Axis Bank Placement Paper

Axis Bank Placement Paper

1. An account holder draws a cheque on a?
(1) Banker of the Payee
(2) Banker of the Drawee
(3) Banker of the Drawer
(4) Banker of the Endorsee
(5) None of the above

2. The Bank should comply and intimate the compliance of Award to Ombudsman?
(1) Within Two Months
(2) Within 3 months
(3) Within one month
(4) Within one year
(5) None

3. Capital adequacy is worked out based on?
(1) Total demand and time liabilities
(2) Net demand and time assets
(3) Risk weighted assets
(4) Risk weighted liabilities
(5) None of the above

4. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) can be maintained in the following ways?
(1) Cash
(2) Gold
(3) Unencumbered approved securities
(4) All of these
(5) None of the above

5. What was the deposits criteria of 14 Banks nationalized on 19th July 1969?
(1) Rs.1000 Crore
(2) Rs. 500 Crore
(3) Rs. 100 Crore
(4) Rs. 50 Crore
(5) None of the above

6. What are the features of selective credit control?
(1) They distinguish between essential and non-essential uses of Bank credit
(2) Only non-essential uses are brought under the scope of Credit Bank controls
(3) They effect not only the lenders but also the borrowers
(4) All the above
(5) None of the above

7. Which of the following are the targets for different categories of priority sector?
(1) Overall target 40% of net Bank credit
(2) Agriculture loans (direct and indirect) 18%
(3) Priority sector target for foreign Banks is 32%
(4) All the above
(5) None of the above

8. Benefits in core Banking is ?
(1) Reliable centralized data recovery
(2) Data warehousing and data mining technologies
(3) Integrated customer centric services
(4) All the above
(5)None

9. Cheque truncation can be done by?
(1) Using MICR data
(2) Sending cheque by speed post
(3) Using image processing
(4) 1 & 3
(5) None of the above

10. Bank rate is decided by?
(1) Indian bank association
(2) Individual commercial bank
(3) Finance ministry
(4) Any one of the above can decide
(5) None of the above

11. What is nomination?
(1) A facility given to depositors by the Government
(2) It confers a right to the nominee to receive payment of a deposit after death of depositors
(3) It is a process of appointing legal heir by the depositors
(4) It is a part of will on behalf of a depositor
(5) None of the above

12. BFS- Board for Financial Supervision constituted in 1994 by RBI to undertake consolidated supervision of?
(1) Commercial Banks
(2) Financial Institutions
(3) Non Banking Finance Companies
(4) All the above
(5) None of the above

13. ‘One Family one Bank’ is the tagline of which Bank?
(1) Bank of India
(2) Indian Bank
(3) Bank of Maharashtra
(4) Union Bank of India
(5) None of the above

14. Research Institutions set up by Reserve Bank of India are?
(1) IDRBT (Institute for Development and Research in Ban- king Technology), Hyderabad
(2) IGIDR(Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research), Mumbai
(3) NIBM (National Institute of Bank Management), Pune
(4) Only a & b
(5) All the above

15. Who is the Chairman of the Technical Committee formed to make a study on improvement in Mobile Banking:
(1) Bimal Jalan
(2) Rahuram Rajan
(3) B Sambamurthy
(4) Pulak Kumar Sinha
(5) None of the above

16. In ?NEFT? E stands for ?
(1) Election
(2) Email
(3) Enlisted
(4) Ecstasy
(5) Electronic

17. The Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA) issued by banks is offered to which of the following customers?
1) Farmers
2) Daily wage earners
3) Self Help Group members
4) Students
5) All the customers

18. What is the validity of ?Kisan Credit Card??
(1) 1 year
(2) 2 year
(3) 10 years
(4) 5 years
(5) 3 years

19. The Negotiable instrument is _____.
(1) Cheque
(2) Demand Draft
(3) Bill of Exchange
(4) All of the above
(5) Deposit Slip

20. The minimum paid up capital required for both small and payment banks is ?
(1) Rs 500 Crore
(2) Rs 50 Crore
(3) Rs 100 crores
(4) Rs 200 Crore
(5) None of these

21. Bring out the only incorrect statement:
(A) Reserve Repo operation by RBI aims are injecting/increasing liquidity
(B) SDR refers to special drawing
(C) Rupee appreciation results in decrease in imports
(D) Increase in inflation rate leads to decline in real interest rate

22. What is a Repo Rate?
(A) It is a rate at which RBI sell government securities to banks
(B) It is a rate at which banks borrow rupees from RBI
(C) It is a rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market
(D) It is a rate which is offered by Banks to their most valued customers or prime customers
(E) None of these

23. Which of the following cannot be called as a Debt Instrument as referred in financial transactions?
(A) Certificate of Deposits
(B) Bonds
(C) Stocks
(D) Commercial Papers
(E) Loans

24. Whenever RBI does some Open Market Operation Transaction, actually it wishes to regulate which of the following?
(A) Inflation only
(B) liquidity in economy
(C) Borrowing powers of the banks
(D) Flow of Foreign Direct Investments
(E) None of these

25. The maximum amount of the total Revenue earned by the government of India comes from:
(A) Income Tax
(B) Customs Duty
(C) Excise Duty
(D) Value Added Tax
(E) Corporate Tax

26. In economics it is generally believed that the main objective of a Public Sector Financial Company like Bank is to:
(A) Employ more and more people
(B) Maximize total profits
(C) Maximize total production
(D) Provide financial service to the people of the nation of its origin across the country
(E) Sell the goods at subsidized cost

27. Capital Market Regulator is?
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI

28. Which is the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ ?
(A) Reliance
(B) TCS
(C) HCL
(D) Infosys
(E) None of these

29. What is Call Money ?
(A) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night
(B) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days
(C) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7 days
(D) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 14 days
(E) None of these

30. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of
(E) None of these
Axis Bank Aptitude Questions

Axis Bank Aptitude Test Questions

(1) The driver of a car diving @ 376 km/hr locates a bus 40 meters ahead of him. After 20 seconds the bus is 60 meters behind . the speed of the bus is:
(a) 36 kmph
(b) 20 m/scc
(c) 72 m/scc.
(d) 18 kmph
(e) None of these

(2) Two trains 100 meters and 120 meters long are running in the same directions with speed of 72 km/hr and 54 km./hr. in how much time will the first train cross the second?
(a) 50 Sec..
(b) 44 Sec.
(c) 38 Sec.
(d) 42 Sec.
(e) None of these

(3) A train overtakes two persons walking along a railway track. The first one walks at 4.5 km.hr . the other one walks at 5.4 km/hr. the train needs 8.4 and 8.5 seconds respectively to overtake them, What is the speed of the train if both the persons are walking in the same direction as the train?
(a) 66 km/h..
(b) 72 km/h.
(c) 78 km/h..
(d) 81 km/h..
(e) None of these

(4) A train 100 meter long takes 3 second to cross a man walking at the rate of 6km/hr in a direction opposite to that of the train. Find the speed of the train.
(a) 94 m/s
(b) 100 m/s
(c)110 m/s
(d) 108 m/s
(e) None of these

(5) Subbu starts from a point O at 10.00 am , overtakes Ajay, who is moving in the same direction, at 11.00 a.m. and Bhuvan moving in the opposite direction at 12.00 (noon). If the speed of Bhuvan is one fourth the speed of Subbu, at what time will Ajay and Bhuvan cross each other.
(a) 1: 30 pm.
(b) 2:pm
(c) 2:30 pm.
(d) Can not be determined
(e) None of these

(6) Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A is open all the time and B and C are open for one hour each alternately. Then the tank will be full in:
(a) 6 hrs.
(b) 6 hrs
(c) 7 hrs
(d) 7 hrs.
(e) None of these

(7) Two pipes A and B when working alone can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. A waste pipe C can empty the tank in 30 minutes.First A and B are opened After 7 minutes. C is also opened . In How much time will the tank be full ?
(a)1/60
(b) 1/30
(c) 7/20
(d) 13/20
(e) None of these

(8) Asmita invests an amount of Rs. 9535 at the rate of 4 per cent per annum to obtain a total amount of Rs. 11442 on simple interest after a certain period. For how many years did she invest the amount to obtain the total sum?
(a) 10 years
(b) 2 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 4years
(e) None of these

(9) Ms. Neelam deposits an amount of Rs. 16420 at simple interest and obtained 25451 at the end of 5 years. What was the rate of interest per year?
(a) 10.5%
(b) 13%
(c) 12.5%
(d) 11%
(e) None of these

(10) What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 3460 at the rate of 8.5 per cent per annum after 6 years?
(a) Rs. 1746
(b) Rs. 1764.6
(c) Rs.1766
(d) Rs.1756.4
(e) None of these

(11) Girish invested a certain amount at the rate of 8% p.a. for 6 year to obtain an amount of Rs. 28046.How much amount did Girish obtain as simple interest?
(a) Rs. 12550
(b) Rs. 9096
(c) Rs.18950
(d).Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

(12) What amount of compound interest can be obtained on an amount of Rs. 4500 at the rate of 4% p.a. at the end of 2 years?
(a) Rs. 360
(b) Rs.358.40
(c) Rs.367.20
(d) Rs.350
(e) None of these

(13) Ms. Maya deposits an amount of Rs. 17800 and obtained Rs. 31684 at the end of 6 years. What was the rate of simple interest per year?
(a) 14.5
(b) 11
(c) 12.5
(d) 13
(e) None of these

(14) What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 5580 at the rate of 6.5 % p.a. after 5 years?
(a) Rs. 684
(b) Rs. 689
(c) Rs.645
(d) Rs.698
(e) None of these

(15) Ms. Anurag Awasthi deposits an amount of Rs. 56500 to obtain a simple interest at the rats of 12% p.a. for 3 years. What total amount will Mr. Anurag Awasthi get at the end of 3 year?
(a) Rs. 1825
(b) Rs. 1813.50
(c) Rs.1827.50
(d) Rs.1819
(e) None of these

16. Successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 20% are equal to a single discount of __
(a) 57.6%
(b) 42.4%
(c) 50%
(d) 43.4
(e) none

17. The average of 13 papers is 40. The average of the first 7 papers is 42 and of the last seven papers is 35. Find the marks obtained in the 7th paper?
(a) 23
(b) 38
(c)19
(d) 33
(e) None of these

18. The number 0.05 is what percent of 20?
(a) 1.5
(b) 0.025
(c) 0.25
(d) 2.5

19. The cost of 16 articles is equal to sell price of 12 articles. The gain percent is ?
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 0.4 %
(d) 40%

20. A cloth merchant claims to sell is material at cost price but uses a scale which reads 1 meter for every 95 centimeter. Find the gain percent?
(a) 0.4%
(b) 52.6%
(c) 4 %
(d) 5.26%

21. A & B can do a piece of work in 21 & 24 days respectively. The started to work together but after some days BA leaves, B completes the remaining work in 9 days. After how many days does A leaves
(a) 7 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 3.5 days
(d) 14 days

22. Express 16 m/s into Km/hr
(a) 57.6
(b) 5.76
(c) 576
(d) 24.5

23. A man can row downstream at a rate of 14 kmpl & upstream at 9 kmpl. Find man’s rate in still water ?
(a) 11.5 kmpl
(b) 14 kmpl
(c) 9 kmpl
(d) 23 kmpl

24. The sum of the two numbers is 45 & difference of 2 numbers is 675. Find the number ?
a) 20, 25
b) 15, 30
c) 10,35
d) 12,13

25. A piece of cloth costs Rs 35. If the piece were 4m longer and each meter costs Re 1.00 less, the cost would remain unchanged. How long is the piece?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 15
Axis Bank Aptitude-Reasoning

Axis Bank Sample Paper

Reaoning Ability

1 .Direction : Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below :
N 8 B @ 5 A R ( 3 6 Y L » 3 A F $ 4 G £ ? T V 9 y a H 7 S J 1 © D
Four of the following five are similar in respect of their positions in the above sequence and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?
A. GVoc
B. YAG
C. @pL
D. $Ty

2 . Direction : Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below :
N 8 B @ 5 A R ( 3 6 Y L » 3 A F $ 4 G £ ? T V 9 y a H 7 S J 1 © D
How many symbol in the sequence are either immediately followed by a letter belonging to the first half of the English alphabet or immediately followed by a number ?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

3 . Direction : Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below :
N 8 B @ 5 A R ( 3 6 Y L » 3 A F $ 4 G £ ? T V 9 y a H 7 S J 1 © D
If the positions of the letters in the sequence are reoccupied by the letters theselves after getting arranged alphabetically from left, which of the following will indicate the position of ‘J’ in the arrangement ?
A. Between G and
B. Between 4 and £
C. 15th from the right
D. 7th to the left or R

4 . Direction : Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below :
N 8 B @ 5 A R ( 3 6 Y L » 3 A F $ 4 G £ ? T V 9 y a H 7 S J 1 © D
If the position of the letters in the sequence are reccupied by the letters themselves after getting arranged alphabeticallyfrom left, Which of the following will not change its position after the change ?
A. Only N
B. Only R and N
C. Only F
D. None of these

5 . Direction : Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below :
N 8 B @ 5 A R ( 3 6 Y L » 3 A F $ 4 G £ ? T V 9 y a H 7 S J 1 © D
What is the total number of ‘the numbers immediately followed by a letter’ and ‘the symbols immediately preceded by a letter’ together in the given sequence ?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 9
D. 12

6 . In a certa|n code language the word BREAKDOWN is written as DQGCJFQVP. How will the word MENSTRUAL be written1 in that code language ?
A. ODPRVQWZN
B. ODPUSTWZN
C. OPDUSTWZN
D. OPDUSWTZN

7 . Four of the following five are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ?
A. PKSOV
B. HPKTN
C. ARDUG
D. JTMXP

8 . If each alphabet is assigned a sequential numerical value in terms of even numbers on the basis of their position in the English alphabet, viz. A = 2, B = 4,C = 6 and so on, what will be the value of the word LOCATION ?
A. 180
B. 182
C. 186
D. 178

9 .Direction : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: Politicians turning into ministers is a natural transformation even if the quality of performance rarely matches expectations.
Assumptions: I. No ministers have adequate quality and, skills.
II. Ministers should be able to handle their job efficiently.

A. if only assumption I is implicit.
B. if only assumption II is implicit.
C. if either I or II is implicit.
D. if neither I nor II is implicit.

10 . Direction : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: Some ambitious political leaders themselves use grievances of minorities as empty slogans to grab political power.
Assumptions: I. Such leaders have no mass base nor genuine support, except for an occasional emotional upsurge.
II. Playing with the minority cards gives some leaders political berth but the status of their subjects remains unchanged.

A. if only assumption I is implicit.
B. if only assumption II is implicit.
C. if either I or II is implicit.
D. if neither I nor II is implicit.

11 . Direction : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Five Indian players Sachin, Bhutia, Leandef, Anand and Gopichand are related with the advertisement of different products of different companies ? Nike, Reebok, Pepsi, Coca Cola and Adidas ? , though not respectively . Sachin advertises neither for Sportswear nor for Rackets. Leander advertises for Shoes but not for the company Coca Cola. Pepsi and Adidas produce neither Diet Coke nor Sportswear. Gopichand advertises for the company Nike but neither for Mineral Water nor for Diet Coke. Bhutia and Anand advertise for Adidas and Pepsi, though not necessarily respectively. Coca Cola does not produce Mineral Water.

For Which product does Gopichand advertise ?
A. Rackets
B. Sportswear
C. Rackets or Sportswear
D. Data inadequate

12 . Direction : In the following questions, the symbols ?, ?, ?, ? and ? are used with the following meaning:

P ? Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P ? Q menas P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
P ? Q means P is not greater than Q
P ? Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P ? Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions. assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions l all ll given below them is/are definetely true.
Statements : M ? N, ll ? Q, Q ? M
Conclusions : l. ll ? M ll. Q ? N
A. if only conclusion l is true
B. if only conclusion ll is true
C. if only conclusion l or ll is true
D. if neither l nor ll is true

13 . Direction : In the following questions, the symbols ?, ?, ?, ? and ? are used with the following meaning:
P ? Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P ? Q menas P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
P ? Q means P is not greater than Q
P ? Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P ? Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions. assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions l all ll given below them is/are definetely true.
Statements : C ? B, l ? S, S ? C
Conclusions : l. B ? S ll. C ? L
A. if only conclusion l is true
B. if only conclusion ll is true
C. if only conclusion l or ll is true
D. if neither l nor ll is true

14 . Direction : In the following questions, the symbols ?, ?, ?, ? and ? are used with the following meaning:
P ? Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P ? Q menas P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
P ? Q means P is not greater than Q
P ? Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P ? Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions. assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions l all ll given below them is/are definetely true.
Statements : l ? H, E ? F, l ? F
Conclusions : l. E ? l ll. H ? E
A. if only conclusion l is true
B. if only conclusion ll is true
C. if only conclusion l or ll is true or if neither l nor ll is true
D. if both l and ll are true.

15 . Direction : In the following questions, the symbols ?, ?, ?, ? and ? are used with the following meaning:
P ? Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P ? Q menas P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
P ? Q means P is not greater than Q
P ? Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P ? Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions. assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions l all ll given below them is/are definetely true.
Statements : V ? O, R ? V, O ? B
Conclusions : l. R ? B ll. R ? B
A. if only conclusion l is true
B. if only conclusion ll is true
C. if only conclusion l or ll is true
D. if neither l nor ll is true

16 . Direction : In the following questions, the symbols ?, ?, ?, ? and ? are used with the following meaning:
P ? Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P ? Q menas P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
P ? Q means P is not greater than Q
P ? Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P ? Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions. assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions l all ll given below them is/are definetely true.
Statements : L ? U, T ? L, U ? W
Conclusions : l. T ? W ll. U ? W
A. if only conclusion l is true
B. if only conclusion ll is true
C. if only conclusion l or ll is true
D. if neither l nor ll is true

17 . Direction : In each question below, there are three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, HI and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements: a. Some chairs are tables.
b. All tables are keys.
c. All locks are keys.
Conclusions: I. Some tables are not chairs.
II. All keys are chairs.
III. Some locks are tables.
IV. Some locks are chairs.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. None of these

18 . Direction : In each question below, there are three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, HI and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements: a. All cups are books.
b. Some books are bikes,
c. No bike is a scooter.
Conclusions: l. Some books are cups.
II. Some bikes are cups.
III. Some cups are scooters.
IV. No cup is a scooter.
A. Only I follows
B. Only I and III follow
C. Only I and either III or IV follow
D. Either III or IV follows

19 . Direction : In each question below, there are three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, HI and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements: a. All stands are papers.
b. Some pins are papers.
c. All pins are phones.
Conclusions: I. Some phones are not papers.
II. Some stands are phones.
III. Some pins are stands.
IV. Some phones are not stands.
A. Only either II or III follows
B. Only I and II follow
C. Only either II or IV follows
D. Only I and II or IV follow

20 . Direction : In each question below, there are three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, HI and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements: a. No page is a copy.
b. Some cards are not rectangles.
c. Some copies are rectangles.
Conclusions: I. Some pages are not rectangles.
II. No rectangles are pages.
III. Some copies are not pages.
IV. Some rectangles are not pages.
A. Only either II or IV follows
B. Only IV follows
C. Only either I or II follows
D. Only III and IV follow

31 . Direction (Q. 1-5) : Read the following information and answer the questions that follow.
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are eight friends. There of them play Hockey and Tennis each two of them play Gold. They all are of different heights. The shortest does not play Hockey and the tallest does not play Gold. U is taller than P and S, but shorter than Q and W. T, who does not play Hockey, is taller than Q and is second tallest. V is shorter than S, but taller than P. W plays Tennis with S, and is fourth from the top. V does not play either Hockey or Gold. Q does not play Gold.

Who is the shortest ?
A. V
B. S
C. P
D. Data inadequate

32 . Who is the tallest ?
A. Q
B. W
C. R
D. Data inadequate

33 . Which of the following pairs of friends plays Golf ?
A. TU
B. TW
C. WU
D. None of these

34 . What is U’s position from the top, when they are arranged in descending order of their height ?
A. Fifth
B. Fourth
C. Sixth
D. Can’t be determined

35 . Which of the following groups of friends plays Hockey ?
A. RTP
B. RQU
C. RQP
D. RPU

36 . Direction (Q. 6-10) : Read the following in information to answer the questions:
‘P + Q’ means P is the father of Q.
‘P – Q’ means P is the sister of Q.
‘P x Q’ means P is the husband of Q.
‘P ÷ Q’ means P is the wife of Q.

Which of the following menas P is the mother-in-law of R ?
A. P ÷ V + T – W x R – S
B. P x M + N x R – S
C. P – S ÷ L + M x R
D. V x P – S ÷ L + M – R

37 . What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given expression to make ‘X is the great-aunt of Z’ definitely true ?
X – W ÷ V + Y ? L + M – Z
A. +
B. X
C. –
D. Either – or ÷

38 . Which of the following means ‘C is the niece of R’ ?
A. R + P – S + X + C – L
B. P – R + Q x S – C – N
C. B x R – P ÷ Q + C – M
D. R x S – Q – P ÷ M x C

39 . If P ÷ Q + R – C -s- W + L is true, which of the following is true ?
A. L is the niece of R.
B. Q is the maternal uncle of L.
C. P is the paternal great-aunt of L.
D. Q is the maternal grandfather of L.

40 . In a coded language “come at once mother very sick” is written as “XLNV ZG LMXV NLGSVI EVIB WJXP”. What is the code for ‘sister’ ?
A. WJWMXI
B. WJWGVI
C. WJWSVI
D. WJWLVI

Axis Bank Question Paper

English Language

Directions (1 to 5): In each of the following questions, a proverb has been given. Choose the correct alternative which expresses the meaning of the idiomatic expression.

1)To take with a grain of salt.
a. To take it lightly
b. To take with some reservation
c. Not to belief anyone
d. To take it on heart

2)To talk through one?s hat
a. To talk nonsense
b. To talk sensibly
c. To talk privately
d. To talk against someone

3)To be rolling money
a. Under debt
b. Going through financial loss
c. To give wrong advice
d. Very rich

4)To give up the ghost
a. To die
b. To have a bad dream
c. Encounter with a ghost
d. An impractical thinking

5)To wash one?s dirty linen in public
a. To talk nonsense in front of public
b. to act in a childish way
c. To discuss dirty and scandalous matters in public
d. To face humiliation in front of strangers

Directions (6 to 10): in each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative which can be substituted for the below given word/ sentence.

6)A senior Christian priest
a. Pastor
b. Preacher
c. Evangelist
d. Archdeacon

7)A person who dabbles in a subject for enjoyment
a. Drake
b. Dilettante
c. Estuary
d. Erudite

8)Intended to teach or give moral instruction
A. Didactic
B. Diction
C. Dictionary
D. Instructor

9)A political leader appealing to popular desires and prejudices.
a. Haranguer
b. Demagogue
c. Politician
d. Agitator

10)Fear of Needles
a. Belenophobia
b. Bibliophobia
c. Chionophobia
d. Cryophobia

Directions (11 to 12): In each of the following passages, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks appropriately.

11)Market share is 1. very important to a company, oddly sometimes more 2. than the bottom line. There is always great competition for new customers. Many times the efforts and resources devoted to 3. , marketing and selling to new customers are at the expense of a company?s loyal customer base. This can even be seen at the local level. Where I live heating oil companies 4. offer new customers a deal for the first year in order to lure them in. This, of course, is done at the expense of old, loyal customers who have to make up the slack.
The result is that many savvy oil customers these days do a lot of shopping each year to find the best deal 5. is a thing of the past. On a national level the problem has gotten even more serious. A recent financial story in The New Yorker last month observed that there is almost universal recognition that customer service in this country has deteriorated. Such service is considered a ?cost?. Companies are looking for the customers they don?t have so they are willing to spend on marketing and advertising but are not as interested in adding to their costs of service. The article made it sound a little like cynical dating. Companies are interested in luring you in but then once they have you; they don?t quite value you as much as the next 6. customer they want to corral.

1. a. Usually
b. Usual
c. Actually
d. Maybe

2. a. Crucial
b. Resourceful
c. Important
d. Required

3. a. Advert
b. Advertising
c. Loyalty
d. Branding

4. a. Consistent
b. Consistently
c. Consider
d. Regularly

5. a. Loyal
b. Marketing
c. Selling
d. Loyalty

6. a. Potential
b. Wanted
c. Important
d. Potent

12)Whether in politics, professional sports, or in business, ?players? 1. believe that because of their importance they can ride out any issue or problem. They can?t. We can all easily tick off a dozen or so examples, but the latest is surprising. Johnson & Johnson has 2. gone through a spate of recalls of tainted children?s Tylenol and Motrin. The Company has generally kept a low profile and even contracted with a third party to buy up Motrin off retail shelves rather than announce an actual recall. And for the last decade it has been settling with claimants for a variety of injuries and death allegedly due from Ortho Evra, a contraceptive 3. made by its subsidiary, Ortho McNeil. It appears clear that the current management of J&J has not followed in the footsteps of the management that handled the Tylenol crisis of 1982 which is 4. cited as the quintessential example of crisis management in modern corporate history. Back then cyanide had been found in bottles of Tylenol in the Chicago area. J&J immediately issued public warnings, issued a product recall, created tamper-proof packaging, and before long was back in business.The Company was up-front and willing to bite the bullet in the best interests of the public. Unfortunately that does not 5. to be the philosophy today. There is clearly a danger in believing one?s invincibility. The trust and respect of the public is at stake, and once lost, is very difficult to retrieve.

1. a. Yet
b. Still
c. Will
d. want

2. a. Recently
b. Just
c Not
d. Now

3. a. Area
b. Patch
c. Now
d. When

4. a. Commonly
b. Now
c. Even
d. Often

5. a. Seem
b. Likely
c. Appear
d. Wish

Directions (13 to 15): In the following question, out of the given group of words, choose the correctly spelt word.

13)A. Dramatize
B. Nany
C. Muzle
D. Myrle

14)A. Sady
B. Naphthalene
C. Narcism
D. Nailve

15)A. Fonde
B. Foly
C. Makish
D. Fondant

Directions (16 to 20): In the following questions, one of the four sentences given in each question is grammatically wrong. Spot the grammatically wrong answer.

16)A. One of the most difficult facilitation tasks is time management — time seems to run out before tasks are completed. Therefore, the biggest challenge is keeping momentum to keep the
process moving.
B. Develop the agendas together have key participants in the meeting.
C. Have someone designated to record important actions, assignments and due dates during the meeting.
D. Meeting management tends to be a set of skills often overlooked by leaders and managers.

17)A. Always start on time; this respects those who showed up on time and reminds late-comers that the scheduling is serious.
B. Always end meetings on time and attempt to end on a positive note.
C. As he has anticipated, an thundering iron gate fall nearby, barricading the entrance to the suite.
D. The curator felt a surge of adrenaline. How could he possibly know this?

18)A. An telephone was ringing in a darkness–a tinny, unfamiliar rings.
B. A collection of the world’s most famous paintings seemed to smile down on him like old friends.
C. Slowly, the fog began to lift.
D. His eyes focused now on a crumpled flyer on his bedside table.

19)A. The hostess began reading choice excerpts from the inane article, and Langdon felt himself sinking lower and lower in his chair.
B. I cannot presume the authority to stop him.
C. The hall erupted in laughter.
D. And if I find who one of you provides that article, I have the consulate deport you. ”

20)A. This photo takes less than an hour ago.
B. I cannot fully express my gratitude to the exceptional team
C. The spiked cilice belt that he wore around his thigh cut into his flesh, and yet his soul sang with satisfaction of service to the Lord.
D. A little over a year ago, Langdon had received a photograph of a corpse and a similar request for help.

Directions (21 to 25): Choose the correct sequence of the alternatives to form a logical and meaningful sentence.

21)A. Review the agenda at the beginning
B. And accept them.
C. of each meeting, giving participants a chance to understand all
D. proposed major topics, change them

a. ABCD
b. ABDC
c. ACDB
d. DCBA

22)A. Organizational performance involves the
B. monitor progress toward the goals,
C. recurring activities to establish organizational goals,
D. and make adjustments to achieve those goals

a. ADCB
b. ACBD
c. DCBA
d. CBDA

23)A. it’s very helpful to
B. regularly conduct assessments of the
C. Current performance of the organization.
D. When seeking to improve the performance of an organization

a. ABCD
b. DCBA
c. DABC
d. CBDA

24)A. whether explicitly or implicitly,
B. it helps to have some basis by which
C. Once you’ve conducted assessments of your organization,
D. To analyse the results.

a. CABD
b. DCBA
c. ADCB
d. ACBD

25)A. looking for ways to have their work make a
B. In my travels around the country providing workshops on the topic of working spiritually,
C. Difference and to feel energized in a richer way in their work.
D. I?ve found consistently that people are

a. DCAB
b. CBAD
c. BDAC
d. CABD

Directions (26 to 30): In each of the following questions, Keeping 1 and 6 sentences in a fixed order. Choose the correct alternative to decide the logical order between 1 and 6
sentences.

26)1. Operations management focuses on carefully managing the processes to produce and distribute products and services.
A. Major, overall activities often include product creation, development, production and distribution.
B. Related activities include managing purchases, inventory control, quality control, storage, logistics and evaluations of processes.
C. A great deal of focus is on efficiency and effectiveness of processes.
D. Therefore, operations management often includes substantial measurement and analysis of internal processes.
6. Ultimately, the nature of how operations management is carried out in an organization depends very much on the nature of the products or services in the organization.

a. ADBC
b. CDBA
c. DCBA
d. ABCD

27)1. Waiting time is the third generic service output.
A. The lower the waiting time, the higher the level of supply chain service.
B. Waiting time is defined as the amount of time the customer must wait between ordering and receiving products
C. In the personal computer industry, a consumer may visit an electronics or computer specialty store, make a purchase, and carry home a computer with literally no waiting time.
D. Alternative supply chains offer consumers and end users choices in terms of the amount of waiting time required.
6. Alternatively, the customer may order from a catalogue or via the Internet and wait for delivery to the home or office.

a. BCDA
b. CBDA
c. DCBA
d. BADC

28)1. Supply chains provide additional service outputs to their customers.
A. The point to keep in mind is that there is no such thing as a homogeneous market where all consumers desire the same services presented in the same way.
B. They may differ in terms of which services are most important and in terms of the level of each of the services desired to accommodate their needs.
C. For example, some consumers may require immediate availability of a personal computer while others feel that waiting 3 days for a computer configured to their exact requirements is preferable.
D. In addition to the four generic service outputs discussed above, other researchers have identified services related to information, product customization, and after-sales support as
critical to selected customers.
6. Additionally, customers differ in terms of how much they are willing to pay for services.

a. DABC
b. CBDA
c. DCBA
d. DBAC

29)1. The word hiring is sometimes used interchangeably with staffing, which does an injustice to the broad scope of activities involved in staffing.
A. Even before a new employee is hired to do a job, the job should be clearly designed or defined.
B. Job are usually designed by conducting a job analysis, which includes examining the tasks and sequences of tasks necessary to perform the job.
C. Hiring might be thought more specifically as screening the best job candidates, but especially making a formal job offer to the best candidate.
D. A job is a collection of tasks and responsibilities that an employee is responsible to conduct. Jobs have titles.
6. A task is a typically defined as a unit of work, that is, a set of activities needed to produce some result.

a. ADBC
b. BCAD
c. CBAD
d. CADB

30)1. The decision about what approach to take to training depends on several factors.
A. These factors include the amount of funding available for training, specificity and complexity of the knowledge and skills needed, timeliness of training needed, and capacity and
motivation of the learner.
B. Self-directed, informal learning can be very low-cost, however the learner should have the capability and motivation to pursue their own training.
C. Other-directed, formal training is typically more expensive than other approaches, but is often the most reliable to use for the learner to achieve the desired knowledge and skills in
a timely fashion.
D. Training may take longer than other-directed forms.
6. Highly specific and routine tasks can often be trained without complete, formal approaches.

a. ACBD
b. DCBA
c. CBDA
d. ABDC

 

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