in metaphase?
a) Elongated chromosomes
b) Nucleus visible but chromosomes not
c) Fragile double stranded loose chromosomes
d) Condensed paired chromosomes on the cell plate

25. All weather phenomena like rain, fog and mist occur in
a) Troposphere
b) Mesosphere
c) Ionosphere
d) Ozonosphere

26. Which of the following elements is common to all proteins and nucleic acids?
a) Sulphur
b) Magnesium
c) Nitrogen
d) Phosphorous

27. Silt has intermediate characteristics between
a) Sand and loam
b) Clay and loam
c) Loam and gravel
d) Sand “and clay

28. Certified seed is produced from
a) Nucleus seed
b) Breeder seed
c) Foundation seed
d) Truthful seed

29. Seedless banana is an
a) Autotriptoid
b) Autotetraploid
c) Allotriploid
d) Allotetraploid

30. Which one of the following is used to test the goodness-of-fit of a distribution?
a) Normal test
b) t-test
c) Chi-square test
d) F-test

PART- II (Subject Paper)

Multiple choice questions (No. 31 to 40). Choose the correct answer (a, b, c or d) and enter your choice in the circle (by shading with a pencil) on the OMR -answer sheet as per the instructions
given on the answer sheet.

31. Insect groups hitherto not known from India
a) Sialoidea
b) Zoraptera and Sialoidea
c) pa +Mantophasmatodea
d) Raphidoidea and Embioptera

32. ‘Pteralia’ and ‘Patagia’ are present ,respectively in
a) Lower margin of wing and Hymenoptera
b) Middle of wing surface and Neuroptera
c) Base of wing and Lepidoptera
d) Anal region of wing and Lepidoptera

33. Avermectins are
a) Octopamine receptor agonists
b) Chloride channel activators
c) Nicotine acetylcholine receptor agonist
d) Sodium channel modulator

34. Lufenuron is
a) Electron transport inhibitor
b) JH mimic
c) Chitin synthesis inhibitor
d) Water balance disruptor

35. Aenasius bambawalei is an endoparasitoid belonging to
a) Trichogrammatidae and parasitising Maconellicoccus hirsutus
b)Encyrtidaeand parasitising Phenacoccus solenopsis
c)Eulophidaeand parasitising Phenacoccus solenopsis
d) Eupelmidaeand parasitising Ceratovacuna bambawalei

36. Insect development in which successive instars have’quite different forms is known as
a) Hemimetamorphosis
b) Hypermetarnorphosis
c) Heteromorphosis
d) Amorphosis

37. Spinosyn is derived from
a) Saccharopolyspora spinosa
b) Polyspora spinosa
c) Streptomyces avermitilis
d) Streptomyces spinosa

38. Emamectin benzoate is derived from
a) Streptomyces avermitilis
b) Streptomyces scabies
c) Saccharopolyspora spinosa
d) Streptomyces emamectis

39. In cyclorrhapous dipterans, the fusion of corpora cardiaca, corpora allata and prothoracic glands is referred to as
a) Craber’s organ
b) Simpher’s organ
c) Weismann’s organ
d) Gyroscopic organ

40. In solid cone nozzle, the solid cone is formed due to
a) Bigger size of the cap
b) Bigger size of the orifice plate
c) Central hole in swirl plate
d)Small size of the strainer

ICAR-ASRB Paper
IASRI Research Paper

IASRI Entrance Exam – Agronomy Paper

PART ? I (General Agriculture)

Multiple choice questions (No. 1 to 17). Choose the correct answer (a, b, c or d) and enter your choice in the circle (by shading with a pencil) on the OMR -answer sheet as per the instructions
given on the answer sheet.

1.Who is the present Chairman of Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Right Authority (PPV&FRA)?
a)Dr. R.R. Hanchinal
b)Dr. P.L. Gautam
c)Dr. S. Nagarajan
d)Dr. Swapan K. Datta

2.Which among the following is another name for vitamin B12?
a)Niacin
b)Pyridoxal phosphate
c)Cobalamin
d)Riboflavin

3.The largest share in India’s farm export earning in the year 2011-12 was from
a)Basmati rice
b)Non-basmati rice
c)Sugar
d)Guar gum

4.The National Bureau of Agriculturally Important Insects was established by ICAR in ________, was earlier known as _______.
a)Bangalore; PDBC
b)New Delhi; National Pusa Collection
c)Ranchi; Indian Lac Research Institute
d)New Delhi; NCIPM

5.The most important sucking pests of cotton and rice are respectively
a)Nilaparvata lugens and Aphis gossypii
b)Aphis gossypii and Thrips oryzae
c)Amrasca biguttula biguttula and Scirtothrips dorsalis
d)Thrips gossypii and Orseolia oryzae

6.Which of the following microorganism causes fatal poisoning in canned fruits and vegetables?
a)Aspergillus flavus
b)Penicillium digitatum
c)Clostridium botulinum
d)Rhizoctonia solani

7.The cause of the great Bengal Famine was
a)Blast of rice
b)Brown spot of rice
c)Rust of wheat
d)Karnal bunt of wheat

8.Actinomycetes belong to
a)The fungi
b)Eukaryote
c)Mycelia sterilia
d)None of the above

9.A virus-free clone from a virus infected plant can be obtained by
a)Cotyledonary leaf culture
b)Axenic culture
c)Stem culture
d)Meristem tip culture

10.Which of the following is not an objective of the National Food Security Mission?
a)Sustainable increase in production of rice, wheat and pulses
b)Restoring soil fertility and productivity at individual farm level
c)Promoting use of bio-pesticides and organic fertilizers
d)Creation of employment opportunities

11.The term ‘Heterosis’ was coined by
a)G.H. Shull
b)W. Bateson
c)T.H. Morgan
d)E.M. East

12.When a transgenic plantis crossed with a non-transgenic, what would be the zygosity status of the F1 plant?
a)Homozygous
b)Heterozygous
c)Hemizygous
d)Nullizygous

13.The highest per capita consumption of flowers in the world is in
a)The USA
b)India
c)Switzerland
d)The Netherlands

14.Which of the following is a very rich source of betalain pigment?
a)Radish
b)Beet root
c)Carrot
d)Red cabbage

15.Dog ridge is
a)Salt tolerant rootstocks of mango
b)Salt tolerant rootstocks of guava
c)Salt tolerant rootstocks of grape
d)Salt tolerant rootstocks of citrus

16.Which of the following micronutrients are most widely deficient in Indian soils?
a)Zinc and boron
b)Zinc and iron
c)Zinc and manganese
d)Zinc and copper

17.Which of the following fertilizers is not produced in India?
a)DAP
b)Urea
c)Muriate of potash
d)TSP

PART ? II (Subject Paper)

Multiple choice questions (No. 1 to 30). Choose the correct answer (a, b, c or d) and enter your choice in the circle (by shading with a pencil) on the OMR -answer sheet as per the instructions given on the answer sheet.

1.If C:N and N:P (ratios) of a soil are 10:1 each, its C:N:P ratio would be
a)100:100:1
b)100:10:1
c)10:10:1
d)None of the above

2.The test weight of sunflower seed ranges from
a)30-40 g
b)40-50 g
c)50-60 g
d)60-70 g

3.The weed index (WI) value for weed-free check treatment is
a)0
b)1
c)-1

4.Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is measured by
a)Thermosensor
b)Alded ometer
c)Quantum sensor
d)None of the above

5.The actual K content (%) of a fertilizer sample having 1% K2O will be
a)0.63
b)0.73
c)0.83
d)0.93

6.The critical pH for availability of P to plants is
a)5.7
b)6.7
c)7.7
d)8.7

7.The general value of the proportionality factor C in Mitscherlich’s equation is
a)0.122
b)0.314
c)0.301
d)0.601

8.If grains per earhead are 50, test weight 40 g and wheat yield is 50 q/ha, the number of ear -bearing tillers (EBT) per m2 will be
a)200
b)225
c)250
d)275

9.Continuous zero-tillage in the crop field encourage the preponderance of
a)Annual weeds
b)Biennial weeds
c)Perennial weeds
d)Parasitic weeds

10.The planting value (%) of a seed lot having purity 90% and germination 80% will be
a)52
b)62
c)72
d)82

11.The queen of cereal is
a)Rice
b)Wheat
c)Maize
d)Pearlmillet

12.Udbatta disease is associated with which of the following crops?
a)Sorghum
b)Pearlmillet
c)Rice
d)Cotton

13.Acid soils, as per USDA, are those which, in 1:1 soil water suspension, have pH less than
a)5.5
b)6.0
c)6.5
d)7.0

14.The unit for crop growth rate (CGR) is
a)g/m2(leaf area) / day
b)g/g/day
c)g/m2(land area) / day
d)g/day

15.The error degrees of freedom of an experiment undertaken in a randomized block design with 12 treatments and 3 replications will be
a)20
b)22
c)24
d)26

16.Statistical transformation of data is advised before analysis of variance to make data follow which distribution
a)Normal
b)Binomial
c)Chi-square
d)Poisson

17.The amount of solar radiation continuously emitted by sun is
a)2.0 cal/cm2/min
b)2.0 cal/min
c)1.94 cal/cm2/min
d)1.94 cal/min

18.The resistance of Phalaris minorto isoproturon is due to
a)Target-site alteration
b)Sequestration & compartmentation
c)Enhanced degradation
d)All of the above

19.The equivalent acidity of (NH4)2SO4 fertilizer is
a)100
b)110
c)115
d)118

20.An annual sedge found in rice is
a)Cyperus rotundus
b)Cyperus esenlentus
c)Cyperus iria
d)Cyperus bulbosus

21.The pH of 0.1N NaOH solution would theoretically be
a)14
b)13
c)12
d)11

22.Irrigation water is not suitable for irrigation if it contains boron (ppm) greater than
a)1.00
b)1.25
c)1.50
d)2.50

23.Stomp (Pendimethalin 30 EC) required for 3 ha of field at 0.75 kg pendimethalin/ha is
a)2.25 kg
b)7.0 kg
c)7.5 kg
d)9.0 kg

24.The base temperature of rice for calculating GDD is
a)4.5oC
b)5oC
c)8oC
d)10oC

25.A film-forming anti-transpirant used in dryland agriculture is
a)Kaolin
b)Atrazine
c)Mobileaf
d)PMA

26.A narrow-leaf dicotyledonous weed is
a)Sphenoclea zeylanica
b)Spergula arvensis
c)Conyza canadiensis
d)Asphodelus tennifolins

27.The microorganism, constituting the largest share in the total microbial population in soil is
a)Nematodes
b)Fungi
c)Bacteria
d)Actinomycetes

28.A broad-leaved monocot weed is
a)Stellaria indica
b)Heliotropium indicum
c)Melilotus indica
d)Eichhornia crassipes

29.Economic optimum dose of a nutrient is calculated if the yield response is
a)Quadratic
b)Exponential
c)Linear
d)None of the above

30.One Baule unit of P (lb P2O5/acre) corresponds to
a)55
b)50
c)45
d)40
ICAR-ASRB Placement Paper

IVRI Written Test Model Paper – Physiology

1. Rumen gas largely consists of Carbon dioxide and methane in the proportion of …………………..

2. Urea is recycled in the rumen through ……………….and …………………….

3. If acetic : propionic ratio in the rumen goes down below ……………… the fat content decreases in the cow milk

4. The pH of ileal fluid ranges from ……………….to …………………..

5. The rumen protozoa store carbohydrate in the form of ……………………

6. The testosterone released from tunica interna is converted to estradiol, a female sex hormone under the influence of …………..

7. The estrogen produced by mammalian ovary or placenta normally are ………….., …………………..and ……………….

8. In ruminants, the placenta is of …………………. type

9. Grayish coloured corpus luteum present in ………………… (species)

10. PRL (prolactin) promote the secretion of progesterone by the corpora lutea in ……………..and ……………………(species)

11. Bruce effect in mice involve blockage of ……………….secretion which is necessary for maintenance of CL

12. the blood supply to udder is maintained by ………….artery

13. ……………..is the main source of energy in bull semen

14. Collapse of alveoli is known as …………………..

15. one gram of hemoglobin can bind with maximum of …………….ml oxygen

16. Expiration if regulated by ………………………centre of the brain

17. Rate of diffusion of carbon dioxide through respiratory membrane is about …………….times rapid than oxygen diffusion

18. The volume of air which remains in the lungs after forceful expiration is called ………………

19. Threshold level for low oxygen in air for sheep, goat and cattle is about ………………..meters above sea level

20.The critical environmental temperature at which the increase in respiration rate become marked is 60oF for HF,70o F for Jersey and ………………….for Brahman cattle

21.The most potent compound which can stimulate the closure of esophageal/reticular groove in cattle even up to two years of age is……………………….

22………………………………is the usual order of concentration of individual acids present in the rumen

23.Enzymes responsible for metabolism are located in the ……………………….(part) of spermatozoa

24.The estrous cycle of ewe is of ………………………………..days duration

25.The bull spermatozoa can travel ……………………cms per 30 minutes in the female genital tract

26.Sexual receptivity in case of ewe in heat requires the presence of……………………………(hormone)

27…………………..% of carbon dioxide transport occur in the form of Bicarbonate ion

28.Utiliozation coefficient for oxygen consumption is……………………% for birds and ………………..%for mammals

29.The nerve network Meissners plexus controls secretions of epithelial cell where as Auerbachs plexus control …………………

30.Coiled colon (Ansa Spiralis) present in ……………………and……………………….(species)

31.In GI system, contractile waves that travel short distance is termed as………………….and that travel longer distance is………………………

32.Daily production of saliva in cows comes around …………………………….litres

33.The first hormone ever discovered was …………………………..

34.Horse obtains around ……………………% of its energy requirements from large intestinal absorption of volatile fatty acids

35.Protozoan count of rumen is about …………………………ml of rumen content and it account for ……………..%of rumen metabolism

36. ……………………….hormone induces gene expression in mammary tissue for casein synthesis

37. Herbivores donot have ……………. phase of gastric stimulation

38. ………………..part of female reproductive tract is known as “neck of the womb”

39. Central frozen semen production and training institute is located at …………………..

40. Credit of first birth of a buffalo calf through AI in India goes to…………………institute

41. Electro ejaculation was first adopted by …………………….

42. ………………hormone is very important for the duct growth of mammary gland

43. The lactose content in milk is …………………..% and is the most consistent component of milk

44. It is estimated that about …………ml of blood must pass through udder for the production of one ml of milk

45. As per work physiology, contraction of ………………..(visceral organ) increase no of erythrocyte in the body.

46. Exercise result in increased cardiac output to meet the increased demand of working muscles for oxygen. The cardiac output =stroke volume X ……………………..

47. During strenuous exercise, cardiac output increases upto ……………….fold in horse

48. Race horses are most susceptible to deficiency of …………………(B vitamin)

49. Proteolytic bacteria represent about ………………% (range) of the total ruminal bacteria

50. ………………….is a measurement of the distensibility of the lungs and thorax and is determined by measurement of the lung volume change for each unit of pressure change

ICAR-ASRB Placement Paper
IVRI Model Paper

Biochemistry

1. The network of interrelated catabolic and anabolic pathways in cells is referred to as ______________

2. A system that exchanges both energy and material with its surrounding is said to be ______________

3. ________________ is a type of weak interaction that stabilizes the native conformation of a biomolecule or supramolecular complex.

4. The monomeric subunits of ________ are ribonucleotides.

5. The stretching and breaking of bonds that occurs during the conversion of a reactant to a product creates a ____________ state.

6. ____________ is a measure of randomness.

7. Enzymes enhance the rate of chemical reactions by lowering the __________ energy that constitutes an energy barrier between reactants and products.

8. mRNA molecules with two or more attached ribosomes are called ____________

9. ______________ is a component of eukaryotic cells consisting of microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments.

10. _____________ and _______________ are the two groups of extant prokaryotes.

11. The role of _____________ is to produce large number of ribosomes needed by the cell and have DNA that contain many copies of ribosomal RNA coding genes.

12. ________________ helps in the condensation of DNA molecule.

13. ____________, _______________ and __________ are three classes of cytoskeletal proteins.

14. ________________ is a complex of RNA and protein.

15. ______________ are molecular complexes of DNA plus associated histone and nonhistone proteins.

16. _____________ are compounds having electron-deficient functional groups; they tend to bond to electron-rich sites.

17. ______________ are steroisomers that cannot be superimposed.

18. ________________ are a pair of stereoisomers that are not mirror images of each other.

19. ___________ is the energy or heat content of a system.

20. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation = ____________________.

21. The glycan portion of glycoprotein is known as a ___________ group.

22. A covalent bond between two adjacent cysteines in a polypeptide chain is a __________ bond.

23. All stereoisomers must have at least one __________ centre.

24. ________________ procedure provides information about a protein?s primary structure.

25. The whole assortment of proteins in an organism.

26. ______________ are cellular agents that assist in protein folding at elevated temperatures.

27. _____________ is stable arrangement of few secondary structures.

28. ______________ is an amino acid which can either accept protons or donate them at a pH that is close to physiological pH values.

29. _______________ interactions are thought to be the driving force behind the formation of ?molten globule? during protein folding.

30. Individual amino acids in a protein is called a ____________.

31. ______________ refers to the portion of a protein that is often composed of noncontiguous amino acid sequences and is usually defined on the basis of its contribution to protein function.

32. _________ is a type of secondary protein structure that extends 0.15 nm per amino acid residue.

33. _________ is a type of secondary protein structure that extends 0.35nm per amino acid residue.

34. Disrupting the hydrophobic interactions of a single subunit protein would have the greatest effect on the ____________ structure of that protein.

35. Proteins that belong to a ___________ have related structural features though they are unrelated based on their amino acid sequences.

36. The alpha-beta subunits in hemoglobin comprise a single__________; the intact haemoglobin tetramer contains two of these.

37. The saddle conformation is a __________________ structure.

38. alpha-Keratin is referred to as a _______________ ____________ of protein subunits; haemoglobin with only four subunits is referred to as a(n) ____________

39. Beta turn is an example of ___________ structure.

40. ______________ occurs when the binding of one ligand increases or decreases the binding of additional ligands.

41. The _______________ immune system protects against bacterial infections.

42. ______________ has a hyperbolic oxygen binding curve, no quarternary structure and serves as an oxygen ?reservoir? in muscle cells.

43. ______________ has a sigmoid oxygen binding curve and has a quaternary structure.

44. ______________ is also called programmed cell death.

45. The metabolic intermediate _________________ binds to haemoglobin with a stoichiometry of 1:1 and promotes the release of oxygen.

46. A helper T cell can signal nearby lymphocytes by secretion of a signal protein called ______________

47. The contribution of lactic acid in muscle tissue contributes to the _______ effect, which explains the link between lactate production and an increased release of oxygen from haemoglobin.

48. RBCs transport carbon dioxide produced by respiring tissues in two forms: as bicarbonate ions and as _____________

49. ___________ are small molecules covalently attached to large proteins in the laboratory in order to elicit an immune response.

50. _____________ is a particular molecular structure within antigen that binds an individual antibody.
ICAR-ASRB Placement Paper

IASRI Question Paper

1. Pest Risk Analysis (PRA) is a sanitary and required to prepare 10 litres of 0.1% spray material?
a) 2.0 g
b) 109
c) 209
d) 309

2. Insecticide fogs produced by thermal energy nozzles using a stream of hot gas to vapourise liquid pesticide form
a) Fogs of droplet size > 15 µm dia
b) Aerosol droplets of size < 15 µm dia
c) High volume sprays
d) Mist droplet of size 20-500 pm dia

3. Mango stem borer complex belonging to the genus Batocera In India and adjacent S.E. Asian countries comprises of
a) Only rufomaculata DeGeer
b) rufomaculata, rubus, royilel and numetor
c) Only rubus (Linnaeus)
d) Only rufomaculata (DeGeer)

4. The hosts on which parasitoids oviposit readily, that they do not attack normally in the field are termed as
a) Factitious hosts
b) Alternate hosts
c) Laboratory hosts
d) Mass culture hosts

5. Phyl/ocnistis citrella is a leaf miner pest of
a) Citrullus vulgaris –
b) Only Citrus sp., and it is a specific pest
c) Citrus spp. + other Rutaceae
d) All Rutaceae

6. Vapour heat treatment as a quarantine measure is to be done between temperature range of
a) 40 and 47°C and hours of exposure is important
b) 50 and 57°C and hours of exposure is immaterial
c) 40 and 47°C and time and flow rate not important
d) 30 and 57°C and density of load is immaterial

7. Computer generated IPM models as practiced in developed countries like USA have synthesized menu based IPM systems comprising of’
a) Input of weather data + developmental models of significant pests
b) Pest risk analysis data
c) 1PM protocols of a single major pest
d) Simulated host phenology + input of weather data + developmental models of significant pests

8. Total Population Management (TPM) is the term framed by the proponents of
a) Genetic control – Knipling (1955)
b) Genetic control.,. Knipling (1966)
c) Wide area management of fruit flies
d) Genetic engineering

9. Sprays with a higher number of droplets of <1100 µm dia are categorized as ‘very fine’ and are
a) Recommended for crops due to high field efficacy
b) Efficient as these entirely deposit on plants effectively without any drift hazard
c) Not recommended for crops due to drift hazard
d) Recommended as these do not cause any pollution

10. The oxadiazine insecticide now picking up for pest control is
a) Indoxacarb
b) Indoxycarb
c). Indoxadiazine
d) Spinosad

11. An insecticide of new chemical class of spirocyclic phenyl substituted tetronic acid and active against Whiteflies and spider mites is
a) Imidacloprid
b) Spinosad
c) Spirodiclofen
d) Spiromesifen

12. Neonicotinoids act on the central nervous system of Insects through binding at the
a) Synaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
b) Post synaptic nicotinic acetyl choline receptor
c) Synaptic anticholinesterases
d) Synaptic acetylcholine

13. Monarch (model) and the viceroy (mimic) butterflies are classical examples of
a) Batesian mimicry named after Batesian
b) Mullerian mimicry named after Fritz Muller
c) Mullerian mimicry named after V. Mullerian
d) Batesian mimicry named after H.W. Bates

14. Example of a selective carbamate insecticide toxic to aphids and Diptera
a) lndoxacarb
b) Pirimicarb
c) Endosulfan
d) Indoxycarb

15. Two or more identical scientific names that could cause a conflict of interpretation in taxonomy are
a) Primary homonyms
b) Synonyms
c) Homonyms
d) Holonyms

16. Speclation without geographic isolation results in
a) Apomictic species
b) Parapatric species
c) Successional species
d) Palaeospecies

17. Identification, nomenclature and classification as simplest components without analysis of any relationships at any level constitute what is called as
a) Biosystematics
b) Systematics
c) Taxonomy
d) International Code of Zoological Nomenclature and its articles

18. Example of a protein used as a major source of nitrogen for formation of adult tissues in the pupal stage is
a) Resilin
b) Pupiparin
c) Hox protein
d) Calliphorin

19. Uric acid Is deposited permanently in the epidermal., cells of the, abdomen forming distinct ”
a) Black transverse bands in Dysdercus
b)White transverse bands in Dysdercus
c)Black transverse bands in Periplaneta
d)White transverse bands in Periplaneta

20. Important and strongly stimulating phagostimulants for phytophagous insects are
a) Sugars especially glucose
b) Amino acids
c) Sugars especially sucrose
d) e-proline

21. Of the following, an insect demonstrated to show a hygrokinetic response with increased activity in moist air compared with dry air is
a) Wireworms
b) Locust
c) Hydrophilid beetle
d) Ephemeropteran nymph

22. A complex form of phototaxis occurring in a moving insect and receiving a constant visual stimulus is called as
a) Kinesis
b) Menotaxis
c) Photokinesis
d) Mechanophototaxis

23. The innermost component of the integument attached by herriidesmosomes to the epidermal cells is
a) Epidermis
b) Endocuticle
c) Procuticle
d) Basal lamina

24. “An insect that requires and eats only one animal in its life span but may be ultimately responsible for killing many” is a
a) Parasitoid
b) Parasite
c) Koinobiont endoparasite
d) Koinobiont ectoparasite

25. Formation of hyperosmotic urine occurs in
a) All terrestrial insects
b) Saltwater mosquitoes
c) All aquatic insects
d) All insects living in ultra cold temperature

26. The body temperature of insects normally follows closely the temperature of the surroundings and hence it is termed as
a) Hyperthermic
b) Warm blooded
c) Cold hardiness
d)Poikilothermic

27. Cold hardiness in insects is enabled due to
a) Poikilothermic nature
b) Polyhydroxyl substances like trehalose
c) Hydroxyl substances like alcohols
d) Cryoprotectants which evaporate at low temperature

28. In most’ insects, the concentration of trehalose in the haemolymph is
a) Dynamic but not related to the glycogen in the fat body
b) Constant and in dynamic equilibrium with glycogen in fat body
c) Always stable, never related to any activity
d) Constant but not related to the glycogen in fat body.

29. Much of endocuticle formation, tanning and wax formation in insects is essentially part of
a) Pre-ecdysis
b) Moulting/ecdysis
c) Post ecdysis
d) Metamorphosis

30. The classic “Mosaic theory’ of insect vision was propounded by
a) V.B. Wigglesworth (1965)
b) Von Frisch (1967)
c) Wehner and Bernard (1980)
d) Muller (1829)

31. Widely distributed form of proprioreceptors of chordotonal nature in insect is
a) Scolopidia
b) Companiform sensiila
c) Sensiila trichoidea
d) Trichogen/generative hair cell

32. DDT was synthesized by
a) Zeldler, 1874
b) Paul Muller, 1939
c) Schrader, 1941
d) Aucante, 1954

33. The chemical converted to cholesterol in higher animals and JH in insects in
a) . Paraterpenoid
b) Farnesyl pyrophosphate
c) Bacterial endochitinase
d) Histidine

34. Caudal breathing tube is the characteristic feature of
a) Notonectidae
b) Nepidae
c) Corixidae
d) Naucoridae

35. Name the chemical spray used in identification of amino acids:
a) Phenol
b) Ninhydrin
c) Iodine
d) Butanol

36. Bunchy top in sugarcane is formed by
a) Child auricillus
b) Scirpophaga excerptalis
c) Melanopsis glomeratd
d) Child infuscatellus

37. Droplet size In ultra low volume (ULV) spraying varies from
a) 0.5 – 15 microns
b) 30 -150 microns
c) 250 – 350 microns
d) 500 – 600 microns

38. Androconia found in wings of certain insects are
a) Specialized scales
b) Bristles
c) Spots
d) Specialized glands

39. In regular distribution of an insect species, which of the following holds true?
a) Variance equal to mean density
b) Variance greater than mean
c) Variance less than mean
d) Variance and mean are above SD

40. Honey bee venom contains
a) Melitinin
b) Kinins
c) Scierotin
d) Arthropodin

41. Muscardine disease in silkworm is caused by
a) Nosema bombycis
b) Beauveria bassiana
c) Bacillus bombysepticus
d) Beauveria muscardina

42. Destructive Insect Pest Act (D1PA) was first passed in
a) 1914
b) 1920
c) 1937
d) 1968

43. Among the following, which is the best suited for bee culture?
a) Apis dorsata and Apis mellifera
b) Apis florea
c) Apis cerana indica
d) Millpona mellifera

44. Female aphids that produce eggs after mating
a) Fundatrix
b) Vivipara
c) Ovipara
d) Virginopara

45. The mean azadirachtin content of neem seed kernels by weight
a) 0.3%
b) 0.6%
c) 0.03%
d) 0.06%

46. Suborder Caelifera is distinguished from Ensifera based on
a) Enlarged hind femur and short antenna
b) Enlarged hind femur and long antenna
c) Elongate antenna
d) Forceps like ovipositor

47. Cells of haemolymph that take up foreign chemicals of high molecular weight
a) Nephrocytes
b) Oenocytes
c) Phagocytes
d) Nidi cells

48. The first systemic organophosphate produced is
a) TEPP
b) Methyl parathion
c) Schradan
d) Ethyl parathion

49. Polyhedra of the baculoviruses are of the size of
a) 1-15 µm
b) 15-30 pm
c) 1-15 nm
d) 15-30 nm

50. Economic Injury Level as defined by an integrated pest management worker is the level at which
a) Damage can no longer be tolerated
b) Damage can be tolerated
c) Loss is less than cost of control
d) Control measures must be stopped

IASRI Entrance Exam Paper

PART- I (General Agriculture)

Multiple choice questions (No. 1 to 30). Choose the correct answer (a, b, c or d) and enter your choice in the circle (by shading with a pencil) on the OMR -answer sheet as per the instructions
given on the answer sheet.

1. Which of the following crops have been approved for commercial cultivation in India?
a) Bt cotton and Bt brinjal
b)Bt cotton and Golden Rice
c)Bt maize and Bt cotton
d)Bt cotton only

2.This year (2010-11) the expected food grain production in India is
a) 212 million tonnes
b) 220 million tonnes
c) 235 million tonnes
d) 250 million tonnes

3.The genome of which of the, following crops is still not completely sequenced?
a) Rice
b)Soybean
c)Sorghum
d)Wheat

4.According to the Approach Paper to the 12th Plan is
a) Inclusive growth
b)Sustainable growth
c)Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
d)Inclusive and sustainable growth

5. To address the problems of sustainable and holistic development of rainfed areas,including appropriate farming and livelihood system approaches, the Government of India has set up the
a) National Rainfed Area Authority
b) National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas
c) National Mission on Rainfed Areas
d) Command Area Development and Water Management Authority

6.Which of the following sub-schemes are not covered under the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana?
a)Extending the Green Revolution to eastern India
b) Development of 60,000 pulses and oilseeds villages in identified watersheds
c) National Mission on Saffron
d)National Mission on Bamboo

7. According totheHumanDevelopment Report 2010 of the United Nations, India’s rank in terms of the human development index is
a) 119
b) 134
c) 169
d) 182

8.Which of the following does not apply to SRI method of paddy cultivation?
a)Reduced water application
b)Reduced plant density
c)Increased application of chemical fertilizers
d)Reduced age of seedlings

9. Which organic acid, often used as a preservative, occurs naturally in cranberries, prunes, cinnamon and cloves?
a) Citric acid
b) Benzoic acid
c) Tartaric acid
d) Lactic acid

10. Cotton belongs to the family
a) Cruciferae
b). Anacardiaceae
c) Malvaceae
d) Solanaceae

11. Photoperiodism is
a) Bending of shoot towards source of light
b) Effect of light/dark durations on physiological processes
c) Movement of chloroplast in, cell in response to light
d) Effect of light on chlorophyll synthesis

12. Ergot disease is caused by which pathogen on which host?
a) Claviceps purpurea on rye
b) Puccinia recondite on wheat
c) Drechlera sorokiniana on Wheat
d) Albugo candida on mustard

13. Rocks are the chief sources of. parent materials over which soils are developed.Granite, an important rock, is classified as
a) igneous rock
b) Metamorphic rock
c) Sedimentary rock
d) Hybrid rock

14. Which one of the following is a Kharif crop?
a) Pearl millet
b) Lentil
c) Mustard
d) Wheat

15. The coefficient of variation (C.V.) is calculated by the formula
a) (Mean/S.D.) x 100
b) (S.D./Mean) x 100
c) S.D./Mean
d) Mean/S.D.

16. Which of the following is commonly referred to as muriate of potash?
a)Potassium nitrate
b)Potassium chloride
c)Potassium sulphate
d)Potassium silicate

17. Inbred lines that have same genetic constitution but differ only at one locus are called
a) Multi lines
b) Monohybrid
c) lsogenic lines,
d) Pure lines

18. For applying 100 kg of nitrogen, how much urea woul d orte’use?
a) 45 kg
b) 111 kg
c) 222 kg
d) 333 kg

19. The devastating impact of plant disease on human suffering and survival was first realized by epidemic of
a) Brown spot of rice in Bengal
b) Late blight of potato in USA
c) Late blight of potato in Europe
d) Rust of wheat In India

20. The species of rice (Oryza) other than O.sativa that is cultivated is
a) O. rufipugon
b) 0.longisteminata
c) O. glaberrima
d) O. nivara

21. The enzyme responsible for the fixation of CO2 in mesophyil cells of C-4 plants Is
a) Malic enzyme
b) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
c) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
d) RuBP carboxylase

22. Which one of the following is a `Vertisol’?
a) Black cotton soil
b) Red sandy loam soil
c) Sandy loam sodic soil,
d) Submontane (Tara!) soil

23. What is the most visible physical characteristic of cells in metaphase?
a) Elongated chromosomes
b) Nucleus visible but chromosomes not
c) Fragile double stranded loose chromosomes
d) Condensed paired chromosomes on the cell plate

24. All weather phenomena like rain, fog and mist occur in
a) Troposphere
b) Mesosphere
c) Ionosphere
d) Ozonosphere

25. Which of the following elements is common to all proteins and nucleic acids?
a) Sulphur
b) Magnesium
c) Nitrogen
d) Phosphorous

26. Silt has intermediate characteristics between
a) Sand and loam
b) Clay and loam
c). Loam and gravel
d) Sand and clay..

27. Certified seed is produced from
a) Nucleus, seed
b) Breeder seed
c) Foundation seed
d) Truthful seed

28. Seedless banana is an
a) Autotriploid
b) Autotetraploid
c) Allotriploid
d) Allotetraploid

29. Which one of the following is used to test the goodness-of-fit of a distribution?
a) Normal test
b) t-test
c) Chi-square test
d) F-test

30. The type of isoquant which represents perfect substitutability of factors. of production is
a) Leontief isoquant
b) Convex isoquant
c) Linear isoquant
d) Kinked isoquant

PART – II (Subject Paper)

Multiple choice questions (No. 1 to 30). Choose the correct answer (a, b, c or d) and enter your choice in the circle (by shading with a pencil) on the OMR -answer sheet as per the instructions
given on the answer sheet.

1. Giffeh paradox occurs when income effect is
a) Greater than the substitution effect
b) Equal to the substitution effect
c) Less than the substitution effect
d) Negative and is greater than the substitution effect

2. If the amounts of two commodities purchased change as the price of one of the two commodities changes, then the cross elasticity of demand between them will be
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Zero
d) One

3. The degree of monopoly power as defined by Rothschild is based on
a) Price elasticity of demand
b) Price cross-elasticity of demand
c) Slope of the demand curve of.a firm and of the industry
d) Super-normal profit

4. A locus of constant utility is called the
a) Expansion path
b) Utility function
c) Indifference curve
d) Demand function

5. Market performance is determined by
a) Marketstructure only
b) Market conduct only
c) Either market structure or market conduct
d) Both market’structure and market conduct

6: The break-even quantity of output can be determined by the formula
a) TFC/(P-AVC)
b) TFC/(AVC-P)
c) TFC/(P±AVC)
d) TFC/(TFC-AVC)

7. A demand curve would not shift if there were changes in the
a) Taste and preferences of consumers
b) Number or age distribution of buyers
c) Price of the good,
d) Expectations of consumers about the availability of the good

8. The economic rent earned by any factor will be the highest if its elasticity of supply Is
a) Zero
b) Equal to one
c) Infinity
d) Between one and infinity

9. Least cost production in the long run requires firms to adjust their resource mixes until the relative prices of resources are equal to the relative
a) Prices of outputs
b) Total costs for each resources
c). Average productivity per resource
d) Marginal productivity of the resources

10. Under WTO in agriculture, all measures that directly support prices or subsidies related to production quantities are included in the
a) Amber Box
b) Red box
c) Blue box
d) Green Box

11. Which of the following is a proposal contained in the Model APMC Act?
a) Expansion of futures trading
b) Setting up of special marketing boards
c) Provision of direct sales to consumers
d) Setting up of special economic zones

12. Measures of long-term solvency of a business enterprise are collectively called
a) Leverage ratios
b) Liquidity ratios
c) Turn-over ratios
d) Profitability, ratios

13. Price discrimination allows a monopoly to
a) Lower its marginal cost
b) Reduce its producer surplus
c) ‘Raise its total revenue
d) Charge all customers a higher price

14. The marketing activity of dividing markets into smaller units with similar needs and characteristics is known as
a) Market penetration
b) Relationship marketing
c) Target marketing
d) Market segmentation

15. Family labour income is equal to
a) Gross income – Cost A,.
b) Farm business income – wages of family labour
c) Gross income – Cost C2
d) Gross income – Cost B2

16. GNP deflator is
a) Nominal GNP/nominal GDP
b) Nominal GNP/real GNP
c) Nominal GNPPeal GDP
d) Real GNP/nominal GDP

17. The Identification problem of the simultaneous equation systems relates to
a) Method’-of estimation
b) Sample site ;
c) Meaningful estimate of structural coefficients
d) All of the above

18. The determinant of the matrix a-b a is a a+b
a) b 2
b) -b2
c) a2
d) -a2

19. The substitution effect for a fall in the price of a commodity (ceteris paribus) is given by
b) A movement from a higher to a lower indifference curve.
c) A movement down a given indifference curve
d) Any of the above

20. Type i error is
a) Rejecting Ho when HQ is true
b) Accepting Ha When HQ is false.
c) Accepting Ho when Ho is true
d) Rejecting Ho when Ho is false

21. Presence of multicollinearity between the explanatory variables is detected by
a) Durbin-Watson test
b) Farrar-Glauber test
c) Chi-square test
d) Coefficient of multiple determination

22. If the correlation coefficient between X and Y is 0.50, what percentage of the total variation remains unexplained by the regression equation?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

23. Which of the following is a positive statement?
a) The govt, must lower the prices of bread so that more consumers can afford to buy it
b) The best level of taxation Is zero per cent because then people get to keep every thing they want
c) An increase in college tuition will cause fewer students to apply to college
d) Economic theory course should last for two terms because it is a very important subject

24. If demand is inelastic, a’shift of supply curve rightward will
a) Decrease total revenue
b) Increase total revenue
c) Have no effect on total revenue
d) Reduce the demand for the product

25. All normal goods have
a) Income elasticity of demand greater than 1.0
b) Price elasticity of demand greater than 1.0
c) Negative price elasticity of demand
d) Positive income elasticity of demand

26. The difference between the maximum amount consumers are willing to pay and the amount they actually do pay for a given quantity of good is called
a) D ead weight surplus
b) Consumer surplus
c) Producer surplus
d) Total surplus

27. A feature of labour supply curve is that,unlike most supply curves, it
a) is always positively sloped
b) is always negatively sloped
c) May.bend backwards
d) None of the above

28. Suppose the government taxes a product.The decrease in quantity consumed will be smaller when
a) The elasticity of demand is higher,
b) The elasticity of demand is tower
c) Elasticity of demand has nothing to do with quantity demanded
d) More information is needed to answer it

29. When the elasticity of demand of a product is less than the elasticity of its supply, it results in Cobweb phenomena of the following type
a) Perpetual oscillation
b) Damped oscillation
c) Explosive oscillation
d) Both a) & b)

30. The relationship, between rate of interest and the level of income at which the money market is in equilibrium is described by
a) LM function
b) Production function
c) IS function
d) Cost function

IASRI Phd Paper

1. For an efficient integrated pest management, the economic threshold of a pest shall always be made to settle at a level
a) Equivalent to economic injury level
b) Lower than economic Injury level
c) Higher thati economic injury level
d) Fluctuating’ to be higher or lower than economic injury level

2. Any manipulation of environment intended to reduce pest numbers is referred to as
a) Habitat manipulation
b) Ecological control
c) Ecosystem control
d) Biointensive control

3. Situation where a pest population after having been . suppressed rebounds to numbers greater than that before suppression had occurred is called as
a) Secondary pest outbreak
b) Pest replacement
c) Pest resurgence
d) Pest epidemic

4. Currently the crystal toxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are classified on the basis of
a) Serology
b) Transgenic capabilities
c) Amino acid sequence
d) Specificity

5. The use of gamma radiation for the eradication of insects is an example of
a) Mechanical control
b) Biological control
c) Cultural control
d) Physical control

6. The Journal “Insect Science and its Application” is published
a) As International Journal of Tropical Insect Science and published by Cambridge Journals
b) Continued in the same name by ICIPE, Nairobi
c) Continued in the same name and published by Cambridge Journals
d) As International Journal of Tropical Entomology and published by CABI,Wallingford

7. The “nucleocapsid” is always associated with the structure of insect pathogenic
a) Entomopox viruses
b) Non-occluded viruses
c) Baculoviruses
d) Irido viruses

8. The chemical compound produced by millipedes for their own defense is
a) Cardenolides
b) Iridoid glycosides
c) Hydrogen cyanide
d) Hydrogen chloride

9. An allelochemical involved in the biology of an organism (A), when it contacts another organism (B), evoking a behavioural /physiological response that is favourable to both (A and B) is a
a) Synamone
b) Kairomone
c) Pheromone
d) Allomone

10. The overall rate of JH synthesis by corpora allata in insects is regulated by peptides, of which the Increase in synthesis is always by
a) Allostatins
b) Allatotropins
c) Atropine
d) FMR Famide

11. The mobilisation of lipids from the fat body is known to be effected by the
a) Allatostatins
b) Vitellogenins
c) Octopamine
d) Adipokinemine

12. Chemicals produced by insects, which circulate in blood to regulate all the long term physiological, developmental and behavioural activities are
a) Moulting hormones
b) Insect neuropeptides
c) Insect hormones
d) Pheromones

13. Diflubenzuron, teflubenzuron and chlorfluazuron are examples of
a) Pyrrole insecticides
b) Neonicotinoids
c) Avermectins
d) Phenyl urea insecticides

14. A novel chitin synthesis Inhibitor affecting specifically the plant hoppers, whiteflies and scale insects is
a) Diflubenzuron
b) Dimilin
c) Buprofezin
d) Benzoyl phenyl urea

15. Epigynial shield and setae are important in the identification of
a) Families df Acarina
b) Only Amerosiidae and Ascidae
c) Families of Diptera
d) Subfamilies of Cyclorrhapha

16. In the males of many insects, the sperms that pass through the vas deferens are then held in a storage structure
a) Spermatheca
b) Spermatophore
c) Vasa efferentia
d) Seminal vesicle.

17. “Imms General ‘Textbook of Entomology”10th edition (1977) is authored by
a) O.W. Richards and R.G. Davies
b) A.D. Imms and O.W. Richards
c) O.W. Richards and R.C. Davies
d) O.V. Richards and R,.G. Davies

18. Dr. M.L. Roonwal had contributed immensely to the taxonomy of
a) Thysanoptera
b) Locusts and grasshoppers
c) Isoptera
d) Diptera

19. In endopterygote insects, the wing development is
a) Internal occurring at postembryonic stage
b) External occurring at postembryonic stage
c) Internal occurring in the embryonic stage itself
d) Internal occurring in the larval stage only

20. First entomologist to the Govt. of India was
a) de Lionel Niceville
b) Lionel de Niceville
c) Maxwell Lefroy
d) T.B. Fletcher

21. Entomological investigations on tea were started in
a) 1905 at Kannykorien (West Bengal)
b) 1905 at Kannykorien (Assam)
c) 1913 at Tocklai (Assam) by UPASI
d) 1913 at Valparal (Tamil Nadu) by UPASI

22. NBAII and NCIPM are located at
a) Bangalore and Hyderabad, respectively
b) Bangalore and Faridabad, respectively
c) Bangalore and New Delhi, respectively
d) Hyderabad and Faridabad, respectively

23. Honey bee species whose nests consist of multiple combs and single combs are
a) Apis nigrocincta and Apis nutuensis,respectively
b) Apis koschevnikovi and Apis mellifera,respectively
c) Apis andreniformis and Apis nigrocincta,respectively
d) Apis nutuensis and Apis breviigula,respectively

24. The secretion of the following glands are supposed to have the functions of softening the wax and production of royal jelly,respectively in honey bees
a) Glands In 4° abdominal segment and lateral pharyngeal glands, respectively
b) Glands in 4-7 abdominal segments and mandibular glands, respectively
c) Mandibular glands and lateral pharyngeal glands, respectively
d) Alkaline glands and accessory glands,respectively

25. Of the following, the coleopterans consumed as food are
a) Cybisterjaponicus and Crocothemis servilia
b) Graptopsaitria nigrofasciata and Anaxguttafus
c) Cybister tripunctatus and Aulonogyrus.strigosus
d) Gonimbrasia belina and Rhynchophorus phoenlcis

26. Pick the right and sensible combination in the following:
a) Degree days – temperature control – diurnal temperature curve
b) Degree days – life history – developmental rate
c) Degree days – minimum temperature -maximum temperature
d) Degree days – temperature control -developmental rate

27. The following is one of the models used in systems analysis as a prelude to IPM
a) Statistical through regression models
b) Optimization through mechanistic models
c) Optimization through simulation models
d) Statistical through pest development models

28. The plant quarantine activity leading to Issue of import permits for seeds and germplasm for research and experimental purposes is looked after as a nodal agency by the
a) National Seeds Corporation and ICRISAT
b) Nationat Plant Quarantine Station, New Delhi
c) NBPGR, New Delhi
d) NBPGR + IARI, New Delhi

29. Pick the right and sensible sequential combination out of the following:
a) Cry IAc; npt 11, TnS; and aad, Tn7
b) B.t.k.; aad, TN7; and npt It, Tn5
c). Cry lAc; npt 11, aad; and Tn5, Tn7
d) Bt; Cry lAc; npt II, Tn5; and aad, Tn7

30. Concentrate Insecticide Liquids essentially include
a) Non-volatile solvents
b) Emulsifier
c) High viscosity emulsifier
d) Emulsion of oil in water type solvents
ICAR-ASRB Question-Paper
IASRI Previous Year Question Paper

Agricultural Economics

1.’The capital using technological progress
a) Increases MPK proportionately more than MPL
b) Increases the absolute slope. of the isoquant
c) Reduces K but Increases L to produce a given level of output
d) All of the above

2. An autonomous decrease in investment causes the IS schedule to shift
a) Leftward by the change In investment
b) Rightward by the change in investment
c) Rightward by the change in investment times the expenditure multiplier
d) Leftward by the change in investment times the expenditure multiplier

3. Liquidity preference theory states that the liquidity preference by the people depends on
a) Transactions motive
b) Precautionary motive
c) Speculative motive
d) All of the above

4. The Philips curve shows
a) An inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and the rate of unemployment
b) A direct relationship between the rate of inflation and the rate of unemployment
c) An inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and the level of employment
d) A n. Inverse relationship between the price level and the level of employment

5. A farmer has four items (i.e., machinery,livestock, farm building and land) to offer as security for, loan. Which of these could be offered as security if the farmer Is taking the loan against collateral security?
a) Farm building and land both.
b) Machinery and livestock both
c) Farm building alone
d) Machinery alone

6. In economics, rent is
a) The payment for land
b) A surplus payment necessary to keep a factor in its present employment
c) The reward paid to the landlords
d) The payment ‘made for the hire of land and buildings

7. What are tale terms of trade?
a) The price of imports in terms of exports
b) The difference between visible imports and visible exports
c) The difference between total imports and exports
d) The difference in the foreign exchange rates of different currencies

8. Which of the following types of unemployment is caused by the immobility of labour?
a) Seasonal
b) Cyclical
c) Frictional
d) Structural

9.When both the duopolists in an industry act as followers and no one acts as a leader, it leads to a
a) Cournot solution
b) Quasi-competitive solution
c) Stackelberg solution
d) Collusion solution

10. Allocative efficiency of any enterprise is also known as
a) Operational efficiency
b) Economic efficiency
c) Technical efficiency
d) Price efficiency

11. IS curve has slope and shows equilibrium in
a) Positive, goods
b) Positive, money
c) Negative, goods
d) Negative, money

12. The `L’ shaped isoquants represent
a) Fixed proportion combination of inputs
b) Constant rate of substitution
c) Increasing rates of substitution
d) Decreasing rates of substitution

13. Economic efficiency is highest under
a) Perfect competition
b) Monopoly
c) Monopolistic completion,
d) Oligopoly

14. -Kinked demand curve is used to show
a) Welfare under oligopoly
b) Price rigidity under oligopoly
c) Market share under duopoly

15. A bank must maintain adequate liquidity
a) To meet the loan demand of customers and minimize loan default
b) To explain transaction deposits ; whenever there is a deficiency of secondary reserves
c) To meet loan demand and outflow of deposits
d) To meet the currency requests of deposities and conversion of loans into secondary reserves.

16. Fiscal Policies are highly effective in
a) Keynesian range of LM curve’
b) Classical range of LM curve
c) Intermediate range of LM curve
d) Both Keynesian and cl

17. If the assumption of OLS (E(X4)v0) is not fulfilled, then the estimates are
a) Not biased
b) Biased
c) Inconsistent
d) Biased and inconsistent

18. The classical book on “Economics of Agricultural Production and Resource Use” is written by
a) G.E. Foster
b) W.W. Wilcox
c) T.W. Schultz
d) Earl O. Heady

19. Which one of the following is not a component of a market?
a) The existence of goods or commodity
b) The existence of buyers and sellers
c) Business relationship between buyers and sellers
d) Existence of a uniform price

20. Use of transfer payments as a policy instruments is made for
a) Bringing about income redistribution
b) Reducing private consumption
c) Increasing private consumption
d) Increasing gross national product

21. When a price index increases from 125 to 150, the value of money
a) Increases25%
b) Decreases 25%
C) Increases 20%
d) Decreases 20%

22. In order to achieve the maximum gains from trade, producer should specialize according to
a) Production possibility frontier
b) Absolute advantage
c) Comparative advantage
d) Property rights

23. The ` e’ is the elasticity of demand for the product of a monopolist then the ratio P/MR is given by
a) a-1/e
b) ele-1
c) a-1/e+1
d) e+1/e-1

24. Quasi Rent is equal to
a) Revenue minus cost
b) Revenue minus fixed cost.,
c) Revenue minus variable cost
d) Revenue minus normal profit

25. Harrod-Domar model of economic growth is based on the.experiences of
a) Under-developed economies
b) Developing economies
c) Advanced capitalist economies.
d) Socialist economies,

26. According to Hicks, an invention is said to be neutral when it raises
a) The average products of labour and capital in the same proportion
b) The marginal products of labour and capital in the same proportion
c) The wage rate and interest rate in.the same proportion
d) None of the above

27. Which of the following is not a characteristic of market performance?
a) Relative technical efficiency of production
b) Degree of buyer concentration
c) Size of industry output
d) Profit margin

28. A “Bonded warehouse” is
a) A warehouse owned by a private business for storage of their own goods
b) A warehouse owned by a private business for storage of products of other businesses
c) A public warehouse
d) A warehouse at an air or seaport where imported goods are stored until customs duties are paid

29. Among the following economists, who has advocated the technique of unbalanced growth?
a) A.O. Hirschman
b) Paul A. Samulson
c) H.D. Henderson
d) J.M. Keynes

30. The simplex algorithm for solving linear programming models was invented by
a) G.B, Dantzig
b) T.C. Koopmans
c) G. Tintner
d) E.O. Heady

31. Moving average method is used to eliminate
a) Cyclical variations
b) Seasonal variations
c) Secular variations
d) Irregular variations

32. In case of a linear demand function, the slope of the marginal revenue curve derived from it will be
a) Only half of the demand-curve
b) Equal to that of the demand curve
c) Twice that of the demand curve
d) Thrice that of the demand curve

33. If the price-consumption curve for a commodity has a positive slope, Its elasticity of demand would be
a) Equal to one
b) Less than one
c) Greater than one’
d) Greater than two

34. The rate of discount (r) at which the present value of the cost stream of a project just equals to the present value of its returns is termed
a) Net present value
b) Return on Investment –
c) Internal rate of return
d) Desired discount rate

35. Which of the following statements with regard to NABARD is not correct?
a) It gives direct, finance for agricultural rural development
b) It plays a key role in programmes of rural development
c) It finance§ agriculture and village industries through the cooperative banks and commercial banks
d) It directly loans to farmers and artisans

36. If two events A & B are independent, the probability that both of these will occur is given by
a)P(A) + P(8)
b)P(A) x P(B)
c) P(A) x P(Bf +’P(AB)
d)P(A) – P(B)

37. The product moment correlation coefficient Is obtained by the formula
a) r = EXY/xy
b) r = %xy/Nax6y
c) r = Exy/Nax
d) r = ExEy/6×6

38. The elasticity in respect of speculative demand for money under the liquidity trap condition Is
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) One
d) Greater than one

39. When the intrinsic value of money and its face value are equal, it is called
a) Token money
b) Full-bodied money
c) Quasi-money
d) Flat money

40. Which one is not economic motive of holding a stock of money?
a) Transaction motive
b) Precautionary motive
c) Speculative motive
d) Black money motive

41. The major quantitative monetary tool available with central bank Is
a) Rationing credit
b) Margin requirements
c) Reserve ratio requirements
d) Regulation of consumer credit

42. The most important asset of a commercial bank is its
a) Demand deposits
b) Government securities
c) Negotiable stocks and bonds
d) Loans to businessmen, Industry etc.

43. The Hindu rate of growth
a) Refers to growth of Hindu population
b) is the term used by Raj Krishna to represent the nature of growth of the Indian economy at around 3.5 percent per year
c) is the term coined by Amartya Sen to represent the nature of the growth of Indian economy at a round 3.5 percent per annum
d) is the term coined by V.K.R.V. Rao to decide the nature of the growth of the Indian economy at around 4 percent

44. Economic development with unlimited supplies of labour is a model of development enunciated by
a) A.O. Hirschman
b) W.W. Rostow
c) W,A. Lewis
d) Halls Chenery

45. According to Simon Kuznets, during process of development, the income Inequalities tend to
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Decrease first and then increase
d) Increase first and then decrease

46. The expected monetary value criterion is used for decision-making under situations of
a) Risk
b) Uncertainty
c) Certainty
d) Both risk and uncertainty

47. The inflationary gap measures
a) The difference between the expected and actual rates of inflation
b) The excess of aggregate demand. over the full-employment level
c) The increase in gap between the rich and the poor as a result of Inflation
d) All of the above

48. How many “ridge lines” can be drawn in a particular isoquant-map?
a) One
b) Two
c) Equal of the number of isoquants
d) Infinite

49. In his revised demand theory, Hicks assumes the consumer’s preferences to have
a) Strong ordering
b) Weak ordering
c) Indifference relations
d) None of the above

50. When we change the Cj coefficients in the objective function of a Linear Programming problem then it is called
a) Capital variable programming
b) Resource variable programming
c) Price variable programming
d) Input-output variable programming

51. Equilibrium occurs in a two-sector model when
a) Saving equals investment
b) Consumption plus investment equals the value of output
c) Planned saving equals planned investment
d) Aggregate spending equals the revenues of the business sector

52. The line joining points of consumer equilibrium resulting when only the consumer’s income is varied is called the
a) Demand curve
b) Income-consumption curve
c) Engel curve
d) Price-consumption, curve

53. In Keynesian theory, investment demand depends upon
a) Marginal efficiency of capital
b) The rate of interest
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above

54. The feasible region of a linear programming problem is
a) A concave set
b) A convex set
c) A null set
d) None of the above

55. The integral of 1 is
a) Zero
b) x
c) I +x
d) 1-x