CISF Placement Paper
CISF Placement Paper
1. The temperatures in degree Fahrenheit at 4: 00 p.m. for a one-week period in a certaincity are 47, 68, 58, 73, 42, 43, 68. How many days are of greater temperature than mean temperature ?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
2. 'X' eats 1/3 of an apple. His friend 'Y' eats 3/4 of the remaining apple. What part of the apple is left behind ?
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/6
3. If the product of four consecutive integers is equal to one of the integers, then what is the largest possible value of one of the integers ?
(a) - 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) None of the above
4. What. is 'X' in the sequence 7, 13, 24, 45, X,167 ?
(a) 66
(b) 73
(c) 86
(d) 98
5. Out of 320 students,200 students take tea and 80 students take coffee only. The number of students who take both tea and coffee is equal to the number of students who thke neither tea nor coffee. What is the number of students who take both tea and coffee ?
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) None of the above
6. How many pairs containing a man and a woman can be formed out of 5 men and 5 women ?
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 20
(d) 10
7. Consider the following analogy :If `Spoon' is to `Fork', then `Spade' is to
(a) Basket
(b) Scissors
(c) Hoe
(d) Sickle
8. A bell rings every 18 seconds. A second bell rings every 24 seconds and a third bell rings every 32 seconds. If all the three bells ring at the same time at 8 o'clock in the morning, at what other time will they all ring together ?
(a) 12: 40 hrs
(b) 12: 48 hrs
(c) 12 :56 hrs
(d) 13: 04 hrs
9. In a row 'A' is in the 11th position from the left and 'B' is in the 10th position from the right. If 'A' and 'B' interchange, then 'A' becomes 18th from the left. How many persons are there in the row other than 'A' and 'B' ?
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28
Direction : For the next four (10-13) items that follow :
There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F.
A has 3 items more than C.
D has 4 items less than B.
E has 6 items less than F.
C has 2 items more than E.
F has 3 items more than D
10. Which one of the following cannot be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the six persons ?
(a) 41
(b) 47
(c) 53
(d) 58
11. Consider the following statements :
1. The total number of items possessed by both A and E is equal to the total number of items possessed by both C and D.
2. The total number of items possessed by both A and C is equal to the total number of items possessed by both B and E.Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. The difference in the number of items possessed by a pair of persons is 1. How many such pairs of persons are possible ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) None of the above
13. Consider the following statements :
1. The total number of items possessed by B and D together is twice the number of items possessed by A.
2. The total number of items possessed by E and F together is twice the number of items possessed by D.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. What is the time taken by a 240 m long train running at 80 km/hr to cross a bridge 160 m long ?
(a) 12 s
(b) 18 s
(c) 30 s
(d) 60 s
15. A sum of money doubles itself at a compound interest in 12 years. The number of years it will take to become eight times is
(a) 24
(b) 36
(c) 42
(d) 48
16. Consider the following
P is shorter than Q but taller than R.
S is shorter than P but taller than R.
T-is shorter than Q but taller than P.
Who is the shortest person ?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
17. A number consists of 3 digits whose sum is 10. The middle number is equal to the sum of the other two digits. The number will be increased by 99 if its digits are reversed.What is the number ?
(a) 370
(b) 253
(c) 406
(d) 442
18. How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with2?
(a) 109
(b) 110
(c) 111
(d) None of the above
19. A person who lives exclusively on milk, egg and bread is likely to become a victim of
(a) Rickets
(b) Scurvy
(c) Beri-Beri
(d) None of the above
20. In SONAR, which one of the following waves is used ?
(a) Ultrasonic waves
(b) Infrasonic waves
(c) Radio waves
(d) Micro waves
21. The duration of day is the highest on
(a) Earth
(b) Mercury
(c) Venus
(d) Mars
22. When we see an object, the image formed on the retina of our eye is
(a) real and erect
(b) virtual and erect
(c) real and inverted
(d) virtual and inverted
23. The gas usually filled in the electric bulb is
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Argon
24. The harmful ozone in the troposphere is associated with
(a) smog formed in cities
(b) smoke of forest fire
(c) late night fog
(d) marshy land
25. Mixed fertilizers are those that contain
(a) urea
(b) ammonium sulphate
(c) calcium dihydrogen phosphate
(d) sodium nitrate
26. Which one of the following is not an element ?
(a) Gold
(b) Brass
(c) Copper
(d) Tin
27. Which one of the following is a `true fruit' ?
(a) Apple
(b) Pear
(c) Banana
(d) Fig
28. In which one,among the following languages was the ancient Sangam literature composed ?
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Prakrit
(c) Pali
(d) Tamil
29. `Neel Darpan' was authored by
(a) Derozio
(b) Bankim Chandra
(c) Dinabandhu Mitra
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
30. Sido and Kanhu were tribal rebels of
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) Chotanagpur
(d) Rajasthan
CISF Placement Paper
CISF Previous Year Solved Paper
General English:
Directions?(Q. 1?5) In each of these questions, two of the words are related in some way i.e., they are similar or opposites. Pick out the option which represents that pair.
1. 1. moderate 2. easy 3. significant 4. strenuous
(A) 2?4
(B) 1?2
(C) 1?3
(D) 2?3
(E) 3?4
2. 1. focus 2. trivial 3. vital 4. site
(A) 1?2
(B) 2?4
(C) 1?3
(D) 3?4
(E) 2?3
3. 1. defer 2. dispute 3. prefer 4. challenge
(A) 2?3
(B) 1?3
(C) 2?1
(D) 2?4
(E) 3?4
4. 1. consequence 2. potential 3. influence 4. ability
(A) 4?3
(B) 2?4
(C) 2?3
(D) 1?3
(E) 4?1
5. 1. rebuke 2. oppose 3. praise 4. distrust
(A) 1?2
(B) 2?3
(C) 1?3
(D) 3?4
(E) 2?4
Directions?(Q. 6?15) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbersare printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Delinking of jobs from degrees is one of the ?(6)? features of our education ?(7)?. There has been a ?(8)? fall in ?(9)? in the acade-mic field in recent years. There is a ?(10)? of degree holders in the country, as a result, university degrees have ?(11)? their value and charm while the number of students in colleges and universities of the country has been ?(12)? rising. Consequently thousands of graduates and post graduates come out of these institutions and stand in queues waiting to get some ?(13)? jobs ?(14)? in the country. Moreover, these degree holders do not have any technical or vocational knowledge needed for a particular job. As a result, the number of educated unemployed has been rising ?(15)?. It has created a very serious problem.
6. (A) minor
(B) trivial
(C) unachievable
(D) irrelevant
(E) salient
7. (A) process
(B) policy
(C) development
(D) guideline
(E) procedures
8. (A) expected
(B) sheer
(C) rough
(D) steep
(E) gentle
9. (A) assessment
(B) evaluation
(C) competence
(D) fees
(E) value
10. (A) flood
(B) class
(C) party
(D) mob
(E) rabble
11. (A) mislaid
(B) lost
(C) increase
(D) found
(E) establish
12. (A) slowly
(B) hastily
(C) deeply
(D) waiting
(E) out
13. (A) suitable
(B) remain
(C) study
(D) live
(E) place
14. (A) frequency
(B) occurrence
(C) event
(D) chance
(E) blocking
15. (A) fever
(B) outshine
(C) lean
(D) dwarfed
(E) horribly
General Knowledge:
1. The split between the ?Extremists? and ?Moderates? came up in the open at the Surat Congress Session in the year?
(A) 1905
(B) 1906
(C) 1907
(D) 1910
2. Bhulabhai Desai?s most memorable achievement was his defence of the Indian National Army (I.N.A.) personnel at the Red Fort Trial towards the end of?
(A) 1943
(B) 1944
(C) 1945
(D) 1946
3. St. Thomas is said to have come to India to propagate Christianity during the reign of the?
(A) Cheras
(B) Parthians
(C) Pandyas
(D) Cholas
4. The First Viceroy of the Portuguese in the East was?
(A) Albuquerque
(B) Joa de Castro
(C) Francisco de Almedia
(D) Nuno da Cunha
5. When was the All India Women?s Conference founded ?
(A) 1924
(B) 1925
(C) 1926
(D) 1927
6. The Kuka movement started in mid-nineteenth century in?
(A) Western Punjab
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bengal
(D) Madhya Bharat
7. Who is the author of the autobiography, The Indian Struggle ?
(A) Annie Beasant
(B) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) Chittaranjan Das
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
8. Mahatma Gandhi?s remark, ?A post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank? is regarding the proposals of?
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Cripps Mission
(C) Cabinet Mission
(D) Wavel Plan
9. Under whose leadership was the Congress Socialist Party founded in 1934 ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru and Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Acharya Narendra Dev and Jai Prakash Narayan
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose and P.C. Joshi
(D) Saifuddin Kitchlew and Rajendra Prasad
10. The people of the Indus Valley Civilization usually built their houses of?
(A) Pucca bricks
(B) Stone
(C) Wood
(D) All of the above
11. Which one of the following pairs of places does the National Highway number 2 join ?
(A) Delhi?Amritsar
(B) Delhi?Mumbai
(C) Delhi?Kolkata
(D) Delhi?Ahmedabad
12. Watermelons grow best in?
(A) Alluvial soil
(B) Sandy soil
(C) Black soil
(D) Laterite soil
13. In which state is the Maikala range situated ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhattisgarh
14. The latitude passing through the northern most part of India is?
(A) 35° N
(B) 36° N
(C) 37° N
(D) 39° N
15. River erosion is at its greatest where the river?s?
(A) depth is more
(B) breadth is more
(C) flow is fast
(D) gradient is more
16. Nallamala hills are located in the state of?
(A) Orissa
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
17. Excluding the East European countries and Russia, the country with the largest area under forest, is?
(A) USA
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Brazil
18. In which of the following is the Great Barrier Reef located ?
(A) Coral Sea
(B) Solomon Sea
(C) Bismarck Sea
(D) Arafura Sea
19. Where is the headquarter of Zoological Survey of India located ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
20. The South West monsoon engulfs the entire India by?
(A) 5th June
(B) 15th June
(C) 1st July
(D) 15th July
21. Where was the first iron and steel industry of India established ?
(A) Bhadravati
(B) Bhilai
(C) Jamshedpur
(D) Burnpur
22. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched ?
(A) Columbus?1492
(B) Vasco de Gama?1498
(C) Magellan?1520
(D) Balboa?1530
23. Which one of the following wavelengths of light is most effective in photosynthesis ?
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Orange
(D) Yellow
24. Human cloning is permitted in Britain for the purpose of?
(A) Reproduction
(B) Research
(C) Therapeutics
(D) Genetics
25. Pick out the viral disease among the following?
(A) Hepatitis
(B) Meningitis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Nephritis
26. Dolly, the World?s First cloned animal was a?
(A) sheep
(B) cow
(C) goat
(D) pig
27. The large amount of sugar present in human blood is?
(A) sucrose
(B) glucose
(C) fructose
(D) lactose
28. Which one of the following is a viral disease in man ?
(A) Mumps
(B) Plague
(C) Cholera
(D) Syphilis
29. The major constituent of gobar gas is?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Methane
(C) Butane
(D) Isobutane
30. The expansion for AIDS is?
(A) Active Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(B) Acquired Individual Disease Syndrome
(C) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(D) Acquired Immuno Disease Syndrome
31. Bee keeping is known as?
(A) Sericulture
(B) Apiculture
(C) Aquaculture
(D) Agriculture
32. HYV refers to?
(A) Hybrid yielding variety
(B) Human yellow virus
(C) High yielding variety
(D) Human yellow vaccine
33. Pick the odd one out based on crop season?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize
(D) Cotton
34. The residue left after extracting juice from sugarbeet and sugarcane is called?
(A) molasses
(B) bagasse
(C) whey
(D) biomass
35. The isotope of uranium used in atomic reactors is?
(A) U235
(B) U236
(C) U237
(D) U232
36. In the process of magnetization of a bar?
(A) The entire bulk of the bar gets magnetised
(B) Only the surface of the bar gets magnetised
(C) Only the ends of the bar get magnetised
(D) Only some parts of the outer layers of the bar get magnetized
37. A falling drop of rainwater acquires the spherical shape due to?
(A) Viscosity
(B) Surface Tension
(C) Atmospheric pressure
(D) Gravitational force
38. Which is the coldest among the following ?
(A) Mars
(B) Earth
(C) Pluto
(D) Mercury
39. The weakest of all fundamental forces is?
(A) Gravitational force
(B) Electrostatic force
(C) Magnetic force
(D) Nuclear force
40. Among the defects of eye, the shortsightedness is called?
(A) Coma
(B) Hypermetropia
(C) Myopia
(D) Astigmatism
41. Which one of the following is not a radioactive element ?
(A) Uranium
(B) Thorium
(C) Radium
(D) Cadmium
42. Velocity of sound in air does not change with the change of?
(A) Temperature of air
(B) Pressure of air
(C) Moisture content in air
(D) Wind in the direction of propagation of sound
43. The greenhouse effect is caused by the higher level of which gas in the atmosphere ?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Sulphur dioxide
44. Candle is a mixture of?
(A) Paraffin wax and stearic acid
(B) Bees wax and stearic acid
(C) Higher fatty acids and stearic acid
(D) Bees wax and paraffin wax
45. Ethanol containing 5% water is known as?
(A) rectified spirit
(B) denatured spirit
(C) methylated alcohol
(D) power alcohol
46. Brass is an alloy of copper and?
(A) tin
(B) zinc
(C) iron
(D) nickel
47. Who discovered X-rays ?
(A) Goldstein
(B) Thomson
(C) Roentgen
(D) Wien
48. The density of a gas is maximum at?
(A) Low temperature, low pressure
(B) Low temperature, high pressure
(C) High temperature, low pressure
(D) High temperature, high pressure
49. The important ore of aluminium is?
(A) bauxite
(B) cryolite
(C) fluorspar
(D) haematite
50. Aqua regia is a 1 : 3 mixture, by volume, of?
(A) conc. nitric acid and conc. hydrochloric acid
(B) conc. hydrochloric acid and conc. nitric acid
(C) conc. nitric acid and conc. sulphuric acid
(D) conc. sulphuric acid and conc. nitric acid
CISF Placement Paper
CISF Sample Question Paper
General Knowledge Questions
1. The maximum number of goals scored by India in the history of international hockey tournaments were in 1932 Olympics in Los Angeles when it beat USA by?
(A) 26?0
(B) 24?1
(C) 22?0
(D) 20?0
Ans : (B)
2. When was the Jawahar Rozgar Yojna launched ?
(A) 1985
(B) 1987
(C) 1989
(D) 1991
Ans : (C)
3. The cause for the Tsunami, as deduced by the seismologists, is?
(A) gravitational pull of the moon
(B) low pressure trough in the ocean
(C) deformation of sea floor and vertical displacement of water
(D) sudden change in the monsoon wind
Ans : (B)
4. Eden Garden (Kolkata) is associated with?
(A) Basket Ball
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey
Ans : (C)
5. Which one of the following states of India records the highest sexratio ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Tamilnadu
Ans : (A)
6. Major fishing grounds are found in?
(A) Northern Hemisphere
(B) Southern Hemisphere
(C) Eastern Hemisphere
(D) Western Hemisphere
Ans : (A)
7. When was the first National Forest Policy issued by the Government of India ?
(A) 1952
(B) 1940
(C) 1942
(D) 1999
Ans : (A)
8. Which one of the following is not a HYV of wheat ?
(A) Sonalika
(B) Ratna
(C) Kalyan Sona
(D) Girija
Ans : (B)
9. What is the maximum Water Vapour content in the atmosphere ?
(A) 2 to 3 per cent
(B) 3 to 4 per cent
(C) 4 to 5 per cent
(D) 5 to 6 per cent
Ans : (B)
10. Who is the first Asian to become the Head of the prestigious Trinity College of Cambridge University ?
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) Mahendra Chaudhary
(C) Nirod C. Chaudhary
(D) Ketaki Mushari Dyson
Ans : (A)
11. Who gave the concept of ?Total Revolution? ?
(A) Jayaprakash Narayan
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Lenin
Ans : (A)
12. The first mid-term elections for Lok Sabha were held in?
(A) 1962
(B) 1971
(C) 1977
(D) 1980
Ans : (C)
13. Who declared as his ultimate aim the wiping of every tear from every eye ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)
14. Japan?s Parliament is known as?
(A) Diet
(B) Dail
(C) Yuan
(D) Shora
Ans : (A)
15. The convention that ?once a speaker always a speaker? is followed in?
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (A)
16. The headquarters of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is at?
(A) New York
(B) Paris
(C) Geneva
(D) Rome
Ans : (D)
17. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the former Indian President, received the prestigious Bharat Ratna award in the year?
(A) 1992
(B) 1995
(C) 1997
(D) 1998
Ans : (C)
18. The Indian actor who played a prominent role in the Hollywood production : ?The Ghost and The Darkness? is?
(A) Om Puri
(B) Naseeruddin Shah
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Anil Kapoor
Ans : (A)
19. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in?
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
Ans : (C)
20. PSLV stands for?
(A) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(B) Polish Satellite Launch Vehicle
(C) Perfect Satellite Launching Verifier
(D) Preparatory Satellite Launching Vehicle
Ans : (A)
21. Indira Gandhi Cup is associated with?
(A) Basketball
(B) Football
(C) Boxing
(D) Cricket
Ans : (C)
22. Who is the author of the novel ?DEVDAS? ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(C) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
(D) Munshi Premchand
Ans : (C)
23. Nano technology deals with objects with dimensions in the range of?
(A) 10?3 m
(B) 10?6 m
(C) 10?9 m
(D) 10?12 m
Ans : (C)
24. The moon is showing its same face to the earth because?
(A) It is not rotating about its own axis
(B) Its rotation and revolution are opposite
(C) Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same
(D) Its rotation is faster than its revolution
Ans : (C)
25. Devaluation of currency leads to?
(A) expansion of export trade
(B) contraction of import trade
(C) expansion of import substitution
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
26. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of?
(A) Commercial bills
(B) Foreign exchange
(C) Gold
(D) Government bonds
Ans : (D)
27. Which is not the objective of Public Procurement and Distribution system followed by Indian Government ?
(A) Maintain price stability through creation of butter stocks
(B) Protect the interests of both consumers and poor farmers
(C) Control the production of food grains
(D) Reduce personal and regional inequality in the distribution
Ans : (C)
28. Where is the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade located ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad
Ans : (A)
29. The National Institute for Agricultural Marketing is located at?
(A) Jaipur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Nagpur
(D) Hyderabad
Ans : (A)
30. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by?
(A) Total population of the country
(B) Total working population
(C) Area of the country
(D) Volume of capital used
Ans : (A)
31. The currency of Thailand is?
(A) Bhat
(B) Rupiah
(C) Yuan
(D) Yen
Ans : (A)
32. World Bank helps countries with loans for the purpose of?
(A) reconstruction and development
(B) stimulating private investment
(C) tackling foreign exchange crisis
(D) meeting deficits in government budget
Ans : (A)
33. In Indian agriculture, the period from July to October-November is called?
(A) Rabi season
(B) Kharif season
(C) Pre-kharif season
(D) Slack season
Ans : (B)
34. Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of public sector units occur when the government sells?
(A) 5% of shares
(B) 10% of shares
(C) 15% of shares
(D) 20% of shares
Ans : (A)
35. The Narasimham Committee (1991) on financial reforms proposed for establishment of a?
(A) Four tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(B) Three tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(C) Two tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(D) Unified control by the apex institutions
Ans : (A)
36. The Planning Commission of India was constituted in the year?
(A) 1942
(B) 1947
(C) 1950
(D) 1955
Ans : (C)
37. Who is the guardian of Fundamental Rights enumerated in Indian Constitution ?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) Constitution
(D) President
Ans : (A)
38. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the question of?
(A) Centre/state relations
(B) Legislative problems
(C) Union territories? problems
(D) Tribal areas
Ans : (A)
39. The Judges of the High Court hold office?
(A) during the pleasure of the Chief Justice of India
(B) till they have attained 62 years of age
(C) till they have attained 65 years of age
(D) as long as they desire
Ans : (B)
40. The United Nations officially came into existence on?
(A) January 1, 1942
(B) October 3, 1944
(C) October 24, 1945
(D) June 26, 1945
Ans : (C)
41. The English Crown is an example of?
(A) Real executive
(B) Quasi-real executive
(C) Nominal executive
(D) Nominated executive
Ans : (C)
42. The annual report of the UPSC is submitted to?
(A) The President
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
Ans : (A)
43. In ends and means relationship, Gandhiji believed?
(A) Means become good if they serve the end
(B) Means and ends are watertight compartments
(C) Means determine the end
(D) End is everything, no matter what or how the means are
Ans : (C)
44. The ?Speaker?s vote? in the Lok Sabha is called?
(A) Casting vote
(B) Sound vote
(C) Direct vote
(D) Indirect vote
Ans : (A)
45. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ?Fundamental Rights? ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Ans : (C)
46. Which is the Greek classic that Gandhi translated into Gujarati ?
(A) Plato?s Republic
(B) Dialogues of Plato
(C) Aristotle?s Politics
(D) Aristotle?s Nicomachian Ethics
Ans : (A)
47. To be a regional party, the minimum percentage of votes, that a party needs to secure in any election is?
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
Ans : (C)
48. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Eleven
(B) Nine
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve
Ans : (A)
49. Indian Penal Code came into operation in?
(A) 1858
(B) 1860
(C) 1859
(D) 1862
Ans : (D)
50. The First Viceroy and Governor-General of British India was?
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Sir John Lawrence
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Lord Canning
Ans : (D)
CISF Aptitude Questions
CISF Aptitude Question Paper
1. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, the dividend is:
(1) 4236
(2) 4306
(3) 4336
(4) 5336
2. If 1.5 x= 0.04 y, then the value of (y-x) (y+x) is:
(1) 730/77
(2) 73/77
(3) 7.3/77
(4) 703/77
3. An employee may claim Rs. 7.00 for each km when he travels by taxi and Rs. 6.00 for each km if he drives his own car. If in one week he claimed Rs. 595 for traveling km. How many kms did he travel by taxi?
(1) 55
(2) 65
(3) 62
(4) 70
4. The square root of 3 + ?5 is :
(1) ?3 /2 + 1/?2
(2) ?3 /2 ? 1/?2
(3) ?5 /2 ? 1/?2
(4) ?(5/2) + ?(1/2)
5. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 370C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 340C, if the temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of Monday, then what was the temperature on Thursday?
(1) 36.50C
(2) 360C
(3) 35.50C
(4) 340C
6. A certain number of two digits is three times the sum of its digits. If 45 be added to it, the digits are reversed. The number is:
(1) 72
(2) 32
(3) 27
(4) 23
7. Three years ago the average age of A and B was 18 years. While C joining them now, the average becomes 22 years. How old (in years) is C now?
(1) 24
(2) 27
(3) 28
(4) 30
8. If 2^(2x-1) = 8^(3-x), then the value of x is:
(1) -1
(2) -2
(3) 2
(4) 3
9. A man?s basic pay for a 40 hours? week is Rs. 200. Overtimes is paid at 25% above the basic rate. In a certain week, he worked overtime and his total was Rs. 300. He therefore, worked for a total of (in hours):
(1) 52
(2) 56
(3) 58
(4) 62
10. On a Rs. 10, 000 payment order, a person has choice between 3 successive discounts of 10%, 10% and 30% and 3 successive discounts of 40%, 5% and 5%. By choosing the better one he can save (in Rupees):
(1) 200
(2) 255
(3) 400
(4) 433
11. Rs. 600 are divided among A, B, C so that Rs. 40 more than 2/5 th of A?s share, Rs. 20 more that 2/7 th of B?s share and Rs. 10 more than 9/17 th of C?s may all be equal. What is A?s share (in Rupees)?
(1) 150
(2) 170
(3) 200
(4) 280
12. A, B, C started a business with their investment in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. After 4 months, A invested the same amount as before and B as well as C withdrew half of their investments. The ratio of their profits at the end of the year was:
(1) 5 : 6 : 10
(2) 6 : 5 :10
(3) 10 : 5 : 6
(4) 4 : 3 : 5
13. If 9 men working 71/2 hours a day can finish a piece of work in 20 days, then how many days will be taken by 12 men, working 6 hours a day to finish the work? It is being given that 2 men of latter type work as much as 3 men of the former type?
(1) 91/2
(2) 11
(3) 121/2
(4) 13
14. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a cistern in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill the cistern is:
(1) 12
(2) 14
(3) 16
(4) 18
15. A train B speeding with 120 kmph crosses another train C running in the same direction, in 2 minutes. If the lengths of the trains B and C be 100 m and 200 m respectively, what is the speed (in kmph) of the train C?
(1) 111
(2) 123
(3) 127
(4) 129
16. River is running at 2 kmph. It took a man twice as long to row up as to row down the river. The rate (in km/hr) of the man in still water is:
(1) 8
(2) 10
(3) 4
(4) 6
17. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity (in kg.) sold at 18% profit is:
(1) 560
(2) 600
(3) 400
(4) 640
18. A sum of money becomes Rs. 13, 380 after 3 years and Rs. 20, 070 after 6 years on compound interest. The sum (in Rupees) is:
(1) 8800
(2) 8890
(3) 8920
(4) 9040
19. A well with 14 m inside diameter is dug 10 m deep. Earth taken out of it, has been evenly spread all around it to a width of 21m to form an embankment. The height (in metres) of the embankment is:
(1) 1/2
(2) 2/3
(3) 3/4
(4) 3/5
20. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 sq metres and a perimeter of 46 metres. The length of its diagonal (in metres) is:
(1) 11
(2) 13
(3) 15
(4) 17
CISF Aptitude-English
CISF Model Question Paper
CISF General English Paper
Directions?(Q. 1?10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in boldto help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Politicians and generals talk of military strategies and manoeuvers but something completely different is needed. Stability will come only when economic opportunities exist, when youth can find jobs and support families rather than seeking their livelihood in violence. Peace can only be achieved with a withdrawal of foreign troops, sanctions and peace-keepers and the arrival of jobs, productive farms and factories, healthcare and schools. Repeatedly the fragile peace in impoverished countries has broken down because of the lack of economic follow-up. Despite promises of aid, the actual record of international aid to post war reconstruction is deficient.
Once the war ends agencies involved in post war relief efforts fail to understand how to start or restart economic development in a low income setting. They squander time, surplus aid funds and opportunities because they are not familiar with local conditions and do not under-stand their point of view. There are distinct phases of outside help to end a conflict. In the first phase focus is on providing food, water, shelter and medicine to refugees i.e., humani-tarian. In the second, emphasis is on the refugees returning home while in the last phase long term investments and strengthening of courts is the main focus.
However once a conflict is over aid agencies sanctioned by the World Bank send study groups instead of requisite personnel. There is a gap of several years before moving from humanitarian relief to economic deve-lopment. By the time such help arrives the war has restarted. It is possible to restart economic develop-ment through targeted ?quick impact? initiatives. Most economies in post conflict countries are based on agri-culture. Providing free packages of seeds, fertilizers and low cost equip-ment quickly will ensure that former soldiers will return to their farms and establish their livelihood. But the window of opportunity closes quickly and one has to implement these measures almost immediately.
1. Which of the following is a reason, post conflict reconstruc-tion efforts have failed ?
(A) Aid organizations do not understand issues from the pers-pective of the poor
(B) Rapid economic develop-ment in low income countries
(C) World Bank studies are not valid
(D) International aid organiza-tions become too involved in reconstruction efforts
(E) None of these
2. Where does the problem lie in implementing post war relief measures ?
(A) Aid agencies fail to study the situation
(B) Economic development measures are too rapid
(C) Focus on economic deve-lopment not humanitarian aid
(D) Lack of funds to implement programmes
(E) Lack of essential and quali-fied personnel
3. According to the author how can political stability be achieved ?
(A) Increasing the number of foreign troops in areas of conflict
(B) Depending more on foreign aid
(C) Following recommendations given by the World Bank
(D) Providing economic oppor-tunities
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following is not true in the context of the pas-sage ?
(A) Focus in the first phase of a war is on providing humani-tarian aid
(B) Sanctions are not a means to ensure peace
(C) Adequate time must be taken to plan and implement quick impact strategies
(D) Providing employment to the younger generation will prevent wars
(E) Focus on delivering justice through courts should be in the last phase of conflict aid
5. How can economic development be restarted in an impoverished country ?
(A) Long term studies should be commissioned
(B) Retaining soldiers in the army to ensure law and order
(C) Restrict number of aid agencies to avoid waste
(D) Focusing on agricultural ini-tiatives
(E) Deploying peace keepers in the country
6. What is the benefit of ?quick impact? aid ?
(A) Soldiers earn income from the army and their farms
(B) Providing alternate liveli-hood to soldiers before war can restart
(C) Free land is given to soldiers
(D) Price of equipment is low
(E) None of these
Directions?(Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
7. exist
(A) live
(B) fit
(C) create
(D) occur
(E) survive
8. squander
(A) lavish
(B) spend
(C) displace
(D) lose
(E) misuse
Directions?(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. fragile
(A) weak
(B) lasting
(C) long
(D) strong
(E) unstable
10. deficient
(A) surplus
(B) valued
(C) short
(D) secure
(E) repaired
Directions?(Q. 11?15) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it?
A. Strict obedience to these rules is called discipline.
B. In the same way, a society where rules are not followed cannot survive for long.
C. Only then a society can be run in an orderly fashion.
D. A society can exist properly only when men living in it agree upon certain rules of conduct.
E. For example, if the people on the road do not obey traffic rules there will be complete disorder and con-fusion.
F. Students must obey their teachers, children their parents, citizens the laws and so on and so forth.
11. Which of the following is the fifth sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
(E) F
12. Which of the following is the sixth (Last) sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
13. Which of the following is the second sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
14. Which of the following is the first sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
15. Which of the following is the third sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
(E) F
Directions?(Q. 16?20) Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully com-plete.
16. She did not like to????her decision like a dictator on her subordinates.
(A) divulge
(B) prompt
(C) enforce
(D) deploy
(E) make
17. People unfortunately???that money brings happiness.
(A) assume
(B) deny
(C) object
(D) rely
(E) conscious
18. The public have???a protest against the new rules of the budget.
(A) organize
(B) demonstrated
(C) compiled
(D) pursued
(E) launched
19. Sarojini Naidu will always be remembered for her??? to the national cause.
(A) blessing
(B) involvement
(C) pursuit
(D) dedication
(E) command
20. Poverty has to be???and the basic necessities of life should be made available to everyone.
(A) destroyed
(B) eliminated
(C) finished
(D) magnified
(E) considered
Directions?(Q. 21?25) In each of these questions, two of the words are related in some way i.e., they are similar or opposites. Pick out the option which represents that pair.
21. 1. moderate 2. easy 3. significant 4. strenuous
(A) 2?4
(B) 1?2
(C) 1?3
(D) 2?3
(E) 3?4
22. 1. focus 2. trivial 3. vital 4. site
(A) 1?2
(B) 2?4
(C) 1?3
(D) 3?4
(E) 2?3
23. 1. defer 2. dispute 3. prefer 4. challenge
(A) 2?3
(B) 1?3
(C) 2?1
(D) 2?4
(E) 3?4
24. 1. consequence 2. potential 3. influence 4. ability
(A) 4?3
(B) 2?4
(C) 2?3
(D) 1?3
(E) 4?1
25. 1. rebuke 2. oppose 3. praise 4. distrust
(A) 1?2
(B) 2?3
(C) 1?3
(D) 3?4
(E) 2?4
Directions?(Q. 26?35) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbersare printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Delinking of jobs from degrees is one of the ?(26)? features of our education ?(27)?. There has been a ?(28)? fall in ?(29)? in the acade-mic field in recent years. There is a ?(30)? of degree holders in the country, as a result, university degrees have ?(31)? their value and charm while the number of students in colleges and universities of the country has been ?(32)? rising. Consequently thousands of graduates and post graduates come out of these institutions and stand in queues waiting to get some ?(33)? jobs ?(34)? in the country. Moreover, these degree holders do not have any technical or vocational knowledge needed for a particular job. As a result, the number of educated unemployed has been rising ?(35)?. It has created a very serious problem.
26. (A) minor
(B) trivial
(C) unachievable
(D) irrelevant
(E) salient
27. (A) process
(B) policy
(C) development
(D) guideline
(E) procedures
28. (A) expected
(B) sheer
(C) rough
(D) steep
(E) gentle
29. (A) assessment
(B) evaluation
(C) competence
(D) fees
(E) value
30. (A) flood
(B) class
(C) party
(D) mob
(E) rabble
31. (A) mislaid
(B) lost
(C) increase
(D) found
(E) establish
32. (A) slowly
(B) hastily
(C) deeply
(D) waiting
(E) out
33. (A) suitable
(B) remain
(C) study
(D) live
(E) place
34. (A) frequency
(B) occurrence
(C) event
(D) chance
(E) blocking
35. (A) fever
(B) outshine
(C) lean
(D) dwarfed
(E) horribly
Placement Paper
CISF Elementary Mathematics and General intelligence, General awareness questions and answers detailed explanations,CISF previous years solved question papers. CISF free solved sample placement papers, CISF On line mock test for aptitude,reasoning,general awareness questions with answers, timer analytics
CISF aptitude
1. What is the number of ways of arranging, the letters of the word 'BANANA' so that no two N's appear together ?
(a) 40 (Ans)
(b) 60
(c) 80
(d) 100
2. Consider the equation (x - p) (x + 6) + 1 = 0 having integral co efficient. If the equation has integral roots, then what values can P have ?
(a) 4 or 8 (Ans)
(b) 5 or 10
(c) 6 or 12
(d) 3 or 6
3. What is the equivalent binary number of the decimal number 13.625 ?
(a) 1101.111
(b) 1111.101
(c) 1101.101 (Ans)
(d) 1111.111
4. What is the value of (i + v3 / - i + v3)200 + (i - v3 / i + v3)200 + 1 ?
(a) -1
(b) 0 (Ans)
(c) 1
(d) 2
5. The order of a set A is 3 and that of a set B is 2. What is the number of relations from A to B ?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 32
(d) 64 (Ans)
6. What is the value of logvaß(H) / logvaß g(H) ?
(a) logaß (a)
(b) logaßg (aß)
(c) logaß (aß g) (Ans)
(d) logaß (ß)
7. The 59th term of an AP is 449 and the 449th term is 59. Which term is equal to 0 (zero) ?
(a) 501st term
(b) 502nd term
(c) 508th term (Ans)
(d) 509th term
8. For a set A, consider the following statements :
1. A È P (A) = P (A)
2. {A} Ç P (A) = A
3. P (A) - {A} = P (A)
Where P denotes power set. Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (Ans)
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. If the AM and HM of two numbers are 27 and 12 respectively, the what is their GM equal to ?
(a) 12
(b) 18 (Ans)
(c) 24
(d) 27
10. If A = 1/2 and tan B = 1/3 then what is the value of (A + B) ?
(a) 0
(b) p/4 (Ans)
(c) p/2
(d) p
11. What is ? x4 + 1 / x2 + 1 dx equal to ?
(a) x3 / 3 - x + 4 tan-1 x + c
(b) x3 / 3 + x + 4 tan-1 x + c
(c) x3 / 3 - x + 2 tan-1 x + c (Ans)
(d) x3 / 3 - x - 4 tan-1 x + c
Where is a constant of integration.
12. What is the value of lim (x + 6 / x + 1)x+4 ?
1® ¥
(a) e
(b) e2
(c) e4
(d) e5 (Ans)
13. What is the area of the triangle with vertices (0, 2, 2), (2, 0, -1) and (3, 4, 0) ?
(a) 15/2 square units (Ans)
(b) 15 square units
(c) 7/2 square units
(d) 7 square units
14. If 1/2 - v-2 is one of the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 where, a, b, c are real, then what are the values of a, b, c respectively ?
(a) 6, -4, 1 (Ans)
(b) 4, 6, -1
(c) 3, -2, 1
(d) 6, 4, 1
15. If w is a complex cube root of unity and x = w2 - w - 2 then what is the value of x2 + 4x + 7 ?
(a) -2
(b) -1
(c) 0 (Ans)
(d) 1
16. If cos x ? -1, then what is sinx / 1 + cos x equal to ?
(a) cot x/2
(b) cot x/2
(c) tan x/2 (Ans)
(d) -tan x/2
17. The angle of elevation of the tip of a flag post from a point 5 m away from its base is 750. What is the approximate height of the flag post ?
(a) 15 m
(b) 17 m
(c) 19 m (Ans)
(d) 21 m
18. If A = P {1, 2} where P denotes the power set, then which one of the following is correct ?
(a) {1, 2} Ì A
(b) 1 Î A
(c) f Ï A
(d) {1, 2} Î A (Ans)
19. Let O (0, 0, 0), P(3, 4, 5), Q (m, n, r) and R (1, 1, 1) be the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order. What is the value of m + n + r?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 15 (Ans)
(d) More than 15
20. What is the solution of the differential equation 3ex tan y dx + (1 + ex) sec2 y dy = 0 ?
(a) (1 + ex) tan y = c
(b) (1 + ex)3 tan y = c
(c) (1 + ex)2 tan y = c
(d) (1 + ex) sec2 y = c (Ans)
Where c is a constant of integration
21. What is the locus of points, the difference of whose distance from two points being constant ?
(a) Pair of straight lines
(b) An ellipse
(c) A hyperbola (Ans)
(d) A parabola
22. What is the differential equation for y2 = 4a (x - a) ?
(a) yy' - 2xyy' + y2 = 0
(b) yy' (yy' + 2x) + y2 = 0
(c) yy' (yy' - 2x) + y2 = 0 (Ans)
(d) yy' - 2xyy' + y = 0
23. If (4, 0) and (-4, 0) are the foci of ellipse and the semi-minor axis is 3, then the ellipse passes through which one of the following points ?
(a) (2, 0)
(b) (0, 5)
(c) (0, 0)
(d) (5, 0) (Ans)
24. Under what condition do the planes bx - ay = n, cy - bz = l, az - cx = m intersect in a linev ?
(a) a + b + c = 0
(b) a = b = c
(c) al + bm + cn = 0 (Ans)
(d) l + m + n =
25. What is their maximum point on their curve x = exy ?
(a) (1, e)
(b) (1, e-1) (Ans)
(c) (e, 1)
(d) (e-1, 1)
26. The function f (x) = ex, x Î R is
(a) Onto but not one-one
(b) One-one onto
(c) One-one but not onto (Ans)
(d) Neither one-one not onto
27. If y sin-1 (4x / 1 + 4x2) , then what is dy/dx equal to ?
(a) 1/1+ 4x2
(b) 1/1+ 4x2
(c) 4/1+ 4x2 (Ans)
(d) 4x/1+ 4x2
Directions : for the next 3 (three) questions to follow :
The table below gives an incomplete frequency distribution with two missing frequencies f1 and f2.
Value of X Frequency 0 f1 1 f2 2 4 3 4 4 3
The total frequency is 18 and the arithmetic mean of X is 2.
28. What is the value of f2 ?
(a) 4 (Ans)
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
29. What is the standard deviation ?
(a) v5/2
(b) v5/3
(c) 4/3 (Ans)
(d) 16/9
30. What is the coefficient of variance ?
(a) 200/3 (Ans)
(b) 50v5/9
(c) 600/v5
(d) 150
31. What is the sum of all natural numbers between 200 and 400 which are divisible by 7 ?
(a) 6729
(b) 8712
(c) 8729 (Ans)
(d) 9276
32. The mean and variance of a binomial distribution are 8 and 4 respectively. What is P(X = 1) equal to ?
(a) 1/212 (Ans)
(b) 1/28
(c) 1/26
(d) 1/24
33. What is ?eIn x sin x dx equal to ?
(a) eIn x (sin x - cos x) + c
(b) (sin x - x cos x) + c (Ans)
(c) (x sin x + cos x) + c
(d) (sin x + x cos x) + c
Where c is a constant of integration.
34. An observed event B can occur after one of the three events A1, A2, A3. If P (A1) = P (A2) = 0.4, P(A3) = 0.2 and P(B|A1) = 0.25, P(B|A2) = 0.4, P(B|A3) = 0.125, What is the probability of A1 after observing B ?
(a) 1/3
(b) 6/19
(c) 20/57 (Ans)
(d) 2/5
35. Let X be the set of all graduates in India. Elements x and y in X are said to be related if they are graduates of the same university. Which one of the following statement is correct ?
(a) Relation is symmetric and transitive only
(b) Relation is reflexive and transitive only
(c) Relation is reflexive and symmetric only (Ans)
(d) Relation is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.
36. If x2 + y2 = 1, then what is 1 + x + iy equal to ?
1 + x - iy
(a) x - iy
(b) x + iy
(c) 2x
(d) -2iy
(Ans : )
37. Consider the following statements :
® ® ®
1. for any three vectors a, b, c ;
® ® ® ® ®
a. {(b + a) * (a + b + c)} = 0
2. For any three coplanar unit vectors
® ® ® ® ® ®
d, e, f ; (d * e). f = 1
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(Ans : )
Direction : For the next 3 (three) questions to follow : Consider the following lists : Each item under List I is associated with one or more items under List II.
List I List II
(Function) (Prperty)
(a) sin x 1. Periodic function
(b) cos x 2. None-periodic function
(c) tan x 3. Continuous at every point on (-¥, ¥)
4. Discontinuous function
5. Differentiable at every point on (-¥, ¥)
6. Not differentiable at every point on (-¥, ¥)
7. has period p
8. has period 2p
9. increase on (0, p/2)
10. decrease on (0, p/2)
11. increase on (p/2, p)
12. decrease on (p/2, p)
38. A is associated with
(a) 1, 3, 5, 8, 9, 12 (Ans)
(b) 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 11
(c) 1, 3, 5, 7, 10, 11
(d) None of these
39. B is associated with
(a) 2, 3, 5, 8, 9, 12
(b) 1, 3, 5, 8, 10, 12 (Ans)
(c) 1, 3, 5, 8, 9, 12
(d) None of these
40. C is assciated with
(a) 1, 4, 6, 7, 9, 11 (Ans)
(b) 2, 4, 6, 8, 9
(c) 1, 4, 6, 7, 9
(d) None of these
41. If p and q are positive integers, then which one of the following equations has p - vq as one of its roots ?
(a) x2 - 2px - (p2 - q) = 0
(b) x2 - 2px + (p2 - q) = 0 (Ans)
(c) x2 + 2px - (p2 - q) = 0
(d) x2 + 2px + (p2 - q) = 0
42. Given two squares of sides x and y such that y = x + x2. What is the rate of change of area of the second square with respect to the area of the first square ?
(a) 1 + 3x + 2x2 (Ans)
(b) 1 + 2x + 3x2
(c) 1 - 2x + 3x2
(d) 1 - 2x - 3x2
43. The planes px + 2y + 2z - 3 = 0 and 2x - y + z + 2 = 0 intersect at an angle p/4. What is the value of p2 ?
(a) 24 (Ans)
(b) 12
(c) 6
(d) 3
® ® ® ®
44. If the angle between the vectors a and b is p/3, what is the angle between - 5 a and 6 b ?
(a) p/6
(b) 2p/3 (Ans)
(c) 2p/5
(d) 3p/7
45. What is the degree of the differential equation d2y / dx2 - v1 + (dy/dx)3 = 0 ?
(a) 1 (Ans)
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
Where c is a constant of integration.
46. If ?x2/nxdx = x3/m /nx + x3/n + c, then what are the values of m and n respectively ?
(a) 1/3, -1/9
(b) 3, -9 (Ans)
(c) 3, 9
(d) 3, 3
47. What is the principal value of cosec-1 (-v2) ?
(a) p/4
(b) p/2
(c) p/-4 (Ans)
(d) 0
48. If f : R ® R, g : R ® R and g (x) = x + 3 and (fog) (x) = (x + 3)2, then what is the value of f(-3) ?
(a) -9
(b) 0
(c) 9 (Ans)
(d) 3
49. What is the value of lim (x - 1)2 /|x - 1| ?
x ® 1
(a) 0 (Ans)
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) The limit does not exist
50. A ballon is pumped at the rate of 4 cm3 per second. What is the rate at which its surface area increases when its radius is 4 cm ?
(a) 1 cm2/sec
(b) 2 cm2/sec (Ans)
(c) 3 cm2/sec
(d) 4 cm2/sec
51. What is the value of 1 + tan 150/1 - tan 150 ?
(a) 1
(b) 1/v2
(c) 1/v3
(d) v3 (Ans)
52. If f (x) = kx3 - 9x2 + 9x + 3 is monotonically increasing in every interval, then which one of the following is correct ?
(a) k < 3
(b) k = 3
(c) k > 3
(d) k = 3 (Ans)
CISF Question-Paper
CISF Previous Paper
1. Right to Equality under the Constitution of India is a Fundamental Right: This stands for
1. Equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
2. Prohibition of discrimination on any ground whatsoever in.public life.
3. Reservation of seats and posts for weaker sections of society in government services and educational institutions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2and 3
2. According to the Constitution of India, India is a
(a) Union of states
(b) Federal state
(c) Partly federal and partly unitary state
(d) Unitary state with federal features
3. Which one among the following was characterized by Mahatma Gandhi as a "post-dated cheque on a failing bank"?
(a) Cripps Proposals
(b) McDonald Award
(c) Wavell Plan
(d) Simon Commission Report
4. Amnesty International is an NGO that campaigns for
(a) international peace
(b) disarmament
(c) economic cooperation
(d) protection of human rights
5. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an international organization which sets the rules for Global Trade. It was set up in the year 1995 as the successor to the
(a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Bank
(d) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
6. Who among the following is not appointed by the President of India ?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Governors of the States
7. The Constituent Assembly of India was set up according to the proposal of the
(a) Cripps Mission
(b) Cabinet Mission
(c) Mountbatten Plan
(d) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
8. In the context of Democracy, which one among the following is not correct ?
(a) On the basis of the means and ends :In, a democracy state is the means and welfare of man is the end
(b) On the basis of peoples' consent :Democracy functions according to public will
(c) On the basis of rights and freedom :Democracy safeguards the rights and liberties of citizens
(d) On the basis of administration Democracy is rule of one strong man.Individuals are obliged to obey his command
9. With which one among the following countries did India sign the 'Treaty of Friendship' in August 1971 for 20 years ?
(a) United States of America
(b) Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
(c) Pakistan
(d) China
10. The geothermal power plant of Manikaran is located in
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim
(d) Himachal Pradesh
11. Extensive Mangrove vegetation in India is found in
(a) The Mahanadi Delta
(b) The Rann of Kutch
(c) The Sunderbans
(d) The Godavari Delta
12. Which one among the following is a form of precipitation ?
(a) Dew
(b) Frost
(c) Sleet
(d) Sublimation
13. Which one among the following is not a tributary of the river Godavari ?
(a) Tungabhadra
(b) Indravati
(c) Wainganga
(d) Pranhita
14. The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that oxygen will be almost in negligible quantity at the height of
(a) 10 km
(b) 50 km
(c) 75 km
(d) 120 km
15. Regur soil is also known as
(a) Laterite soil
(b) Arid soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Peat soil
16. Which one among the following is the first biosphere reserve of India ?
(a) Sunderbans
(b) Simlipal
(c) Manas
(d) Nilgiri
17. The beginning of a significant private-public sector participation in road projects was made in India with the launching of India's largest road project called
(a) National Highways Development Project
(b) Central Road Board Project
(c) Road Development Project
(d) National Roadways Development Scheme
18. Which one among the following price indices does not indicate net asset value of a stock ?
(a) Residex
(b) Sensex
(c) Nifty
(d) Wholesale Price Index
19. Which one among the following was not a recommendation of Chelliah Committee on tax reform ?
(a) Removal of various concessions and exemptions
(b) Reduction of import duties on all commodities
(c) Introduction of MODVAT (Modified Value Added Tax) to avoid cascading effect of indirect tax
(d) Introduction of simplified tax scheme for small traders
20. Portfolio investment does not consist of
(a) Foreign Institutional Investors
(b) American Deposit Receipts
(c) Global Deposit Receipts
(d) German Deposit Receipts
21. Which one among the following does not fall under WTO's mission ?
(a) Assist developing countries in its trade activities
(b) Set rules for trade policy
(c) Regulate international financial transactions and markets
(d) Protect small and weaker countries from larger, more powerful ones
22. Which one among the following regarding the basic objectives of India's First Five Year Plan is not correct ?
(a) Emphasized on agricultural development
(b) Advocated huge imports
(c) Advocated price stability
(d) Advocated power sector development
23. Which one among the following is the currency of Venezuela ?
(a) Lira
(b) Peso
(c) Bolivar
(d) Krone
24. Six industrialized nations had an association before formation of G-8 Summit. The original members were U.S., U.K, France, Germany, Italy and Japan. Subsequently two nations joined. The two countries are
(a) India and China
(b) Brazil and South Africa
(c) Russia and Canada
(d) New Zealand and Mexico
25. What is the colour of `Black Box' that is found in Aircraft ?
(a) Black
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) Orange
26. Which India-born biologist bagged the World's first International award for outstanding scientific work that promotes sustainable development globally ?
(a) Vandana Shiva
(b) Medha Patkar
(c) Kamal Bawa
(d) Gyalwang Drupka
27. Who among the following was recently honoured with Dadasaheb Phalke Award (2011) ?
(a) Soumitra Chatterjee
(b) K. Balachander
(c) D. Ramanayudu
(d) Supriya Choudhury
28. Who among the following received the Templeton Prize in May,2012 for his contribution to "affirming life's spiritual dimension" ?
(a) Desmond Tutu
(b) Dalai'Lama
(c) Anna Hazare
(d) Baba Ramdev
29. Which State Government has recently imposed restrictions on the visit of foreign tourists to the areas inhabited by tribals ?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Odisha
30. Consider the following statements :
1. A road has been named in the name of India hockey player Dhyanchand in Australia.
2. Australia has been selected as a host country for 2014 Commonwealth Games.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CISF Question-Paper
CISF Previous Year Solved Question Paper
General Knowledge:
1. The maximum number of goals scored by India in the history of international hockey tournaments were in 1932 Olympics in Los Angeles when it beat USA by?
(A) 26?0
(B) 24?1
(C) 22?0
(D) 20?0
2. When was the Jawahar Rozgar Yojna launched ?
(A) 1985
(B) 1987
(C) 1989
(D) 1991
3. The cause for the Tsunami, as deduced by the seismologists, is?
(A) gravitational pull of the moon
(B) low pressure trough in the ocean
(C) deformation of sea floor and vertical displacement of water
(D) sudden change in the monsoon wind
4. Eden Garden (Kolkata) is associated with?
(A) Basket Ball
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey
5. Which one of the following states of India records the highest sexratio ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Tamilnadu
6. Major fishing grounds are found in?
(A) Northern Hemisphere
(B) Southern Hemisphere
(C) Eastern Hemisphere
(D) Western Hemisphere
7. When was the first National Forest Policy issued by the Government of India ?
(A) 1952
(B) 1940
(C) 1942
(D) 1999
8. Which one of the following is not a HYV of wheat ?
(A) Sonalika
(B) Ratna
(C) Kalyan Sona
(D) Girija
9. What is the maximum Water Vapour content in the atmosphere ?
(A) 2 to 3 per cent
(B) 3 to 4 per cent
(C) 4 to 5 per cent
(D) 5 to 6 per cent
10. Who is the first Asian to become the Head of the prestigious Trinity College of Cambridge University ?
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) Mahendra Chaudhary
(C) Nirod C. Chaudhary
(D) Ketaki Mushari Dyson
11. Who gave the concept of ?Total Revolution? ?
(A) Jayaprakash Narayan
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Lenin
12. The first mid-term elections for Lok Sabha were held in?
(A) 1962
(B) 1971
(C) 1977
(D) 1980
13. Who declared as his ultimate aim the wiping of every tear from every eye ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Sardar Patel
14. Japan?s Parliament is known as?
(A) Diet
(B) Dail
(C) Yuan
(D) Shora
15. The convention that ?once a speaker always a speaker? is followed in?
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) India
16. The headquarters of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is at?
(A) New York
(B) Paris
(C) Geneva
(D) Rome
17. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the former Indian President, received the prestigious Bharat Ratna award in the year?
(A) 1992
(B) 1995
(C) 1997
(D) 1998
18. The Indian actor who played a prominent role in the Hollywood production : ?The Ghost and The Darkness? is?
(A) Om Puri
(B) Naseeruddin Shah
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Anil Kapoor
19. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in?
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
20. PSLV stands for?
(A) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(B) Polish Satellite Launch Vehicle
(C) Perfect Satellite Launching Verifier
(D) Preparatory Satellite Launching Vehicle
21. Indira Gandhi Cup is associated with?
(A) Basketball
(B) Football
(C) Boxing
(D) Cricket
22. Who is the author of the novel ?DEVDAS? ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(C) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
(D) Munshi Premchand
23. Nano technology deals with objects with dimensions in the range of?
(A) 10?3 m
(B) 10?6 m
(C) 10?9 m
(D) 10?12 m
24. The moon is showing its same face to the earth because?
(A) It is not rotating about its own axis
(B) Its rotation and revolution are opposite
(C) Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same
(D) Its rotation is faster than its revolution
25. Devaluation of currency leads to?
(A) expansion of export trade
(B) contraction of import trade
(C) expansion of import substitution
(D) All of the above
26. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of?
(A) Commercial bills
(B) Foreign exchange
(C) Gold
(D) Government bonds
27. Which is not the objective of Public Procurement and Distribution system followed by Indian Government ?
(A) Maintain price stability through creation of butter stocks
(B) Protect the interests of both consumers and poor farmers
(C) Control the production of food grains
(D) Reduce personal and regional inequality in the distribution
28. Where is the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade located ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad
29. The National Institute for Agricultural Marketing is located at?
(A) Jaipur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Nagpur
(D) Hyderabad
30. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by?
(A) Total population of the country
(B) Total working population
(C) Area of the country
(D) Volume of capital used
31. The currency of Thailand is?
(A) Bhat
(B) Rupiah
(C) Yuan
(D) Yen
32. World Bank helps countries with loans for the purpose of?
(A) reconstruction and development
(B) stimulating private investment
(C) tackling foreign exchange crisis
(D) meeting deficits in government budget
33. In Indian agriculture, the period from July to October-November is called?
(A) Rabi season
(B) Kharif season
(C) Pre-kharif season
(D) Slack season
34. Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of public sector units occur when the government sells?
(A) 5% of shares
(B) 10% of shares
(C) 15% of shares
(D) 20% of shares
35. The Narasimham Committee (1991) on financial reforms proposed for establishment of a?
(A) Four tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(B) Three tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(C) Two tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(D) Unified control by the apex institutions
36. The Planning Commission of India was constituted in the year?
(A) 1942
(B) 1947
(C) 1950
(D) 1955
37. Who is the guardian of Fundamental Rights enumerated in Indian Constitution ?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) Constitution
(D) President
38. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the question of?
(A) Centre/state relations
(B) Legislative problems
(C) Union territories? problems
(D) Tribal areas
39. The Judges of the High Court hold office?
(A) during the pleasure of the Chief Justice of India
(B) till they have attained 62 years of age
(C) till they have attained 65 years of age
(D) as long as they desire
40. The United Nations officially came into existence on?
(A) January 1, 1942
(B) October 3, 1944
(C) October 24, 1945
(D) June 26, 1945
41. The English Crown is an example of?
(A) Real executive
(B) Quasi-real executive
(C) Nominal executive
(D) Nominated executive
42. The annual report of the UPSC is submitted to?
(A) The President
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
43. In ends and means relationship, Gandhiji believed?
(A) Means become good if they serve the end
(B) Means and ends are watertight compartments
(C) Means determine the end
(D) End is everything, no matter what or how the means are
44. The ?Speaker?s vote? in the Lok Sabha is called?
(A) Casting vote
(B) Sound vote
(C) Direct vote
(D) Indirect vote
45. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ?Fundamental Rights? ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
46. Which is the Greek classic that Gandhi translated into Gujarati ?
(A) Plato?s Republic
(B) Dialogues of Plato
(C) Aristotle?s Politics
(D) Aristotle?s Nicomachian Ethics
47. To be a regional party, the minimum percentage of votes, that a party needs to secure in any election is?
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
48. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Eleven
(B) Nine
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve
49. Indian Penal Code came into operation in?
(A) 1858
(B) 1860
(C) 1859
(D) 1862
50. The First Viceroy and Governor-General of British India was?
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Sir John Lawrence
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Lord Canning
General English:
Directions?(Q. 1?10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in boldto help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Politicians and generals talk of military strategies and manoeuvers but something completely different is needed. Stability will come only when economic opportunities exist, when youth can find jobs and support families rather than seeking their livelihood in violence. Peace can only be achieved with a withdrawal of foreign troops, sanctions and peace-keepers and the arrival of jobs, productive farms and factories, healthcare and schools. Repeatedly the fragile peace in impoverished countries has broken down because of the lack of economic follow-up. Despite promises of aid, the actual record of international aid to post war reconstruction is deficient.
Once the war ends agencies involved in post war relief efforts fail to understand how to start or restart economic development in a low income setting. They squander time, surplus aid funds and opportunities because they are not familiar with local conditions and do not under-stand their point of view. There are distinct phases of outside help to end a conflict. In the first phase focus is on providing food, water, shelter and medicine to refugees i.e., humani-tarian. In the second, emphasis is on the refugees returning home while in the last phase long term investments and strengthening of courts is the main focus.
However once a conflict is over aid agencies sanctioned by the World Bank send study groups instead of requisite personnel. There is a gap of several years before moving from humanitarian relief to economic deve-lopment. By the time such help arrives the war has restarted. It is possible to restart economic develop-ment through targeted ?quick impact? initiatives. Most economies in post conflict countries are based on agri-culture. Providing free packages of seeds, fertilizers and low cost equip-ment quickly will ensure that former soldiers will return to their farms and establish their livelihood. But the window of opportunity closes quickly and one has to implement these measures almost immediately.
1. Which of the following is a reason, post conflict reconstruc-tion efforts have failed ?
(A) Aid organizations do not understand issues from the pers-pective of the poor
(B) Rapid economic develop-ment in low income countries
(C) World Bank studies are not valid
(D) International aid organiza-tions become too involved in reconstruction efforts
(E) None of these
2. Where does the problem lie in implementing post war relief measures ?
(A) Aid agencies fail to study the situation
(B) Economic development measures are too rapid
(C) Focus on economic deve-lopment not humanitarian aid
(D) Lack of funds to implement programmes
(E) Lack of essential and quali-fied personnel
3. According to the author how can political stability be achieved ?
(A) Increasing the number of foreign troops in areas of conflict
(B) Depending more on foreign aid
(C) Following recommendations given by the World Bank
(D) Providing economic oppor-tunities
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following is not true in the context of the pas-sage ?
(A) Focus in the first phase of a war is on providing humani-tarian aid
(B) Sanctions are not a means to ensure peace
(C) Adequate time must be taken to plan and implement quick impact strategies
(D) Providing employment to the younger generation will prevent wars
(E) Focus on delivering justice through courts should be in the last phase of conflict aid
5. How can economic development be restarted in an impoverished country ?
(A) Long term studies should be commissioned
(B) Retaining soldiers in the army to ensure law and order
(C) Restrict number of aid agencies to avoid waste
(D) Focusing on agricultural ini-tiatives
(E) Deploying peace keepers in the country
6. What is the benefit of ?quick impact? aid ?
(A) Soldiers earn income from the army and their farms
(B) Providing alternate liveli-hood to soldiers before war can restart
(C) Free land is given to soldiers
(D) Price of equipment is low
(E) None of these
Directions?(Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
7. exist
(A) live
(B) fit
(C) create
(D) occur
(E) survive
8. squander
(A) lavish
(B) spend
(C) displace
(D) lose
(E) misuse
Directions?(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. fragile
(A) weak
(B) lasting
(C) long
(D) strong
(E) unstable
10. deficient
(A) surplus
(B) valued
(C) short
(D) secure
(E) repaired
Directions?(Q. 11?15) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it?
A. Strict obedience to these rules is called discipline.
B. In the same way, a society where rules are not followed cannot survive for long.
C. Only then a society can be run in an orderly fashion.
D. A society can exist properly only when men living in it agree upon certain rules of conduct.
E. For example, if the people on the road do not obey traffic rules there will be complete disorder and con-fusion.
F. Students must obey their teachers, children their parents, citizens the laws and so on and so forth.
11. Which of the following is the fifth sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
(E) F
12. Which of the following is the sixth (Last) sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
13. Which of the following is the second sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
14. Which of the following is the first sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
15. Which of the following is the third sentence ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
(E) F
Directions?(Q. 16?20) Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully com-plete.
16. She did not like to????her decision like a dictator on her subordinates.
(A) divulge
(B) prompt
(C) enforce
(D) deploy
(E) make
17. People unfortunately???that money brings happiness.
(A) assume
(B) deny
(C) object
(D) rely
(E) conscious
18. The public have???a protest against the new rules of the budget.
(A) organize
(B) demonstrated
(C) compiled
(D) pursued
(E) launched
19. Sarojini Naidu will always be remembered for her??? to the national cause.
(A) blessing
(B) involvement
(C) pursuit
(D) dedication
(E) command
20. Poverty has to be???and the basic necessities of life should be made available to everyone.
(A) destroyed
(B) eliminated
(C) finished
(D) magnified
(E) considered
CISF Question Paper
1. Which among the following was the first private sector establishment to get CISF security cover ?
(a) Infosys Campus at Mysore
(b) Infosys Campus at Bengaluru
(c) Reliance Refinery at Jamnagar
(d) Electronic City at Bengaluru
2. CISF is providing security to private sector enterprises on the basis of
(a) Access control only
(b) Access control and response force deployment
(c) Response force deployment only
(d) Total responsibility of access control, perimeter security and response force deployment to secure the enterprise
3. Which one of the following reflects correctly the meaning of the statement "Industrial Security is a dynamic concept" ?
(a) Every senior officer has his own perception and ideas which change principles of industrial security
(b) Government's priority of industrial security varies from time to time
(c) Security requirements and threat perception vary according to place and time
(d) Officers handling industrial security change frequently
4. When CISF is to be inducted in the private sector priority is given to
(a) units located in cities
(b) units located in remote areas
(c) units located close to the border
(d) units located in naxal, militancy affected or vulnerable areas
5. Which one of the following is not the duty of the members of the force ?
(a) Look after the needs and requirements of the commanding officer
(b) Obey and execute all orders issued to him by his superior authority
(c) Protect and safeguard the industrial undertaking
(d) Protect and safeguard the employees of the industrial undertakings
6. Which of the. following is/are natural disaster(s) ?
(a) Floods
(b) Fire
(c) Drought
(d) All of the above
7. Who is the chairperson of National Disaster Management Authority ?
(a) Union Home Secretary
(b) President of India
(c) National Security Advisor
(d) None of the above
8. During floods the first thing force personnel should do is to
(a) arrest the criminal elements first
(b) wait for senior officer to arrive
(c) contact NGOs for help
(d) immediately take action for rescue of persons surrounded by flood waters
9. Which one of the following is not a poisonous snake ?
(a) Cobra
(b) Krait
(c) Viper
(d) River snake
10.During fire disaster the first duty of policemofficer is to
(a) take precaution to prevent spread of fire
(b) inform and wait for senior officer to arrive
(c) collect all the property at one place
(d) console all the victims of fire
11. TIPS software is used in the X-BIS machines during the pre-embarkation checks to
(a) detect nuclear material
(b) detect all"types of explosives
(c) monitor the efficiency of the screener
(d) None of the above
12. Which is the designated Civil Aviation Security Regulatory Authority in India ?
(a) DGCA
(b) BCAS
(c) AAI
(d) AITA
13. You find that the baggage of the passengers is checked at the entry point of the terminal building. Which security plan is adopted at that airport ?
(a) Hold area plan
(b) Concourse plan
(c) Boarding gate plan
(d) None of the above
14.At the airports, which agency carries out
(a) CISF
(b) Local police
(c) Airlines security
(d) Ground Handling Agency
15. Which of the following is/are essential for field craft ?
(a) Understand the layout of the land and identify shelters
(b) Create shelter where it does not exist for taking position
(c) Knowledge regarding the weapon and its effective use
(d) All of the above
16. What is field craft ?
(a) Understanding of the field where you are deployed
(b) Craft for drawing the map of the field
(c) While protecting and securing from fire arms, taking position behind proper man-made/natural shelter and using your fire arms effectively
(d) None of the above
17.In its day-to-day work, CISF mainly deals with
(a) Espionage
(b) Sabotage
(c) Subversion
(d) None of the above
18. Difference between a contact and a source is
(a) contact gives routine information
(b) source gives inside information
(c) contact is mentioned in the register
(d) source is formally paid and registered
19. Which one among the following is installed as a covert system in Perimeter Intrusion Detection ?
(a) Taut wire
(b) Electronic fence
(c) Buried cable
(d) CCTV system.
20.Which one of the following is/are used for perimeter security ?
(a) Intrusion detection device
(b) Power fence
(c) Taut wire
(d) All of the above
21.Which one of the following agencies is the `watch-dog' of all nuclear activities in India ?
(a) Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
(b) Atomic Energy Regulatory Board(AERB)
(c) International Atomic Energy Agency(IAEA)
(d) Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL)
22. The Exclusive Zone in a Nuclear Power Plant (NPP) from centre of a nuclear reactor is
(a) 0.6 km
(b) 1.1 km
(c) 1.6 km
(d) 2.1 km
23. Habitation is not allowed in the Exclusive Zone around a Nuclear Power Plant (NPP) mainly because of
(a) Radiological reasons
(b) Security reasons
(c) Disturbance to scientists
(d) All of the above
24. In a Nuclear Power Plant (NPP), Perimeter Intrusion Detection System (PIDS) is put up at
(a) Exclusive Zone
(b) Main Plant Boundary
(c) Waterfront
(d) Operating island
25. Intelligent camera in a CCTV system performs which one of the following functions ?
(a) Identifies a potential threat by measuring his intelligent quotient (IQ)
(b) Identifies a potential threat on the basis of pre-determined behaviour patterns
(c) Spots an un-identified object
(d) None of the above
26. What is the meaning of "Graded Access Control" in a vital installation ?
(a) Access is granted depending on the pay grade of the person
(b) Access is granted only on the basis of need to have an access to the installation
(c) For very vital installations, security' personnel having' higher pay are posted to guard it
(d) These are grades given to various installations
27. "Video Analytics" is
(a) Analysis of various videos of CCTV cameras by a trained person sitting in control room
(b) Analysis of thermal imaging camera pictures by control room in-charge
(c) Computer software which analyses images of CCTV
(d) A tool used for production of catchy videos for MTV
28. Which one of the following is the most advanced form of biometric system ?
(a) Iris print
(b) Palm geometry
(c) Finger print
(d) Foot print
29. TIP software is installed in X-ray Baggage Inspection System (X-BIS) to
(a) help screeners increase throughput of X-BIS
(b) decrease radiation levels
(c) help screeners increase clarity of X-ray images
(d) help screeners maintain efficiency and alertness
30. The Door Frame Metal Detectors (DFMDs) are designed to detect
(a) Iron, steel, lead and aluminium objects
(b) Ferrous and non-ferrous metals only
(c) Lead, aluminium, ferrous and non-ferrous metals
(d) Lead, aluminium, ferrous and non-ferrous metals and metallic alloys
31. Bomb blanket and bomb basket are
(a) detection equipments
(b) disposal equipments
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
32. Non-Linear' Junction Detector is used as an equipment of which one of the following ?
(a) Perimeter Security
(b) Bomb disposal
(c) Access control
(d) None of the above, as it is used as an equipment of railway safety
33. Which one of the following equipments is generally used for real time detection of semi-conductor devices, buried underground ?
(a) UVSS
(b) ETD
(c) HHMD
(d) NLJD
34. Sample collection to check the presence of explosives is carried out by
(a) surface wipe for trace particles using filter unit
(b) surface wipe for vapour using filter unit
(c) air,.collection for trace particles
(d) All of the above
35. Remotely Controlled Vehicle (RCV) is used in
(a) conducting experiments on other planets
(b) bomb disposal
(c) conducting surveillance
(d) All of the above