CAT aptitude questions for practice

Directions : Solve each CAT sample quantitative ability problem and indicate the best of the answer choices given..
Directions:
In this section you will be given two quantities, one in column A and one in column B. You are to determine a relationship between the two quantities and mark.
If the quantity in column A is greater than the quantity in column B.
If the quantity in column B is greater than the quantity in column A.
If the quantities are equal.
If the comparison cannot be determined from the information that is given.
1.Quantity A: (-6)4
Quantity B: (-6)5
(a) if the quantity A is greater;
(b) milk : quart
(c) society : classes
(d) letter : alphabet
(e) time : minutes
Ans : (a)

2.Quantity A: Time to travel 95 miles at 50 miles per hour
Quantity B: Time to travel 125 miles at 60 miles per hour
(a) Quantity A is greater
(b) Quantity A equals Quantity B
(c) Quantity B is greater
(d) Relationship Indeterminate
Ans : (c)

3. Quantity A: (9/13)2
Quantity B: (9/13)1/2
(a) Quantity A equals Quantity B
(b) Relationship Indeterminate
(c) Quantity B is greater
(d) Quantity A is greater
Ans : (c)

4.Quantity A: 4 / 100
Quantity B: 0.012 / 3
(a) Quantity B is greater
(b) Quantity A equals Quantity B
(c) Quantity A is greater
(d) Relationship Indeterminate
Ans : (c)

5. x=2y+3
y=-2
Quantity A: x
Quantity B: -1
(a) if the quantity in Column A is greater
(b) if the quantity in Column B is greater
(c) if the two quantities are equal
(d) if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Ans : (c)

6. x+2y>8
Quantity A: 2x + 4y
Quantity B: 20
(a) if the quantity in Column A is greater
(b) if the quantity in Column B is greater
(c) if the two quantities are equal
(d) if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Ans : (d)

7. Quantity A: The number of months in 7 years
Quantity B: The number of days in 12 weeks
(a) if the quantity in Column A is greater
(b) if the quantity in Column B is greater
(c) if the two quantities are equal
(d) if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Ans : (c)

8. Quantity A: 1-1/27
Quantity B: 8/9 + 1/81
(a) if the quantity in is greater
(b) if the quantity in is greater
(c)if the two quantities are equal
(d) if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Ans : (a)

9.r/>s/>0/>
Quantity A: rs/r
Quantity B: rs/s
(a) if the quantity A is greater
(b) if the quantity B is greater
(c) if the two quantities are equal
(d) if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Ans : (b)

10.Quantity A: 0.83
Quantity B: 0.81/3
(a) Quantity B is greater
(b) Relationship Indeterminate
(c) Quantity A is greater
(d) Quantity A equals Quantity B
Ans : (a)

CAT Quantitative Section: Multiple Choice
Directions : Solve each CAT sample quantitative ability problem and indicate the best of the answer choices given..
Numbers : All numbers used are real numbers.
Figures: A figure accompanying a CAT sample quantitatove ability problem solving question is intended to provide information useful in solving the problem. Figures are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale. Straight lines may sometimes appear jagged. All figures lie on a plane unless otherwise indicated.
Following are some CAT sample quantitative ability questions.
1. A rectangle is 14 cm long and 10 cm wide. If the length is reduced by x cms and its width is increased also by x cms so as to make it a square then its area changes by : (a) 4
(b) 144
(c) 12
(d) 2
(e) None of the above
Ans : (a)

2.A motorcycle stunts man belonging to a fair, rides over the vertical walls of a circular well at an average speed of 54 kph for 5 minutes. If the radius of the well is 5 meters then the distance traveled is:
(a) 2.5
(b) 3.5
(c) 4.5
(d) 5.5
(e) None of the above
Ans : (c)

3. If 1 cm on a map corresponds to an actual distance of 40 kms. And the distance on the map between Bombay and Calcutta is 37.5 cms., the actual distance between them is :
(a) 375 kms
(b) 3750 kms
(c) 1500 kms
(d) 1375 kms
(e) None of the above
Ans : (c)

4. A box contains 90 mts each of 100 gms and 100 bolts each of 150 gms. If the entire box weighs 35.5 kg., then the weight of the empty box is :
(a) 10 Kg
(b) 10.5 Kg
(c) 11 Kg
(d) 11.5 Kg
(e) None of the above
Ans : (d)

5. If the radius of a circle is increased by 20% then the area is increased by :
(a) 44%
(b) 120%
(c) 144%
(d) 40%
(e) None of the above
Ans : (a)

6. Tom, Dick and Harry went for lunch to a restaurant. Tom had \$100 with him, Dick had \$60 and Harry had \$409. They got a bill for \$104 and decided to give a tip of \$16. They further decided to share the total expenses in the ratio of the amounts of money each carried. The amount of money which Tom paid more than what Harry paid is
(a) 120
(b) 200
(c) 60
(d) 24
(e) 36
Ans : (E)

7. A plot of land is in the shape of a trapezium whose dimensions are given in the figure below

:

Hence the perimeter of the field is
(a) 50m
(b) 64m
(c) 72m
(d) 84m
(e) None of the above
Ans : (c)

8. Four concentric ( having the same center ) circles with radii, x, 2x, 3x and 4x are drawn to form two rings A and B as shown in the figure.

Ratio of the area of inner ring A to the area of outer ring B is
(a) 1:2
(b) 1:4
(c) 2:3
(d) 3:7
(e) None of the above
Ans : (d)

9. If 3/p = 6 and 3/q = 15 then p – q = ?
(a) 1/3
(b) 2/5
(c) 3/10
(d) 5/6
(e) None of the above
Ans : (c)

10. A father is three times as old as his son. After fifteen years the father will be twice as old as his son’s age at that time. Hence the father’s present age is
(a) 36
(b) 42
(c) 45
(d) 48
(e) None of the above
Ans : (c)

CAT Verbal ability questions with answers

Sentence Completions
Directions :
Each sentence below has one or two blanks. Each blank shows that something has been omitted. Under each sentence five words are given as choice. Choose the one correct word for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentences as a whole.

1. The fact that the- of confrontation is no longer as popular as it once was – procatss in race relations.

(a) insidiousness – reiterates
(b) practice – inculcates
(d) technique – presages
(e) reticence – indicates

Ans : (d)

2. A child should not be – as being either very shy or over – agcatssive.
(a) categorized
(b) instructed
(c) intoned
(d) distracted
(e) refrained

Ans : (a)

3. President Anwar el – Sadat of Egypt, disregarding – criticism in the Alab world and in his own Government, – accepted prime minister Menahem Begin’s invitation to visit Israel in order to address the Israeli parliament.
(a) acrimonious – formally
(b) blemished – stiffly
(c) categorical – previously
(d) malignant – plaintively
(e) charismatic – meticulously
Ans : (a)

4. In his usual – manner, he had insured himself against this type of loss.
(a) pensive
(b) providential
(c) indifferent
(d) circumspect
(e) caustic
Ans : (d)

5. We never believed that he would resort to – in order to achieve his goal; we always regarded him as a – man.
(a) charm – insincere
(b) necromancy – pietistic
(c) logic – honorable
(d) prestidigitation – articulate
(e) subterfuge – honest
Ans : (e)

6. The Sociologist responded to the charge that her new theory was – by pointing out that it did not in fact contradict accepted sociological principles.
(a) unproven
(b) banal
(c) superficial
(d) complex
(e) heretical
Ans : (e)

7. Despite assorted effusion to the contrary, there is no necessary link between scientific skill and humanism, and quite possibly, there may be something of a – between them.
(a) dichotomy
(b) congruity
(c) reciprocity
(d) fusion
(e) generosity
Ans : (e)

8. The most technologically advanced societies have been responsible for the catatest – indeed savagery seems to be indirect proposition to –
(a) inventions – know-how
(b) wars – viciousness
(c) triumphs – civilizations
(d) atrocities – development
(e) catastrophes – ill-will
Ans : (d)

9. Ironically, the party leaders encountered no catater – their efforts to build as Procatssive Party than the – of the procatssive already elected to the legislature.
(a) obstacle to – resistance
(c) praise for – reputation
(d) threat to – promise
(e) benefit – success
Ans : (a)

10. The simplicity of the theory – its main attraction – is also its – for only by – the assumptions of the theory is it possible to explain the most recent observations made by researchers.
(a) glory – rejecting
(b) liability – accepting
(c) undoing – supplementing
(d) downfall – considering
(e) virtue – qualifying
Ans : (c)

CAT Aptitude and Anlytical
CAT aptitude, reasoning data interpretation questions for practice
Qn.1-Numerical Ability solved question papers
1 What will come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions:-
26 x 451 – ? = 61036523
5623
Explanation:26 x 451 – ? = 6103
–> 11726 – 7 = 6103–> ? = 11726 – 6103 = 5623 6251
4563
None of these

Qn.2 47 x 251 – 3695 = ?
8102
8100
9208
7891
None of these

Qn.3 (12.25 x 4.02 – 14.26) x ? = 699.7
10
20

Explanation:(12.25 x 4.02 – 14.26) x ? = 699.7
=> (49.245 – 14.26) x ? = 699.7=> 34.985 x ? = 699.7 –> 699.7/34.985 = 2015
25
None of these

Qn.4 ? % of 452 = 311,88
67
52
59
71
None of these
Explanation:(452 x ?)/100 = 311,88
–> ? = (311,88 x 100)/452 = 69

Qn.5 89% of ? + 365 = 1075.22
798
Explanation:(? x 89)/100 = 1075.22 – 365 = 710.22
–> (710.22 x 100)/89 = 798897
898
752
None of these

Qn.6 3695.12 + 4458.02 – ? = 7592.14
465
651
575
561
Explanation:8153.14 – ? = 7592.14
–> ? = 8153.14 – 7592.14= 561None of these

Qn.7 ? x 35 + 263 = 2680
79
63
75
68
None of these
Explanation:? x 3
CAT Aptitude questions
CAT aptitude questions for practice-Numerical Ability solved question papers.1 What will come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions:- 26 x 451 – ? = 61036523

1 What will come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions:-

26 x 451 – ? = 61036523
5623
Explanation:26 x 451 – ? = 6103
–> 11726 – 7 = 6103–> ? = 11726 – 6103 = 5623 6251
4563
None of these

Qn.2 47 x 251 – 3695 = ?
8102
8100
9208
7891
None of these

Qn.3 (12.25 x 4.02 – 14.26) x ? = 699.7
10
20
Explanation:(12.25 x 4.02 – 14.26) x ? = 699.7
=> (49.245 – 14.26) x ? = 699.7=> 34.985 x ? = 699.7 –> 699.7/34.985 = 2015
25
None of these

Qn.4 ? % of 452 = 311,88
67
52
59
71
None of these
Explanation:(452 x ?)/100 = 311,88
–> ? = (311,88 x 100)/452 = 69

Qn.5
89% of ? + 365 = 1075.22
798
Explanation:(? x 89)/100 = 1075.22 – 365 = 710.22
–> (710.22 x 100)/89 = 798897
898
752
None of these

Qn.6
3695.12 + 4458.02 – ? = 7592.14
465
651
575
561
Explanation:8153.14 – ? = 7592.14
–> ? = 8153.14 – 7592.14= 561None of these

Qn.7 ? x 35 + 263 = 2680
79
63
75
68
None of these
Explanation:? x 35 = 2680 – 265 = 2415
–> ? = 2415/35 = 69

Qn.8 34 = 7^87
56
65
2631
3136
Explanation: square root of ? – 34 = 22
–> square root of ? = 34 + 22 = 56–> ? = 56 x 56 = 3136None of these

Qn.9 11 x (468 /26) = ? + 13
175
185
Explanation:(11 x 468)/26 = ? + 13
–> 198 = ? + 13–> ? = 198 – 13 = 185211
201
None of these

Qn.10 ?% of 550 – 12% of 150 = 125
54
44
16
36
None of these
Explanation:[(550 x ?)/ 100] – [(150 x 12)/100] = 125
–> [(550 x ?)/100] – 18 = 125–> [(550 x ?)/100] = 125 + 18 = 143–> ? = [(143 x 100)/550] = 26
Qn.11 2234 + 84 – 1273 = ? + 123
922
Explanation:–> 1045 = ? + 123
–> ? = 1045 – 123 = 922932
822
832
None of these

Qn.12 ? / 12 x 17 = 238
178
218
128
208
None of these
Explanation:( ?/12) x 17 = 238
–> ? = (238 x 12)/17 = 168
Qn.13 135 – 924 / 132 x 6 = ?
93
Explanation:? = 135 – (924/132) x 6
= 135 – 42 = 93103
43
123
None of these

Qn.14 750.46 + 114.09 – 840.04 = ? – 13.09
37.06
63.78
37.60
Explanation:750.46 + 114.09 – 840.04 = ? – 13.09
–> 24.51 = ? – 13.09–> ? = 24.51 + 13.09 = 37.6067.38
None of these
Qn.15 64% of 750 / 4 = ? / 5
24
48
300
600
Explanation:(64/100) x (750/4) = ?/5
–> 120 = ?/5–> ? = 120 x 5 = 600None of these

Qn.16
A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present age of his son is:
14 years
18 years
20 years
22 years
Explanation:Let the son’s present age be x years.
Then, man’s present age = (x + 24) years.Therefore, (x + 24) + 2 = 2(x + 2)–> x + 26 = 2x + 4–> x = 22.None of these

Qn.17
At present, the ratio between the ages of Arun and Deepak is 4 : 3. After 6 years, Arun’s age will be 26 years. What is the age of Deepak at present ?
12 years
15 years
Explanation:Let the present ages of Arun and Deepak be 4x years and 3x years respectively.
Then, 4x + 6 = 26 <—> 4x = 20x = 5.Therefore, Deepak’s age = 3x = 15 years.19 and half
21 years
None of these

Qn.18
A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform ?
120 m
240 m
Explanation:Speed = 54 x (5/18) m/sec = 15 m/sec.
Length of the train = (15 x 20)m = 300 m.Let the length of the platform be x metres.Then, (x + 300)36 = 15—> x + 300 = 540—> x = 240 m.300 m
None of these

Qn.19
A goods train runs at the speed of 72 kmph and crosses a 250 m long platform in 26 seconds. What is the length of the goods train ?
230 m
240 m
260 m
270 m
Explanation:Speed = 72 x (5/18) m/sec = 20 m/sec.
Time = 26 sec.Let the length of the train be x metres.Then, (x + 250)/26 = 20—> x + 250 = 520—> x = 270.None of these

Qn.20
The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for Rs. 1280. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit ?
Rs. 2000
Explanation:Let C.P. be Rs. x.
Then, [(1920 – x)/x]100 = [(x – 1280)/x]100—> 1920 – x = x – 1280—> 2x = 3200—> x = 1600Therefore, Required S.P. = 125% of Rs. 1600= Rs. (125/100) x 1600= Rs 2000.Rs. 2200
Rs. 2400
None of these

Qn.21
In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a prize ?
1/10
2/5
2/7
Explanation:P (getting a prize) = 10/(10 + 25) = 10/35 = 2/7
5/7
None of these

Qn.22
Two dice are tossed. The probability that the total score is a prime number is:
1/6
5/12
Explanation:Clearly, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36.
Let E = Event that the sum is a prime number.Then E = { (1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 2), (3, 4), (4, 1), (4, 3), (5, 2), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 5) }Therefore, n(E) = 15.Therefore, P(E) = n(E)/n(S)= 15/36= 5/121/2
7/9
None of these

Qn.23
If Rs. 782 be divided into three parts, proportional to 1/2 : 2/3 : 3/4 , then the first part is:
Rs. 182
Rs. 190
Rs. 196
Rs. 204
Explanation:Given ratio = 1/2 : 2/3 : 3/4 = 6 : 8 : 9.
Therefore, 1st part = Rs. 782 x (6/23)= Rs. 204None of these

Qn.24
A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs. 1000 more than D, what is B’s share ?
Rs. 500
Rs. 1500
Rs. 2000
Explanation:Let the shares of A, B, C and D be Rs. 5x, Rs. 2x, Rs. 4x and Rs. 3x respectively.
Then, 4x – 3x = 1000—> x = 1000.Therefore, B’s share = Rs. 2x = Rs. (2 x 1000) = Rs. 2000.Rs. 3000
None of these

Qn.25
A can run 22.5 m while B runs 25 m. In a kilometre race B beats A by:
100 m
Explanation:When B runs 25 m, A runs (45/2) m.
When B runs 1000 m, A runs [(45/2) x (1/25) x 1000]m = 900 m.Therefore, B beats A by 100 m.111 1/9m
25 m
50 m
None of these

Qn.26
If Rs. 10 be allowed as true discount on a bill of Rs. 110 due at the end of a certain time, then the discount allowed on the same sum due at the end of double the time is:
Rs. 20
Rs. 21.81
Rs. 22
Rs. 18.33
Explanation:S.I. on Rs. (110 – 10) for a certain time = Rs. 10.
S.I. on Rs. 100 for double the time = Rs. 20.T.D. on Rs. 120 = Rs. (120 – 100) = Rs. 20.T.D. on Rs. 110 = Rs. (20/120) x 110 = Rs. 18.33None of these

Qn.27
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
gains Rs. 55
gains Rs. 50
Explanation:S.P. = P.W. of Rs. 2200 due 1 year hence
= Rs. [(2200 x 100)/100 + (10 x 1)]= Rs. 2000.Therefore,Gain = Rs. (2000 – 1950) = Rs. 50.loses Rs. 30
gains Rs. 30
None of these

Qn.28
Albert invested an amount of Rs. 8000 in a fixed deposit scheme for 2 years at compound interest rate 5 p.c.p.a. How much amount will Albert get on maturity of the fixed deposit ?
Rs. 8600
Rs. 8620
Rs. 8820
Explanation:Amount = Rs. {8000 x [1 + (5/100)^2]}
= Rs. {8000 x (21/20) x (21/20)} = Rs. 8820.None of these

Qn.29
The H.C.F. of 9/10 , 12/25 , 18/35 and 21/40 is:
3/5
252/5
3/1400
Explanation:Required H.C.F. = (H.C.F. of 9, 12, 18, 21)/(L.C.M of 10, 25, 35, 40) = 3/1400
63/700
None of these

Qn.30
Which of the following has the most number of divisors ?
99
101
176
Explanation:99 = 1 x 3 x 3 x 11
101 = 1 x 101176 = 1 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 11182 = 1 x 2 x 7 x 13So, divisors of 99 are 1, 3, 9, 11, 33, 99Divisors of 101 are 1 and 101Divisors of 176 are 1, 2, 4, 8, 11, 16, 22, 44, 88 and 176Divisors of 182 are 1, 2, 7, 13, 14, 26, 91 and 182.Hence, 176 has the most number of divisors.182
None of these

Qn.31
On 8th Dec, 2007 Saturday falls. What day of the week was it on 8th Dec, 2006 ?
Sunday
Thursday
Tuesday
Friday
Explanation:The year 2006 is an ordinary year. So, it has 1 odd day.
So, the day on 8th Dec, 2007 will be 1 day beyond the day on 8th Dec, 2006.But, 8th Dec, 2007 is Saturday.Therefore, 8th Dec, 2006 is Friday.

Qn.32 A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with dimensions 48 m x 36 m. From each of its corners, a square is cut off so as to make an open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the volume of the box (in m^3) is:
4830
5120
Explanation:Clearly, l = (48 – 16)m = 32 m,
b = (36 -16)m = 20 m,h = 8 m.Therefore, Volume of the box = (32 x 20 x 8) m^3 = 5120 m^3.6420
8960

Qn.33
A group of students decided to collect as many paise from each member of group as is the number of members. If the total collection amounts to Rs. 59.29, the number of the member is the group is:
57
67
77
Explanation:Money collected = (59.29 x 100) paise = 5929 paise.
Therefore, Number of members = squareroot(5929) = 77.87

Qn.34
Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour ?
9
10
Explanation:Due to stoppages, it covers 9 km less.
Time taken to cover 9 km = (9/54) x 60 min = 10 min.12
20

Qn.35
A farmer travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 hours. He travelled partly on foot @ 4 km/hr and partly on bicycle @ 9 km/hr. The distance travelled on foot is:
14 km
15 km
16 km
Explanation:Let the distance travelled on foot be x km.
Then, distance travelled on bicycle = (61 -x) km.So, (x/4) + (61 -x)/9 = 9—> 9x + 4(61 -x) = 9 x 36—> 5x = 80—> x = 16 km.17 km

Qn.36
The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two-digit number ?
69
78
96
Cannot be determined
Explanation:Let the ten’s digit be x and unit’s digit be y.
Then, x + y = 15 and x – y = 3 or y – x = 3.Solving x + y = 15 and x – y = 3, we get: x = 9, y = 6.Solving x + y = 15 and y – x = 3, we get: x = 6, y = 9.So, the number is either 96 or 69.Hence, the number cannot be determined.None of these

Qn.37
A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500 ?
Rs. 4991
Explanation:Total sale for 5 months = Rs. (6435 + 6927 + 6855 + 7230 + 6562) = Rs. 34009.
Therefore, Required sale = Rs. [ (6500 x 6) – 34009 ]= Rs. (39000 – 34009)= Rs. 4991.Rs. 5991
Rs. 6001
Rs. 6991

Qn.38
The least multiple of 7, which leaves a remainder of 4, when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18 is :
74
94
184
364
Explanation:L.C.M. of 6, 9, 15 and 18 is 90.
Let required number be 90k + 4, which is multiple of 7.Least value of k for which (90k + 4) is divisible by 7 is k = 4.Therefore, Required number = (90 x 4) + 4 = 364.
Qn.39
The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of commodity Y increases by 15 paise every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity X was Rs. 4.20 and that of Y was Rs. 6.30, in which year commodity X will cost 40 paise more than the commodity Y ?
2010
2011
Explanation:Suppose commodity X will cost 40 paise more than Y after z years.
Then, (4.20 + 0.40z) – (6.30 + 0.15z) = 0.400.25z = 0.40 + 2.10z = (2.50/0.25) = (250/25) = 10.Therefore, X will cost 40 paise more than Y 10 years after 2001 i.e., 2011.2012
2013

Qn.40
Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:
4
Explanation:N = H.C.F. of (4665 – 1305), (6905 – 4665) and (6905 – 1305)
= H.C.F. of 3360, 2240 and 5600 = 1120.Sum of digits in N = ( 1 + 1 + 2 + 0 ) = 45
6
8

Qn.41
The average weight of 8 person’s increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person ?
76 kg
76.5 kg
85 kg
Explanation:Total weight increased = (8 x 2.5) kg = 20 kg.
Weight of new person = (65 + 20) kg = 85 kg.Data Inadequate
None of these

Qn.42
Difference between the digits of a two digit number is 5 and the digit in the unit’s place is six times the digit in the ten’s place. What is the number ?
27
72
16
Explanation:Of the given alternatives, required number = 16
Unit’s digit = 6 = Ten’s digit x 6 and 6 – 1 = 561
None of these

Qn.43
Find the average of the following set of numbers.
132, 148, 164, 128, 120, 136142
136
138
Explanation:Required average : (132 + 148 + 164 + 128 + 120 + 136)/6
= 828/6 = 138144
None of these

Qn.44
Sum of five consecutive even numbers is 380. What is the second number in ascending order ?
76
78
74
Explanation:Sum of five consecutive even numbers = 380
Therefore, Third even number = 380/5 = 76Therefore, Required second number = 76 – 2 = 7472
None of these

Qn.45
Beena and Meena started a boutique investing amounts of Rs. 35,000 and Rs. 56,000 respectively. If Beena’s share in the profit earned by them is Rs. 45,000, what is the total profit earned ?
Rs. 81,000
Rs. 1,27,000
Rs. 72,000
Rs. 1,17,000
Explanation:Ratio of the profits of Beena and Meena = 35000 : 56000 = 5 : 8
If the total profit be Rs x, then5x/13 = 45000–> x = (45000 x 13)/5= Rs 117000None of these

Qn.46
Simple interest accrued on an amount in eight years at the rate of 11 p.c.p.a. is Rs. 57,200. What was the principal amount ?
Rs. 72,000
Rs. 82,000
Rs. 75,000
Rs. 65,000
Explanation:Principal = (SI x 100)/(Time x Rate)
= (57200 x100)/(8 x 11)= Rs 65,000None of these

Qn.47
Nandkishore gives 35% of the money he had to his wife and gave 50% of the money he had to his sons. Remaining amount of Rs. 11,250 he kept for himself What was the total amount of money Nandikishore had ?
Rs. 63,750
Rs 75,000
Explanation:Let Nandkishore had initially Rs. x.
Saving percent = 15%Therefore, x * (15/100) = 11250–> x = (11250 * 100)/15= Rs 75,000Rs. 73,650
Rs. 72,450
None of these

Qn.48
16 men can complete a piece of work in 7 days. In how many days will 28 men complete the same work ?
6 days
8 days
3 days
4 days
Explanation:M1 D1 = M2 D2
–> 16 x 7 = 28 x D2–> D2 = (16 x 7)/28 = 4 daysNone of these

Qn.49
Vandana sells an article for Rs. 3240 and earns a profit of 20 %. What is the cost price of the article ?
Rs. 2,800
Rs. 2,820
Rs. 2,750
Rs. 2,700
Explanation:Cost price of the article
= Rs (100/120) x 3240= Rs 2700None of these

Qn.50
The 56% of a number is less than its 72% by 56. Wh at is 70% of that number ?
300
235
240
350
None of these
Explanation:Let the number be x.
Therefore, (72 – 56) * (1/100) * x = 56–> x = (56 * 100)/16 = 350Therefore, 70% of 350= (350 x 70)/100 = 245
CAT Aptitude and Anlytical
CAT aptitude, reasoning data interpretation questions for practice
Qn.1-Numerical Ability solved question papers
1 What will come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions:-
26 x 451 – ? = 61036523
5623
Explanation:26 x 451 – ? = 6103
–> 11726 – 7 = 6103–> ? = 11726 – 6103 = 5623 6251
4563
None of these

Qn.2 47 x 251 – 3695 = ?
8102
8100
9208
7891
None of these

Qn.3 (12.25 x 4.02 – 14.26) x ? = 699.7
10
20

Explanation:(12.25 x 4.02 – 14.26) x ? = 699.7
=> (49.245 – 14.26) x ? = 699.7=> 34.985 x ? = 699.7 –> 699.7/34.985 = 2015
25
None of these

Qn.4 ? % of 452 = 311,88
67
52
59
71
None of these
Explanation:(452 x ?)/100 = 311,88
–> ? = (311,88 x 100)/452 = 69

Qn.5 89% of ? + 365 = 1075.22
798
Explanation:(? x 89)/100 = 1075.22 – 365 = 710.22
–> (710.22 x 100)/89 = 798897
898
752
None of these

Qn.6 3695.12 + 4458.02 – ? = 7592.14
465
651
575
561
Explanation:8153.14 – ? = 7592.14
–> ? = 8153.14 – 7592.14= 561None of these

Qn.7 ? x 35 + 263 = 2680
79
63
75
68
None of these
Explanation:? x 3
CAT Aptitude questions

CAT 2002 PCT -4,CAT previous years solved question papers,CAT Aptitude questions for practice,CAT Reasoning and Data Interpretation solved question papers CAT largest collection of free solved sample placement papers

Section I

Directions for questions 1 to 5 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

CAT_ Section I_ Qno_1-5

I. The ratio of people doing all 3 activities to people doing atleast 2 activities is 1 : 6.

II. The ratio of people doing only one activity to people doing atleast 2 activities is 3 : 2

III. Number of people doing only CAT/MBA exceeds number of people doing GRE/MS only by 990.

IV. Number of people doing only GRE/MS exceeds number of people seeking jobs only by 360.

1. Number of people doing all 3 activities is :

1] 500

2] 1000

3] 1500

4] Cannot be determined

2. Number of people doing no more than on activity is :

1] 10,000

2] 9,760

3] 14,000

4] 12,000

3. Number of people doing exactly two activities is :

1] 6000

2] 5000

3] 9000

4] 10,000

4. The number of people not doing any activity is :

1] 760

2] 570

3] 1000

4] Data Insufficient

5. The number of people who are both seeking employment and trying for GRN/MS is :

1] 1610

2] 2430

3] 1720

4] Data Insufficient

For answers to questions 1 to 5 :

CAT_ Section I_ Ans _1-5

Let the different sections be represented by the variables.

Given

1. p : (x + y + z + p) = 1 : 6

2. (a + b + c) : (x + y + z + p) = 3 : 2

? (a + b + c) : p : (x + y + z + p) = 9 : 1 : 6

Since P = 1
x + y + z + p 6

Since P = 1
x + y + z 5

? (a + b + c) : (x + y + z) : p = 9 : 5 : 1 —— (I)

Again, the total of all areas is :

(a + b + c) + 2 (x + y + z) + 3p = 6810 + 7070 + 8120

(a + b + c) + 2 (x + y + z) + 3p = 22000

Using (I)

9p + 2(5p) + 3p = 22p = 22000

? p = 1000

x + y + z = 5000 } (II)

a + b + c = 9000

Again,

c – b = 990

b – a = 360

On solving

a = 2430

b = 2790

c = 3780

p = people doing all 3 activities = 1000

a + b + c = people doing exactly 1 activity = 9000

x + y + z = people doing exactly 2 activities = 5000

people not doing any activity = EU – (1000 + 9000 + 5000)

= 15760 – 15000 = 760

x, y, z cannot be determined without additional data.

Hence,

1- [2] 2-[2] 3-[2] 4-[1] 5-[4]

Directions for questions 6 to 9 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Palaash never knew he would be in such trouble. He has to sing in seven different languages. The Assamese song would be a hit if and only if it is preceded by a Telugu song. Konkani song would be a hit only if a Hindi song came before it. English has to be preceded by Hindi and Punjabi is the last song he sings. There is one song between English and Punjabi and of the three only two were hit. Konkani song is a failure. Tamil is the seventh language. If the Assamese song is a hit and his first song was Telugu then:

6. Which song did he sing after English?

1] Telugu

2] Konkani

3] Tamil

4] Assamese

7. Which song did he sing after Konkani?

1] Tamil

2] Punjabi

3] Hindi

4] English

8. If each hit had two points in the Grammy awards, then how many points did Palaash get?

1] 4

2] 6

3] 8

4] Can’t say

9. What were the total number of assured hit songs as per the question?

1] 3

2] 4

3] 5

4] 6

For answers to questions 6 to 9 :

From the clues we can see Telugu is the first song, while Punjabi is the last song. Assamese would be second followed by Konkani, Hindi and English. Thus Tamil, the seventh language would be the sixth song. In terms of points there is no information regarding whether Telugu and Hindi songs were a hit or not. Thus we can’t say. But regarding the number of assured hits as per the question it would be Assamese, and two songs out of English, Tamil and Punjabi. Thus the answers are

6- [3] 7-[3] 8-[4] 9-[1]

Directions for questions 10 to 14 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

A six digit (with no digit repeated) number is such that every alternate digit is a prime number. The difference between the digit on the tens place and the digit on the thousands place is the digit on the lakh place. The units digit is the product of the digit on the lakh place and the digit on the ten-thousands place, which is also a prime number. Also tens place digit is greater than the thousandth place digit.

10. The digit on the lakh place is :

1] 1

2] 2

3] 3

4] 4

11. The digit on the units place is :

1] 2

2] 4

3] 6

4] 8

12. The positive difference of the the digit on the ten-thousandth place and the the ten’s place is :

1] 3

2] 4

3] 6

4] 7

13. The digit on the hundred’s place is :

1] 3

2] 4

3] 8

4] Can’t say

14. The number is divisible by :

1] 2

2] 3

3] 4

4] Both [1] and [3]

For answers to questions 10 to 14 :

As the unit digit is not a prime number, thus the lakh digit, the thousands digit and the ten’s digit will be a prime number.

As the lakh digit is the difference of two prime numbers and still is a prime number, it is 2. Also the digits on the thousandth and the ten’s place can be either 3 and 5 or 5 and 7. As the unit digit is the product of the digit on the lakh place and the digit on the ten-thousandth 7 (as 5 x 2 = 10, 7 x 2 = 14). Thus it has to be 3. Therefore we see that the digit on the thousandth place is 5 and that on the ten’s place is 7. We don’t know anything about the digit on the hundredth place. Therefore the number is 235 x 76

10- [2] 11-[3] 12-[2] 13-[4] 14-[4]

Directions for questions 15 to 19 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

In a gathering of 8 people, A, B, C and D are Software professionals and P, Q, R and S are Hardware professionals. Each person shows atleast one of the following features viz. HK, JM, GS and CP.

HW : Hardware professional SW : Software Professional

HK : Has Kids JM : Just Married

GS : Has grand sons CP : One of the Couples

A ‘CP’ may be JM (and vice versa) but definitely not HK or GS.

A GS can not be JM.

Neither JM nor CP can be HK or GS.

GS implies HK but the reverse need not be true.

P, Q, R, D and S hav only one feature where as others show atleast 1.

A is JM, where as one of C and D is both CP and JM.

B is GS but D and A are not HK.

D and Q always show the same feature.

R is JM and S is HK.

The 4 features are shown by atleast one of the SW or HW.

15. How many professionals are definitely not HK?

1] 2

2] 3

3] 5

4] 5 or 6

16. A does not show all of the features except :

1] JM

2] GS

3] Data insufficient

4] None of these

17. If A does not show CP then Q does show :

1] HK

2] JM

3] GS

4] Data insufficient

18. P can show all of the following except :

1] JM

2] GS

3] CP

4] None of these

19. If P is the only HW who is a CP then which of the following is definitely true?

I. A does not show CP

II. B may show CP

III. D show JM

1] I only

2] II only

3] III only

4] None of these

For answers to questions 15 to 19 :

The following matrix can be formed based on the given information

SW HW A B C D P Q R S HK × ü × × × ü JM ü × ü ü × GS × ü × × × × × × CP × ü × ×
15. Five professionals are definitely not HK, P may or may not be HK. Hence, [3].

16. Now A may or may not be CP. Hence [3].

17. We don’t know whether Q is JM or CP. Hence, [4].

18. P cannot show GS. Hence, [2].

19. I : A may or may not show CP. Hence, I may be false.

II : B cannot show more than 2 features. Hence, II is false.

III : D should show JM as Q will show JM. Hence, III is true. Hence, [3].

Directions for questions 20 to 23 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

I have got two uncles, Joe and John and two aunts, Jane and Jill. While uncle Jose is not married, uncle John is married and has two sons as well. Aunt Jane is a widow and has only one daughter. My mother is the only one in the family who has a real sister while she has no brothers. My father works in the diamond factory while my paternal grandparents live with us. We are a joint family. Then :

20. How many members are there in our family?

1] 10

2] 11

3] 12

4] 13

21. How many cousin sisters do I have?

1] None

2] One

3] Two

4] Three

22. Who is married to Uncle John?

1] Jane

2] Jill

3] None of these

4] Can’t Say

23. How many children do my paternal grandparents have?

1] Two

2] Three

3] Four

4] Five

For answers to questions 20 to 23 :

The family heirarchy will be like this :

CAT_ Section I_ Ans No-20-23

20. 12 members in the family. Hence, [3].

21. Only one cousin sister. Hence, [2].

22. Aunt Jill is married to Uncle John. Hence, [2].

23. 3 sons, my father, Uncle Joe and Uncle John. Hence, [2].

24. The total number of female members in the family is 5. Hence, [4].

25. The years can be calculated as:

1980 – 15 + 1 + 10 + 2 + 6 = 1984. Hence, [3]

Directions for questions 24 to 25 : Choose the correct alternative.

24. Mr. Gupta is Rita and Sita’s father-in-law. Amit is married to Sita and has got two daughters. Rita has only one son. If Mr. Gupta has only two sons and Mrs. Gupta is alive then how many female members are there in the Gupta faimly?

1] 2

2] 3

3] 4

4] 5

25. I build a time machine in 1980. The peculiar ;thing about the time machine was that it had a range of twenty years into the future and 30 years into the past. I used the machine and went back 15 years. After spending a year in the past, I gain used it and went 10 years into the future. There I spend around two years and finally went to the future by 6 years. In which year did I land up?

1] 1980

2] 1983

3] 1984

4] None of these

Directions for questions 23 to 30 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Cars and motorcycles continued to surge ahead even as “Made in India” automobiles like commercial vehicles, multi-utility vehicles, scooters, mopeds and three-wheelers failed to attract overseas buyers this fiscal. Car exports shot up by a huge 105% at 42,444 units during 2001-02 on the back of a superb performance by Ford India, which accounted for more than half of the total exports. Ford shipped 27,572 units of its mid-size car “Ikon” to countries like South Africa and Mexico. Car market leader Maruti Udyog, however, posted a 35.7% dip at 8,559 units during 2001-02. South Korea’s Hyundai also witnessed a 14.5% decline in exports at 4,494 units (5250 cars last year). Car exports of Telco surged ahead by 261.6% at 1,689 cars (467 cars last year) while that of General Motors slipped to 40 cars year-on-year from 69 units. In sharp contrast to passenger car segment, commercial vehicle exports slumped by 19.9% at 9,683 units. While medium and heavy (M&H) vehicles exports went down by 18.2% to 3,891 units, that of light commercial vehicles (LCVs) declined by 22.3% at 5,792 units. Telco’s M&H exports fell by 24.4% to 2,118 units while LCVs dipped by 36.2% to 4,036 vehicles during 2001-02. Ashok Leyland, India’s second largest commercial vehicle marker, reported a 6.7% land 4.8% drop in M&H and LCV exports at 1,725 units and 98 units respectively. However, exports of LCV markers like Eicher, Swaraj Mazda and Mahindra & Mahindra rose by 61.6%, 56.5% and 68.2% at 1,062, 321 and 274 units respectively. Two-wheeler exports went down by 9.2% to 91,731 units as scooter and moped exports declined by 15.7% and 41.7% at 19,369 units and 22,801 unit5s respectively. Howeer, exports of motorcycles recorded a 13% rise at 17,490 units while tha tof Bajaj Auto rose by 158% to 15,951 units. Hero Honda posted a 29.4% rise at 11,833 units. Exports of TVS Motors dipped by 13.7% to 2,273 units while Royal Enfield saw a rise of 63.6% to 1,357 units. Scooter markers like Bajaj and TVS posted a 31.5% and 137% jump in exports at 7,996 and 897 units respectively while LML and Kinetic exports dipped by 27.8% and 57.5% to 6,709 and 3,702 units.

26. If only 5 companies, Ford, Maruti Udyog, Hyundai, Telco and General Motors exported cars in 2000-01, how many cars did Ford export in 2000-01?

1] 1645

2] 1607

3] 1700

4] 1555

27. By how much were the total vehicle exports by Telco in 2001-02, higher or lower than those in 2000-01? (Telco manufactures only cars and commercial vehicles)

1] 18.3% lower

2] 15% lower

3] 12% higher

4] almost same

28. What were the total vehicle exports in 2000-01?

1] 133940

2] 135000

3] 132750

4] 131680

29. If the average export realization of motorcycles has reduced from Rs.45,000 per unit in 2000-01 to Rs.40,000 per unit in 2001-02, what is the change in export volumes?

1] Rs.218 million increase

2] Rs.218 crore increase

3] Rs.2.18 billion increase

4] Rs.2180 million increase

30. If the average export realization per car for Maruti Udyog has increased by 40%, then what is the percentage change in car exports for Maruti in value terms?

1] 10% increase

2] 10% decrease

3] 5% decrease

4] 5% Increase

For answers to questions 20 to 23 :

Car 2001-02 20000-01 M&H 2001-02 20000-01 Ford 27572 1607 Telco 2118 2802 Maruti 8559 13311 Ashok Ley. 1725 1849 Hyundai 4494 5250 Telco 1689 467 3891 4757 GM 40 69 90 42444 20704

LCV 2001-02 20000-01 Motorcycles 2001-02 20000-01
Scooters

2001-02 20000-01 Telco 4036 63265 Yamaha 17490 Bajaj 7996 Ashok Ley. 98 103 TVS 15951 TVS 897 Eicher 1062 657 Royal Enfield 11833 LML 6709 Swaraj 321 205 Kinetic 3702 M&M 274 163 49561 39200 19369 22976 5792 7454 Mopeds 22801 39110

42444
26. Total car exports in 2000-01 = (1 + 1.05) = 20704

Car exports by Maruti in 2000-01 = 8559 = 8559/0.643 = 13311
(1 – 0.357)

Car exports by Hyundai in 2000-01 = 5250

Car exports by Telco in 2000-01 = 467

Car exports by General Motors in 2000-01 = 69

Therefore, car exports by Ford in 2000-01 = 20704 – 13311 – 5250 – 467 – 69 = 1607 units. Hence, [2].

27. Number of vehicles exported by Telco in 2001-02 = 1689 + 2118 + 4036 = 7843

Car exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 467

Multi-utility vehicles exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 2118 = approx. 2118/0.756 = 2802
(1-0.244)

LCVs exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 4036 = approximately 4036 = 6326
(1-0.362) 0.64

Total vehicle exports by Telco in 2001-01 = 467 + 2802 + 6326 = 9595

Therefore, ratio of Telco’s exports in 2001-02 to those in 2000-01 = 7843 = approximately 7845 = 0.817 = 81.7%
9595 9600

Therefore, Telco’s exports in 2001-02 were 18.3% lower. Hence, [1].

28. Car exports in 2000-01 = 20704

M&H vehicle exports in 200-01 = 3891 ˜ 3900/0.82 = 4756
(1-0.182)

LCV exports in 2000-01 = 5792 = 7454
(1-0.223)

Two-wheeler exports in 2000-01 = 91731 = 101025
(1-0.092)
Therefore, total vehicle exports in 2000-01 = 20704 + 4757 + 7454 + 101025 = 133939. Hence, [1].

29. Motorcycle export value in 2001-02 = 49561 × 4000 = 1982440000 or Rs.1982.44 million

Motorcycle exports in 2000-01 = 49561 ˜ 49000/1.25 = 39,200
1.272

Motorcycle exports value in 2000-01 = 39200 × 45000 = 1764000000 or Rs.1764 million

Therefore, motorcycle exports have increased by (1982-1764) = Rs.218 million. Hence [1].

30. Let x units be exported by Maruti Udyog for an average realization of y rupees per car in 2000-01. Therefore, exports of Maruti Udyog in 2000-01 = x × y rupees

Exports of Maruti Udyog in 2001-02 = x × (1-0.357) × y × 1.40 = 0.90 × x × y Therefore, exports of Maruti Udyog have decreased in value terms by about 10%. Hence,[2].
CAT Aptitude Reasoning
CAT Verbal Ability questions

CAT Sentence Completion Questions and answers

(Effective words, Phrases, Prepositions, Conjunctions etc.)

Direction – Each of the following questions has a word or group of words missing. Four or five alternative words are given. You have to find out which one of them would make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

1. Some of the luggage ………. not yet arrived.

(A) has (Ans)

(B) have

(C) is

(D) are

2. One of the ……… injured.

(A) player was

(B) players were

(C) players was (Ans)

(D) players are

3. We should always be careful in the choice of ………

(A) our friend

(B) our friends (Ans)

(C) ours friend

(D) ours friends

4. He talks as if he ……. a fool.

(A) is

(B) was

(C) were (Ans)

(D) has been

5. He …….. since morning.

(A) is playing

(B) has been playing (Ans)

(C) has played

(D) will be playing

6. When the meeting began, everybody took …….

(A) his seat (Ans)

(B) their seat

(C) their seats

(D) one’s seat

7. I wonder whether I …….. ever see him again.

(A) shall

(B) will

(C) should

(D) would (Ans)

8. I …… sing well when I was younger.

(A) could (Ans)

(B) might

(C) would

(D) did

9. No sooner …… than the police handcuffed him.

(A) he came

(B) did he came

(C) did he come (Ans)

10. We …… some friends in for dinner tomorrow night.

(A) have

(B) are having (Ans)

(C) do have

(D) will have

11. “What exactly does he want?”

“He would like to see you ……. a good job on the project.”

(A) got (Ans)

(B) get

(C) to get

(D) will get

12. “She was sorry she didn’t attend her friend’s wedding.”

“Yes, she ……. ”

(A) regretted she can’t have gone

(B) was regretting she does not go

(C) will regret she didn’t go

(D) was regretting that she couldn’t go (Ans)

13. “Sujata is late in he office”.

“She rarely comes in time ……?”

(A) don’t she

(B) does she (Ans)

(C) doesn’t she

(D) won’t she

14. “There is a visitor here”

“All right man I …….”

(A) shall be expecting this man

(B) am expecting this man (Ans)

(C) was to expect this man

(D) had to expect this man

15. “Can we start our match?

“No, we can’t unless the referee ……..”

(A) will not give the signal

(B) gives the signal (Ans)

(C) did not give the signal

(D) does not give the signal

16. “Why is he breathing so fast”?

“The teacher made him ….. a ;mile as measure of punishment for his coming late”.

(A) running

(B) to run

(C) ran

(D) run (Ans)

17. He behaves as if he ……. a king.

(A) was

(B) were (Ans)

(C) has

18. Do not look ……. the poor.

(A) down

(B) up

(C) upon

(D) down upon (Ans)

19. The dog has been ….. by the car.

(A) run out

(B) run over (Ans)

(C) run into

(D) run for

20. …… you apologize I shall punish you.

(A) until

(B) unless (Ans)

(C) till

(D) none of these

21. I spoke to the chairman …………. he was sitting alone in the cabin.

(A) where

(B) when (Ans)

(C) whereas

(D) whenever

22. I went directly to my boss to …….. his approval.

(A) order

(B) restore

(C) seek (Ans)

(D) collect

(E) gain

23. It was an unhappy life …….. I lived, full of many anxieties.

(A) that (Ans)

(B) which

(C) as

(D) where

(E) though

24. My concern for Jugal’s future was very ….. as he was not in job then.

(A) strong (Ans)

(B) big

(C) good

(D) powerful

(E) much

25. She remained there for hours after Jayant ……….. gone.

(B) did

(C) have

(D) has

(E) was

Common Errors

Exercise for Practice

1. Many a man / have / been working / under me. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘have’ to ‘has’ to make the verb singular. ‘Many a’ is always followed by a singular noun and a singular verb.

2. Cattles / were grazing / in the meadows / near our farm. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Change ‘cattles’ to ‘cattle’. ‘Cattle’ is one of those collective nouns which though singular in form are always used as plurals.

3. I told him / the story / in details / to make him understand it fully. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C – Change ‘details’ to ‘detail’.

4. I have / two sister-in-laws / whose husbands / are all well settled in Delhi. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘sister-in-laws’ to ‘sister-in-law’. Plural of such compound words is formed by adding ‘s’ in the first constituent of the compound word.

5. Many a person / have lost / their life / and property in the riots. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘have’ to ‘has’. Refer to answer to Q.No. 1

6. As he stood / below the shower / the sharp jets of / ice cold water revived his spirit. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Change ‘spirit’ to ‘spirits’, as it is always used in plural form.

7. The man / who I have / often mentioned is one whose friendship / I could wish to acquire, because he is a respectable man. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘who’ to ‘whom’. Subjective form should not be used for the word functioning as object.

8. In my youth / I used to / visit / Sharma’s and Chawla’s company. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Delete ‘s from Sharma’s. When two nouns are closely connected the apostrophe’s is added only to the second.

9. The doctor said / the patient / should not have wasted / a whole week before coming for help. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Insert ‘the’ before ‘patient’ since there is emphasis on the word ‘patient’.

10. This girl / wrote an essay / so well that / her teacher was exceedingly pleased with her. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Substitute ‘an’ by ‘the’ before ‘essay’. The sentence lays emphasis on ‘essay’.

11. The old man told / his son that / there was no such thing / for luck. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Substitute ‘for’ by ‘as’. ‘Such’ is generally followed by ‘as’.

12. Bacteria is / probably the most / common form / of life on earth. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Change ‘Bacteria’ to ‘Bacterium’, since the singular form of ‘Bacteria’ is ‘Bacterium’.

13. Different / authorities defines / intelligence in / different ways. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘defines’ to define’ to make it plural in order to get it to agree with the plural subject ‘authorities’.

14. The classical / systems of dance has / many features / in common. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘has’ to ‘have’ to make it plural in order to get it to agree with the plural subject ‘systems’.

15. Everyone of the students / has brought / his / identity card. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A – Where the number is limited or is implied to be limited ‘each one’ will be a better usage than ‘everyone’.

16. On Friday evening / Mamta and me / took a coach / for Patna and arrived at Jamal’s house. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Substitute ‘me’ by ‘I’. Objective form of pronoun should not be used for one functioning as subject.

17. The conference was / attended / by more than / one hundred delegates. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

18. There are / no conducted tours / for tourist to visit all the / important places. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Change ‘tourist’ to ‘tourists’.

19. He neglects / attending lectures / regularly / though college is only a few yards away from his house. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Put ‘the’ before ‘college’, since ‘college’ here has been particularized.

20. If you saw / the amount of Samosas / he consumed at breakfast this morning, / you would understand why he is so over-weight / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Replace ‘amount’ by ‘unmber’.

21. In my opinion / the balance sheet exhibits / a true and fair / view of the state of affairs of the bank. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

22. Everyman, woman and child / is now aware / of the terrible consequences of / habit of smoking. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D – Put ‘the’ before ‘habit’ since ‘habit’ here has been particularized, the habit of smoking.

23. The crowd at the stadium / clapped jubilantly / when the champion / received his trophy. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

24. Our state will / not be divided / into two parts / at any cost. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E – The sentence is correct.

25. This is one of / the most interesting book / I have / ever read. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B – Change ‘book’ to ‘books’.

CAT Synonyms

Direction – In each of the questions below choose, from the alternatives given, the word which is Most Nearly The Same In Meaning of the numbered word.

1. Alacrity :

(B) Fear

(C) Frankness

(D) Alarm

(E) None

2. Busy :

(A) Active

(B) Occupied

(D) Diligent

(E) None

3. Bitterness :

(A) Sourness

(B) Hoarseness

(D) Aspersion

(E) None

4. Sterile :

(A) Dry

(C) Childless

(D) Arid

(E) None

5. Altercation :

(A) Choice

(B) Charge

(D) Distribution

(E) None

6. Prohibit :

(A) Prescribe

(B) Forfeit

(D) Provide

7. Stupid :

(A) Rude

(C) Illiterate

(D) Obstinate

8. Synopsis :

(A) Index

(B) Mixture

(D) Puzzle

9. Graphic :

(A) Moving

(B) Timid

(D) Instructive

10. Showy :

(A) Rowdy

(B) Hungry

(C) Greedy

11. Annihilate :

(B) Entrain

(C) Forward

(D) Testify

12. Pacify :

(A) Gather

(B) Allot

(D) Remit

13. Liberal :

(C) Visionary

(D) Imaginative

14. Security :

(A) Boldness

(C) Fearlessness

(D) Confidence

15. Diligent :

(A) Fool

(B) Unhappy

(D) Disappointment

16. Predominant :

(A) Lovable

(C) Vague

(D) Assurance

17. Utility :

(A) Benefit

(C) Profitability

18. Compassion :

(B) Similarity

(C) Contrast

(D) Cruelty

19. Contentment :

(A) Craftiness

(C) Idleness

(D) Craving

20. Fiction :

(A) Imaginary

(B) Tamed

(D) Wilderness

21. Fugitive :

(B) Enduring

(C) Vain

(D) Weak

22. Exponent :

(A) Meddler

(B) Cancel

(D) Horrid

(A) Soothe

(B) Save

(D) Worship

24. Foment :

(A) Extirpate

(C) Isolation

(D) Abrasion

25. Imperceptible :

(A) Mean

(B) Obvious

(C) Humble

Antonyms

Directions – In each of the following questions one word, a numbered one, is followed by four or five words. Choose the word or phrase that is Most Nearly Opposite in meaning of the numbered word.

1. Abstain :

(A) Hoard

(B) Tolerate

(C) Forbear

2. Profusion :

(A) Aspersion

(C) Aversion

(D) Confusion

3. Obscure :

(A) Implicit

(B) Obnoxious

(D) Pedantic

4. Repulsive :

(B) Refulgent

(C) Effulgent

(D) Meek

5. Ambiguous :

(A) Auxiliary

(B) Responsible

(C) Salvageable

6. Attractive :

(B) Loathsome

(C) Abominable

(D) Repugnant

(E) None

7. Rigid :

(A) Merciful

(B) Generous

(D) Tolerant

(E) None

8. Benign :

(B) Soft

(C) Friendly

(D) Unwise

(E) None

9. Cool :

(A) Hot

(C) Tempered

(D) Indifferent

(E) None

10. Genuine :

(A) Unnatural

(B) Synthetic

(C) Artificial

(E) None

11. Singular :

(A) Dull

(B) Ancient

(D) Social

12. Frugal :

(B) Rich

(C) Miserable

(D) Happy

13. Permit :

(A) Give

(C) Allow

(D) Preserve

14. Consolidate :

(B) Expand

(C) Destroy

(D) Build

15. Trivial :

(B) Intricate

(C) Calm

(D) Dainty

16. Acquit :

(A) Retreat

(C) Conceal

(D) Deprive

17. Always :

(A) Disallow

(C) None

(D) Descend

18. Ancient :

(A) Repulsion

(C) Disappear

(D) Departure

19. Bitter :

(A) Blunt

(B) Bold

(C) Timid

20. Bright :

(A) Narrow

(C) Coward

(D) Sharp
CAT Candidate-Experiences
CAT Candidate-Experiences

hi frndz..i appeared for CAT exam fom mechanical branch.. as you all know..it consists of aptitude only..and has negative marking! quant ws moderate-to-high level.. sum easy qstns were there from %age,profit and loss, numbers.. sum real tough qstns from geometry.. verbal ability was very tough.. tough passages(3) ..tough jumbled para.. and tough synonyms & antonyms.. also, grammar was moderate to high level.. DI was OK.. some qstns were tough though.. logical reasoning was tym-taking but moderate.. main thing in CAT is normalization..and its complicated..it can make or break your chances.. 🙁 TIP : dont play guessing games in CAT.. take caution! 🙂

all d best.. 🙂
CAT Data Interpretation
CAT-IIM questions

Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.
Number of Candidates Appeared, Qualified and Scheduled in a Competitive Examination from Five States Delhi, H.P, U.P, Punjab and Haryana Over the Years 1994 to 1998

1. For which state the average number of candidates selected over the years is the maximum?
A. Delhi
B H.P
C. U.P
D. Punjab

Explanation:

The average number of candidates selected over the given period for various states are:

For Delhi = 94 + 48 + 82 + 90 + 70 /5 = 384 /5 = 76.8.
For H.P. = 82 + 65 + 70 + 86 + 75 /5 = 378 /5 = 75.6.
For U.P. = 78 + 85 + 48 + 70 + 80 /5 = 361 /5 = 72.2.
For Punjab = 85 + 70 + 65 + 84 + 60 /5 = 364/5 = 72.8.
For Haryana = 75 + 75 + 55 + 60 + 75 /5 = 340 /5 = 68.
Clearly, this average is maximum for Delhi.
2. The percentage of candidates qualified from Punjab over those appeared from Punjab is highestin the year?
A. 1997
B. 1998
C. 1999
D. 2000

Option D

Explanation:

The percentages of candidates qualified from Punjab over those appeared from Punjab during different years are:

For 1997 = ( 680 x 100 ) /8200 % = 8.29%.
For 1998 = ( 600 x 100 ) 6800 % = 8.82%.
For 1999 = ( 525 x 100 ) /6500 % = 8.08%.

For 2000 = ( 720 x 100 ) /7800 % = 9.23%.
For 2001 =( 485 x 100 ) /5700 % = 8.51%.

Clearly, this percentage is highest for the year 2000.

3. In the year 1997, which state had the lowest percentage of candidates selected over the candidates appeared?
A. Delhi
B. H.P
C. U.P
D. Punjab

Explanation:

The percentages of candidates selected over the candidates appeared in 1997, for various states are:

(i) For Delhi = ( 94 x 100 )/ 8000 % = 1.175%.
(ii) For H.P. = ( 82x 100 )/ 7800 % = 1.051%.
(iii) For U.P. =( 78 x 100 ) /7500 % = 1.040%.

(iv) For Punjab(85 x 100 ) /8200 % = 1.037%.

(v) For Haryana ( 75 x 100 )/6400 % = 1.172%.

Clearly, this percentage is lowest for Punjab.

4. The number of candidates selected from Haryana during the period under review is approximately what percent of the number selected from Delhi during this period?
A. 79.5%
B. 81%
C.84.5%
D. 88.5%

Explanation:

Required percentage
= [ (75 + 75 + 55 + 60 + 75)/(94 + 48 + 82 + 90 + 70) x 100 ] %

= [ 340 x 100 ] /384%== 88.54%
= 88.5%

5. The percentage of candidates selected from U.P over those qualified from U.P is highest in the year?
A. 1997
B. 1998
C. 1999
D. 2001

Explanation:

The percentages of candidates selected from U.P. over those qualified from U.P. during different years are:

For 1997 = ( 78 x 100 ) /720% = 10.83%.

For 1998 = ( 85 x 100 ) /620% = 13.71%.

For 1999 = ( 48 x 100 ) /400 % = 12%.

For 2000 = ( 70 x 100 ) /650% = 10.77%.

For 2001 = (80 x 100 ) /950% = 8.42%.

Clearly, this percentage is highest for the year 1998.
1. Directions to Solve

The following bar chart represents the GDP of different countries during the half decades 2001 – 2005 and 2006 – 2010. All figures are in Rs. billion.

Which of the countries listed below accounts for the maximum GDP during the half decade 2006 to 2010 ?
A. UAE
B. US
C. India
D. China

Explanation:
It’s clear that US is the highest amongst the given options.
2 The GDP of UAE is what fraction of GDP of the UK for the decade (approximately) ?
A. (1/4)th
B. (1/5)th
C. (1/6)th
Explanation:
(10/50) = 20% = (1/5)th

3. Which of the countries listed below accounts for the highest GDP during the half decade 2001 to 2005 ?
A. Russia
B. China
C. India
D. UAE
Explanation:
It’s clear that Russia is the answer

4. Out of every Rs. 10,000 spent during the decade 2001 – 2010 approximately how much was the GDP of Russia during the half decade 2001 – 2005 ?
A. Rs. 700
B. Rs. 1,400
C. Rs. 2,800
D. None of these
Explanation:Russia will account for 10 out of 125, i.e, 8% of the total, i.e, 800 out of 10,000 (approximately values based on visual interpretation).

Pie chart

Study the following pie-chart and the table and answer the questions based on them.
Proportion of Population of Seven Villages in 1997
1. If the population of village R in 1997 is 32000, then what will be the population of village Y below poverty line in that year?
A. 14100
B.15600
C. 16500
D. 17000
Explanation:

Population of village R = 32000 (given).

Let the population of village Y be y.

Then, 16 : 15 = 32000 : y=> y = ( 15 x 32000) /16 = 30000.
Therefore Population of village Y below poverty line = 52% of 30000 = 15600.
2 The ratio of population of village T below poverty line to that of village Z below poverty line in 1997 is:
A. 11 : 23
B. 13 : 11
C. 23 : 11
D. 11 : 13

Explanation:

Let N be the total population of all the seven villages.

Then, population of village T below poverty line = 46% of (21% of N)

and Population of villages Z below the poverty line = 42% of (11% of N)

Therefore Required ratio = 46% of (21% of N) = 46 x 21 = 22000.
42% of (11 % of N) 42 x 11

3. Find the population of village S if the population of village X below poverty line in 1997 is 12160.
A. 18500
B. 20500
C. 22000
D. 26000

Explanation:

Let the population of village X be x.

Then, 38% of x = 12160 => x = 12160 x 100 /38= 32000.
Now, if s be the population of village S, then
16 : 11 = 32000 : s => s = ( 11 x 3200 ) /16= 22000.

4. If in 1998, the population of villages Y and V increase by 10% each and the percentage of population below poverty line remains unchanged for all the villages, then find the population of village V below poverty line in 1998, given that the population of village Y in 1997 was 30000.
A. 11250
B. 12760
C. 13140
D.13780
Explanation:
Population of village Y in 1997 = 30000 (given).
Let the population of village V in 1997 be v.
Then, 15 : 10 = 30000 : v => v = 30000 x 10 /15= 20000.
Now, population of village V in 1998 = 20000 + (10% of 20000) = 22000.
Therefore Population of village V below poverty line in 1998 = 58% of 22000 = 12760.
CAT Verbal Ability Questions

CAT -English Aptitude Questions

These General Aptitude Questions are helpful in all upcoming CAT examination

Directions for questions 1 to 4: Each of the following questions has a sentence with two blanks. Given below each question are five pairs of words. Choose the pair that best completes the sentence.

1. The genocides in Bosnia and Rwanda, apart from being mis-described in the most sinister and-washing rhetoric, on something dark and interior to ___________ and perpetrators alike.

(1) innovative; communicator
(3) disingenuous; victims
(4) exigent; exploiters
(5) tragic; sufferers
Ans:3
2. As navigators, calendar makers, and other_________ of the night sky accumulated evidence to the contrary, ancient astronomers were forced to _________ that certain bodies might move in circles about
points, which in turn moved in circles about the earth.

(1) scrutinizers; believe
(2) observers; agree
(3) scrutinizers; suggest
(4) observers; concede
(5) students; conclude
Ans:4

3. Every human being, after the first few days of his life, is a product of two factors; on the one hand, there is his ______________endowment; and on the other hand, there is the effect of environment, including ___________.

(1) constitutional; weather
(2) congenital; education
(3) personal; climate
(4) economic; learning
(5) genetic; pedagogy
Ans:2

4. minds by central __________ of education and propaganda are some of the major evils which appear to be on the increase as a result of the impact of science upon minds suited by _________ to an earlier kind
of world.

(1) tenets; fixation
(2) aspects; inhibitions
(3) institutions; inhibitions
(5) departments; repulsion
Ans:1
Directions for questions 5 to 8: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

5.Most people at their first consultation take a furtive look at the surgeon?s hands in the hope of reassurance.. Prospective patients look for delicacy, sensitivity, steadiness, perhaps unblemished pallor. On this basis, Henry Perowne loses a number of cases each year. Generally, he knows happen before the patient does: the downward glance repeated, the prepared questions beginning to falter, the overemphatic thanks during the retreat to the door.

(1) Other people do not communicate due to their poor observation.
(2) Other patients do
(3) But Perowne himself is not concerned.
(4) But others will take their place, he thought.
(5) These hands are steady enough, but they are large.
Ans:3

6.Trade protectionism, disguised as concern for the climate, is raising its head. Citing competitiveness concerns, powerful industrialized countries are holding out threats of a levy on imports of energy- intensive products from developing countries that refuse to accept their demands. The actual source of
protectionist sentiment in the OECD countries is, of course, their current lackluster economic performance, combined with the challenges posed by he rapid economic rise of China and India in that order.

(1) Climate change is evoked to bring trade protectionism through the back door.
(2) OECD countries are taking refuge in climate change issues to erect trade barriers against these two countries.
(3) Climate change concerns have come as a convenient stick to beat the rising trade power of China and India.
(4) Defenders of the global economic status quo are posing as climate change champions.
(5) Today’s climate change champions are the perpetrators of global economic inequity
Ans:4

7. Mattancherry is Indian jewry’s most famous settlement. Its pretty streets of pastel colored house ,connected by first-floor passages and home to the last twelve saree-and-sarong-wearing, white-skinned Indian Jews are visited by thousands of tourists each year. Its synagogue, built in 1568, with a floor of
blue-and-white Chinese tiles, a carpet given by Haile Selassie and the frosty Yaheh selling tickets at the door, stands as an image of religious tolerance.

(1) Mattancherry represents, therefore, the perfect picture of peaceful co-existence.
(2) India?s Jews have almost never suffered discrimination, except for European colonizers and each other.
(3) Jews in India were always tolerant.
(4) Religious tolerance has always been only a façade and nothing more.
(5) The pretty pastel streets are, thus, very popular with the tourists.
Ans:1

8. Given the cultural and intellectual interconnections, the question of what is ?Western? and what is ?Eastern? (or Indian) is often hard to decide, and the issue can be discussed only in more dialectical terms. The diagnosis of a thought as ?purely Western? or ?purely Indian? can be very illusory.
(1) Thoughts are not the kind of things that can be easily categorized.
(2) Though ?occidentalism? and ?orientalism? as dichotomous concepts have found many adherents.
(3) ?East is East and West is West? has been a discredited notion for a long time now.
(4) Compartmentalizing thoughts is often desirable.
(5) The origin of a thought is not the kind of thing to which ?purity? happens easily.
Ans:5

Directions for Questions 9 to 13: The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Language is not a cultural artifact that we learn the way we learn to tell time or how the federal government works. Instead, it is a distinct piece of the biological makeup of our brains. Language is a
complex, specialized skill, which develops in the child spontaneously, without conscious effort or formal instruction, is deployed without awareness of its underlying logic, is qualitatively the same in every
individual, and is distinct from more general abilities to process information or behave intelligently. For these reasons some cognitive scientists have described language as a psychological faculty, a mental
organ, a neural system, and a computational module. But I prefer the admittedly quaint term “instinct.” It conveys the idea that people know how to talk in more or less the sense that spiders know how to spin
webs. Web-spinning was not invented by some unsung spider genius and does not depend on having had the right education or on having an aptitude for architecture or the construction trades. Rather, spiders spin spider webs because they have spider brains, which give them the urge to spin and the competence to succeed. Although there are differences between webs and words, I will encourage you to see language in this way, for it helps to make sense of the phenomena we will explore.

Thinking of language as an instinct inverts the popular wisdom, especially as it has been passed down in the canon of the humanities and social sciences. Language is no more a cultural invention than is upright posture. It is not a manifestation of a general capacity to use -symbols: a three year old, we shall see, is a grammatical genius, but is quite incompetent at the visual arts, religious iconography, traffic signs, and the other staples of the semiotics curriculum. Though language is a magnificent ability unique to Homo sapiens among living species, it does not call for sequestering the study of humans from the domain of biology, for a magnificent ability unique to a particular living species is far from unique in the animal kingdom. Some kinds of bats home in on flying insects using Doppler sonar. Some kinds of migratory birds navigate thousands of miles by calibrating the positions of the constellations against the time of day and year. In nature’s talent show we are simply a species of primate with our own act, a knack for communicating information about who did what to whom by modulating the sounds we make when we exhale

Once you begin to look at language not as the ineffable essence of human uniqueness but as a biological adaption to communicate information, it is no longer as tempting to see language as an insidious shaper of thought, and, we shall see, it is not. Moreover, seeing language as one of nature’s engineering marvels – an organ with “that perfection of structure and co-adaption which justly excites our admiration,” in Darwin’s words-give us a new respect for your ordinary Joe and the much-maligned English language (or any language). The complexity of language, birthright; it is not something that parents teach their children or something that must be elaborated in school er from time to more sophisticated than the thickest style manual or the most state-of-the-art computer language system, and the same applies to all healthy human beings, even the notorious syntax-fracturing professional athlete and the, you know, like, inarticulate teenage skateboarder. Finally, since language is the product of a well-engineered biological instinct, we shall see that it is not nutty barrel of monkeys that entertainer-columnists make it out to be.

9. According to the passage, which of the following does not stem from popular wisdom on language?
(1) Language is a cultural artifact.
(2) Language is a cultural invention.
(3) Language is learnt as we grow.
(4) Language is unique to Homo sapiens
(5) Language is a psychological faculty
Ans: 5

10.Which of the following can be used to replace the “spiders know how to spin webs” analogy as used by the author?

(1) A kitten learning to jump over a wall
(2) Bees collecting nectar
(3) A donkey carrying a load
(4) A horse running a Derby
(5) A pet dog protecting its owner’s property
Ans:2

11.According to the passage, which of the following is unique to human beings?

(1) Ability to use symbols while communicating with one another.
(2) Ability to communicate with each other through voice modulation.
(3) Ability to communicate information to other members of the species.
(4) Ability to use sound as means of communication.
(5) All of the above
Ans:2

12. According to th passage, complexity od language cannot be taught by parents or at school to children because

(1) Children instinctively know language.
(2) children learn the language on their own.
(3) language is not amenable to teaching.
(4) children know language better their teachers or parents.
(5) children are born with the knowledge of semiotics.
Ans:1

13.which of the following best summarizes the passage?

(1) language is unique to Homo sapiens
(2) language is neither learnt nor taught.
(3) language is not a cultural invention or artifact as it is made out.
(4) language is instinctive ability of human beings.
(5) language is use of symbols unique to human beings.
Ans:4

Directions for Questions 14 to 18: The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

When I was little, children were bought two kinds of ice cream, sold from those white wagons with the canopies made of silvery metal: either the two-cent cone or the four-cent ice cream pie. The two-cent
cone was very small, in fact it could fit comfortably into a child’s hand, and it was made by taking the ice cream from its container with a special scoop and piling it on the cone. Granny always suggested I eat
only a part of the cone, then throw away the pointed end, because it had been touched by the vendor’s hand (though that was the best part, nice and crunchy, and it was regularly eaten in secret, after a

The four-cent pie was made by a special little machine, also silvery, which pressed two disks of sweet biscuit against a cylindrical section of ice cream. First you had to thrust your tongue into the gap
between the biscuits until it touched the central nucleus of ice cream; then, gradually, you ate the whole thing, the biscuit surfaces softening as they became soaked in creamy nectar. Granny had no advice to
give here: in theory the pies had been touched only by the machine; in practice, the vendor had held them against his hand while giving them to us, but it was impossible to isolate the contaminated area.

I was fascinated, however, by some of my peers, whose parents bought them not a four-cent pie but two two-cent cones. These privileged children advanced proudly with one cone in their right hand and one in their left; and expertly moving their head from side to side, they licked first one, then the other. This liturgy seemed to me so sumptuously enviable, that many times I asked to be allowed to celebrate it. In vain. My elders were inflexible: a four-cent ice, yes; but two two-cent ones, absolutely no.

As anyone can see, neither mathematics nor economy nor dietetics justified this refusal. Nor did hygiene, assuming that in due course the tips of both cones were discarded. The pathetic, and obviously
mendacious, justification was that a boy concerned with turning his eyes from one cone to the other was more inclined to stumble over stones, steps, or cracks in the pavement. I dimly sensed that there was
another secret justification, cruelly pedagogical, but I was unable to grasp it.

Today, citizen and victim of a consumer society, a civilization of excess and waste (which the society of the thirties was not), I realize that those dear and now departed elders were right. Two two-cent cones
instead of one at four cents did not signify squandering, economically speaking, but symbolically they surely did. It was for this precise reason, that I yearned for them: because two ice creams suggested
excess. And this was precisely why they were denied me: because they looked indecent, an insult to poverty, a display of fictitious privilege, a boast of wealth. Only spoiled children ate two cones at once,
those children who in fairy tales were rightly punished, as Pinocchio was when he rejected the skin and the stalk. And parents who encouraged this weakness, appropriate to little parvenus, were bringing up
their children in the foolish theater of “I’d like to but I can’t.” They were preparing them to turn up at tourist-class cheek-in with a fake Gucci bag bought from a street peddler on the beach at Rimini

Nowadays the moralist risks seeming at odds with morality, in a world where the consumer civilization now wants even adults to be spoiled, and promises them always something more, from the wristwatch
in the box of detergent to the bonus bangle sheathed, with the magazine it accompanies, in a plastic envelope. Like the parents of those ambidextrous gluttons I so envied, the consumer civilization
pretends to give more, but actually gives, for four cents, what is worth four cents. You will throw away the old transistor radio to purchase the new one, that boasts an alarm clock as well, but some
inexplicable defect in the mechanism will guarantee that the ratio lasts only a year. The new cheap car will have leather seats, double side mirror adjustable from inside, and a paneled dashboard, but it will
not last nearly so long as the glorious old Fiat 500, which, even when it broke down, could be started again with a kick

The morality of the old days made Spartans of us all, while today’s mortality wants all of us to be sybarites.

14. which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

(1). today’s society is more extravagant than the society of the 1930s
(2). the act of eating two ice cream cones is akin to a ceremonial process.
(3). elders rightly suggested that a boy turning eyes from one cone to other was more likely to fall.
(4). despite seeming to promise more, the consumer civilization gives away exactly what the thing is worth.
(5). the consumer civilization attempts to spoil children and adults alike.
Ans:3
15. In the passage, the phrase “little parvenus” refers to

(1). naughty midgets.
(2). old hags.
(3). arrogant people.
(4) young upstarts
(5) foolish kids.
Ans:4

16. The author pined for two cent cones instead of one four-cent pie because

(2). it suggested intemperance.
(3). it was more fun.
(4). it had a visual appeal.
(5). he was a glutton.
Ans:2

17. what does the author mean by “nowadays the moralist risks seeming at odds with morality?

(1). the moralist of yesterday have become immoral today.
(2). the concept of morality has changed over the years.
(3). consumerism is amoral.
(4). the risks associated with immorality have gone up.
(5). the purist’s view of morality is fast becoming popular.
Ans:2

18. According to the author, the justification for refusal to let him eat two cones was plausibly

(1). didactic.
(2). dietetic.
(3). dialectic
(4). diatonic.
(5). diastolic.

Ans:1
CAT Interview and GD Procedure
CAT (Common Admission Test) Interview tips and tricks, CAT Interview panel details CAT interview type and duration of the interview,

Previous Years CAT group discussion topics, Important Parameter in GD

What is group discussion?

A Group discussion is a forum where people sit together and discuss the issue administrated to them with the common objective of discussing it in a wholesome way.

Types of Group Discussion

1.Topic-based group discussions

2.Case-based group discussion (also called Case Studies), and

3.Article-based group discussions

Topic-based group discussions

In topic based group discussions, the group members are given a topic to discuss. A topic is typically in the form of a statement (some times, the statement may not be complete. for example, the topic could be worded “The biggest problem faced by our country is………”). By the end of the discussion, the group should strive to arrive at a consensus on the issue that is covered by the topic.

Case-based group discussion ( Case Studies)

In case studies, a short description of a situation (called a “case”) is given to all the participants. The case will typically be a problem situation that requires a solution. The participants have to study the

case, analyze the problem and then discuss various situations to the problem.

Article-based group discussions

Article-based GD cover wide range of areas, like current affairs, politics, economics, technology etc………….

The participants are given 4-5 minutes to read the article and are then asked to hold a regular group discussion of around 10-15 minutes on the article.

The topic that are given in group discussion are of two types:

knowledge based topics

Some of the important categories of knowledge-based topics are listed below:

Economic topics

Eg: “India should slow down the pace of liberalization”

“The economics of technology driven systems do not help developing nations”

Social topics

Eg: “Dowry continues to haunt Indian brides”

“Education should become a fundamental right”

Political topic

Topics with politics as the basic content frequently feature in group discussions. These topics can easily drag the not-very-careful participant into a trap of emotional expressions.

Eg: “Coalition on politics in a poor country like India is a drain on the national economy”

“Plans to attract foreign investment”

Sports/Films related topics

Topics concerning films or sports are also common in number of GDs. Recently included tournaments like the world cup or thr Olympics games can be the subject matter for a number of GD topics.

Eg: “Should India announce a sports holiday?” ” Cricket is like opium to India masses?

IT based topics

In this era of the information technology revolution, it is natural that topics based on IT or IT enabled service like BPO feature prominently amongst the list of topics for discussion.

Eg: we need more money to Fertilize crops rather than to increase band width”

The BPO bubble will also burst the way the dot-com bubble did”

Non-knowledge based topics

Common, day-to -day knowledge is sufficient to do a good job of talking about such topics

Concrete topics

Eg: “Love marriage are better than arranged marriages”

“Girls make better children than boys”

Abstract topics

Abstract topics are those about which the interpretation itself can vary from person to person.

Eg: “The farther we look the closer we are”

“Green is better than red”

Performance parameter in GD

1.Content

It shows how well-read you are. All your management skills, etc.. will be of no use in an organization unless you are sound on subject and knowledge. That is the reason why content is such important

aspects of the evaluation process.

2.Communication

Communication covers three different aspects. these are:

Correctly conveying what you want to say

Listening

Language

3.Group Behavior

Each participant interact with the other members of the group

It is not possible for all members of a group to display leadership skills. If you get an opportunity to lead the group, do so by all means. However, do not go out of your way to establish yourself as a leader.” Leader is one who is spoken to most and lends direction to the group.
CAT Interview and HR interview Procedure
CAT Prepartion Tips

Interview by Management Institutes

The interview is in the form of a “Question-and-answer ” session – the interviewer asking question and the interviewee answering them -all oral and nothing written.

The weightage for the interview part of the selection process in case of most management institutes ranges between 10% and 25% but in most cases the institutes do not specify the weightages for different component of the selection process. However it has to be borne in mind that while the weightage given to interview in the selection process of management institutes is not high as compared to written test, this is an area that cannot be ignored by the candidates. Unless the candidate performs well in this areas, his/her chances of getting selected will diminish drastically.
“An interview is conducted to have an insight into the attitude of the candidate to life in general and the chosen profession in particular.”
Some management institutes have only a single interview whereas a few management institutes have more than one interview as a part of the selection process.

Why an interview is conducted by management institutes for selecting candidates?

A written test tests the aptitude of the candidate by looking at the candidate’s ability, logical ability, verbal ability, etc. But it should not provide any insight into the attitude of the candidate whether personal or professional.

An interview is a process which looks at how you react to various situations. It involve thinking on your feet. An interview gives an opportunity to the interviewer to peep into your mind and look your thought process.
“Look at each question in the interview as an opportunity to show more good things about yourself to the interviewers.”

In the interviews conducted by management institutes as a part of their selection process, the candidate interviewed by a team of interviewers. This group of ‘interviewers’ is referred to as the interview panel. The interview panel normally consist of two or three members – in most cases ,the panel may have more than three members also.

Management institutes normally give the responsibility of conducting interviews to their professor – in other words, the members on the interview panels are regular, full time professors of the respective institutes.

some management institutes , while having their faculty members on the interview panel, may also have one outsider on the panel. For example IIMK Kolkata follows the practice of having an alumnus of their institute (who is working in the industry ) on their interview panels – with the other two members being professors of the institute. Some management institutes have a psychologist on the interview panel .
Type and duration of interview

Based on the process of interviewing, the interviews that you will come across in management institutes are of two type. The first one can be referred to as the non-stress interview and the second one as the stress interview.

A non-stress interview proceed with questions asked in a normal business like manner and the candidate given enough time to answer the question .
In a stress interview, the candidate is deliberately put under a lot of stress by the interviewers.

Interview at management institutes last anywhere from 5-6 minutes to 30-40 minutes. However you should not come to any conclusion about your chances based on the duration of the interview. A short interview is not necessarily bad and a long interview not necessarily good.

Preparatory aspects of interview

Look at a few preparatory aspects that you need to know about interviews.

1.Dress code
2.Entry and initial moments in the interview room
3.Sitting posture
4.Body language
5.Language to be used in an interview
6.Conduct inside the interview room
What the interviewer look for in an interviewee ?
The interviewer are chiefly interested in knowing whether you are a suitable candidate for a management course as well as for taking up managerial responsibilities in future.

The main qualities that the interviewer look for the candidate are:

Level of knowledge the candidates possesses.
Conceptual understanding of issues
Clarity of thought
Communication skill
Planning of career
Basic personality
Reacting to a situation

The main areas/questions in interview are:

subject knowledge/Work experience
General awareness/current affairs
personality related questions
Why do you want to do a course in management?
Hobbies/Interest/extra curricular activities

Why do you want to do management education?

This question is basically meant to know how good you are in your thinking process and how clear you are about your professional goal .Remember that you cannot afford to give answers like “I just feel like doing it” “It plays well” etc to this question.

In any case, you should have a clear idea as to what a management degree can provide to you .While thinking for an answer to this question, you should focus on what management can do for you, what additional skills you need, to grow in and contribute to the organization that you are working for or will be working with and how management education can help you acquire such skills.
CAT Time and Work Practice Questions
Common Admission Test (CAT) Aptitude Questions
Work Time, Pipes Cisterns questions appear periodically in the Quant section of CAT

Question 1 If A and B work together, they will complete a job in 7.5 days. However, if A works alone and completes half the job and then B takes over and completes the remaining half alone, they will be able to complete the job in 20 days. How long will B alone take to do the job if A is more efficient than B?
Let ‘a’ be the number of days in which A can do the job alone. Therefore, working alone, A will complete 1 by a th of the job in a day.

Similarly, let ‘b’ be the number of days in which B can do the job alone. Hence, B will complete 1 by bth of the job in a day.

Working together, A and B will complete 1/a + 1/b of the job in a day.

The problem states that working together, A and B will complete the job in 7.5 or 15/2 days. i.e they will complete 2/15th of the job in a day.

Therefore, 1/a + 1/b = 2/15 …… (1)

From the question, we know that if A completes half the job working alone and B takes over and completes the next half, they will take 20 days.

As A can complete the job working alone in ‘a’ days, he will complete half the job, working alone, in a/2 days.
Similarly, B will complete the remaining half of the job in b/2 days.
Therefore, a/2 + b/2 = 30 => a + b = 40 or a = 40 – b …… (2)

From (1) and (2) we get, 1/40-b + 1/b = 2/15 => 600 = 2b(40 – b)

=> 600 = 80b – 2b2
=> b2 – 40b + 300 = 0
=> (b – 30)(b – 10) = 0
=> b = 30 or b = 10.

If b = 30, then a = 40 – 30 = 10 or
If b = 10, then a = 40 – 10 = 30.

As A is more efficient than B, he will take lesser time to do the job alone. Hence A will take only 10 days and B will take 30 days.

Note: Whenever you encounter work time problems, always find out how much of the work can ‘A’ complete in a unit time (an hour, a day, a month etc). Find out how much of the work can be completed by ‘B’ in a unit time. Then add the amount of work done by A and B to find the total amount of work that will be completed in a unit time.

If ‘A’ takes 10 days to do a job, he will do 1/10th of the job in a day. Similarly, if 2/5ths of the job is done in a day, the entire job will be done in 5/2 days.

Question 2 Pipe A fills a tank of 700 litres capacity at the rate of 40 litres a minute. Another pipe B fills the same tank at the rate of 30 litres a minute. A pipe at the bottom of the tank drains the tank at the rate of 20 litres a minute. If pipe A is kept open for a minute and then closed and pipe B is kept open for a minute and then closed and then pipe C is kept open for a minute and then closed and the cycle repeated, how long will it take for the empty tank to overflow?

Pipe A fills the tank at the rate of 40 litres a minute. Pipe B at the rate of 30 litres a minute and Pipe C drains the tank at the rate of 20 litres a minute.

If each of them is kept open for a minute in the order A-B-C, the tank will have 50 litres of water at the end of 3 minutes.

After 13 such cycles, the tank will have 13 * 50 = 650 litres of water.

It will take 13 * 3 = 39 minutes for the 13 cycles to be over.

At the end of the 39th minute, Pipe C will be closed and Pipe A will be opened. It will add 40 litres to the tank.

Therefore, at the end of the 40th minute, the tank will have 650 + 40 = 690 litres of water.

At the end of the 40th minute, Pipe A will be closed and Pipe B will be opened. It will add 30 litres of water in a minute.

Therefore, at the end of the 41st minute, the tank will have 690 + 30 = 720 litres of water.

But then at 700 litres, the tank will overflow. Therefore, Pipe B need not be kept open for a full minute at the end of 40 minutes.

Pipe B needs to add 10 more litres of water at the end of 40 minutes. It will take 1/3rd of a minute to fill 10 litres of water.

Therefore, the total time taken for the tank to overflow = 40 minutes + 1/3 of a minute

or 40 minutes 20 seconds.

Question 3 There are 12 pipes that are connected to a tank. Some of them are fill pipes and the others are drain pipes. Each of the fill pipes can fill the tank in 8 hours and each of the drain pipes can drain the tank completely in 6 hours. If all the fill pipes and drain pipes are kept open, an empty tank gets filled in 24 hours. How many of the 12 pipes are fill pipes?
Let there be ‘n’ fill pipes attached to the tank.

Therefore, there will be 12 – n drain pipes attached to the tank

Each fill pipe fills the tank in 8 hours. Therefore, each of the fill pipes will fill 1/8 th of the tank in an hour.

Hence, n fill pipes will fill n/8 of the tank in an hour.

Each drain pipe will drain the tank in 6 hours. Therefore, each of the drain pipes will drain 1/6 th of the tank in an hour.

Hence, (12 – n) drain pipes will drain (12-n)*1/6 th of the tank in an hour.

When all these 12 pipes are kept open, it takes 24 hours for an empty tank to overflow. Therefore, in an hour 1/24 th of the tank gets filled.

Hence, .

i.e. or 7n – 48 = 1 => 7n = 49 or n = 7.

Question 4 A pump can be used either to fill or to empty a tank. The capacity of the tank is 3600 m3. The emptying capacity of the pump is 10 m3/min higher than its filling capacity. What is the emptying capacity of the pump if the pump needs 12 more minutes to fill the tank than to empty it?
Correct Answer is 60 m3 / min
Let ‘f’ m3/min be the filling capacity of the pump.
Therefore, the emptying capacity of the pump will be = (f + 10 ) m3 / min.
The time taken to fill the tank will be = 3600/f minutes

And the time taken to empty the tank will be = 3600/(f+10).
We know that it takes 12 more minutes to fill the tank than to empty it

i.e 3600/f – 3600/(f+10) = 12

=> 3600 f + 36000 – 3600 f = 12 (f2 + 10 f)

=> 36000 = 12 (f2 + 10 f) => 3000 = f2 + 10 f => f2 + 10 f – 3000 = 0.

Solving for positive value of ‘f’ we get, f = 50.

Therefore, the emptying capacity of the pump = 50 + 10 = 60 m3 / min

Question 5 Two workers A and B manufactured a batch of identical parts. A worked for 2 hours and B worked for 5 hours and they completed half the job. Then they worked together for another 3 hours and they had to do (1/20)th of the job. How much time does B take to complete the job, if he worked alone?
Let ‘a’ hours be the time that worker A will take to complete the job.
Let ‘b’ hours be the time that worker B takes to complete the job.

When A works for 2 hours and B works for 5 hours half the job is done.
i.e. . ……. (1)
When they work together for the next three hours, 1/20th of the job is yet to be completed.
They have completed half the job earlier and 1/20th is still left.
So by working for 3 hours, they have completed th of the job.
Therefore, …… (2).
Solving equations (1) and (2), we get b = 15 hours.

Question 6 Pipe A can fill a tank in ‘a’ hours. On account of a leak at the bottom of the tank it takes thrice as long to fill the tank. How long will the leak at the bottom of the tank take to empty a full tank, when pipe A is kept closed?
Pipe A fills the tank in ‘a’ hours.

Therefore, 1/a of the tank gets filled in an hour.

On account of the leak it takes 3a hours to fill the tank.

Therefore, 1/3a of the tank gets filled in an hour.

Let the leak at the bottom of the tank take ‘x’ hours to empty the tank.

Hence, 1/x of the tank gets emptied every hour.
Hence, x = 3a/2

Question 7 A and B working together can finish a job in T days. If A works alone and completes the job, he will take T + 5 days. If B works alone and completes the same job, he will take T + 45 days. What is T?
When A and B work together, they will take under root 225 = 15 days.
Where 5 and 45 are the extra time that A and B take to complete the job if they work alone compared to the time that they will take if they worked together.

Question 8 A man can do a piece of work in 60 hours. If he takes his son with him and both work together then the work is finished in 40 hours. How long will the son take to do the same job, if he worked alone on the job?
If the man takes 60 hours to complete the work, then he will finish 1/60 th of the work in 1 hour.

Let us assume that his son takes x hours to finish the same work.
If they work together for 1 hour they will finish 1/60 + 1/x = 1/40th of the work.
Therefore, 1/x = 1/120

The son, working alone would take 120 hours to complete the work.

Question 9 Ram starts working on a job and works on it for 12 days and completes 40% of the work. To help him complete the work, he employs Ravi and together they work for another 12 days and the work gets completed. How much more efficient is Ram than Ravi?
Correct Choice – (5). Correct Answer is 100%
Ram completes 40% of work in 12 days.

i.e. another 60% of the work has to be completed by Ram and Ravi. They have taken 12 days to complete 60% of the work.

Therefore, Ram and Ravi, working together, would have completed the entire work in (12/60)*100 = 20 days.

As Ram completes 40% of the work in 12 days, he will take (12/40)*100 = 30 days to complete the entire work

Working alone, we know Ram takes 30 days to complete the entire work. Let us assume that Ravi takes ‘x’ days to complete the entire work, if he works alone. And together, they complete the entire work in 20 days.

Therefore, 1/30 + 1/x = 1/20

=> (1/x) = (1/20) – (1/30) = (1/60)

Therefore, Ravi will take 60 days to complete the work, if he works alone.

Hence, Ram is 100% more efficient than Ram.
CAT Question papers
CAT Quantitative Aptitude Questions for practice

Directions for questions 1 to 5 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

I. The ratio of people doing all 3 activities to people doing atleast 2 activities is 1 : 6.

II. The ratio of people doing only one activity to people doing atleast 2 activities is 3 : 2

III. Number of people doing only CAT/MBA exceeds number of people doing GRE/MS only by 990.

IV. Number of people doing only GRE/MS exceeds number of people seeking jobs only by 360.

1. Number of people doing all 3 activities is :

1] 500

2] 1000

3] 1500

4] Cannot be determined

2. Number of people doing no more than on activity is :

1] 10,000

2] 9,760

3] 14,000

4] 12,000

3. Number of people doing exactly two activities is :

1] 6000

2] 5000

3] 9000

4] 10,000

4. The number of people not doing any activity is :

1] 760

2] 570

3] 1000

4] Data Insufficient

5. The number of people who are both seeking employment and trying for GRN/MS is :

1] 1610

2] 2430

3] 1720

4] Data Insufficient

For answers to questions 1 to 5 :

Let the different sections be represented by the variables.

Given

1. p : (x + y + z + p) = 1 : 6

2. (a + b + c) : (x + y + z + p) = 3 : 2

? (a + b + c) : p : (x + y + z + p) = 9 : 1 : 6

Since P = 1
x + y + z + p 6

Since P = 1
x + y + z 5

? (a + b + c) : (x + y + z) : p = 9 : 5 : 1 —— (I)

Again, the total of all areas is :

(a + b + c) + 2 (x + y + z) + 3p = 6810 + 7070 + 8120

(a + b + c) + 2 (x + y + z) + 3p = 22000

Using (I)

9p + 2(5p) + 3p = 22p = 22000

? p = 1000

x + y + z = 5000 } (II)

a + b + c = 9000

Again,

c – b = 990

b – a = 360

On solving

a = 2430

b = 2790

c = 3780

p = people doing all 3 activities = 1000

a + b + c = people doing exactly 1 activity = 9000

x + y + z = people doing exactly 2 activities = 5000

people not doing any activity = EU – (1000 + 9000 + 5000)

= 15760 – 15000 = 760

x, y, z cannot be determined without additional data.

Hence,

1- [2] 2-[2] 3-[2] 4-[1] 5-[4]

Directions for questions 6 to 9 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Palaash never knew he would be in such trouble. He has to sing in seven different languages. The Assamese song would be a hit if and only if it is preceded by a Telugu song. Konkani song would be a hit only if a Hindi song came before it. English has to be preceded by Hindi and Punjabi is the last song he sings. There is one song between English and Punjabi and of the three only two were hit. Konkani song is a failure. Tamil is the seventh language. If the Assamese song is a hit and his first song was Telugu then:

6. Which song did he sing after English?

1] Telugu

2] Konkani

3] Tamil

4] Assamese

7. Which song did he sing after Konkani?

1] Tamil

2] Punjabi

3] Hindi

4] English

8. If each hit had two points in the Grammy awards, then how many points did Palaash get?

1] 4

2] 6

3] 8

4] Can’t say

9. What were the total number of assured hit songs as per the question?

1] 3

2] 4

3] 5

4] 6

For answers to questions 6 to 9 :

From the clues we can see Telugu is the first song, while Punjabi is the last song. Assamese would be second followed by Konkani, Hindi and English. Thus Tamil, the seventh language would be the sixth song. In terms of points there is no information regarding whether Telugu and Hindi songs were a hit or not. Thus we can’t say. But regarding the number of assured hits as per the question it would be Assamese, and two songs out of English, Tamil and Punjabi. Thus the answers are

6- [3] 7-[3] 8-[4] 9-[1]

Directions for questions 10 to 14 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

A six digit (with no digit repeated) number is such that every alternate digit is a prime number. The difference between the digit on the tens place and the digit on the thousands place is the digit on the lakh place. The units digit is the product of the digit on the lakh place and the digit on the ten-thousands place, which is also a prime number. Also tens place digit is greater than the thousandth place digit.

10. The digit on the lakh place is :

1] 1

2] 2

3] 3

4] 4

11. The digit on the units place is :

1] 2

2] 4

3] 6

4] 8

12. The positive difference of the the digit on the ten-thousandth place and the the ten’s place is :

1] 3

2] 4

3] 6

4] 7

13. The digit on the hundred’s place is :

1] 3

2] 4

3] 8

4] Can’t say

14. The number is divisible by :

1] 2

2] 3

3] 4

4] Both [1] and [3]

For answers to questions 10 to 14 :

As the unit digit is not a prime number, thus the lakh digit, the thousands digit and the ten’s digit will be a prime number.

As the lakh digit is the difference of two prime numbers and still is a prime number, it is 2. Also the digits on the thousandth and the ten’s place can be either 3 and 5 or 5 and 7. As the unit digit is the product of the digit on the lakh place and the digit on the ten-thousandth 7 (as 5 x 2 = 10, 7 x 2 = 14). Thus it has to be 3. Therefore we see that the digit on the thousandth place is 5 and that on the ten’s place is 7. We don’t know anything about the digit on the hundredth place. Therefore the number is 235 x 76

10- [2] 11-[3] 12-[2] 13-[4] 14-[4]

Directions for questions 15 to 19 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

In a gathering of 8 people, A, B, C and D are Software professionals and P, Q, R and S are Hardware professionals. Each person shows atleast one of the following features viz. HK, JM, GS and CP.

HW : Hardware professional SW : Software Professional

HK : Has Kids JM : Just Married

GS : Has grand sons CP : One of the Couples

A ‘CP’ may be JM (and vice versa) but definitely not HK or GS.

A GS can not be JM.

Neither JM nor CP can be HK or GS.

GS implies HK but the reverse need not be true.

P, Q, R, D and S hav only one feature where as others show atleast 1.

A is JM, where as one of C and D is both CP and JM.

B is GS but D and A are not HK.

D and Q always show the same feature.

R is JM and S is HK.

The 4 features are shown by atleast one of the SW or HW.

15. How many professionals are definitely not HK?

1] 2

2] 3

3] 5

4] 5 or 6

16. A does not show all of the features except :

1] JM

2] GS

3] Data insufficient

4] None of these

17. If A does not show CP then Q does show :

1] HK

2] JM

3] GS

4] Data insufficient

18. P can show all of the following except :

1] JM

2] GS

3] CP

4] None of these

19. If P is the only HW who is a CP then which of the following is definitely true?

I. A does not show CP

II. B may show CP

III. D show JM

1] I only

2] II only

3] III only

4] None of these

For answers to questions 15 to 19 :

The following matrix can be formed based on the given information

SW HW A B C D P Q R S HK × ü × × × ü JM ü × ü ü × GS × ü × × × × × × CP × ü × ×
15. Five professionals are definitely not HK, P may or may not be HK. Hence, [3].

16. Now A may or may not be CP. Hence [3].

17. We don’t know whether Q is JM or CP. Hence, [4].

18. P cannot show GS. Hence, [2].

19. I : A may or may not show CP. Hence, I may be false.

II : B cannot show more than 2 features. Hence, II is false.

III : D should show JM as Q will show JM. Hence, III is true. Hence, [3].

Directions for questions 20 to 23 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

I have got two uncles, Joe and John and two aunts, Jane and Jill. While uncle Jose is not married, uncle John is married and has two sons as well. Aunt Jane is a widow and has only one daughter. My mother is the only one in the family who has a real sister while she has no brothers. My father works in the diamond factory while my paternal grandparents live with us. We are a joint family. Then :

20. How many members are there in our family?

1] 10

2] 11

3] 12

4] 13

21. How many cousin sisters do I have?

1] None

2] One

3] Two

4] Three

22. Who is married to Uncle John?

1] Jane

2] Jill

3] None of these

4] Can’t Say

23. How many children do my paternal grandparents have?

1] Two

2] Three

3] Four

4] Five

For answers to questions 20 to 23 :

The family heirarchy will be like this :

20. 12 members in the family. Hence, [3].

21. Only one cousin sister. Hence, [2].

22. Aunt Jill is married to Uncle John. Hence, [2].

23. 3 sons, my father, Uncle Joe and Uncle John. Hence, [2].

24. The total number of female members in the family is 5. Hence, [4].

25. The years can be calculated as:

1980 – 15 + 1 + 10 + 2 + 6 = 1984. Hence, [3]

Directions for questions 24 to 25 : Choose the correct alternative.

24. Mr. Gupta is Rita and Sita’s father-in-law. Amit is married to Sita and has got two daughters. Rita has only one son. If Mr. Gupta has only two sons and Mrs. Gupta is alive then how many female members are there in the Gupta faimly?

1] 2

2] 3

3] 4

4] 5

25. I build a time machine in 1980. The peculiar ;thing about the time machine was that it had a range of twenty years into the future and 30 years into the past. I used the machine and went back 15 years. After spending a year in the past, I gain used it and went 10 years into the future. There I spend around two years and finally went to the future by 6 years. In which year did I land up?

1] 1980

2] 1983

3] 1984

4] None of these

Directions for questions 23 to 30 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Cars and motorcycles continued to surge ahead even as “Made in India” automobiles like commercial vehicles, multi-utility vehicles, scooters, mopeds and three-wheelers failed to attract overseas buyers this fiscal. Car exports shot up by a huge 105% at 42,444 units during 2001-02 on the back of a superb performance by Ford India, which accounted for more than half of the total exports. Ford shipped 27,572 units of its mid-size car “Ikon” to countries like South Africa and Mexico. Car market leader Maruti Udyog, however, posted a 35.7% dip at 8,559 units during 2001-02. South Korea’s Hyundai also witnessed a 14.5% decline in exports at 4,494 units (5250 cars last year). Car exports of Telco surged ahead by 261.6% at 1,689 cars (467 cars last year) while that of General Motors slipped to 40 cars year-on-year from 69 units. In sharp contrast to passenger car segment, commercial vehicle exports slumped by 19.9% at 9,683 units. While medium and heavy (M&H) vehicles exports went down by 18.2% to 3,891 units, that of light commercial vehicles (LCVs) declined by 22.3% at 5,792 units. Telco’s M&H exports fell by 24.4% to 2,118 units while LCVs dipped by 36.2% to 4,036 vehicles during 2001-02. Ashok Leyland, India’s second largest commercial vehicle marker, reported a 6.7% land 4.8% drop in M&H and LCV exports at 1,725 units and 98 units respectively. However, exports of LCV markers like Eicher, Swaraj Mazda and Mahindra & Mahindra rose by 61.6%, 56.5% and 68.2% at 1,062, 321 and 274 units respectively. Two-wheeler exports went down by 9.2% to 91,731 units as scooter and moped exports declined by 15.7% and 41.7% at 19,369 units and 22,801 unit5s respectively. Howeer, exports of motorcycles recorded a 13% rise at 17,490 units while tha tof Bajaj Auto rose by 158% to 15,951 units. Hero Honda posted a 29.4% rise at 11,833 units. Exports of TVS Motors dipped by 13.7% to 2,273 units while Royal Enfield saw a rise of 63.6% to 1,357 units. Scooter markers like Bajaj and TVS posted a 31.5% and 137% jump in exports at 7,996 and 897 units respectively while LML and Kinetic exports dipped by 27.8% and 57.5% to 6,709 and 3,702 units.

26. If only 5 companies, Ford, Maruti Udyog, Hyundai, Telco and General Motors exported cars in 2000-01, how many cars did Ford export in 2000-01?

1] 1645

2] 1607

3] 1700

4] 1555

27. By how much were the total vehicle exports by Telco in 2001-02, higher or lower than those in 2000-01? (Telco manufactures only cars and commercial vehicles)

1] 18.3% lower

2] 15% lower

3] 12% higher

4] almost same

28. What were the total vehicle exports in 2000-01?

1] 133940

2] 135000

3] 132750

4] 131680

29. If the average export realization of motorcycles has reduced from Rs.45,000 per unit in 2000-01 to Rs.40,000 per unit in 2001-02, what is the change in export volumes?

1] Rs.218 million increase

2] Rs.218 crore increase

3] Rs.2.18 billion increase

4] Rs.2180 million increase

30. If the average export realization per car for Maruti Udyog has increased by 40%, then what is the percentage change in car exports for Maruti in value terms?

1] 10% increase

2] 10% decrease

3] 5% decrease

4] 5% Increase

For answers to questions 20 to 23 :

Car 2001-02 2000-01 M&H 2001-02 2000-01 Ford 27572 1607 Telco 2118 2802 Maruti 8559 13311 Ashok Ley. 1725 1849 Hyundai 4494 5250 Telco 1689 467 3891 4757 GM 40 69 90 42444 20704

LCV 2001-02 2000-01 Motorcycles 2001-02 2000-01
Scooters

2001-02 2000-01 Telco 4036 63265 Yamaha 17490 Bajaj 7996 Ashok Ley. 98 103 TVS 15951 TVS 897 Eicher 1062 657 Royal Enfield 11833 LML 6709 Swaraj 321 205 Kinetic 3702 M&M 274 163 49561 39200 19369 22976 5792 7454 Mopeds 22801 39110

42444
26. Total car exports in 2000-01 = (1 + 1.05) = 20704

Car exports by Maruti in 2000-01 = 8559 = 8559/0.643 = 13311
(1 – 0.357)

Car exports by Hyundai in 2000-01 = 5250

Car exports by Telco in 2000-01 = 467

Car exports by General Motors in 2000-01 = 69

Therefore, car exports by Ford in 2000-01 = 20704 – 13311 – 5250 – 467 – 69 = 1607 units. Hence, [2].

27. Number of vehicles exported by Telco in 2001-02 = 1689 + 2118 + 4036 = 7843

Car exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 467

Multi-utility vehicles exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 2118 = approx. 2118/0.756 = 2802
(1-0.244)

LCVs exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 4036 = approximately 4036 = 6326
(1-0.362) 0.64

Total vehicle exports by Telco in 2001-01 = 467 + 2802 + 6326 = 9595

Therefore, ratio of Telco’s exports in 2001-02 to those in 2000-01 = 7843 = approximately 7845 = 0.817 = 81.7%
9595 9600

Therefore, Telco’s exports in 2001-02 were 18.3% lower. Hence, [1].

28. Car exports in 2000-01 = 20704

M&H vehicle exports in 200-01 = 3891 ˜ 3900/0.82 = 4756
(1-0.182)

LCV exports in 2000-01 = 5792 = 7454
(1-0.223)

Two-wheeler exports in 2000-01 = 91731 = 101025
(1-0.092)
Therefore, total vehicle exports in 2000-01 = 20704 + 4757 + 7454 + 101025 = 133939. Hence, [1].

29. Motorcycle export value in 2001-02 = 49561 × 4000 = 1982440000 or Rs.1982.44 million

Motorcycle exports in 2000-01 = 49561 ˜ 49000/1.25 = 39,200
1.272

Motorcycle exports value in 2000-01 = 39200 × 45000 = 1764000000 or Rs.1764 million

Therefore, motorcycle exports have increased by (1982-1764) = Rs.218 million. Hence [1].

30. Let x units be exported by Maruti Udyog for an average realization of y rupees per car in 2000-01. Therefore, exports of Maruti Udyog in 2000-01 = x × y rupees

Exports of Maruti Udyog in 2001-02 = x × (1-0.357) × y × 1.40 = 0.90 × x × y Therefore, exports of Maruti Udyog have decreased in value terms by about 10%. Hence,[2].

Directions for questions 31 to 35: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Table shows Births to date and Lifetime births expected per 1,000 women for Selected Years from 1976 to 1998 (Numbers in thousands and age of women at survey date.)

Source : U.S. Census Bureau

Internet Release date : October 18, 2001

Characteristics Total, 18 to 34 years 18 to 24 years 25 to 29 years 30 to 34 years Births to date Lifetime births expected Births to date Lifetime births expected Births to date Lifetime births expected Births to date Lifetime births expected
CAT Quantitative, Reasoning and Verbal ability Questions and Answers

CAT Previous Years Quantitative, Reasoning and Verbal ability Questions and Answers with Explanation, CAT Aptitude Questions and Answers, CAT Questions and Answers

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In Rangeela land, there are only three types of people: Lalpilas, Pilharas and Haralals. Lalpilas always get confused between red and yellow (i.e. they see yellow as red and vice versa.) and can see any other colour properly. Pilharas always get confused between yellow and green and can see any other colour properly and Haralals always get confused between red and green and can see any other colour properly.

1.Three persons Amar, Akbar and Anthony, who belong to Rangeela land

Amar : Gabbar Singh is wearing a green shirt.

Akbar : Gabbar Singh is not wearing a yellow shirt.

Anthony : Gabbar Singh is wearing a red shirt.

If none of them is a Haralal, then what is the colour of Gabbar Singh’s

shirt?

(1) Red

(2) Yellow

(3) Green

(4) Cannot be determined

Ans:2
Ex:

2. Two persons – Dhiraj and Suraj, of Rangeela land made the following

statements.

Dhiraj : Feroz is wearing a red hat. Feroz is wearing a yellow shirt.

Suraj : Feroz is wearing a red hat. Feroz is wearing a green shirt.

Suraj is a

(1) Lalpila

(2) Pilhara

(3) Haralal

(4) Such a conversation is not possible.

Ans:4
Ex:

3. Veeru is a

(1) Lalpila

(2) Pilhara

(3) Haralal

(4) Cannot be determined

Ans:2
Ex:

4. What is the colour of Basanti’s saree?

(1) Green

(2) Red

(3) Yellow

(4) Cannot be determined

Ans:1
Ex:

DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Answer the questions independently of

each other.

5. Each of companies A, B and C – have a tradition of rewarding their

employees with a bonus, once every year, during Ramzan, Christmas or

Deepavali. For each company every year the bonus is paid during the same

time. Use the clues below to answer the following question.

(a) For no two companies is either the amount of bonus paid or the time of

the year when bonus is paid the same

(b) Company B distributes bonus during Deepavali.

(c) The company that gives Rs.5,000 as bonus is in the manufacturing

sector.

(d) Company, A distributes bonus during Christmas.

(e) The company that gives a bonus of Rs.10,000 is not in the IT sector.

(f) The company that gives bonus for Ramzan gives Rs.5,000.

(g) The company that gives bonus for Christmas gives Rs.12,000 as bonus.

Which of the following is true?

(1) Company A gives a bonus of Rs.12,000 for Christmas, company B gives a bonus of Rs.5,000 for Deepavali and Company C gives a bonus of Rs.10,000 and is in the IT sector.

(2) Company B gives a bonus of Rs.10,000 and is in the finance sector.

Company C gives a bonus of Rs.5,000 during Ramzan and company A gives a bonus of Rs.12,000 and is in the manufacturing sector.

(3) Company A gives a bonus of Rs.12,000 and is in the finance sector.

Company B gives a bonus of Rs.5,000 during Deepavali and company C gives a bonus of Rs.10,000 and is in the IT sector.

(4) Company B gives a bonus of Rs.10,000 for Deepavali. Company C gives a bonus of Rs.5,000 and is in the manufacturing sector. Company A gives a bonus of Rs.12,000 and is in the IT sector.

Ans:4
Ex:

6. Seven people, A through G, sit in a row (not necessarily in the same order). Exactly three people sit between A and G, while exactly three people sit between B and E. Exactly four people sit between C and E, while exactly four people sit between D and G. Exactly two people sit between B and D, while exactly two people sit between C and A. Given that either B or A sits to the immediate right of D, then who sits exactly at the middle of the row?

(1) C

(2) B

(3) F
(4) Cannot be determined

Ans:3
Ex:

7. According to probability theory, when a normal dice is thrown a large number of times, the probability of each number turning up will be 1/6. A group of friends decided to try this and got the following results after 50 tries:

All numbers were obtained at least once.

The number of 1’s obtained was an even number.

The number of 2’s obtained was equal to the number of 5’s obtained.

The number of 3’s obtained was five times the number of 1’s obtained.

Exactly six 4’s were obtained.

The number of six’s obtained was twenty-two, which was the highest among

all the numbers obtained.

What was the total number of odd numbers obtained?

(1) 22

(2) 17

(3) 25

(4) 18

Ans:2
Ex:

8. Four friends Ashwath, Charan, Karthik and Srinivas are nicknamed Essi, KK, Kit and Maha, not necessarily in that order.

(i) Karthik is stronger than Essi but can’t run as fast as Kit.

(ii) Essi is stronger than Ashwath but weaker than KK.

(iii) Srinivas is faster than Karthik and slower than Maha but weaker than Essi.

Who is nicknamed Maha?

(1) Karthik

(2) Ashwath

(3) Charan

(4) Srinivas

Ans:2
Ex:

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: The questions given below are followed by two statements, I and II. Study the information given in the two statements and assess whether the statements are sufficient to answer the questions and choose the appropriate option from among the choices given below.

9. Did more than 50 employees leave Company A in the year 2002?

I. At the start of 2002, the difference between the number of male and

female employees in company A is 90.

II. By the end of 2002, the total number of employees in company A is 50.

(1) Statement I alone is sufficient and statement II alone is not sufficient to

(2) Statement II alone is sufficient and statement I alone is not sufficient to

(3) Statements I and II together are sufficient but neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(4) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and additional data, specific to the problem, is needed

Ans:4
Ex:

10. Six persons – Irfan, Jagan, Karan, Lala, Manoj and Niran -participated in a race in which every participant finished in a different time. At least two persons finished before Jagan. The number of persons who finished before Lala is same as the number of persons who finished after Niran. Irfan finished before Manoj. Who finished the race in second

position?

I. Manoj finished the race in third position.

II. Only Lala finished the race after Karan.

(1) Statement I alone is sufficient and statement II alone is not sufficient to

(2) Statement II alone is sufficient and statement I alone is not sufficient to

(3) Statements I and II together are sufficient but neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(4) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and additional data, specific to the problem, is needed.

Ans:2
Ex:

11. M and N are the father and mother of P respectively. P has four uncles and three aunts. None of the siblings of M and N are married. N has two siblings. How many sisters does M have?

I. N has two brothers.

II. M has a total of 5 siblings.

(1) Statement I alone is sufficient and statement II alone is not sufficient to

(2) Statement II alone is sufficient and statement I alone is not sufficient to

(3) Statements I and II together are sufficient but neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(4) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and additional data, specific to the problem, is needed.

Ans:1
Ex:

12. When J and K run a race, J beats K by 20 seconds. When K and L run the same race, K beats L by 40 seconds. Find the speed of K (in m/s).

I. J beats L by 250 m.

II. The length of the race track is 1 km.

(1) Statement I alone is sufficient and statement II alone is not sufficient to

(2) Statement II alone is sufficient and statement I alone is not sufficient to

(3) Statements I and II together are sufficient but neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(4) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and additional data, specific to the problem, is needed.

Ans:3
Ex:

13. Ramu and Somu are competing in a 100 m race. Initially, Ramu runs at twice Somu’s speed for the first fifty metres. After the 50 m mark, Ramu runs at 1/4th his initial speed while Somu continues to run at his original speed. If Somu catches up with Ramu at a distance of ‘x’ metres from the finish line, then find x.

(1) 37.5

(2) 25

(3) 75

(4) 42.5

(5) Somu will never catch up with Ramu

Ans:2
Ex:

14.When the curves y = 10x and xy = 1 are drawn in the X-Y plane, how many times do they intersect for values of y ³ 2?

(1) Never

(2) Once

(3) Twice

(4) Thrice

(5) More than thrice

Ans:2
Ex:

15. Three circles of equal radii have been drawn inside an equilateral triangle, of side a, such that each circle touches the other two circles as well as two sides of the triangle. Then, the radius of each circle is

Ans:1
EX:

16. What is the minimum value of the sum of the squares of the

roots of the equation x2 – (a – 2)x + (a – 5) = 0, where a is a positive

number?

1)0

2)2

3)5

4)Cannot be determined
Ans:3

Ex:

17. What is the value of the expression given below?
(1) 1.33

(2) 1.25

(3) 1

(4) None of these

Ans:3
Ex:

18. If a four-digit natural number is 7083 more than the number formed by reversing the order of its digits, then how many such natural numbers are possible?

(1) 18

(2) 24

(3) 27

(4) 36

Ans:3
Ex:

19. Ours is a big family. I have thrice as many brothers as sisters and my sister Bharathi has four times as many brothers as sisters. How many children do my parents have?

(1) 15

(2) 16

(3) 21

(4) 20

Ans:3

Ex:

20. A certain sum is invested at simple interest. If the sum becomes k times itself in 16 years and 2k times itself in 40 years, in how many years will it become 4k times itself?

(1) 96 years

(2) 88 years

(3) 80 years

(4) 64 years

Ans:2
Ex:

21. The speeds of Aniket, Brihat and Chatur are in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. If Chatur takes half an hour more than Brihat to travel from P to Q, what is the total time taken by Aniket to travel from P to Q and then back from Q to P?

(1) 120 minutes

(2) 90 minutes

(3) 60 minutes

(4) 45 minutes

Ans:2
Ex:

22. DIRECTIONS for Questions 22 to 26: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph

A. Surrendered, or captured, combatants cannot be incarcerated in razor wire cages; this ‘war’ has a dubious legality.

B. How can then one characterize a conflict to be waged against a phenomenon as war?

C. The phrase ‘war against terror’, which has passed into the common lexicon, is a huge misnomer.

D. Besides, war has a juridical meaning in international law, which has confided the laws of war, imbuing them with a humanitarian content.

E. Terror is a phenomenon, not an entity – either State or non-State.

[1] ECDBA

[2] BECDA

[4] C

Ans:4

23. A. I am much more intolerant of a human being’s shortcomings than I am of an animal’s, but in this respect I have been lucky, for most of the people I have come across have been charming.

B. Then you come across the unpleasant human animal – the District Officer who drawled, ‘We chaps are here to help you chaps,’ and then proceeded to be as obstructive as possible.

C. In these cases of course, the fact that you are an animal collector helps; people always seem delighted to meet someone with such an unusual occupation and go out of their way to assist you.

D. Fortunately, these types are rare, and the pleasant ones I have met more than compensated for them – but even so, I think I will stick to animals.

E. When you travel round the world collecting animals you also, of necessity, collect human beings.

[1] EA CBD
[2] ABDCE
[3] ECBDA
[4] ACBDE

Ans:1

24. A. Four days later, Oracle announced its own bid for PeopleSoft, and invited the firm’s board to a discussion.

B. Furious that his own plans had been endangered, PeopleSoft’s boss, Craig Conway, called Oracle’s offer “diabolical”, and its boss, Larry Ellison, a “sociopath”.

C. In early June, PeopleSoft said that it would buy J .D. Edwards, a smaller rival.

D. Moreover, said Mr. Conway, he “could imagine no price nor combination of price and other conditions to recommend accepting the offer.”

E. On June 12th, PeopleSoft turned Oracle down.

[1] CABDE
[3] CEDAB
[4] CAEBD
Ans:1

25. A. A few months ago I went to Princeton University to see what the young people who are going to be running our country in a few decades are like.

B. I would go to sleep in my hotel room around midnight each night, and when I awoke, my mailbox would be full of replies—sent at 1:15 a.m., 2:59 a.m., 3:23 a.m.

C. One senior told me that she went to bed around two and woke up each morning at seven; she could afford that much rest because she had learned to supplement her full day of work by studying in her sleep.

D. Faculty members gave me the names of a few dozen articulate students, and I sent them emails, inviting them out to lunch or dinner in small groups.

E. As she was falling asleep she would recite a math problem or a paper topic to herself; she would then sometimes dream about it, and when she woke up, the problem might be solved.

[1] DABCE
[2] DACEB
[4]AECBD

Ans:3

26. A. To avoid this, the QWERTY layout put the keys most likely to be hit in rapid succession on opposite sides. This made the keyboard slow, the story goes, but that was the idea.

B. A different layout, which had been patented by August Dvorak in 1936, was shown to be much faster.

C. The QWERTY design (patented by Christopher Sholes in 1868 and sold to Remington in 1873) aimed to solve a mechanical problem of early typewriters.

D. Yet the Dvorak layout has never been widely adopted, even though (with electric typewriters and then PCs) the anti-jamming rationale for QWERTY has been defunct for years.

E. When certain combinations of keys were struck quickly, the type bars often jammed.

[1] BDACE
[2] CEABD
[3] BCDEA
[4] CAEBD
Ans:2

27. DIRECTIONS for Questions 27 to 31: There are two gaps in each of the following sentences. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that fills the gaps most appropriately. The first word in the pair should fill the first gap

Early _____ of maladjustment to college culture is _____ by the tendency to develop friendship networks outside college which mask signals of maladjustment.

[1] treatment, compounded
[2] detection, facilitated
[3] identification, complicated
[4] prevention, helped

Ans:3

28. The British retailer, M&S, today formally _____ defeat in its attempt to _____ King’s, its US subsidiary, since no potential purchasers were ready to cough up the necessary cash.

[3] announced, dispose
[4] ratified, auction
Ans:2

29. Companies that try to improve employees’ performance by _____ rewards encourage negative kinds of behaviour instead of _____ a genuine interest in doing the work well.

[1] giving, seeking
[2] bestowing, discouraging
[3] conferring, discrediting
[4] withholding, fostering
Ans:1

30. A growing number of these expert professionals ________ having to train foreigners as the students end up _____ the teachers who have to then unhappily contend with no jobs at all or new jobs with drastically reduced pay packets.

[1] resent, replacing
[2] resist, challenging
[3] welcome, assisting
[4] are, supplanting
Ans:1

31. The _____ regions of Spain all have unique cultures, but the _____ views within each region make the issue of an acceptable common language of instruction an even more contentious one.

[1] different, discrete

[2] distinct, disparate
[3] divergent, distinct
[4] different, competing
Ans:1

32. DIRECTIONS for Questions 32 to 36: In each of the following sentences the main statement is followed by four sentences each. Select the pair of sentences that relate logically with the given statement.

Either Sita is sick or she is careless.

A. Sita is not sick
B. Sita is not careless.
C. Sita is sick
D. Sita is careless.

[1] AB
[3] BA
[4] DA

Ans:2

33. Ram gets a swollen nose whenever he eats hamburgers.

A. Ram gets a swollen nose.
B. Ram does not eat hamburgers

C. Ram does not get a swollen nose
D. Ram eats hamburgers.

[1] AB
[2] DC
[3] AC
[4] BC
Ans:4

34. Either the employees have no confidence in the management or they are hostile by nature.

A. They are hostile by nature
B. They are not hostile by nature.
C. They have confidence in the management
D. They have no confidence in the management.

[1] BA
[2] DC
[3] AC
[4] BC
Ans:3

35. Whenever Ram reads late into the night, his father beats him up.

A. His father does not beat Ram. B. Ram reads late into the night.

C. Ram reads early in the morning.
D. Ram’s father beats him in the morning.

[1] CD
[2] BD
[3] AB
[4] None of the above
Ans:4

36. All irresponsible parents shout if their children do not cavort.

A. All irresponsible parents do not shout.
B. Children cavort
C. Children do not cavort.
D. All irresponsible parents shout.

[1] AB
[2] BA
[3] CA
[4] All of the above.
Ans:1

37. DIRECTIONS for questions 37 to 40: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it

Recently I spent several hours sitting under a tree in my garden with the social anthropologist William Ury, a Harvard University professor who specializes in the art of negotiation and wrote the bestselling book, Getting to Yes. He captivated me with his theory that tribalism protects people from their fear of rapid change. He explained that the pillars of tribalism that humans rely on for security would always counter any significant cultural or social change. In this way, he said, change is never allowed to happen too fast. Technology, for example, is a pillar of society. Ury believes that every time technology moves in a new or radical direction, another pillar such as religion or nationalism will grow stronger -in effect, the traditional and familiar will assume greater importance to compensate for the new and untested. In this manner, human tribes avoid rapid change that leaves people insecure and frightened.

But we have all heard that nothing is as permanent as change. Nothing is guaranteed. Pithy expressions, to be sure, but no more than cliches. As Ury says, people don’t live that way from day-to-day. On the contrary, they actively seek certainty and stability. They want to know they will be safe.

Even so, we scare ourselves constantly with the idea of change. An IBM CEO once said: ‘We only re-structure for a good reason, and if we haven’t re-structured in a

while, that’s a good reason.’ We are scared that competitors, technology and the consumer will put us out of business -so we have to change all the time just to stay alive. But if we asked our fathers and grandfathers, would they have said that they lived in a period of little change? Structure may not have changed much. It may just be the speed with which we do things.

Change is over-rated, anyway. Consider the automobile. It’s an especially valuable example, because the auto industry has spent tens of billions of dollars on research and product development in the last 100 years. Henry Ford’s first car had a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline-powered engine, four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, and four seats, and it could safely do 18 miles per hour. A hundred years and tens of thousands of research hours later, we drive cars with a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline-powered engine, four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, four seats -and the average speed in London in 2001 was 17.5 miles per hour!

That’s not a hell of a lot of return for the money. Ford evidently doesn’t have much to teach us about change. The fact that they’re still manufacturing cars is not proof that Ford Motor Co. is a sound organization, just proof that it takes very large companies to make cars in great quantities -making for ~ almost impregnable entry barrier.
Fifty years after the development of the jet engine, planes are also little changed. They’ve grown bigger, wider and can carry more people. But those are incremental, largely cosmetic changes.

Taken together, this lack of real change has come to mean that in travel -whether driving or flying -time and technology have not combined to make things much better. The safety and design have of course accompanied the times and the new volume of cars and flights, but nothing of any significance has changed in the basic assumptions of the final product

At the same time, moving around in cars or aeroplanes becomes less and less efficient all the time. Not only has there been no great change, but also both forms of transport have deteriorated as more people clamour to use them. The same is true for telephones, which took over hundred years to become mobile, or photographic film, which also required an entire century to change.

The only explanation for this is anthropological. Once established in calcified organizations, humans do two things: sabotage changes that might render people dispensable, and ensure industry-wide emulation. In the 1960s, German auto companies developed plans to scrap the entire combustion engine for an electrical design. (The same existed in the 1970s in Japan, and in the 1980s in France.) So for 40 years we might have been free of the wasteful and ludicrous dependence on fossil fuels. Why didn’t it go anywhere? Because auto executives understood pistons and carburettors, and would be loath to cannibalize their expertise, along with most of their factories.

Which of the following best describes one of the main ideas discussed in the passage?

1. Rapid change is usually welcomed in society.

2. Industry is not as innovative as it is made out to be.

3. We should have less change than what we have now.

4. Competition spurs companies into radical innovation.

Ans: 2.

38. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?

1. Executives of automobile companies are inefficient and ludicrous.

2. The speed at which an automobile is driven in a city has not changed much in a century.

3. Anthropological factors have fostered innovation in automobiles by promoting use of new technologies.

4. Further innovation in jet engines has been more than incremental

Ans:2

39. Which of the following views does the author fully support in the passage?

1. Nothing is as permanent as change.

2. Change is always rapid.

3. More money spent on innovation leads to more rapid change.

4. Over decades, structural change has been incremental

Ans:4

40. According to the passage, the reason why we continued to be dependent on fossil fuels is that:

1. Auto executives did not wish to change.

2. No alternative fuels were discovered.

3. Change in technology was not easily possible.

4. German, Japanese and French companies could not come up with

new technologies.

Ans:1

CAT Aptitude and Reasoning Questions and Answers with Explanation, CAT Previous Years Question Papers with Answers

1.The price of Darjeeling tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 100 + 0.10 n, on the nth day of 2007 (n = 1, 2, …, 100), and then remains constant. On the other hand, the price of Ooty tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 89 + 0.15n, on the nth day of 2007 (n = 1, 2, …, 365). On which date in 2007 will the prices of these two varieties of tea be equal?

(1) May 21
(2) April 11
(3) May 20
(4) April 10
(5) June 30
Ans:3
Ex: Note that the price of Darjeeling tea remains constant after the 100th day (n=100).If the prices of the two varieties of tea become equal before n = 100, then 100 + 0.1n = 89 + 0.15n
? n = 220, which is not possible. (Since n has been assumed to be less than 100) ? The prices of the two varieties will be equal after n = 100, i.e., when the price of Darjeeling tea = 100 + 0.1 × 100 = 110
? 89 + 0.15n = 110
? n = 140 2007 is not a leap year.
Number of days till 30th April = 31 + 28 + 31 + 30 = 120 The prices of the two varieties will be equal on 20th May. Hence, option 3.

2. A quadratic function f(x) attains a maximum of 3 at x = 1. The value of the function at x = 0 is 1. What is the value of f(x) at x = 10?

(1) –119

(2) –159

(3) –110

(4) -180

(5) -105

Ans:2
Ex: Let f(x) = px2+ qx + k, where p, q and k are integers, p, 0

? f(0) = k = 1 ? f(x) = px2 + qx + 1
f(x) = px2 + qx + k f’(x) = 2px + q When f’(x) = 0, x = -q/2p = 1 f(x) attains maximum at x = 1
? q = -2p f(1) = p + q + 1 = 3
? 1 – p = 3
? p = -2
? q = 4
? f(x) = -2×2 + 4x + 1
? f(10) = -200 + 40 + 1 = -159 Hence, option 2.

3. Two circles with centres P and Q cut each other at two distinct points A and B. The circles have the same radii and neither P nor Q falls within the intersection of the circles. What is the smallest range that includes all possible values of the angle AQP in degrees?

(1) Between 0 and 90

(2) Between 0 and 30

(3) Between 0 and 60

(4) Between 0 and 75

(5) Between 0 and 45

Ans:3
Ex:

P and Q do not lie within the intersection of the two circles. So they lie on the circumferences or outside the circumferences. If they lie on the circumferences, ? AQP = 60o From the diagram, if they lie outside the circumferences, ? AQ’P’ < 60o Also, ? AQP would be 0o if A, Q and P were collinear. But as P and Q cut each other in two distinct points, A, Q and P cannot be collinear.
? ? AQP > 0o
? ? AQP lies between ?0o and ?60o. Hence, option 3.

4.Consider the set S = {2, 3, 4, …., 2n + l}, where n is a positive integer larger than 2007. Define X as the average of the odd integers in S and Y as the average of the even integers in S. What is the value of X – Y?

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) n/2

(4) n+1/2n

(5) 2008

Ans:2
Ex:

Y = (2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + … + 2n)/n

X = (3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + … + (2n + 1))/n = ((2 + 1) + (3 + 1) + (4 + 1) + (5 + 1) + … + (2n + 1))/n = (2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + … + 2n)/n + (1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + … n times)/n

= Y + 1 ? X – Y = 1 Hence, option 2. Note: The information that ‘n is a positive integer larger than 2007′ does not affect the answer in any way.

5. Ten years ago, the ages of the members of a joint family of eight people added up to 231 years. Three years later, one member died at the age of 60 years and a child was born during the same year. After another three years, one more member died, again at 60, and a child was born during the same year. The current average age of this eight member joint family is nearest to:

(1) 23 years

(2) 22 years

(3) 21 years

(4) 25 years

(5) 24 years

Ans:5
Ex:The sum of the ages of the members of the family ten years ago = 231

? The sum of the ages of the members of the family seven years ago = 231 + (3 × 8) – 60 = 195
? The sum of the ages of the members of the family four years ago = 195 + (3 × 8) – 60 = 159
? The sum of the ages of the members of the family now = 159 + (4 × 8) = 191
? Required average = 191/8 = 23.875 ˜ 24 Hence, option 5.

6. A function f(x) satisfies f (1) = 3600, and f(l) + f(2) + … + f(n) = n² f(n), for all positive integers n>1. What is the value of f(9) ?

(1) 80

(2) 240

(3) 200

(4) 100

(5) 120

Ans:1
Ex: f(1) + f(2) + f (3) + … + f(n -1) + f(n) = n2f(n) … (I)

Similarly, f(1) + f(2) + f (3) + … + f(n – 1) = (n – 1)2 f(n -1) … (II) ? f(n) = n2 f(n) – (n – 1)2f(n – 1) … (I) – (II) ? (n2 – 1)f(n) = (n – 1)2f(n – 1) ? f(n) = (n – 1)2/(n2 – 1) f(n – 1) ? f(n) = (n – 1) /(n + 1) f(n – 1) ? f(9) = 8/10 × 7/9 × 6/8 × 5/7 × 4/6 × 3/5 × 2/4 × 1/3 × 3600 = (2 × 3600) / (10 × 9) = 80 Hence, option 1.

7. A shop stores x kg of rice. The first customer buys half this amount plus half a kg of rice. The second customer buys half the remaining amount plus half a kg of rice. Then the third customer also buys half the remaining amount plus half a kg of rice. Thereafter, no rice is left in the shop. Which of the following best describes the value of x?

(1) 2 = x = 6
(2) 5 = x = 8
(3) 9 = x = 12
(4) 11 = x = 14
(5) 13 = x = 18
Ans:2
Ex: The initial quantity of rice is x kg. The first customer buys half the total rice in the store, and another half kg.

Now, the second customer buys half of this, and another half kg.

Now, the third customer buys half the remaining rice, and another half kg.

Since after this purchase, there is no rice left in the store, we conclude that:

Hence, option 2.

8. The number of common terms in the two sequences 17, 21, 25, … , 417 and 16, 21, 26, … , 466 is (1) 78
(2) 19

(3) 20
(4) 77

(5) 22
Ans:3
Ex: The first sequence can be written as 17, 17 + 4, 17 + 8, … , 417 and second sequence can be written as 16, 16 + 5, 16 + 10, … , 466 The common difference for the first sequence is 4 and that for the second sequence is 5 and both the sequences have 21 as the first common term.
? Common terms are 21, 21 + L, 21 + 2L, … [Here, L = LCM of 4 and 5 = 20]
? Common terms are 21, 21 + 20, 21 + 40, … The common terms have a common difference of 20 and first term as 21.
? 417 – 21 = 396 and 396/20 = 19.8,
? 19 terms are common, other than 21.
? The total number of terms which are common to both the sequences = 19 + 1 = 20
Hence, option 3.

Directions for Questions 9 and 10: The figure below shows the plan of a town. The streets are at right angles to each other. A rectangular park (P) is situated inside the town with a diagonal road running through it. There is also a prohibited region (D) in the town

9.Neelam rides her bicycle from her house at A to her office at B, taking the shortest path. Then the number of possible shortest paths that she can choose is
(1) 60
(2) 75
(3) 45
(4) 90
(5) 72
Ans:4
Ex:

From point A to E, there are 6 ways to reach with the minimum distance travelled. Here E to F is the shortest distance because the third side of a triangle is always less than the sum of the other two sides. From point F to B, there are 15 ways to reach with the minimum distance travelled. ? There are a total of 15 × 6 = 90 paths possible Hence, option 4.

10. Neelam rides her bicycle from her house at A to her club at C, via B taking the shortest path. Then the number of possible shortest paths that she can choose is
(1) 1170
(2) 630
(3) 792
(4) 1200
(5) 936
Ans:1
Ex: From point A to B, there are 90 paths possible with the minimum distance travelled. Then from B to C, there are 13 paths possible with the minimum distance travelled.
? Overall there are 90 × 13 = 1170 paths possible Hence, option 1.

11. The integers 1, 2, … , 40 are written on a blackboard. The following operation is then repeated 39 times: In each repetition, any two numbers, say a and b, currently on the blackboard are erased and a new number a + b – 1 is written. What will be the number left on the board at the end?
(1) 820
(2) 821
(3) 781
(4) 819
(5) 780
Ans:3
Ex:
After erasing two numbers a and b, and replacing with (a + b – 1), the new sum of the terms of the sequence = 820 – 1 Similarly, after every operation, the sum of the terms of the sequence reduces by 1.
? The last number left (i.e. final sum) = 820 – 39 = 781 Hence, option 3.

12. In a triangle ABC, the lengths of the sides AB and AC equal 17.5 cm and 9 cm respectively. Let D be a point on the line segment BC such that AD is perpendicular to BC. If AD = 3 cm, then what is the radius (in cm) of the circle circumscribing the triangle ABC?
(1) 17.05
(2) 27.85

(3) 22.45

(4) 32.25

(5) 26.25
Ans:5
Ex:
We know that the area (A) of the triangle (ABC) is related to the circum radius (R) and sides of the triangle as follows:

13. What are the last two digits of 72008?
(1) 21
(2) 61

(3) 01
(4) 41
(5) 81
Ans:3
Ex: 71= 07
72 = 49
73= 343
74= 2,401
75 = 16,807
76 = 1,16,649
77 = 8,23,543
78= 57,64,801 As we can see, for every 4th power of 7, the last two digits are 01. Since 2008 is divisible by 4, we can conclude that last two digits of 72008 are 01. Hence, option 3.

14.How many integers, greater than 999 but not greater than 4000, can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4, if repetition of digits is allowed?
(1) 499
(2) 500
(3) 375
(4) 376
(5) 501

Ans:4
Ex: The minimum number that can be formed is 1000 and the maximum number that can be formed is 4000. As 4000 is the only number in which the first digit is 4, first let us calculate the numbers less than 4000 and then we will add 1 to it.
? First digit can be 1, 2 or 3. Remaining 3 digits can be any of the 5 digits.
?Total numbers that can be formed, which are less than 4000 = 3 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 375 ? Total numbers that satisfy the given condition = 375 + 1 = 376
Hence, option 4

Directions for Questions 15 and 16:

Five horses, Red, White, Grey, Black and Spotted participated in a race. As per the rules of the race, the persons betting on the winning horse get four times the bet amount and those betting on the horse that came in second get thrice the bet amount. Moreover, the bet amount is returned to those betting on the horse that came in third, and the rest lose the bet amount. Raju bets Rs. 3000, Rs. 2000 Rs. 1000 on Red, White and Black horses respectively and ends up with no profit and no loss.

15. Which of the following cannot be true?

(1) At least two horses finished before Spotted

(2) Red finished last

(3) There were three horses between Black and Spotted

(4) There were three horses between White and Red

(5) Grey came in second
Ans:4
Ex: We solve this question by options. If we consider option 4 to be true, then either the White or Red horse will finish first. It means that the amount Raju receives at the end of the race will be at least Rs. 8000 or Rs. 12000 (depending on which of the two horses finish first). However, his investment at the start of the race was only Rs. 6000. So, his profit could never be zero; in the worst scenario he will at least make Rs. 2000.
? Option (4) cannot be true.
Hence, option 4

16. Suppose, in addition, it is known that Grey came in fourth. Then which of the following cannot be true?

(1) Spotted came in first

(2) Red finished last

(3) White came in second

(4) Black came in second

(5) There was one horse between Black and White

Ans:3
Ex: We solve this question by options. If we consider option 3 to be true, then White finishes second and one of the Red or Black horses will come in the first or third positions. With White at the second position, the amount Raju receives at the end of the race will be at least Rs. 6000, and from Red or Black he will earn some money. Therefore, the total money Raju receives will be more than Rs. 6000. Since his investment at the start of the race was only Rs. 6000, his profit could never be zero.
? Option (3) cannot be true
Hence, option 3.

17. If two employees (each with a basic pay of Rs. 6000) are transferred from Maintenance department to HR department and one person (with a basic pay of Rs. 8000) was transferred from Marketing department to HR department, what will be the percentage change in average basic pay of HR department?
(1) 10.5%
(2) 12.5%

(3) 15%

(4) 30%

(5) 40%
Ans:2
Ex: Note that in this question, the percentage change in basic pay is asked. According to the common data, only the allowances (and hence the gross pay) is affected when a person is transferred. The basic pay of a person remains unaltered.

? The average basic pay after the transfers have taken

? The percentage change in the average basic pay of the HR department
Hence, option 2.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 18 to 20: Answer the following questions based on the information given below The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided between Class 11 and 12
18. What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12?

(1) 40

(2) 45

(3) 50

(4) 55

(5) 60

Ans:1
Ex:

This percentage can be determined using the derivation of the first question.

The percentage of vegetarians in class 12 = 32 × 100/80 = 40% Hence, option 1.

19. In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?

(1) less than 8

(2) 10

(3) 12

(4) 14

(5) 16
Ans:5
Ex:

Vegetarian Males in Class 12 = 0.25 × 48 = 12

? Non-vegetarian Males in class 12 = 36
? Vegetarian females in class 12 = (80 – 48) – 12 = 20 ? Required difference = 16 Hence, option 5.

20. What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?

(1) 40

(2) 45

(3) 50

(4) 55

(5) 60

Ans:2
Ex:

From the table given in the question,

Total students = 800 Students in Secondary = 0.8 × 800 = 640

Students in Class 11 = (800 – 640)/2 = 80
Students in Class 12 = 80
Males in Class 11 = 0.55 × 80 = 44
Males in Class 12 = 0.6 × 80 = 48
? Males in Secondary = 0.475 × 640 – 44 – 48 = 288
Vegetarians in Class 11 = 0.5 × 80 = 40
Vegetarians in Secondary = 0.55 × 640 = 352
Vegetarians in Class 12 = 800 × 0.53 – 40 – 352 = 32

Now, the percentage of male students in secondary section = 288 × 100/640 = 45% Hence, option 2.

21. The genocides in Bosnia and Rwanda, apart from being mis-described in the most sinister and ________ manner as „ethnic cleansing?, were also blamed, in further hand-washing rhetoric, on something dark and interior to ___________ and perpetrators alike.
(1) innovative; communicator

(3) disingenuous; victims

(4) exigent; exploiters
(5) tragic; sufferers

Ans:3
22. As navigators, calendar makers, and other_________ of the night sky accumulated evidence to the contrary, ancient astronomers were forced to _________ that certain bodies might move in circles about points, which in turn moved in circles about the earth

(1) scrutinizers; believe

(2) observers; agree

(3) scrutinizers; suggest

(4) observers; concede

(5) students; conclude

Ans:4
23. Every human being, after the first few days of his life, is a product of two factors: on the one hand, there is his ______________endowment; and on the other hand, there is the effect of environment, including ___________.

(1) constitutional; weather

(2) congenital; education

(3) personal; climate

(4) economic; learning

(5) genetic; pedagogy

Ans:2

24. Exhaustion of natural resources, destruction of individual initiative by governments, control over men?s minds by central __________ of education and propaganda are some of the major evils which appear to be on the increase as a result of the impact of science upon minds suited by _________ to an earlier kind of world.

(1) tenets; fixation

(2) aspects; inhibitions

(3) institutions; inhibitions

(5) departments; repulsion

Ans:1

Directions for questions 25 to 28: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

25. Most people at their first consultation take a furtive look at the surgeon?s hands in the hope of reassurance. Prospective patients look for delicacy, sensitivity, steadiness, perhaps unblemished pallor. On this basis, Henry Perowne loses a number of cases each year. Generally, he knows it?s about to happen before the patient does: the downward glance repeated, the prepared questions beginning to falter, the overemphatic thanks during the retreat to the door.

(1) Other people do not communicate due to their poor observation.

(2) Other patients don?t like what they see but are ignorant of their right to go elsewhere.

(3) But Perowne himself is not concerned.

(4) But others will take their place, he thought.

(5) These hands are steady enough, but they are large

Ans:3

26. Trade protectionism, disguised as concern for the climate, is raising its head. Citing competitiveness concerns, powerful industrialized countries are holding out threats of a levy on imports of energy-intensive products from developing countries that refuse to accept their demands. The actual source of protectionist sentiment in the OECD countries is, of course, their current lacklustre economic performance, combined with the challenges posed by the rapid economic rise of China and India – in that order.

(1) Climate change is evoked to bring trade protectionism through the back door.

(2) OECD countries are taking refuge in climate change issues to erect trade barriers against these two countries.

(3) Climate change concerns have come as a convenient stick to beat the rising trade power of China and India.

(4) Defenders of the global economic status quo are posing as climate change champions.

(5) Today?s climate change champions are the perpetrators of global economic inequity.

Ans:4
27. Mattancherry is Indian Jewry?s most famous settlement. Its pretty streets of pastel coloured houses, connected by first-floor passages and home to the last twelve saree-and-sarong-wearing, white-skinned Indian Jews are visited by thousands of tourists each year. Its synagogue, built in 1568, with a floor of blue-and-white Chinese tiles, a carpet given by Haile Selassie and the frosty Yaheh selling tickets at the door, stands as an image of religious tolerance

(1) Mattancherry represents, therefore, the perfect picture of peaceful co-existence.

(2) India?s Jews have almost never suffered discrimination, except for European colonizers and each other.

(3) Jews in India were always tolerant.

(4) Religious tolerance has always been only a façade and nothing more.

(5) The pretty pastel streets are, thus, very popular with the tourists

Ans:1

28. Given the cultural and intellectual interconnections, the question of what is „Western? and what is „Eastern? (or „Indian?) is often hard to decide, and the issue can be discussed only in more dialectical terms. The diagnosis of a thought as „purely Western? or „purely Indian? can be very illusory.

(1) Thoughts are not the kind of things that can be easily categorized.

(2) Though „occidentalism? and „orientalism? as dichotomous concepts have found many adherents.

(3) „East is East and West is West? has been a discredited notion for a long time now.

(4) Compartmentalizing thoughts is often desirable.

(5) The origin of a thought is not the kind of thing to which „purity? happens easily.

Ans:5

Directions for Questions 29 to 32: In each question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/ paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option

29. A. In America, highly educated women, who are in stronger position in the labour market than less qualified ones, have higher rates of marriage than other groups.
B. Some works supports the Becker thesis, and some appears to contradict it.

C. And, as with crime, it is equally inconclusive.

D. But regardless of the conclusion of any particular piece of work, it is hard to establish convincing connections between family changes and economic factors using conventional approaches.

E. Indeed, just as with crime, an enormous academic literature exists on the validity of the pure economic approach to the evolution of family structures.

(1) BCDE

(2) DBEC

(3) BDCE

(4) ECBD

(5) EDCD

Ans:4

30.A. Personal experience of mothering and motherhood are largely framed in relation to two discernible or “official” discourses; the “medical discourse and natural childbirth discourse”. Both of these tend to focus on the “optimistic stories” of birth and mothering and underpin stereotypes of the “godmother”.

B. At the same time, the need for medical expert guidance is also a feature for contemporary reproduction and motherhood. But constructions of good mothering have not always been so conceived and in different contexts may exist in parallel to other equally dominant discourses.

C. Similarly, historical work has shown how what are now taken for granted aspects of reproduction and mothering practices result from contemporary “pseudoscientific directives” and “managed constructs”. These changes have led to a reframing of modern discourses that pattern pregnancy and motherhood leading to an acceptance of the need for greater expert management.

D. The contrasting, overlapping and ambiguous strands with in these frameworks focus to varying degrees on a woman’s biological tie to her child and predisposition to instinctively know and be able to care for her child.

E. In addition, a third, “unofficial popular discourse” comprising “old wives” tales and based on maternal experiences of childbirth has also been noted. These discourses have also been acknowledged in work exploring the experiences of those who apparently do not “conform” to conventional stereotypes of the “good mother”?

(1) EDBC

(2) BCED

(3) DBCE

(4) EDCB

(5) BCDE

Ans:1

31.A. Indonesia has experienced dramatic shifts in its formal governance arrangements since the fall of President Soeharto and the close of his centralized, authoritarian “New Order” regime in 1997.

B. The political system has taken its place in the nearly 10 years since Reformasi began. It has featured the active contest for political office among a proliferation of parties at central, provincial and district levels; direct elections for the presidency (since 2004); and radical changes in centre-local government relations towards administrative, fiscal, and political decentralization.

C. The mass media, once tidily under Soeharto’s thumb, has experienced significant liberalization as has the legal basis for non-governmental organizations, including many dedicated to such controversial issues as corruption control and human rights.

D. Such developments are seen optimistically by a number of donors and some external analysts, who interpret them as signs of Indonesia’s political normalization.

E. A different group of analysts paint a picture in which the institutional forms have changed, but power relations have not. Vedi Hadiz argues that Indonesia’s “democratic transition” has been anything but linear.

(1) BDEC

(2) CBDE

(3) CEBD

(4) DEBC

(5) BCDE

Ans:5

32.A. I had six thousand acres of land, arid had thus got much spare land besides the coffee plantation. Part of the farm was native forest, and about one thousand acres were squatters’ land, what [the Kikuyu] called their shambas.

B. The squatters’ land was more intensely alive than the rest of the farm, and was changing with the seasons the year round. The maize grew up higher than your head as you walked on the narrow hard-trampled footpaths in between the tall green rustling regiments.

C. The squatters are Natives, who with their families hold a few acres on a white man’s farm, and in return have to work for him a certain number of days in the year. – My squatters, I think, saw the relationship in a different light, for many of them were born on the farm, and their fathers befor them, and they very likely regarded me as a sort of superior squatter on their estates.

D. The Kikuyu also grew the sweet potatoes that have a vine like leaf and spread over the ground like a dense entangled mat, and many varieties of big yellow and green speckled pumpkins.

E. The beans ripened in the fields, were gathered and thrashed by the women, and the maize stalk and coffee pods were collected and burned, so that in certain seasons thin blue columns of smoke rose here and there all over the farm.

(1) CBDE

(2) BCDE

(3) CBED

(4) DBCE

(5) EDBC

Ans:3

Directions for Questions 33 to 35: In each question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.

33.The cricket council that was[A]/were[B] elected last March is[A]/are[B] at sixes and sevens over new rules.
The critics censored[A]/censured[B] the new movie because of its social inaccessibility. Amit’s explanation for missing the meting was credulous[A]/credible[B]. She coughed discreetly[A]/discretely[B] to announce her presence.

1) BBAAA

2) AAABA

3) BBBBA

4) AABBA

5) BBBAA

Ans:4

34. The further[A]/farther[B] he pushed himself, the more disillusioned he grew.

For the crowds it was more of a historical[A]/historic[B] event; for their leader, it was just another day. The old man has a healthy distrust[A]/mistrust[B] for all new technology. This film is based on a real[A]/true [B] story. One suspects that the compliment[A]/complement[B] was backhanded.

1) BABAB

2) ABBBA

3) BAABA

4) BBAAB

5) ABABA

Ans:5

35.Regrettably[A]/Regretfully[B] I have to decline your invitation.

I am drawn to the poetic, sensual[A]/sensuous[B] quality of her paintings. He was besides[A]/beside[B] himself with rage when I told him what I had done. After brushing against a stationary[A]/stationery[B] truck my car turned turtle. As the water began to rise over[A]/above[B] the danger mark, the signs of an imminent flood were clear.

1) BAABA

2) BBBAB

3) AAABA

4) BBAAB

5) BABAB

Ans:2

Directions for Questions 36 to 40: The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Language is not a cultural artifact that we learn the way we learn to tell time or how the federal government works. Instead, it is a distinct piece of the biological makeup of our brains. Language is a complex, specialized skill, which develops in the child spontaneously, without conscious effort or formal instruction, is deployed without awareness of its underlying logic, is qualitatively the same in every individual, and is distinct from more general abilities to process information or behave intelligently. For these reasons some cognitive scientists have described language as a psychological faculty, a mental organ, a neural system, and a computational module. But I prefer the admittedly quaint term “instinct.” It conveys the idea that people know how to talk in more or less the sense that spiders know how to spin webs. Web-spinning was not invented by some unsung spider genius and does not depend on having had the right education or on having an aptitude for architecture or the construction trades. Rather, spiders spin spider webs because they have spider brains, which give them the urge to spin and the competence to succeed. Although there are differences between webs and words, I will encourage you to see language in this way, for it helps to make sense of the phenomena we will explore.

Thinking of language as an instinct inverts the popular wisdom, especially as it has been passed down in the canon of the humanities and social sciences. Language is no more a cultural invention than is upright posture. It is not a manifestation of a general capacity to use symbols: a three-year-old, we shall see, is a grammatical genius, but is quite incompetent at the visual arts, religious iconography, traffic signs, and the other staples of the semiotics curriculum. Though language is a magnificent ability unique to Homo sapiens among living species, it does not call for sequestering the study of humans from the domain of biology, for a magnificent ability unique to a particular living species is far from unique in the animal kingdom. Some kinds of bats home in on flying insects using Doppler sonar. Some kinds of migratory birds navigate thousands of miles by calibrating the positions of the constellations against the time of day and year. In nature’s talent show, we are simply a species of primate with our own act, a knack for communicating information about who did what to whom by modulating the sounds we make when we exhale.

Once you begin to look at language not as the ineffable essence of human uniqueness but as a biological adaption to communicate information, it is no longer as tempting to see language as an insidious shaper of thought, and, we shall see, it is not. Moreover, seeing language as one of nature?s engineering marvels – an organ with “that perfection of structure and co-adaptation which justly excites our admiration,” in Darwin?s words – gives us a new respect for your ordinary Joe and the much-maligned English language (or any language). The complexity of language, from the scientist?s point of view, is part of our biological birthright; it is not something that parents teach their children or something that must be elaborated in school – as Oscar Wilde said, “Education is an admirable thing, but it is well to remember from time to time that nothing that is worth knowing can be taught.” A preschooler?s tacit knowledge of grammar is more sophisticated than the thickest style manual or the most state-of-the-art computer language system, and the same applies to all healthy human beings, even the notorious syntax-fracturing professional athlete and the, you know, like, inarticulate teenage skateboarder. Finally, since language is the product of a well-engineered biological instinct, we shall see that it is not the nutty barrel of monkeys that entertainer-columnists make it out to be

36.According to the passage, which of the following does not stem from popular wisdom on language?

(1) Language is a cultural artifact.

(2) Language is a cultural invention.

(3) Language is learnt as we grow.

(4) Language is unique to Homo sapiens.

(5) Language is a psychological faculty.

Ans:5

37. Which of the following can be used to replace the “spiders know how to spin webs” analogy as used by the author?

(1) A kitten learning to jump over a wall

(2) Bees collecting nectar

(3) A donkey carrying a load

(4) A horse running a Derby

(5) A pet dog protecting its owner?s property

Ans:2

38. According to the passage, which of the following is unique to human beings?

(1) Ability to use symbols while communicating with one another.

(2) Ability to communicate with each other through voice modulation.

(3) Ability to communicate information to other members of the species.

(4) Ability to use sound as means of communication.

(5) All of the above.

Ans:2

39. According to the passage, complexity of language cannot be taught by parents or at school to children because

(1) children instinctively know language.

(2) children learn the language on their own.

(3) language is not amenable to teaching.

(4) children know language better than their teachers or parents.

(5) children are born with the knowledge of semiotics

Ans:1

40. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

(1) Language is unique to Homo sapiens.

(2) Language is neither learnt nor taught.

(3) Language is not a cultural invention or artifact as it is made out.

(4) Language is instinctive ability of human beings.

(5) Language is use of symbols unique to human beings.

Ans:4
CAT Ration and Proportion Questions
CAT Exam paper
CAT-Ratio, variation proportion questions with answers
Problem 1: The head of a fish is 6 inches long. Its tail is as long as its head and half its body. If its body is half of its whole length, how long is the fish?

[1] 16 inches

[2] 24 inches

[3] 32 inches

[4] 48 inches

Problem 2:

There are 3 cars moving at speeds in the ratio of . If the fastest car covers 10 km more than the car with medium speed in 30 minutes, then the speed of the slowest car in kmph is:

[1] 30 kmph

[2] 60 kmph

[3] 75 kmph

[4] 100 kmph

Problem 3:

A bartender has two casks full of mixture of vodka and tomato juice. The ratio of vodka and tomato juice in the first and second cask is 3:10 and 8:15 respectively. In what proportion should the mixtures be mixed to satisfy a customer who likes vodka and tomato juice in the ratio 7:16?

[1] 1 : 2

[2] 117 : 213

[3] 13 : 22

[4] 2 : 3

CAT quantitative aptitude questions with answers

1: The largest copper producing country in the World is

1. Chile
2. Russia
3. South Africa
4. China

Ans: 1.

2: If the radius of a circle is diminished by 10%, then its area is diminished by:

1. 10%
2. 19%
3. 20%
4. 36%

Ans: 2.

3: A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?

1. 1/2 kmph
2. 7/12 kmph
3. 5 kmph
4. none of these

Ans: 2.

4: At what time after 4.00 p.m. is the minutes hand of a clock exactly aligned with the hour hand?

1. 4:21:49.5
2. 4:27:49.5
3. 3:21:49.5
4. 4:21:44.5

Ans: 1.

5: A shop keeper sold a T.V set for Rs.17,940 with a discount of 8% and earned a profit of 19.6%.What would have been the percentage of profit earned if no discount was offered?

1. 24.8%
2. 25%
3. 26.4%
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these

Ans: 5.

6: If (2x-y)=4 then (6x-3y)=?

1. 15
2. 12
3. 18
4. 10

Ans: 2.

7: A clock is set right at 8 a.m. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the true time when the clock indicates 1 p.m. on the following day?

1. 48 min. past 12
2. 38 min. past 12
3. 28 min. past 12
4. 25 min. past 12

Ans: 1.

8: What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12

1. 16
2. 9
3. 15
4. 6

Ans: 2.

9: Dinesh travelled 1200 km by air which formed 2/5 of his trip. One third of the whole trip, he travelled by car and the rest of the journey he performed by train. What was the distance travelled by train?

1. 600Km
2. 700Km
3. 800Km
4. 900Km

Ans: 3.

10: A train which travels at a uniform speed due to some mechanical fault after traveling for an hour goes at 3/5th of the original speed and reaches the destination 2 hrs late.If the fault had occurred after traveling another 50 miles the train would have reached 40 min earlier. What is distance between the two stations.

1. 300
2. 310
3. 320
4. 305

Ans: 1.

11: The average between a two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is 9. What is the difference between the two digits of the number?

1. 8
2. 2
3. 5
4. Cannot be determined

Ans: 4.

12: Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank

1. 17 1/7 mins
2. 20 mins
3. 8 mins
4. none of these

Ans: 1.

13: A person has 4 coins each of different denomination. What is the number of different sums of money the person can form (using one or more coins at a time)?

1. 16
2. 15
3. 12
4. 11

Ans: 2.

14: The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years is 225 and the compound interest on the same sum at the same rate for 2 years is 153 then the principal invested is

1. 1500
2. 2250
3. 3000
4. 1875

Ans: 4.

15: A cow is tethered in the middle of a field with a 14 feet long rope. If the cow grazes 100 sq. ft. per day, then approximately what time will be taken by the cow to graze the whole field ?

1. 2 days
2. 6 days
3. 18 days
4. 24 days
5. None of these

Ans: 2.

16: 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train was?

1. 40
2. 30
3. 80
4. 60

Ans: 1.

17: The two colors seen at the extreme ends of the pH chart are:

1. Red and Blue
2. Red and Green
3. Green and Blue
4. Orange and Green

Ans: 1.

18: 8 15 24 35 48 63 _?

1. 70
2. 80
3. 75
4. 88

Ans: 2.

19: One of Mr. Horton, his wife, their son, and Mr. Horton?s mother is a doctor and another is a lawyer.
a) If the doctor is younger than the lawyer, then the doctor and the lawyer are not blood relatives.
b) If the doctor is a woman, then the doctor and the lawyer are blood relatives.
c) If the lawyer is a man, then the doctor is a man. Whose occupation you know?

1. Mr. Horton: he is the doctor
2. Mr. Horton?s son: she is the lawyer
3. Mr. Horton: he is the doctor
4. Mr. Horton?s mother: she is the doctor

Ans: 1.

20: In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC?

1. 4 cm
2. 8 cm
3. 6 cm
4. 5 cm

Ans: 1.

21: Union Information and Broadcasting ministry recently gave an indication to change which of the following laws on a larger scale, as the existing provisions of the Act are inadequate to cater to the phenomenal growth of the print media in view of the liberalization of the government policies?

1. Press & Registration of Books Act, (PRB Act) 1867
2. The Delivery Of Books ?And Newspapers? (Public Libraries) Act, 1954
3. Indian Press (Emergency Powers ) Act 1931
4. none

Ans: 1.

22: 2 numbers differ by 5.If their product is 336,then the sum of the 2 numbers is:

1. 21
2. 51
3. 28
4. 37

Ans: 4.

23: Which number is the odd one out? 9678 4572 5261 3527 7768

1. 7768
2. 3527
3. 4572
4. 9678
5. 5261

Ans: 2.

24: Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India

1. Kolkata
2. Kochi
3. Mumbai
4. Visakhapatnam

Ans: 2.

25: If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?

1. 8
2. 3
3. 5
4. 6

Ans: 1.

26: A radio when sold at a certain price gives a gain of 20%. What will be the gain percent, if sold for thrice the price?

1. 280
2. 270
3. 290
4. 260

Ans: 4.

27: x% of y is y% of ?

1. x/y
2. 2y
3. x
4. can?t be determined

Ans: 3.

28: If the value of x lies between 0 & 1 which of the following is the largest?

1. x
2. x2
3. -x
4. 1/x

Ans: 4.

29: The tutor of Alexander the great was

1. Darius
2. Cyrus
3. Socrates
4. Aristotle

Ans: 4.

30: Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day. How many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the job?

1. 8 hrs
2. 71/2 hrs
3. 7 hrs
4. 9 hrs

Ans: 2.

31: Goitre caused by the deficiency of ???

1. Vitamin D
2. Iron
3. VItamin A
4. Iodine

Ans: 4.

32: Who invented Napier?s Bones

1. John Napier
2. William Oughtred
3. Charles Babbage
4. Napier Bone

Ans: 1.

33: The mass number of a nucleus is

1. Always less than its atomic number
2. Always more than its atomic number
3. Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
4. None of the above

Ans: 3.

34: A and B can do a piece of work in 45 days and 40 days respectively. They began to do the work together but A leaves after some days and then B completed the remaining work n 23 days. The number of days after which A left the work was

1. 9
2. 11
3. 12
4. 15
5. 16

Ans: 1.

35: Sam and Mala have a conversation. Sam says I am certainly not over 40 Mala Says I am 38 and you are at least 5 years older than me · Now Sam says you are at least 39 all the statements by the two are false. How old are they really?

1. Mala = 38 yrs, Sam =31 yrs.
2. Mala = 38 yrs, Sam = 41 yrs
3. Mala = 31 yrs, Sam = 41 yrs.
4. Mala = 45yrs, Sam = 41 yrs

Ans: 2.

36: What is the code name for Windows Vista?

1. Longhorn
2. Longhund
3. Stackspray
4. Pearl

Ans: 1.

37: On sports day, if 30 children were made to stand in a column, 16 columns could be formed. If 24 children were made to stand in a column, how many columns could be formed?

1. 20
2. 30
3. 40
4. 50

Ans: 1.

38: The probability that a man will be alive for 25 years is 3/5 and the probability that his wife will be alive for 25 years is 2/3. Find the probability that only the man will be alive for 25 years.

1. 2/5
2. 1/5
3. 3/5
4. 4/5

Ans: 2.

39: In a single throw of a dice, what is the probability of getting a number greater than 4?

1. 1/2
2. 2/3
3. 1/4
4. 1/3

Ans: 4.

40: If every alternative letter starting from B of the English alphabet is written in small letter, rest all are written in capital letters, how the month ?September? be written. (1) SeptEMbEr (2) SEpTeMBEr (3) SeptembeR (4) SepteMber (5) None of the above

1. (1)
2. (2)
3. (3)
4. (5)
5. (4)

Ans: 4.

41: After allowing a discount of 11.11% ,a trader still makes a gain of 14.28 % .at how many precent above the cost price does he mark his goods?
1. 28.56%
2. 35%
3. 22.22%
4. None of these

Ans: 1.

42: Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank

1. 17 1/7 mins
2. 20 mins
3. none
4. 50 mins

Ans: 1.

43: There are 3 triplet brothers. They look identical. The oldest is John, he always tells the truth. The second is Jack, he always tells a lie. The third is Joe, he either tells the truth or a lie. Jimmie Dean went to visit them one day. He was wondering who was who. So he asked each person a question. He asked the one who was sitting on the left: ?Who is the guy sitting in the middle??. The answer was ?He is John.? He asked the one who was sitting in the middle: ?What is your name??. The answer was ?I am Joe.? He asked the one who was sitting on the right: ?What is the guy sitting in the middle??. The answer was ?He is Jack.? Jimmie Dean got really confused. Basically, he asked 3 same questions, but he got 3 different answers. which is not true?

1. left most is joe
2. middle is jack
3. right is john
4. middle is john

Ans: 4.

44: A / B = C; C > D then

1. A is always greater than D
2. C is always greater than D
3. B is always less than D
4. none

Ans: 1.

45: Consider the following statements: 1. The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) had recommended that the Department of Personnel of a State should be put under the charge of the Chief Secretary of the State. 2. Chief Secretary of a State is not involved in any manner in the promotion of State Civil officers to the All-India Services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: 1.

46: The population of a town was 1,60,000 three years ago. If it increased by 3%, 2.5% and 5% respectively in the last three years, then the present population of the town is :

1. 1,77,000
2. 1,77,366
3. 1,77,461
4. 1,77,596

Ans: 2.

47: What is the population of India ?

1. 98 crores
2. More than 2 billion
3. More than 1 billion
4. Less than 96 crores
5. 96 crores

Ans: 3.

48: Some green are blue. No blue are white.

1. Some green are white
2. No white are green
3. No green are white
4. None of the above

Ans: 1.

49: What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12

1. 8
2. 6
3. 9
4. 11

Ans: 3.

50: Average age of students of an adult school is 40 years. 120 new students whose average age is 32 years joined the school. As a result the average age is decreased by 4 years. Find the number of students of the school after joining of the new students:

1. 1200
2. 120
3. 360
4. 240

Ans: 4.

51: On sports day,if 30 children were made to stand in a column,16 columns could be formed. If 24 children were made to stand in a column , how many columns could be formed?

1. 48
2. 20
3. 30
4. 16
5. 40

Ans: 2.

52: Which of the following numbers is divisible by 3? (i) 541326 (ii) 5967013

1. (ii) only
2. (i) only
3. (i) and (ii) both
4. (i) and (ii) none

Ans: 2.

53: A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at least one ball (one ball in one square only). In how many different ways can this be done?

1. 81
2. 91
3. 41
4. 51

Ans: 1.

54: A man owns 2/3 of the market research beauro business and sells 3/4 of his shares for Rs.75000. What is the value of Business

1. 150000
2. 13000
3. 240000
4. 34000

Ans: 1.

55: 1,2,6,24,_?

1. 111
2. 151
3. 120
4. 125

Ans: 3.

56: The cost of 16 packets of salt,each weighing 900 grams is Rs.28.What will be the cost of 27 packets ,if each packet weighs 1Kg?

1. Rs.52.50
2. Rs.56
3. Rs.58.50
4. Rs.64.75

Ans: 1.

57: Ronald and Michelle have two children. The probability that the first child is a girl, is 50%. The probability that the second child is a girl, is also 50%. Ronald and Michelle tell you that they have a daughter. What is the probability that their other child is also a girl?

1. 1/2
2. 1/3
3. 1/4
4. 1/5

Ans: 2.

58: Find the value of (21/4-1)( 23/4 +21/2+21/4+1)

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3

Ans: 1.

59: The product of two fractions is 14/15 and their quotient is 35/24. the greater fraction is

1. 4/5
2. 7/6
3. 7/5
4. 7/4

Ans: 1.

60: 500 men are arranged in an array of 10 rows and 50 columns according to their heights. Tallest among each row of all are asked to fall out. And the shortest among them is A. Similarly after resuming that to their original podsitions that the shortest among each column are asked to fall out. And the tallest among them is B . Now who is taller among A and B ?

1. A
2. B
3. Both are of same height

Ans: 1.

61: Choose the pair of numbers which comes next 75 65 85 55 45 85 35

1. 25 15
2. 25 85
3. 35 25
4. 35 85
5. 25 75

Ans: 2.

62: A three digit number consists of 9,5 and one more number. When these digits are reversed and then subtracted from the original number the answer yielded will be consisting of the same digits arranged yet in a different order. What is the other digit?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Ans: 4.

63: ATP stands for:

Ans: 2.

64: Veselin Tapolev who became the World Champion recently, is associated with which of the following games/sports ?

1. Chess
2. Golf
3. Snooker
5. None of these

Ans: 1.

65: A piece of cloth cost Rs 35. if the length of the piece would have been 4m longer and each meter cost Re 1 less , the cost would have remained unchanged. how long is the piece?

1. 10
2. 11
3. 12

Ans: 1.

66: In a journey of 15 miles two third distance was travelled with 40 mph and remaining with 60 mph.How muvh time the journey takes

1. 40 min
2. 30 min
3. 120 min
4. 20 min

Ans: 4.

67: Solid cube of 6 * 6 * 6. This cube is cut into to 216 small cubes. (1 * 1 * 1).the big cube is painted in all its faces. Then how many of cubes are painted at least 2 sides.

1. 56
2. 45
3. 23
4. 28

Ans: 1.

68: Find the average of first 40 natural numbers.

1. 40
2. 35
3. 30.6
4. 20.5
5. None of these

Ans: 4.

69: 1, 5, 14, 30, ?, 91

1. 45
2. 55
3. 60
4. 70
5. None of these

Ans: 2.

70: There is a shortage of tubelights, bulbs and fans in a village ? Gurgaon. It is found that
a) All houses do not have either tubelight or bulb or fan.
b) Exactly 19% of houses do not have just one of these.
c) Atleast 67% of houses do not have tubelights.
d) Atleast 83% of houses do not have bulbs.
e) Atleast 73% of houses do not have fans.

1. 42 %
2. 46 %
3. 50 %
4. 54 %
5. 57 %

Ans: 1.

71: If 9 engines consume 24 metric tonnes of coal, when each is working 8 hours a day; how much coal will be required for 8 engines, each running 13 hours a day, it being given that 3 engines of the former type consume as much as 4 engines of latter type.

1. 22 metric tonnes.
2. 27 metric tonnes.
3. 26 metric tonnes.
4. 25 metric tonnes.

Ans: 3.

72: To 15 lts of water containing 20% alcohol, we add 5 lts of pure water. What is % alcohol.

1. 20%
2. 34%
3. 15%
4. 14%

Ans: 3.

73: In page preview mode:

1. You can see all pages of your document
2. You can only see the page you are currently working
3. Satyam BPO Services
4. You can only see pages that do not contain graphics

Ans: 4.

74: A house wife saved Rs. 2.50 in buying an item on sale .If she spent Rs.25 for the item ,approximately how much percent she saved in the transaction ?

1. 8%
2. 9%
3. 10%
4. 11%

Ans: 2.

75: I have trouble _____.

Ans: 4.

76: Superheroes Liza and Tamar leave the same camp and run in opposite directions. Liza runs 1 mile per second (mps) and Tamar runs 2 mps. How far apart are they in miles after 1 hour?

1. 10800 mile
2. 19008 mile
3. 12300 mile
4. 14000 mile

Ans: 1.

77: A = 5, B = 0, C = 2, D = 10, E = 2. What is then AB + EE ? (ED)powerB + (AC)powerE = ?

1. 113
2. 103
3. 93
4. 111

Ans: 2.

78: A man can row upstream at 8 kmph and downstream at 13 kmph.The speed of the stream is?

1. 2.5 kmph
2. 4.2 kmph
3. 5 kmph
4. 10.5 kmph

Ans: 1.

79: Find what is the next letter. Please try to find. O,T,T,F,F,S,S,E,N,_ What is that letter?

1. B
2. S
3. Q
4. T
5. O

Ans: 4.

80: There are 3 societies A, B, C. A lent cars to B and C as many as they had Already. After some time B gave as many tractors to A and C as many as they have. After sometime c did the same thing. At the end of this transaction each one of them had 24. Find the cars each originally had.

Ans: 4.

81: A papaya tree was planted 2 years ago. It increases at the rate of 20% every year. If at present, the height of the tree is 540 cm, what was it when the tree was planted?

1. 432 cm
2. 324 cm
3. 375 cm
4. 400 cm

Ans: 3.

82: A boy has Rs 2. He wins or loses Re 1 at a time If he wins he gets Re 1 and if he loses the game he loses Re 1. He can loose only 5 times. He is out of the game if he earns Rs 5. Find the number of ways in which this is possible?

1. 14
2. 23
3. 16
4. 12
5. 10

Ans: 3.

83: Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first. If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind Chris and Don, which of the following must be true of that race?

1. Eugene finishes first.
2. Alan finishes sixth.
3. Don finishes second.
4. Frank finishes fifth.
5. Chris finishes third.

Ans: 4.

84: A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 18 days.In how many days will A alone finish the work?

1. 27
2. 26
3. 25
4. 24

Ans: 1.

85: Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed?

1. 20 %
2. 40 %
3. 3%
4. 2%

Ans: 1.

86: The sum of 5 successive odd numbers is 1075. What is the largest of these numbers?

1. 215
2. 223
3. 219
4. 217

Ans: 3.

87: A man sells two buffaloes for Rs. 7,820 each. On one he gains 15% and on the other, he loses 15%. His total gain or loss in the transaction is

1. 2.5% gain
2. 2.25% loss
3. 2% loss
4. 5% loss
5. None of these

Ans: 2.

88: One ship goes along the stream direction 28 km and in opposite direction 13 km in 5 hrs for each direction.What is the velocity of stream?

1. 1.5 kmph
2. 2.5 kmph
3. 1.8 kmph
4. 2 kmph

Ans: 1.

89: Which one of the words given below is different from others?

1. Orange
2. Grape
3. Apricot
4. Raspberry
5. Mango

Ans: 3.

90: Complete the series: 5, 20, 24, 6, 2, 8, ?

1. 12
2. 32
3. 34
4. 36

Ans: 1.

91: A can have a piece of work done in 8 days, B can work three times faster than the A, C can work five times faster than A. How many days will they take to do the work together

1. 3 days
2. 8/9 days
3. 4 days
4. None of the above

Ans: 2.

92: 7 Pink, 5 Black, 11 Yellow balls are there. Minimum no. atleast to get one black and yellow ball

1. 17
2. 13
3. 15
4. 19

Ans: 1.

93: (1/10)18 ? (1/10)20 = ?

1. 99/1020
2. 99/10
3. 0.9
4. none of these

Ans: 1.

94: Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the total number of bullets remaining is equal to the bullets each had after division. Find the original number divided?

1. 18
2. 20
3. 54
4. 8

Ans: 1.

95: A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A?s share, 4 times B?s share and 7 times C?s share are all equal. The share of C is

1. Rs.84
2. Rs.76
3. Rs.98
4. RS.34

Ans: 1.

96: There are 20 poles with a constant distance between each pole. A car takes 24 second to reach the 12th pole.How much will it take to reach the last pole.

1. 41.45 seconds
2. 40.45 seconds
3. 42.45 seconds
4. 41.00 seconds

Ans: 1.

97: An emergency vehicle travels 10 miles at a speed of 50 miles per hour. How fast must the vehicle travel on the return trip if the round-trip travel time is to be 20 minutes?

1. 72 miles per hour
2. 75 miles per hour
3. 65 miles per hour
4. 78 miles per hour

Ans: 2.

98: 12% of 580 + ? = 94

1. 24.4
2. 34.4
3. 54.4
4. 65.4

Ans: 1.

99: There is a certain relation between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the given pair has. Select the best alternative. Horse : Jockey : : Car : ?

1. Mechanic
2. Chauffeur
3. Steering
4. Brake

Ans: 2.

100: Which of the following numbers should be added to 11158 to make it exactly divisible by 77?

1. 9
2. 8
3. 7
4. 5

Ans: 3.