Bank-of-Baroda-BOB Placement Paper

Bank of Baroda Solved Previous Year Question Paper
Reasoning:

Q. 1-5. Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
G M 5 I D # J K E 2 P T 4 W % A F 3 U 8 $ N V 6 Q @ 7 H 1 © B 9 ? Z

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) D J I
(2) F U A
(3) H @ 1
(4) B ? ©
(5) I # 5

2. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?D J K 2 T 4 % F 3 ?
(1) U S V
(2) U $ N
(3) 8 N V
(4) 8 N I
(5) None of these

3. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by a consonant?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

5. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the twelfth from the right end of the above arrangement?
(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) K
(4) A
(5) None of these

Q. 6-10. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E , F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. F is third to the right of B who is third to the right of H. A is third to the left of H. C is fourth to the left of A. E is third to the right of D who is not a neighbour of A.

6. In which of the following pairs the second person is to the immediate right of the first person?
(1) HC
(2) BE
(3) GB
(4) FA
(5) None of these

7. Who is second to the right of D?
(1) F
(2) G
(3) A
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

8. Who is third to the left of G?
(1) H
(2) D
(3) C
(4) F
(5) None of these

9. Who is fourth to the left of C?
(1) F
(2) A
(3) E
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

10. What is B’s position with respect to D?
(A) Fourth to the right
(B) Fifth to the left
(C) Fifth to the right
(1) (A) only
(2) (B) only
(3) (A) and (B) only
(4) (C) and (D) only
(5) None of these

Q.11-15. In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), n(3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Letter : P M A K T I J E R N D F U W B
Digit/Symbol : 7 # 8 % 1 9 2 @ 3 © S 4 ? 5 6
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the last letters of the group are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged.

11. BDATFE
(1) 6$8146
(2) 6$814@
(3) @$814@
(4) @$8146
(5) None of these

12. AWBRND:
(1) $563©8
(2) 8563©$
(3) 8365©$
(4) 8536©$
(5) None of these

13. EMNTKU:
(1) ?#©1%@
(2) @#©14?
(3) @#©1%?
(4) #@©1%?
(5) None of these

14. MDEAJI:
(1) 1$@82#
(2) #$@821
(3) 1$@821
(4) #$@82#
(5) None of these

15. RKUMFP:
(1) 7%?#43
(2) 3?%#47
(3) 3%?#43
(4) 3%?#47
(5) None of these

Q.16-20. In the following questions, the symbols S, @, ©, % and ? are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P ? Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer :
(1) if only Conclusion I is true.
(2) if only Conclusion II is true.
(3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
(4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

Statements :
16. R $ M, M © F, F % J.
Conclusions :
I. R $ J
II. F © R
(Ans : 4)

Statements :
17. M © D, D @ K, K ? N.
Conclusions :
I. N $ D
II. K $ N
(Ans : 2)

Statements :
18. B @ D, D $ M, M ? N.
Conclusions :
I. N @ D
II. D $ N
(Ans : 2)

Statements :
19. F $ W, W % J, K @ N.
Conclusions :
I. J @ F
II. N % W
(Ans : 4)

Statements :
20. F © T, T % R, R $ W.
Conclusions :
I. W © T
II. R © T
(Ans : 4)

Banking Related Questions:

1. Which of the following is example of financial assets?
(1) National Saving Certificates
(2) Infrastructure Bonds
(3) Indira Vikas Patra
(4) Krishi Vikas Patra
(5) All of the above

2. Capital market is a market which deals in
(1) short-term funds
(2) long-term funds
(3) gilt-edge securities
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

3. Regional Rural Banks fall within supervisory purview of
(1) SBI
(2) RBI
(3) SEBI
(4) IRDA
(5) None of these

4. IRDA with its headquarters at ??? is the regulatory authority for all insurance companies in India including the Life Insurance Corporation of India.
(1) Hyderabad
(2) Bengaluru
(3) Mumbai
(4) Delhi
(5) Chandigarh

5. Mutual Funds fall within 7 supervisory purview of
(1) SBI
(2) RBI
(3) SEBI
(4) IRDA
(5) None of these

6. Which of the following does not come under the category of Development Banks?
(1) Industrial Development Bank of India
(2) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(3) Industrial Investment Bank of India
(4) State Finance Corporation
(5) Export-import Bank

7. Main financial instruments of corporate sector are
(1) Shares
(ii) Debentures
(iii) Public Deposits
(iv) Loan from Institutions
Select the correct answer by using of the following codes
(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) iii and iv
(4)1, ii and iv
(5) All I, ii, iii and iv

8. Financial institutions
(1) promote savings
(2) mobilise savings
(3) allocate savings among different users
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

9. Which of the following is not an / example of primary securities?
(1) Bills
(2) Bonds
(3) Shares
(4) Book debts
(5) New currency

10. Indian Financial System / comprises of
(1) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(2) Non-banking Financial Institutions
(3) Urban Cooperative Banks
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

11. The Bombay Stock Exchange was 7 made functional as early as
(1) 1870
(2) 1901
(3) 1935
(4) 1951
(5) 1949

12. The Unit Trust of India come into existence in
(1) 1964
(2) 1970
(3) 1975
(4) 1980
(5) 1982

13. 19 July 1969, how commercial Banks were nationalised?
(1) 13
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 16
(5) 20

14. New Private Banks are being given licenses since
(1) 1991
(2) 1992
(3) 1993
(4) 1995
(5) 2001

15. The gilt-edged market refers to the market for
(i) Government securities
(ii) Semi-government securities
(iii) Corporate securities
Select the correct answer
(1) only i
(2) i and ii
(3) ii and iii
(4) i, ii and iii
(5) only iii

16. First share market in India established in
(1) Delhi
(2) Mumbai
(3) Kolkata
(4) Chennai
(5) None of these

17. Consider the following statements:
(i) Securities that have an original maturity that is greater than one year are traded in capital markets.
(ii) The best known capital market securities are stocks and bonds.
Select the correct answer
(1) (i) is true and (ii) is false
(2) (i) is false and (ii) is true
(3) Both are true
(4) Both are false
(5) None of the above

18. Consider the following statements:
(i) Securities that have an original maturity that is greater than one year are traded in money markets.
(ii) The best known money market securities are stocks and bonds.
(1) (i) is true and (ii) is false
(2) (i) is false and (ii) is true
(3) Both are true
(4) Both are false
(5) None of the above

19. The primary issuers of capital market securities include
(1) the Central Government
(2) the local Government
(3) corporations
(4) the Central and Local Governments and corporations
(5) Local Government and corporations

20. Which of the following is a / characteristic of a capital market instrument?
(1) Liquidity
(2) Marketability
(3) Long maturity
(4) Liquidity premium
(5) All of the above

General Awareness:

1. A team of Scientists led by Takehiko at Yokohama City University grew sperms in a testtube.
Consider the following statements regarding the scientific break through.
(i) Sperms were grown in a Test-tube for the first time.
(ii) The Scientific breakthrough could help millions of infertile men to attain parenthood.
Now choose the right option:
(a) Both i and ii statements are correct
(b) Only i is correct
(c) Only ii is correct
(d) Both I and ii statements are wrong

2. Scientists, at the Wellcome Trust Sanger Institute UK, for the first time identified genetic mutations that lead to the development of acute myeloid leukaemia. Acute myeloid leukaemia is
a cancer of the__.
(a) White Blood Cells (WBC)
(b) Red blood Cells (RBC)
(c) Liver Cells
(d) Stem Cells

3. Scientists recently developed a computer that could be controlled by the power of thought. It would help people unable to speak or move. What is the name of the technology which they used
to develop this kind of computer?
(a) electrocortiography
(b) symbian C++
(c) java
(d) flash lite

4. British Scientists at Edinburgh University, in the second week of April 2011, created human kidneys from stem cells in a break through which could lead to transplant patients growing their
organs. Consider the following statements regarding Kidneys in human body.
(i) A person?s kidneys process about 200 quarts of blood to sift out about 2 quarts of waste products and extra water.
(ii) The word ??renal? refers to the Lungs in Human Body.
Choose the right option:
(a) Both i and ii statements are correct.
(b) Only i is correct.
(c) Only ii is correct.
(d) Neither i nor ii is correct.

5. GSAT-8 was launched on 21 May 2011 by Ariane-5 from Kourou, French Guiana. Consider the following statements on GSAT-8.
(i) Its weight is 3100 kg.
(ii) It is the largest and heaviest satellite built by the ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation).
Choose the right option.
(a) Both i and ii are correct.
(b) Only i is correct.
(c) Only ii is correct.
(d) Neither i nor ii is correct.

6. India registered a __ per cent increase in tiger population in 2010, according to a report, Status of tigers, co-predators and prey in India-2010, released on 28 July 2011.
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 15
(d) 12

7. The world?s first double-leg transplant was performed by doctors in which one of the following countries?
(a) Spain
(b) UK
(c) USA
(d) India

8. The WHO (World Health Organisation)?s International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) stated in its study that radiation from cellphone handsets is possibly carcinogenic to
humans and can cause glioma. Glioma is a type of brain cancer.
(a) Brain Cancer
(b) Blood Cancer
(c) Lung Cancer
(d) Liver Cancer

9. China Successfully launched its first unmanned space laboratory. What is the name of this space laboratory?
(a) Tiangong-1
(b) MEASAT-1
(c) ZY-2
(d) CH 726

10. What is the name of the gene that can reduce the length of time people sleep?
(a) ABCC9
(b) ACCB9
(c) ABCC 6
(d) ABBB9

11. In Japan, rice with radiation levels exceeding the country?s safety levels was discovered for the first time since the nuclear disaster at Fukushima in early 2011. The acronym LASER stands
for____.
(a) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
(b) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Rays
(c) Light Amplified by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
(d) Light and Sound emitted by Radiation

12. Union Environment Ministry approved the Lavasa township project in Pune. Consider the following statements:
(i) Lavasa is a private, planned city being built near Pune.
(ii) The project is being developed by HCC ( Hindustan Construction Company).
Choose the right option:
(a) Both i and ii are correct.
(b) Only i is correct.
(c) Only ii is correct.
(d) Neither i nor ii is correct.

13. Arctic ozone hole was detected at record level. The journal nature reported. The ozone layer blocks _____from the Sun.
(a) Infra-Red rays
(b) Ultraviolet-B rays
(c) Ultraviolet-C rays
(d) X-rays

14. India scientists succeeded in decoding the genome of the arhar dal, which is also known as _____.
(a) Pigeon Pea
(b) Black-eyed Pea
(c) Sweet Pea
(d) Split Pea

15. NASA’s Kepler mission discovered the first Earth-size planets orbiting a sun-like star outside our solar system. These planets are called ___ and____.
(a) Kepler-20e; Kepler-20f
(b) Kepler-20a; Kepler-20b
(c) Kepler-20c; Kepler-20d
(d) Kepler-20m; Kepler-20n

16. Name the gene found by the neuroscientists, which could help in creating and altering memory.
(a) Mpas4
(b) Npas4
(c) Npas3
(d) Mpas2

17. As per the report compiled by British-based firm Maplecroft, which one of the following countries is top greenhouse gas emitter?
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) China
(d) Japan

18. Scientists produced artificial human semen to help infertile men.
Consider the following statements:
(i) The scientists grew the sperm by enveloping the germ cells in a special compound called agar jelly.
(ii) The artificial human semen could help infertile men father their own children.
Choose the right option:
(a) Both i and ii are correct.
(b) Only i is correct.
(c) Only ii is correct.
(d) Neither i nor ii is correct.

19. India registered a __ per cent increase in tiger population in 2010, according to a report, Status of tigers, co-predators and prey in India-2010, released on 28 July 2011.
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 15
(d) 12

20. A Japanese supercomputer, K Computer built by Fujitsu Co. grabbed the title of world’s bestperforming machine thereby returning Japan to the top of the computer arms race for the first
time in seven years. Which is the other name by which K Computer is known?
(a) Earth Simulator
(b) Riken
(c) Jaguar
(d) Tianhe-1A

Computer Knowledge:

1. In UNIX, which command is used to change the protection mode of files starting with the string emp and ending with 1, 2 or 3 ?
(A) Chmod u+x emp[1-3]
(B) Chmod 777 emp*
(C) Chmod u+r ??? emp
(D) Chmod 222 emp ?
(E) None of these

2. The variables which can be accessed by all modules in a C program, are known as
(A) Local variables
(B) Internal variables
(C) External variables
(D) Global variables
(E) None of these

3. Which computer memory is used for storing programs and data currently being processed by the CPU ?
(A) Mass memory
(B) Internal memory
(C) Non-volatile memory
(D) PROM
(E) None of these

4. A record that follws a group of related records and contains data relevant to those records is called as….
(A) Trailer record
(B) Traffic record
(C) Transaction record
(D) Transducer
(E) None of these

5. A type of semiconductor memory that usually has small capacity but very fast access is
(A) PROM
(B) RAM
(C) Scratchpad
(D) ROM
(E) None of these

6. ____ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers.
(A) Nanoscience
(B) Microelectrodes
(C) Computer forensics
(D) Artificial intelligence
(E) None of these

7.A single pole, single throw switch with one common line and one output line is
(A) Switch circuit
(B) SPDT switch
(C) SPST switch
(D) Star bit
(E) None of these

8.A one-bit signal that indicates the start of data transmission by an asynchronous device is
(A) Parity bit
(B) Status bit
(C) Zero bit
(D) Star bit
(E) None of these

9.__ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
(A) A process
(B) Software
(C) Storage
(D) Information
(E) None of these

10. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called
(A) programming
(B) processing
(C) storing
(D) organizing
(E) None of these

11. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to _____ data.
(A) present
(B) input
(C) output
(D) store
(E) None of these

12. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual print of the picture is considered
(A) data
(B) output
(C) input
(D) the process
(E) None of these

13. A circut with about 100 transistors fabricated on a single chip is called
(A) MCR
(B) MSI
(C) MIS
(D) RJE
(E) None of these

14. BD in computer terminology stands for:
a)Bit Data
b)Binary Digit
c)Blue-ray
d)All of the above

15 What is FTP?
a)File Transfer protocol
b)File Transmission Protocol
c)File Truncating Protocol
d)Final Transmission Protocol

16. The term ?TUX? is related with:
a)Google
b)Yahoo
c)Linux
d)Windows

17. An error in a program code is called:
a)Bug
b)Syntax
c)Mistake
d)All of the above

18. The heart of any computer system is:
a)I/O Unit
b)Hard disk
c)CPU
d)Memory

19. Which of the following is the fastest memory?
a)Cache
b)RAM
c)ROM
d)Registers

20. Laser jet is a/an …….. printer
a)Impact
b)Non-impact
c)Either a or b
d)DMP
BOB Aptitude-Reasoning

1. W walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 50 metres, again he. took a left tum and walked 30 metres. How far is he from the starting point?
(1) 80 metres (2) 100 metres (3) 130 metres (4) 50 metres (5) None of these

Directions (2-6): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below: 972 526 487 359 251

2. If the positions of the first and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?
(1) 359 (2) 972(3) 526 (4) 487(5) 251

3. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these

4. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?

(1) None (2) Two (3) One (4) Three (5) All five

5. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?
(1) 251 (2) 359(3) 487 (4) 526(5) 972

6. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?
(1) 972 (2) 526(3) 487 (4) 251(5) 359

Directions (Q. 7-9): In each of the questions below am given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II & 111. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

7. Statements: All chairs are keys. All keys are balloons. Some balloons are mirrors. Some mirrors are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are keys.
II. Some balloons are chairs.
III. Some mirrors are balloons.
1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only I I I follows 4) Only I I and I I I follow 5) All I , I I and I I I follow
Exp All keys are balloons. Some balloons are mirrors. A+1 No conclusion
All chairs are keys.+ All keys are balloons A+A=A All Chairs are balloons conversion Some balloons are chairs (1)Hence ii follows some balloons are mirrors (1)conversion Some mirrors are balloons (1)Hence iii follows
8. Statements: Some drums are posters. All posters are windows.
Some windows are tablets. All tablets are books. ,
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are drums.
II. Some books are posters.
III. Some tablets are drums
1) None follows 2) Only I follows’3) Only II follows 4) Only I I I follows 5) Only I and II follow
Exp Some drums are posters. All posters are windows =1+A=1=some drums are windows conversion some windows are drums 1 follows.
All posters are windows + some windows are tablets. =A+1=Hence no conclusion, neither ii nor iii

9. Statements: Some boxes are toys. Some toys are nails. Some nails are stores. Some stores are shops.
Conclusions:
I. Some shops are toys.
II. Some nails are boxes.
III. No shop is toy.
1) Only I follows 2) Only I I I follows 3) Only either I or I I I follows 4) Only II follows 5) None of these
Exp No conclusion followed by combination as 1-type statements cannot be combined However 1 and 11form a complimentary 1-E pair hence I or iii follows

10. A square garden has fourteen posts along each side at equal interval. Find how many posts are there in all four sides:
(a) 56 (b) 52 (c) 44 (d) 60
Exp 1. (b) Reqd no. of posts = 4 (at the corners) + 4 × 12 (in between on the sides) = 4 + 48 = 52

11. Average age of students of an adult school is 40 years.120 new students whose average age is 32 years joined the school. As a result the average age is decreased by 4 years. Find the number of students of the school after joining of the new students:
(a) 1200 (b) 120 (c) 360 (d) 240
Exp 2. (d) Let the original no. of students be x A.T.S. 40x + 120 × 32 = (x + 120)36 ? x = 120 ? Reqd no. of students after joining the new students = x + 120 = 240

12. When Rs 250 added to 1/4th of a given amount of money makes it smaller than 1/3rd of the given amount of money by Rs 100. What is the given amount of money?
(a) Rs 350 (b) Rs 600 (c) Rs 4200 (d) Rs 3600
Exp 3. (c) Let the given amount be Rs x A.T.S-x – (x/4-250)=100=x=Rs.4200 3

13. Find the least number of candidates in an examination so that the percentage of successful candidates should be 76.8%:
(a) 500 (b) 250 (c) 125 (d) 1000
Exp (c) No. of successful candidates = 76.8% of x x = total students= (768/10×100 x X) =96/125x which must be a whole no. ? the reqd least no. = 125

14. The number of times a bucket of capacity 4 litres to be used to fill up a tank is less than the number of times another bucket of capacity 3 litres used for the same purpose by 4. What is the capacity of the tank?
(a) 360 litres (b) 256 litres (c) 48 litres (d) 525 litres
Exp X/4 – X/3= 4=X= 48 l

15. A certain quantity of rice is spent daily for 30 students in a hostel. One day some students were absent as a result, the quantity of rice has been spent in the ratio of 6: 5. How many students were present on that day?
(a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 25
Exp (d) Reqd no. of students = 30 x 5/6 (30/x=6/5)

1. W walked 30 metres towards South, took a leit turn and walked 50 metres, again he. took a left tum and walked 30 metres. How far is he from the starting point ?
(1) 80 metres (2) 100 metres(3) 130 metres (4) 50 metres(5) None of these
Directions (2-6): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below: 972 526 487 359 251

2. If the positions of the first and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?
(1) 359 (2) 972(3) 526 (4) 487(5) 251

3. If 2 is added to the sum 1. W walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 50 metres, again he. took a left tum and walked 30 metres. How far is he from the starting point?

(1) 80 metres (2) 100 metres (3) 130 metres (4) 50 metres (5) None of these

Directions (2-6): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below: 972 526 487 359 251

2. If the positions of the first and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?
(1) 359 (2) 972(3) 526 (4) 487(5) 251

3. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these

4. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?
(1) None (2) Two (3) One (4) Three (5) All five

5. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?
(1) 251 (2) 359(3) 487 (4) 526(5) 972

6. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?

(1) 972 (2) 526(3) 487 (4) 251(5) 359

Directions (Q. 7-9): In each of the questions below am given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II & 111. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

7. Statements: All chairs are keys. All keys are balloons. Some balloons are mirrors. Some mirrors are desks.

Conclusions:

I. Some desks are keys.

II. Some balloons are chairs.

III. Some mirrors are balloons.

1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only I I I follows 4) Only I I and I I I follow 5) All I , I I and I I I follow

Exp All keys are balloons. Some balloons are mirrors. A+1 No conclusion

All chairs are keys.+ All keys are balloons A+A=A All Chairs are balloons conversion Some balloons are chairs (1)Hence ii follows some balloons are mirrors (1)conversion Some mirrors are balloons (1)Hence iii follows

8. Statements: Some drums are posters. All posters are windows.

Some windows are tablets. All tablets are books. ,

Conclusions:

I. Some windows are drums.

II. Some books are posters.

III. Some tablets are drums

1) None follows 2) Only I follows’3) Only II follows 4) Only I I I follows 5) Only I and II follow

Exp Some drums are posters. All posters are windows =1+A=1=some drums are windows conversion some windows are drums 1 follows.

All posters are windows + some windows are tablets. =A+1=Hence no conclusion, neither ii nor iii

9. Statements: Some boxes are toys. Some toys are nails. Some nails are stores. Some stores are shops.

Conclusions:

I. Some shops are toys.

II. Some nails are boxes.

III. No shop is toy.

1) Only I follows 2) Only I I I follows 3) Only either I or I I I follows 4) Only II follows 5) None of these

Exp No conclusion followed by combination as 1-type statements cannot be combined However 1 and 11form a complimentary 1-E pair hence I or iii follows

10. A square garden has fourteen posts along each side at equal interval. Find how many posts are there in all four sides:

(a) 56 (b) 52 (c) 44 (d) 60

Exp 1. (b) Reqd no. of posts = 4 (at the corners) + 4 × 12 (in between on the sides) = 4 + 48 = 52

11. Average age of students of an adult school is 40 years.120 new students whose average age is 32 years joined the school. As a result the average age is decreased by 4 years. Find the number of students of the school after joining of the new students:

(a) 1200 (b) 120 (c) 360 (d) 240

Exp 2. (d) Let the original no. of students be x A.T.S. 40x + 120 × 32 = (x + 120)36 ? x = 120 ? Reqd no. of students after joining the new students = x + 120 = 240

12. When Rs 250 added to 1/4th of a given amount of money makes it smaller than 1/3rd of the given amount of money by Rs 100. What is the given amount of money?

(a) Rs 350 (b) Rs 600 (c) Rs 4200 (d) Rs 3600

Exp 3. (c) Let the given amount be Rs x A.T.S-x – (x/4-250)=100=x=Rs.4200 3

13. Find the least number of candidates in an examination so that the percentage of successful candidates should be 76.8%:

(a) 500 (b) 250 (c) 125 (d) 1000

Exp (c) No. of successful candidates = 76.8% of x x = total students= (768/10×100 x X) =96/125x which must be a whole no. ? the reqd least no. = 125

14. The number of times a bucket of capacity 4 litres to be used to fill up a tank is less than the number of times another bucket of capacity 3 litres used for the same purpose by 4. What is the capacity of the tank?

(a) 360 litres (b) 256 litres (c) 48 litres (d) 525 litres

Exp X/4 – X/3= 4=X= 48 l

15. A certain quantity of rice is spent daily for 30 students in a hostel. One day some students were absent as a result, the quantity of rice has been spent in the ratio of 6: 5. How many students were present on that day?

(a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 25

Exp (d) Reqd no. of students = 30 x 5/6 (30/x=6/5)

of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?
(1) None (2) One(3) Two (4) Three(5) None of these
4. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?
(1) None (2) Two(3) One (4) Three(5) All five
5. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?
(1) 251 (2) 359(3) 487 (4) 526(5) 972
6. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?
(1) 972 (2) 526(3) 487 (4) 251(5) 359
Directions (Q. 7-9): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II & 111. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of t \h e given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

7. Statements: All chairs are keys. All keys are balloons.Some balloons are mirrors. Some mirrors are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are keys.
II. Some balloons are chairs.
III. Some mirrors are balloons.
1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only I I I follows 4) Only I I and I I I follow 5) All I , I I and I I I follow
Exp All keys are balloons.+Some balloons are mirrors. A+1 No conclusion
All chairs are keys.+ All keys are balloons A+A=A All Chairs are ballons conversion Some balloons are chairs (1)Hence ii follows some balloons are mirrors (1)conversion Some mirrors are balloons (1)Hence iii follows

8. Statements: Some drums are posters.All posters are windows.
Some windows are tablets.All tablets are books. ,
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are drums.
II. Some books are posters.
III. Some tablets are drums
1) None follows 2) Only I follows’3) Only II follows 4) Only I I I follows 5) Only I and II follow
Exp Some drums are posters.+All posters are windows =1+A=1=some drums are windows conversion some windows are drums 1 follows.
All posters are windows + Some windows are tablets.=A+1=Hence no conclusion,neither ii nor iii

9. Statements: Some boxes are toys. Some toys are nails.Some nails are stores. Some stores are shops.
Conclusions:
I. Some shops are toys.
II. Some nails are boxes.
III. No shop is toy.
1) Only I follows 2) Only I I I follows 3) Only either I or I I I follows 4) Only II follows 5) None of these

Exp No conclusion followed by combination as 1-type statements canot be combined However 1 and 11form a complimentary 1-E pair hence I or iii follows
10 A square garden has fourteen posts along each side at equal interval. Find how many posts are there in all four sides:
(a) 56 (b) 52 (c) 44 (d) 60

Exp 1. (b) Reqd no. of posts = 4 (at the corners) + 4 × 12 (in between on the sides)= 4 + 48 = 52
11. Average age of students of an adult school is 40 years.120 new students whose average age is 32 years joined the school. As a result the average age is decreased by 4 years. Find the number of students of the school after joining of the new students:
(a) 1200 (b) 120 (c) 360 (d) 240

Exp 2. (d) Let the original no. of students be x A.T.S. 40x + 120 × 32 = (x + 120)36 ? x = 120 ? Reqd no. of students after joining the new students = x + 120 = 240
12. When Rs 250 added to 1/4th of a given amount of money makes it smaller than 1/3rd of the given amount of money by Rs 100. What is the given amount of money?
(a) Rs 350 (b) Rs 600 (c) Rs 4200 (d) Rs 3600
Exp 3. (c) Let the given amount be Rs x A.T.S-x – (x/4-250)=100=x=Rs.4200 3

13. Find the least number of candidates in an examination so that the percentage of successful candidates should be 76.8%:
(a) 500 (b) 250 (c) 125 (d) 1000
Exp (c) No. of successful candidates = 76.8% of x x = total students=(768/10×100 x X)=96/125x Which must be a whole no. ? The reqd least no. = 125

14. The number of times a bucket of capacity 4 litres to be used to fill up a tank is less than the number of times another bucket of capacity 3 litres used for the same purpose by 4. What is the capacity of the tank?
(a) 360 litres (b) 256 litres (c) 48 litres (d) 525 litres
Exp X/4 – X/3= 4=X= 48 l

15. A certain quantity of rice is spent daily for 30 studentsin a hostel. One day some students were absent as a result, the quantity of rice has been spent in the ratio of 6 : 5. How manystudents were present on that day?
(a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 25
Exp (d) Reqd no. of students = 30 x 5/6 (30/x=6/5)
Placement Papers

Bank of Baroda English language

Direction (1 – 9) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The outside world has pat answers concerning extremely impoverished countries, especially those in Africa. Everything comes back, again and again, to corruption and misrule. Western officials argue that Africa simply needs to behave itself better, to allow market forces to operate without interference by corrupt rulers. Yet the critics of African governance have it wrong. Politics simply can’t explain Africa’s prolonged economic crisis. The claim that Africa’s corruption is the basic source of the problem does not withstand serious scrutiny. During the past decade I witnessed how relatively well-governed countries in Africa, such as Ghana, Malawi, Mail and Senegal, failed to prosper, whereas societies in Asia perceived to have extensive corruption, such as Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan, enjoyed rapid economic growth

What is the explanation ? Every situation of extreme poverty around the world contains some of its own unique cases, which need to be diagnosed as a doctor would a patient. For example. Africa is burdened with malaria like no other part of the world, simply because it is unlucky in providing the perfect conditions for that disease : high temperatures, plenty of breeding sites and particular species of malaria transmitting mosquitoes-that prefer to bite humans rather than cattle.

Another myth is that the developed world already gives plenty of aid to the world’s poor. Former U.S. Secretary of the Treasury, Paul O’Neil expressed a common frustration when he remarked about aid for Africa : “We’ve spend trillions of dollars on these problems and we have damn near nothing to show for it”. O’Nell was no foe of foreign aid. Indeed, he wanted to fix the system so that more U.S. aid could be justified. But he was wrong to believe that vast flows of aid to Africa had been squandered. President Bush said in a press conference in April 2004 that as ‘the greatest power on the face of the earth, we have an obligation to help the spread of freedom. We have an obligation to feed the hungry”. Yet how does the U.S. fulfill its obligation ? U.S. aid to fanners in poor countries to help them grow more food runs at around $ 200 million per year, far less than S1 per person per year for the hundreds of millions of people living in subsistence farm households.

From the world as a whole, the amount of aid per African per year is really very small, just $30 per sub-Saharan African in 2002. Of that modest amount, almost $5 was actually for consultants from the donor countries, more than $3 was for emergency aid, about $4 went for servicing Africa’s debts and $5 was for debt-relief operations. The rest, about $12, went to Africa. Since the “money down the drain” argument is heard most frequently in the U.S. it’s worth looking at the same calculations for U.S. aid alone In 2002, the U.S. gave $3 per sub Saharan African. Taking out the parts for U.S. consultants and technical co-operation, food and other emergency aid, administrative costs and debt relief, the aid per African came to grand total of 6 cents.

The U.S. has promised repeatedly over the decade, as a signatory to global agreements like the Monterrey Consensus of 2002, to give a much larger proportion of its annual output specifically up to 0.7% of GNP, to officially development assistance. The U.S.’s failure to follow through has no political fallout domestically, of course. because not one in a million U.S. citizens even knows f statements like the Monterrey Consensus, But no one should underestimate the salience that it has around the world. Spin as American might about their nation’s generosity, the poor countries are fully aware of what the U.S. is not doing.

1. Which of the following statement is TRUE about U.S. aid to the Sub-Saharan African countries ?

(a) the U.S. aid meant for of capital African does not reach the incumbent

(b) the U.S. aid to African coun tries is more than that for any other developing or under developed nation

(c) the U.S. aid for farmers in African Countries is $200 m. per year

(d) the donor country charges $5 per individual as the constancy charges

(e) U.S. has been contributing more than 0.7% of its GNP for development assistance (ANS)

2. President Bush’s statement in Press Conference in April 2004 indicates that …..

(a) the aid given by the U.S. to the poor countries is substantial and sufficient

(b) the spread of freedom cannot be achieved through financial aid

(c) feeding the hungry million outside the U.S. is not possible

(d) the U.S. on its own, assumes the obligation of helping the poor countries (ANS)

(e) U.S. has spent trillions of dollars on aid

3. The author has mentioned Ghana as a country with …….

(a) reasonably good-governance (ANS)

(b) corrupt leadership

(c) plenty of natural resources

(d) rapid economic growth

(e) none of these

4. The cases of malaria in Africa are mainly due to…………

(A) high temperature

(B) climatic conditions conducive for breeding

(C) malaria carriers’ liking for human blood in preference to that of cattle.

(a) None of these

(b) Only B & C

(c) Only A & C

(d) Only A & B

(e) All the three (ANS)

5. The purpose of the author in writing this passage seems to …………

(a) criticize USA for not providing adequate financial help

(b) make Africans realize their own problems

(c) analyze the actual quantum of aid against the perceived one

(d) highlight how American leaders are power-hungry

(e) none of these (ANS)

6. The author has given the example of Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan in support of his argument that …………

(a) corruption is the major culprit in the way of prosperity

(b) mis-governance hampers the prosperity of nations

(c) despite rampant corruption, nations may prosper (ANS)

(d) developed nations arrogantly neglect underdeveloped countries

(e) none of these

7. The remark of former U.S. Secretary of the Treasury, Paul O’Neil, is according to the author ……..

(a) a statement of fact

(b) not factually correct (ANS)

(c) an underestimation of U.S and

(d) a ruthless remark by an arrogant bureaucrat

(e) none of these

8. The passage seem to emphasize that the outside world has

(a) correct understanding about the reasonable aid provided by the USA to the poor countries

(b) definite information about what is happening in under developed countries

(c) stopped extending any financial aid to underdeveloped countries

(d) misconceptions about the aid given to the poor nations by developed countries

(e) none of these (ANS)

9. According to the Westerners the solution to eradicate poverty of African nations lies in ………….

(a) corruption

(b) improving their own national behavior

(c) misrule

(d) prolonged economic crisis (ANS)

(e) none of these

Directions (10-12) : Which of the following word/group of words is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.

10. extensive

(a) intensive

(b) abominable

(c) inherent

(d) rampant

(e) negligible (ANS)

11. prolonged

(a) immediate

(b) shortened

(c) brevity

(d) short-lived (ANS)

(e) narrow

12. myth

(a) reality (ANS)

(b) mystery

(c) misery

(d) misconception

(e) exaggeration

Directions (13-15) : Which of the following word/group of words is MOST NEARLY THE SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage ?

13. squander

(a) use economically

(b) spend wastefully (ANS)

(c) siphon judiciously

(d) donate generously

(e) donate with ulterior motive

14. modest

(a) humble (ANS)

(b) sufficient

(c) meagre

(d) sober

(e) unpretentious

15. obligation

(a) lip sympathy

(b) true empathy

(c) self pity

(d) conditional responsibility

(e) moral binding (ANS)

Directions (16-25) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error; the answer is (e) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

16. He was grateful (a) / to me for the help (b) / that I had extended for him (c) / in the hour of his need. (d) / No Error (e)

Ans : e

17. While undergoing a (a) / strenuous workout, (b) / he suffered a massive heart attack (c) / but luckily survival. (d) / No Error (e)

Ans : d

18. Taking care of yourself (a) / cannot be (b) / and should not be considered (c) / as a selfish thing. (d) / No Error (e)

Ans : b

19. The smooth and easier (a) / we allow people to navigate (b) / through any device at any place (c) / in the world, the better. (d) / No Error (e)

Ans : a

20. What really agonize them (a) / is the presence of (b) / an unwanted and unscrupulous (c) / member on the panel. (d) / No Error (e)

Ans : d

21. People express their expectations (a) / that their leaders should not (b) / resorting to (c) / corrupt practices and nepotism, (d) / No Error (e)

Ans : c

22. Asian culture will, (a) / sooner or later (b) / become international norm (c) / for entertainment industry. (d) / No Error (e)

Ans : d

23. The business lobby wanted (a) / he to take over (b) / as the new Chairman (c) / of their coveted Board. (d) / No Error (e)

Ans : b

24. He thinks that (a) / a popular magazine would like to (b) / know what are other topics most (c) / no people’s minds. (d) / No Error (e)

Ans : b

25. We as the editors of (a) / a popular magazine would like to (b) / know what are other topics most (c) / on people’s minds. (d) / No Error (e)

Ans : c

Directions (26-30) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.

(A) It is a general term used to describe over 200 individual diseases.

(B) The abnormal cells grow with-out any control, invade through normal tissue barriers and reproduce indefinitely.

(C) The word “cancer” comes from Latin, meaning a crab.

(D) These characteristics include development within any tissue of a malignant growth.

(E) A tumour was called cancer because of swollen veins around the area resembling a crab’s limbs.

(F) These diseases progress differently over a period of time and share certain characteristics.

26. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E (ANS)

27. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) A

(b) B (ANS)

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D (ANS)

(e) E

29. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) A (ANS)

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) None of these

30. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) None of these (ANS)

Directions (31-35) : In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.

31. Liberalization has removed all the legal ………. and ………….. flood-gates to multinational companies.

(a) hurdles …………. awarded

(b) barriere ………… opened (ANS)

(c) obstacles ……….. guarded

(d) manipulation ………. closed

(e) battles …………. threw

32. The ………. on some of the towns has created …….. among the residents of the other part of the country.

(a) attack ………….. ambition

(b) raid ………. awareness

(c) bombardment ……… panic (ANS)

(d) spell ……….. satisfaction

(e) shower …………. dampness

33. …………. to the popular belief that every astrologer nurtures blind faith in fate, our astrologer believes in

(a) Contrary …….. action (ANS)

(b) According ………. thoughts

(c) Bowing …………… present

(d) Proving …………. forecasting

(e) Pointing ………….. devotion

34. His ……….. has yielded him the …………. fruit.

(a) fate ……… undesirable

(b) efforts …….. unwanted (ANS)

(c) action ………. viable

(d) perseverance …………… desired

(e) emphasis ……. expected

35. His ………… contribution to the Tsunami relief fund was …………. by his staff members.

(a) meagre ………… admired

(b) spontaneous ………… nullified

(c) negligible ………… sanctioned

(d) noteworthy ………… improved

(e) generous ………… appreciated (ANS)

Directions (36-40) : For each statement there are three different sentences given below it. Pick out the sentence (s) that most appropriately conwey (s) the meaning of the statement The number of that sentence or combination of sentences is the answer.

36. I could not observe his unwillingness while donating to charity.

(A) I observed his willingness to donate to charity.

(B) I failed to detect his reluctance, if there was any, while he was donating to charity.

(C) I noticed his enthusiasm while donating to charity.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B (ANS)

(c) Only C

(d) Only A and B

(e) Only B and C

37. If you hesitate to participate freely and vigorously, your performance will be adversely affected.

(A) Participate freely and vigorously if you desire to demonstrate your full performance.

(B) Do not participate with reservations if you want your participation to be affected adversely.

(C) your free and vigorous participation is most likely to affect your performance adversely.

(a) Only A (ANS)

(b) Only B

(c) Only C

(d) Only A and B

(e) Only B and C

38. Who do you think will be able to handle the work effectively ?

(A) In your opinion, there is none who can handle the work effectively.

(B) Who, in your opinion, can handle the work effectively ?

(C) Can you name the person who, as per your assessment, can handle the work effectively ?

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(c) Only C

(d) Only A and B

(e) Only B and C (ANS)

39. How much you speak is less important than how well you speak ?

(A) The quality of your talk is less important than the quantum of your talk.

(B) How good you speak is as important as how much you speak.

(C) The quality of your talk as also the quantum are equally important.

(a) Only A and B

(b) Only B and C (ANS)

(c) All the three

(d) None

(e) Only A

40. All our efforts were wasted due to the negligence of the clients.

(A) The negligence of the clients was responsible for making our efforts futile.

(B) Our efforts would have been fruitful had there been no negligence on the part of the clients.

(C) The negligence of the clients saved all our efforts from being wasted.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(c) Only A and B (ANS)

(d) Only B and C

(e) All the three

Directions (41-50) : In the following passage, there are blanks. each, of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which Fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case,

New technology has led directly to (191) standards of living yet science tends to follow market forces as well as to (192) them, It is not surprising that the rich get richer in a continuing cycle of (193) while the poorest are often left behind. A special (194) should be made by the powerhouses of world science to address the unmet challenges of the poor. Ending (195) poverty can relieve many of the pressures on the environment. When impoverished households are (196), (197) on their farms, for example, they face less pressure to cut down neighboring forests in (198) of new farmland. Still, even as extreme poverty ends, we must not fuel prosperity with a lack of (199) for industrial pollution and the (200) burning of fossil fuels.

41. (a) visible

(b) declining

(c) Improved (ANS)

(d) amicable

(e) rigorous

42. (a) fail

(b) claim

(c) market

(d) avoid

(e) lead (ANS)

43. (a) wealth

(b) growth

(c) poverty

(d) improvement (ANS)

(e) economy

44. (a) effort

(b) care (ANS)

(c) practice

(d) occasion

(e) sanction

45. (a) marginal

(b) apparent

(c) superficial

(d) extreme (ANS)

(e) dismal

46. (a) abnormally

(b) less

(c) more (ANS)

(d) excessively

(e) unreasonably

47. (a) efficient

(b) meticulous

(c) careful

(d) dependent (ANS)

(e) productive

48. (a) view

(b) search (ANS)

(c) expectation

(d) lust

(e) place

49. (a) attitude

(b) mobility

(c) initiative

(d) concern (ANS)

(e) ease

50. (a) unchecked

(b) repeated (ANS)

(c) periodical

(d) occasional

(e) limited
Bank-of-Baroda-BOB Whole-Testpaper
Bank of Baroda Solved Previous Year Question Paper

This set of question paper contains questions on reasoning,banking related questions,general awareness,numerical aptitude and compure knowledge.

Reasoning:

1. In certain code DROWN is written as MXNSC. How is BREAK written in that code?
(1) LBFSC
(2) JBDSA
(3) JZDQA
(4) LZFQC
(5) None of these

2. Among M, N, T, R and D each having a different height, T is taller than D but shorter than M. R is taller than N but shorter than D. Who among them is the tallest?
(1) D
(2) T
(3) M
(4) R
(5) N

3. How many such digits are there in the number 5436182 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. What should come next in the letter series given below?
D D E D E F D E F G D E F G H D E F G H I D E F G H I J D
(1) D
(2) E
(3) F
(4) J
(5) None of these

5. The letters in the word MORTIFY are changed in such a way that the vowels are replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and the consonants are replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of the following will be the fourth letter from the right end of the new set of letters?
(1) S
(2) H
(3) G
(4) N
(5) None of these

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Leaf
(2) Flower
(3) Petal
(4) Fruit
(5) Tree

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Garlic
(2) Ginger
(3) Carrot
(4) Radish
(5) Brinjal

8. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ALPE using each letter only once in each word?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 24
(2) 48
(3) 32
(4) 72
(5) 64

10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHAMBERS each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

11-15. In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer :
(1) if only Conclusion I follows.
(2) if only Conclusion II follows.
(3) if either Conclusion I or II follows.
(4) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(5) if both Conclusions I and II follow.

Statements :
11. Some toys are desks.
Some desks are pens.
All pens are rods.
Conclusions :
I. Some rods are toys.
II. Some pens are toys.
(Ans : 4)

Statements :
12. Some tables are huts.
No hut is ring.
All rings are bangles.
Conclusions :
I. Some bangles are tables.
II. No bangle is table.
(Ans : 2)

Statements :
13. All stars are clouds.
All clouds are rains.
All rains are stones.
Conclusions :
I. All rains are stars.
II. All clouds are stones.
(Ans : 2)

Statements :
14. All windows are doors.
Some doors are buildings.
All buildings are cages.
Conclusions :
I. Some cages are doors.
II. Some buildings are windows
(Ans : 1)

Statements :
15. Some chairs are rooms.
All rooms are trees.
All trees are poles.
Conclusions :
I. Some poles are chairs.
II. Some trees are chairs.
(Ans : 5)

Banking Related Questions:

1. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposits from public
(2) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public
(3) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public
(4) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public
(5) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government

2. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(1) State Bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(2) A nationalized bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(3) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(4) RBl is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India
(5) None of the above

3. Interest payable on savings bank accounts is
(1) not regulated by RBI
(2) regulated by Sate Governments
(3) regulated by Central Government
(4) regulated by RBI
(5) regulated by Finance Minister

4. The usual deposit accounts of banks are
(1) current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
(2) current accounts post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(3) loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(4) current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
(5) current bill accounts and term deposit accounts

5. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are
(1) repayable after an agreed period
(2) repayable on demand
(3) not repayable
(4) repayable after death of depositors
(5) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank?s choice

6. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of
(1) both savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
(2) savings bank accounts and current accounts
(3) both savings bank accounts and loan accounts
(4) both savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
(5) both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

7. Which of the following is correct statement?
(1) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts
(2) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts
(3) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same
(4) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank
(5) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits

8. Mortgage is a
(1) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank
(2) security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(3) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(4) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(5) security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank

9. Which of the following is known as cross selling by banks?
(A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder.
(B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor.
(C) Insurance of cash against cheque presented by a third party.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Both (A) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

10. Financial inclusion means provision of
(1) financial services namely, payments, remittances, savings, loans and insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(2) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(3) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(4) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(5) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same

11. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid, it is called
(1) payment of the cheque
(2) drawing of the cheque
(3) canceling of the cheque
(4) dishonour of the cheque
(5) taking of the cheque

12. NEFT means
(1) National Electronic Funds Transfer system
(2) Negotiated Efficient Fund Transfer system
(3) National Efficient Fund Transfer solution
(4) Non Effective Fund Transfer system
(5) Negotiated Electronic Foreign Transfer system

13. Upper limit prescribed for RTGS transaction is
(1) Rs. 1 lac
(2) Rs. 2 lacs
(3) Rs. 5 lacs
(4) Rs. 50 lacs
(5) No upper limit is prescribed

14. Distribution of insurance products and insurance policies by banks as corporate agents is known as
(1) General Insurance
(2) Non-life Insurance
(3) Bancassurance
(4) Insurance Banking
(5) Deposit Insurance

15. In order to attract more foreign exchange the Government of India decided to allow foreign investment in LLP firms. What is full form of ?LLP? as used in this reference?
(1) Local Labour Promotion
(2) Low Labour Projects
(3) Limited Loan Partnership
(4) Longer Liability Partnership
(5) Limited Liability Partnership

16. Interest on Saving bank account is now calculated by banks on
(1) minimum balance during the month
(2) minimum balance from 7th to last day of the month
(3) minimum balance from 10th to last day of the month
(4) maximum balance during the month
(5) daily product basis

17. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalized bank is
(1) RBI
(2) NABARD
(3) LICI
(4) Government of India
(5) IBA

18. When the rate of inflation increases
(1) purchasing power of money increases
(2) purchasing power of money decreases
(3) value of money increases
(4) purchasing power of money remains unaffected
(5) amount of money in circulation decreases

19. A centralized databases with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is own as
(1) Investment Banking
(2) core Banking
(3) Mobile Banking
(4) National Banking
(5) Specialized Banking

20. The Unit Trust of India came into existence in
(1) 1960
(2) 1962
(3) 1964
(4) 1966
(5) 1968

General Awareness:

1. This Sikkim high court Chief facing impeachment on charges of corruption and judicial misconduct resigned on 29 July 2011. Identify him.
a. Justice PD Dinakaran
b. Justice V Ramaswamy
c. Justice Soumitra Sen
d. Justice P C Joshi

2. US credit rating was downgraded to__ from AAA by Standard & Poor?s.
a) AA+
b) A
c) A+
d) B+

3. Which Indian state on 11 August 2011 flagged off the first-ever consignment of certified organic food to be exported to the United States?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Rajasthan
d. Arunachal Pradesh

4. Tory Tan won the presidential election in Singapore to become the country?s___ President.
a) Sixth
b) Seventh
c) Fifth
d) Eighth

5. The European Union on 2 September 2011 announced a ban on oil imports from Syria. The European Union is an economic and political union of __member states.
a) 27
b) 22
c) 20
d) 16

6. Leila Lopes became the first woman from her country to be crowned Miss Universe on 12 September 2011 in Sau Paulo, Brazil. Which country does she belong to?
a. Ethupia
b. Angola
c. Ghana
d. Nigeria

7. Which one of the following nations declared the Indian Mujahideen terror group as a global terrorist organization?
a) USA
b) Pakistan
c) China
d) Australia

8. Wangari Maathai an environmentalist & first African woman to win a Nobel Peace Prize died on 25 September 2011 in Nairobi. Which African country did she belong to?
a. Ghana
b. Kenya
c. Euthopia
d. South Africa

9. World Tourism Day (WTD) is observed anually on 27 September. What was the theme for WTD 2011?
a. Tourism ? Linking Cultures
b. Tourism & Biodiversity
c. Tourism opens doors for women
d. Sport and tourism

10. IBSA summit concluded in Pretoria, South Africa. What is the full form of IBSA?
a) India Brazil South America
b) India Brazil South Africa
c) India Brazil Saudi Arabia
d) India Bangladesh South Africa

11. Who won the 2011 man Booker Prize for his short novel The Sense of an Ending?
a. Carol Birch
b. Patrick deWitt
c. Julian Barnes
d. AD Miller

12. Name the Irish poet and human rights activist who was named Ireland?s ninth president on 30 October 2011 after winning 57% of votes in the final count of the presidential election held on 27
October 2011.
a. Michael D Higgins
b. Mary McAleese
c. Douglas Hyde
d. Mary Robinson

13. IAEA Report stated that Iran carried out Nuclear Weapons-Related Activities. Where the report was released?
a) New Delhi
b) New York
c) London
d) Vienna

14. Recently, which one of the following nations was suspended by the Arab league?
a) Syria
b) Lebanon
c) Saudi Arabia
d) Jordan

15. The Arab League on 27 November 2011 imposed a set of sanctions against Syria for its failure to comply with the League mediated peace plan to end violence in the country. When was
Arab league set up?
a) 22 March 1945
b) 21 august 1945
c) 22 March 1946
d) 22 September 1950

16. Memogate scandal is related to which one of the following countries?
a) Pakistan
b) Sri Lanka
c) China
d) India

17. India and Pakistan on 25 January 2012 agreed to transit fee formula for Tapi gas pipeline project in New Delhi. Tasi gas pipeline project comprises
a) India, Pakistan and Tajikistan
b) India, Pakistan and Russia
c) India, Pakistan and Iran
d) India, Pakistan and Afghanistan

18. A massive avalanche claimed the life of more than hundred Pakistani soldiers on 9 April 2012. The incident occurred at which of the following places?
a. Eastern Karakoram mountain range
b. Southern Karakoram mountain range
c. Northern Karakoram mountain range
d. Southern Karakoram mountain range

19. Who did the World Bank appoint as its new president on 16 April 2012?
a. Jim Yong Kim
b. Robert Zoellick
c. Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala
d. Lumen Darcy

20. Amadou Toumani Toure, who was ousted from his position following a military coup, was the president of _ _ _ _ _ _
a. Tunisia
b. Azerbaijan
c. Mali
d. Maldives

Numerical Aptitude:

Find out the missing term
1. U, O, I, __ , A
A. E
B. C
C. S
D. G

2. If A’s height is 40% less than that of B, how much percent B’s height is more than that of A?
A. 3 1/3 %
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 66 2/3%

3. If 3x – 3x-1 = 18 then the value of xx is
A. 3
B. 8
C. 27
D. 216

4. If 1 is added to the denominator of a fraction, the fraction becomes 1/2. If 1 is added to the numerator of a fraction, the fraction becomes 1. The fraction is
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 3/4
D. 3/2

5. The difference between two positive integers is 3. If the sum of their squares is 369, then the sum of the numbers
A. 27
B. 29
C. 33
D. 81

Choose the correct alternative :
6. 6 : 18 : : 4 ?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16

7. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, “This man’s son’s sister is my mother – in – law”. How is the woman’s husband related to the man in the photograph.
A. Grandson
B. Son
C. Son – in – law
D. Nephew

8. If 5% more is gained by selling an article for Rs. 350 than by selling it for Rs. 340, the cost of the article is
A. Rs. 50
B. Rs. 200
C. Rs. 160
D. Rs. 225

9. A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days, B and C in 24 days, A and C in 36 days. If A, B and C work together, they will complete the work in
A. 4 days
B. 8 days
C. 12 days
D. 16 days

10. A train 108m long moving at a speed of 50 km/hr crosses a train 112m long coming from opposite direction in 6 seconds. The speed of the second train is
A. 48 km/hr
B. 54 km/hr
C. 82 km/hr
D. 66 km/hr

11. The simple interest on Rs. 1820 from March 09, 2012 to Many 21, 2012 at 7 1/2% rate will be
A. Rs. 22.50
B. Rs. 27.30
C. Rs. 28.80
D. Rs. 29

Find out the wrong term in the series :
12. 89, 78, 86, 80, 85, 82, 83
A. 83
B. 82
C. 86
D. 78

13. There are five different houses, A to E, in a row. A is to the right of B and E is to the left of C and right of A. B is to the right of D. Which of the house is in the middle?
A. A
B. B
C. D
D. E

14. A metallic cone of radius 12cm and height, 24cm is melted and made into spheres of radius 2cm each. How many spheres are there?
A. 108
B. 120
C. 144
D. 180

15. In a 100m race, A covers the distance in 36 seconds and B in 45 seconds. In this race a beats is
A. 25m
B. 20m
C. 9m
D. 22.5m

Computer Knowledge:

1.In a network, the computer that stores the files and process the data is named as
a) Server
b) Terminal
c) Modem
d) All of the above

2. Viruses are called that because
a) They are viruses
b) They can copy themselves and spread
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

3. Which of the can’t spread virus
a) An e-mail with attachment
b) A plain text mail
c) Downloading files over the web
d) None of the above

4. There is a new anti-virus software update available, when it is downloaded to your computer
a) Everyday
b) Only in the night
c) When you next switch on your computer
d) All of the above

5. Numbers are stored and transmitted inside a computer in
a) Binary form
b) ASCII code form
c) Alphabets form
d) Numerical form

6. CPU capacity can be measured in
a) BPS
b) MIPS
c) MHz
d) MPI

7. MPIS stands for
a) Million Instructions Per Second
b) Million Instructions Per Season
c) Monthly Instructions Per Second
d) Million Inputs Per Second

8. LAN speeds are measured in
a) BPS
b) KBPS
c) MBPS
d) MIPS

9. Modem speeds are measured in
a) BPS
b) KBPS
c) MBPS
d) MIPS

10. BPS stands for
a) Bits Per Second
b) Bits Per Season
c) Bytes Per Second
d) Bits Per System

11. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:
(A) proprietary
(B) open
(C) experimental
(D) in the public domain
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

12. A typical modern computer uses
(A) Magnetic cores
(B) LSI chips
(C) Magnetic tapes
(D) More than 1000 vacuum tubes
(E) None of these

13.ALU is called for _____ of a computer
(A) Heart
(B) Master dispatcher
(C) Primary memory
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these

14. A single dimensional array is called
(A) List
(B) Subscripts
(C) Matrix
(D) File
(E) None of these

15.How many types of drawing objects are available in drawing Tool Bar ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these

16.Data processing is___
(A) data collection
(B) similar to computer programming
(C) associated with commercial work
(D) akin to data coding
(E) None of these

17.In computer terminology, information means
(A) Raw data
(B) Data in more useful
(C) Alphanumeric data
(D) Program
(E) None of these

18.What is meant by the term RAM?
(A) Memory which can only be read
(B) Memory which can be both read and written to
(C) Memory which is used for permanent storage
(D) Memory which can only be written to
(E) None of these

19. In UNIX, which command is used to sort the lines of data in a file in reverse order
(A) sort
(B) sh
(C) st
(D) sort ?r
(E) None of these

20. The commonly used UNIX commands like date, ls, cat etc. are stored in
(A) /dev directory
(B) /bin directory
(C) /tmp directory
(D) /unix directory
(E) None of these

 

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